soal 121 - 168

Question 1

121. What is depicted in the following contrasted axial
     Tl-weighted MRI (Figure 5.121Q)?

A. Vestibular schwannoma
B. Dural metastasis
C. Hemangiopericytoma
D. Meningioma
E. Astrocytoma

Answer 1

JAWABANNYA D

121. D. This contrasted, axial Tl-weighted MRI depicts
     an ovoid lesion centered over the left CPA, which enhances intensely and homogenously and is most consistent with a meningioma. Dural metastases are often multiple and may incite an adjacent inflammatory reaction. Vestibular schwannomas typically extend into the IAC, have areas of cyst formation, and often enhance heterogenously. Hemangiopericytomas cannot be differentiated from meningiomas on neuroimaging alone, but are more scarce then meningiomas (Ramsey, pp. 115-117).

Question 2

QUESTIONS 122-124
122. Refer to Figure 5.122-5.124Q. What is the diagnosis?

A. Neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF-1)
B. Neurofibromatosis type II (NF-II)
C. Tuberous sclerosis
D. Sturge-Weber syndrome
E. Wyburn-Mason syndrome

123. This disorder most commonly occurs with mutations of what chromosome?
     A. Chromosome 3
     B. Chromosome 9
     C. Chromosome 16
     D. Chromosome 17
     E. Chromosome 22
124. What is the incidence of this condition?
     A. 1 per 3000
     B. 1 per 10,000
     C. 1 per 20,000 to 50,000
     D. 1 per 80,000
     E. 1 per 100,000

Answer 2

JAWABANNYA

122-B;

123-E;

124-C.

Note the presence of multiple meningiomas
on this contrasted Tl-weighted MRI, which is most
consistent with NF-2, an autosomal dominant condition that results from mutations on chromosome 22. Multiple intradural spinal cord tumors are also common in this condition including ependymomas (most common), schwannomas, and meningiomas. The incidence of NF-2 is 1 per 20,000 to 50,000, while the incidence for NF-1 is approximately 1 per
3000 (Greenberg, p. 47).

Question 3

QUESTIONS 125-126
125. Refer to Figure 5.125-5.126Q. What is the diagnosis?

A. Retrocerebellar arachnoid cyst
B. Porencephaly
C. Dandy-Walker malformation
D. Mega cisterna magna
E. Chiari III malformation

126. The most common anomalies outside of the CNS occur
     in what system?
     A. Renal
     B. Pulmonary
     C. Gastrointestinal
     D. Endocrine
     E. Cardiac

Answer 3

JAWABANNYA

125-C;

126-E.

Note the cyst contiguous with the fourth ventricle,
the elevation of the torcula, and absence of all cerebellar tissue in this patient with a Dandy-Walker malformation. Dandy-Walker malformation is differentiated from other posterior fossa anomalies such as arachnoid cysts and mega cisterna magna by the presence of the vermis in these otheranomalies. Cardiac defects are common extra-CNS anomalies seen associated this disorder (Albright, pp. 134-139).

Question 4

QUESTIONS 127-128
127. A 28-year-old male presents with right leg weakness and the sagittal MRI depicted below (Figure 5.127-5.128Q). What should be the next diagnostic test performed?

A. Computed tomography (CT)
B. Magnetic resonance angiography (MRA)
C. Myelography
D. Angiography
E. Electromyography

128. What is the most likely diagnosis?
     A. Paraganglioma
     B. Ependymoma
     C. Gavernoma
     D. Arteriovenous malformation
     E. Hemangioblastoma

Answer 4

jawabannya

127-D;

128-D.

Note the presence of multiple flow voids on this
sagittal T2-weighted MRI, which is most consistent with a spinal arteriovenous malformation. The next diagnostic test performed should be an angiogram for better evaluation of the region of interest, arterial supply, and venous drainage of this malformation (Albright, pp. 1071-1087).

Question 5

129. Refer to Figure 5.129Q. What is the diagnosis?

A. Schizencephaly
B. Wyburn-Mason syndrome
C. Arachnoid cyst
D. Left parietal astrocytoma
E. Porencephaly

Answer 5

JAWABANNYA ; E

129. E. Note the porencephalic cleft lined predominately by gliotic white matter (Osborn DN, pp. 54-56).

Question 6

130. Refer to Figure 5.130Q. What is the diagnosis?

A. Ghiari I malformation
B. Chiari II malformation
C. Basilar invagination
D. Tuberous sclerosis
E. Pachygyria

Answer 6

JAWABANNYA : A

130. A. This sagittal MRI shows descent of the tonsils
     through the foramen magnum without other accompanying brain malformations, which is most consistent with Ghiari I malformation. Osseous abnormalities may be seen in up to 25% of all patients with Ghiari I malformation and include atlanto-occipital assimilation, platybasia, basilar invagination,
     and fused cervical vertebrae (Osborn DN, pp. 16-18).

Question 7

131. Refer to Figure 5.131Q. What is the most likely diagnosis (coronal contrasted Tl-weighted MRI)?

A. Herpes simplex encephalitis
B. Bacterial meningitis
C. Malignant glioma
D. Coccidioidomycosis
E. Lymphoma

Answer 7

JAWABANNYA : A

131. A. Herpes simplex encephalitis (HSE) typically results from infection with herpes simplex virus (HSV) 2 in neonates and HSV 1 in children and adults. Neonatal HSE is a diffuse encephalitis that is often hemorrhagic and causes significant morbidity and mortality. HSE that is caused by HSV 1 is usually a focal infection that involves the limbic system (temporal lobes, cingulate gyri, and insular cortex). HSE type 1 often shows subtle low density in the temporal lobes early in the disease course on GT scans and often exhibits hemorrhage later in the disease course. On MRI, early HSE type 1 exhibits
     hyperintensity within the temporal lobe on T2-weighted images and gyral enhancement on Tl-weighted images, as depicted here. Later in the disease course, contrast enhancement, subacute hemorrhage, and progressive limbic system involvement can be observed on MRI (Ramsey,
     pp. 157-160).

Question 8

132. Refer to Figure 5.132Q. What is the most likely
     diagnosis?

A. Metastatic disease
B. Multiple sclerosis
C. Multiple lacunar infarcts
D. Ganavan’s disease
E. Alexander’s disease

Answer 8

JAWABANNYA : B

132. B. Note the multiple periventricular white matter
     lesions without mass effect in this patient with multiple
     sclerosis (Ramsey, pp. 335-338).

Question 9

133. Refer to Figure 5.133Q. What is the most likely
     diagnosis?

A. Odontoid fracture
B. Atlanto-occipital dissociation
C. Hangman’s fracture
D. Condylar fracture
E. Transverse ligament disruption

Answer 9

JAWABANNYA : B

133. B. Note the longitudinal occipitoatlantal dissociation
     with a significant amount of surrounding soft tissue swelling (Harris, pp. 88-89).

Question 10

134. The atlantodental interval (ADI) does not usually
     exceed what length in an adult?
     A. 2 mm
     B. 3 mm
     C. 4 mm
     D. 5 mm
     E. 6 mm

Answer 10

JAWABANNYA : B

134. B. The ADI does not usually exceed 3 mm in an adult (Harris, pp. 20-22).

Question 11

QUESTIONS 135-136
135. Refer to Figure 5.135-5.136Q. What is the diagnosis?

A. Sacral lipoma
B. Meningocele
C. Myelomeningocele
D. Lipomyelomeningocele
E. Myelocystocele

136. This disorder often develops during faulty development
     of what embryologic stage?
     A. Secondary neurulation
     B. Disjunction
     C. Ventral induction
     D. Neuronal proliferation
     E. Cellular migration

Answer 11

JAWABANNYA :

135-B;

136-A.

This lumbar meningocele contains prominent
meninges and GSF, but lacks any neural tissue. It is most often the result of faulty secondary neurulation (4 to 5 weeks) where the notochord and mesodermal elements induce the formation of dura, pia, vertebrae, and skull (Osborn DN, pp. 12-13).

Question 12

QUESTIONS 137-139
137. Refer to Figure 5.137-5.139Q. What is the diagnosis (axial FLAIR MRI)?

A. Von Hippel-Lindau disease
B. Tuberous sclerosis
C. Sturge-Weber syndrome
D. Multiple metastatic tumors
E. Rendu-Osler-Weber disease

138. What is the inheritance pattern of this disease?
     A. Autosomal dominant
     B. Autosomal recessive
     C. X-linked
     D. Sporadic
     E. Pleiotropic
139. What is the most common neoplasm associated with this disorder?
     A. Subependymal giant cell astrocytoma
     B. Pilocytic astrocytoma of the optic nerve
     C. Meningioma
     D. Neurofibroma
     E. Cutaneous melanoma

Answer 12

JAWABANNYA :

137-B;

138-A;

139-A.

Note the presence of multiple regions of
increased signal intensity (cortical tubers) and the presence of subependymal nodules within the ventricular walls in this patient with tuberous sclerosis. It is inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion and is frequently associated with subependymal giant cell astrocytoma (15% of cases) near the region of the foramen of Monro (Osborn DN, pp. 93-98).

Question 13

QUESTIONS 140-141
140. What is depicted on this lateral angiogram (Figure 5.140- 5.141Q)?

A. Atherosclerotic changes
B. Developmental anomaly
C. Traumatic injury
D. Neoplastic process
E. Iatrogenic process

141. What should be the next course of treatment?
     A. Aspirin therapy and repeat angiogram in 3 months
     B. Warfarin therapy with a goal of keeping the INR > 2.0
     C. Carotid endarterectomy
     D. Carotid stent placement and anticoagulation
     E. No treatment

Answer 13

JAWABANNYA :

140-B;

141-E.

Note the anastomosis between the proximal cervical IGA and the vertebral artery on this lateral angiogram, depicting a proatlantal intersegmental artery (Osborn
DN, pp. 65-71).

Question 14

QUESTIONS 142-143
142. Refer to Figure 5.142-5.143Q. What is the diagnosis?

A. Osteomyelitis
B. Hemangioma
C. Eosinophilic granuloma
D. Osteoid osteoma
E. Metastatic disease

143. The next course of management should include
     A. A serum white blood cell count, sedimentation rate,
     and MRI
     B. A spinal angiogram
     C. CT-guided biopsy
     D. Flexion-extension views of spine
     E. No further intervention is necessary

Answer 14

JAWABANNYA

142-B;

143-E

. Note the classic “polka dot” appearance of this
hemangioma, which is most often an incidental finding that requires no treatment (Osborn DN, pp. 877-879).

Question 15

144. What is the appearance of an acute intracerebral
     hematoma on a T2-\veighted MPJ?

A. Hyperintense
B. Isointense
C. Similar to the appearance of GSF
D. Markedly hypointense to surrounding brain
E. Hyperintense to isointense

Answer 15

JAWABANNYA : D

144. D. Acute intracerebral hematomas are markedly hypointense to surrounding brain on T2-weighted MRI (Osborn DN, p. 166).

Question 16

145. What is the most common location for choroid plexus papillomas in adults?

A. Third ventricle
B. Lateral ventricle
C. Fourth ventricle
D. Cerebellopontine angle
E. Sylvian fissure

Answer 16

JAWABANNYA : C

145. C. The fourth ventricle is the most common location
     for choroid plexus papillomas in adults, whereas the lateral ventricle is more common in children (Ramsey, pp. 75-77).

Question 17

146. All of the following are common causes of a regionally thickened skull on imaging studies EXCEPT?

A. Paget’s disease
B. Meningioma
C. Fibrous dysplasia
D. Hyperostosis frontalis interna
E. Shunted hydrocephalus

Answer 17

JAWABANNYA : E

146. E. Shunted hydrocephalus, as well as chronic phenytoin therapy, can result in generalized skull thickening as opposed to regional or focal thickening (Osborn DN, p. 515).

Question 18

147. What is the most likely diagnosis in a patient with a long history of complicated asthma and the unenhanced sagittal Tl-weighted MPJ depicted below (Figure 5.147QJ?

A. Eosinophilic granuloma
B. Burst fracture
C. Epidural hematoma
D. Spinal lipomatosis
E. Osteomyelitis

Answer 18

JAWABANNYA : D

147. D. Note the prominent dorsal epidural fat (high signal intensity) in a patient with epidural lipomatosis and chronic steroid use for asthma (Osborn DN, pp. 885-887)

Question 19

QUESTIONS 148-149
148. Refer to Figure 5.148-5.149C:. What is the most likely diagnosis in an 8-year-old male without a history of trauma?

A. Hemangioma
B. Osteomyelitis
C. Eosinophilic granuloma
D. Giant cell tumor
E. Osteosarcoma

149. What would be the most likely appearance of this lesion on an axial GT scan?

A. A lytic lesion without surrounding sclerosis
B. A lytic lesion with surrounding sclerosis
C. An osteolytic lesion surrounded by expanded, thinned, eggshell-like cortical bone
D. A lytic area surrounding a central area of sclerosis
E. None of the above

Answer 19

JAWABANNYA :

148-C;

149-A.

Eosinophilic granuloma of the spine is most often seen as a lytic lesion without surrounding sclerosis and is the classic cause of a single collapsed vertebral body in patients between the ages of 5 and 10 years, as depicted here. Giant cell tumors are highly destructive, lytic masses in patients between the ages of 20 and 40 years, while hemangiomas have the characteristic “polka dot” vertebral body pattern (Osborn DN, pp. 877-886)

Question 20

150. What is the most likely diagnosis (Figure 5.150QJ?

A. Myelomeningocele
B. Caudal regression syndrome
C. Diastomyelia
D. Spondylosis
E. Spondylolisthesis

Answer 20

JAWABANNYA : B

150. B. Note the absence of the sacrum below S2 on this
     lateral plain radiograph depicting caudal regression syndrome, which results from faulty secondary neurulation (Osborn DN, p. 809).

Question 21

QUESTIONS 151-152
151. Refer to Figure 5.151-5.152Q, What is typically the initial treatment for this abnormality?

A. Anticoagulation
B. Superficial temporal artery to middle cerebral artery
bypass
C. High-flow saphenous vein bypass
D. Carotid stenting
E. Carotid endarterectomy

152. What is the diagnosis?
     A. Fibromuscular dysplasia
     B. Carotid artery dissection and pseudoaneurysm
     formation
     C. Tumor encasement of the internal carotid artery
     D. Atherosclerotic carotid artery disease
     E. None of the above

Answer 21

JAWABANNYA :

151-A;

152-B.

Note the marked narrowing of the proximal internal carotid artery (distal to the bulb) with a prominent, elongated, contrast-filled outpouching of the more distal part of the vessel. This patient has a carotid dissection with pseudoaneurysm formation. Typically, spontaneous dissection of the cervical carotid artery manifests with symptoms of headache (most common) and transient ischemic attacks or strokes. The mainstay of treatment includes anticoagulation,
although carotid artery angioplasty and stenting is a viable initial treatment option in select patients. Direct surgical repair is seldom warranted, although surgical options may include superficial temporal artery to middle cerebral artery bypass versus high-flow saphenous vein graft bypass, depending
on the intracranial blood flow deficit (Youmans,
pp. 1684-1686).

Question 22

153. What tumor is least likely to metastasize to the brain?
     A. Breast
     B. Lung
     C. Melanoma
     D. Prostate
     E. Renal

Answer 22

JAWABANNYA : D

153. D. The incidence of cerebral metastasis from prostate and gastric cancer is exceedingly low compared to lung, breast, renal, and skin (melanoma) cancer (Greenberg, p. 464).

Question 23

QUESTIONS 154-156
154. What abnormality is depicted (Figure 5.154-5.156Q)?

A. Klippel-Feil syndrome
B. Histiocytosis X
C. Basilar invagination
D. Os odontoideum
E. None of the above

155. This abnormality is often associated with all of the following conditions EXCEPT?
     A. Rheumatoid arthritis
     B. Chiari malformations
     C. Klippel-Feil syndrome
     D. Down’s syndrome
     E. Dandy-Walker malformation
156. Reference lines used to evaluate this condition may include
157. McRae’s line
158. Chamberlain’s line
159. McGregor’s line
160. Wackenheim’s clivus-canal line
     A. 1, 2, and 3 are correct
     B. 1 and 3 are correct
     C. 2 and 4 are correct
     D. Only 4 is correct
     E. All of the above

Answer 23

KANG SEBENARNYA SOAL INI ADALAH SOAL GAMBAR TAPI DI MASTERAN PDFNYA GA ADA EUY.. PUNTENNN NANTI DICOBA CARI DULU..

JAWABANNYA :

154-C;

155-E;

156-E.

Note the upward displacement of the odontoid process through the foramen magnum in this patient with Chiari II malformation (basilar invagination). Another pertinent finding on this MRI is the spinal cord
syrinx, which is partly seen behind the C7 and Tl vertebral bodies. There are several lines used to evaluate the craniovertebral junction including McRae’s line (line drawn across the foramen magnum), Chamberlain’s line (line from posterior hard palate to posterior foramen magnum or opisthion), McGregor’s line (line from posterior hard palate to most caudal point of occiput), Wackenheim’s clivuscanal line (line along posterior surface of clivus), Fischgold’sdigastric line (line joining digastric notches), and Fischgold’s bimastoid line (line joining tips of mastoid process). No part of the odontoid should be above McRae’s or Wackenheim’s line, while if more than 6 mm and 4.5 mm of odontoid lie above Chamberlain’s and McGregor’s lines, respectively, a cervicomedullary abnormality is likely to be present (Wilkins, pp. 3587-3591).

Question 24

157. A 53-year-old male underwent an uncomplicated right L4-5 microdiscectomy for an L5 radiculopathy. Approximately 5 weeks later the patient again developed right leg pain and weakness in a similar distribution to his preoperative symptoms. Pre- and post-contrasted Tl-weighted MPJ scans revealed a large soft tissue mass in the vertebral canal posterior to the L5 vertebral body. There was compression of
     the thecal sac and nearly complete obliteration of the epidural fat at that level. On the postcontrast image, a well-defined rim of enhancement was seen outlining the soft tissue mass. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Arachnoiditis
B. Postoperative scar formation
C. Recurrent herniated disc fragment
D. Synovial cyst
E. Epidural venous plexus

Answer 24

JAWABANNYA : C

157. C. The use of contrast material can often help differentiate a recurrent disc fragment from scar formation following a microdiscectomy. In general, only the peripheral margin of a recurrent herniated disc exhibits enhancement following surgery (as in this case), whereas, scar tissue often exhibits homogenous enhancement secondary to the abundance of granulation tissue present. The enhancement around the periphery of a herniated disc is thought to result from granulation tissue surrounding the disc, which develops because of the reaction to the disc. If arachnoiditis is present, the study often reveals clumping of the nerve roots around the peripheral margins of the thecal sac in a very characteristic pattern (see question 8.201). In a chronically herniated disc, the capillary ingrowth may extend through the herniated fragment and result in homogeneous enhancement, which is similar to the appearance of a scar, while with chronic retracted scars, there may only be peripheral enhancement. Therefore clinical history and physical examination are extremely important for accurate diagnosis (Ramsey, pp. 637-639).

Question 25

158. A 58-year-old male presents with a severe headache and left-sided hemiparesis. His CT scan is depicted below (Figure 5.158Q). What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Hypertensive hemorrhage
B. Ruptured middle cerebral artery aneurysm
C. Amyloid angiopathy
D. Vasculitis
E. Ruptured arterial-venous malformation

Answer 25

JAWABANNYA : A

158. A. Systemic hypertension often weakens blood vessels, which can rupture in the setting of acute elevations of blood pressure. Some implicate microaneurysms of deep perforating vessels (Charcot-Bouchard) in the genesis of these hemorrhages, although this remains controversial. This CT scan shows a characteristic putaminal hemorrhage secondary
 to hypertension (Ramsey, pp. 264-267).

Question 26

159. Refer to Figure 5.159Q. What is the diagnosis?

A. Enterogenous cyst
B. Schizencephaly
C. Arachnoid cyst
D. Pilocytic astrocytoma
E. Epidermoid tumor

Answer 26

JAWABANNYA : C

159. C. Note the cystic structure in the middle cranial fossa on the left that parallels CSF in signal intensity and is most consistent with an arachnoid cyst. Unlike tumors, it has no internal structure and does not enhance, although occasionally hemorrhage or a high protein count may complicate its appearance and make diagnosis difficult. It can be differentiated
     from epidermoid tumors by the fact that epidermoids
     engulf adjacent arteries and nerves, whereas arachnoid cysts displace them. Schizencephalic clefts are lined by heterotopic gray matter, whereas enterogenous cysts are rare intraspinal masses that occur even less often intracranially (Osborn DN, pp. 639-649).

Question 27

160. Refer to Figure 5.160Q, What is the diagnosis?

A. Eosinophilic granuloma
B. Giant cell tumor
C. Hemangioma
D. Parietal foramen
E. Osteosarcoma

Answer 27

JAWABANNYA : D

160. D. This skull radiograph demonstrates an enlarged
     parietal foramen, which is most often an incidental finding. In many instances, parietal foramina are no larger than a burr hole and rarely require treatment. Occasionally, they may be large enough to put the brain at risk of mechanical injury, and cranioplasty may be indicated (Albright, p. 214).

Question 28

QUESTIONS 161-162
161. What is depicted on the angiogram below (Figure 5.161- 5.162Q)?

A. Transtentorial herniation
B. Transalar herniation
C. Subfalcine herniation
D. Arterial-venous fistula
E. Persistent trigeminal artery

Answer 28

JAWABANNYA :

161-C;

162-E.

Note the abrupt ACA angulation as it returns
to the midline under the falx in this patient with subfalcine herniation. This angiographic appearance is usually caused by a holotemporal lobe mass and is described as a “square” ACA shift, as opposed to the “round” ACA shift often seen with deep frontal, insular, or basal ganglionic masses (less abrupt return of the ACA toward the midline) (Osborn DCA, pp. 314-325).

Question 29

QUESTIONS 163-169
Directions: Match each of the following HIV opportunistic infections and neoplasms with the most likely imaging characteristic, using each answer either once, more than once, or not at all.

A. HIV encephalopathy
B. Toxoplasmosis
C. Progressive multifocal encephalopathy
D. Primary CNS lymphoma
E. Cryptococcal disease
F. Cytomegalovirus
G. None of the above

163. Lacunar infarctions resulting from “gelatinous pseudocysts”
164. Asymmetric, multifocal areas of Tl and T2 prolongation in the periventricular and/or peripheral white matter without sparing of subcortical U fibers
165. Parieto-occipital involvement classically described, but lesions can also affect the basal ganglia, brainstem, and cerebellum
166. Symmetric patchy or confluent areas of high signal intensity on T2-weighted images involving the centrum semiovale; frontal predominance
167. “Eccentric target sign”
168. Characteristic rim of generalized periventricular
     hyperintensity on proton density-weighted images or fluidattenuatedinversion recovery (FLAIR)
169. Ependymal enhancement often nodular and irregular

Answer 29

JAWABANNYA

163-E;

164-C;

165-C;

166-A;

167-B;

168-F;

169-D.

Refer to
Table 5.163-5.169A (Ramsey, pp. 176-193; Greenberg,
pp. 232-233).

Question 30

QUESTIONS 170-171
170. Refer to Figure 5.170-5.171Q. What is the diagnosis?

A. Sphenoid wing meningioma
B. Optic nerve glioma
C. Hypothalamic hemartoma
D. Capillary telangiectasia
E. Ophthalmic artery aneurysm

171. This lesion is most often associated with
     A. Neurofibromatosis type 1
     B. Monosomy 22
     C. Tuberous sclerosis
     D. 1 to 3% risk of rupture per year
     E. None of the above

Answer 30

JAWABANNYA :

170-B;

171-A.

Note the presence of a left optic nerve glioma with diffuse enlargement of the optic nerve in this patient with NF-1 (unenhanced Tl-weighted MRI) (Osborn DN, pp. 553-559).

Question 31

172. What is the most likely etiology of the findings depicted on the CT scan below (Figure 5.172Q)?

A. Hemosiderosis
B. Intrauterine infection
C. Aqueductal stenosis
D. Severe closed head injury
E. Fahr’s disease

Answer 31

JAWABANNYA : b

172. B. This axial noncontrasted CT scan through the
     lateral ventricles and basal ganglia reveals a small, agyric brain with a relatively thin cortical mantle, bilateral calcifications, atrophy, and ventriculomegaly. These findings are most consistent with an intrauterine TORCH infection affecting sulcation and cellular migration (Osborn DN, pp. 44-46).

Question 32

QUESTIONS 173-174

173. What disorder is characterized by fused thalami, a monoventricle, a peripheral rim of undifferentiated cerebral tissue, severe craniofacial abnormalities, Polydactyly, and trisomy 13?

A. Semilobar holoprosencephaly
B. Lobar holoprosencephaly
C. Alobar holoprosencephaly
D. Septo-optic dysplasia
E. Arhinencephaly

174. This disorder results from failure of what embryologic stage?

A. Cellular migration
B. Diverticulation and cleavage
C. Cellular differentiation
D. Myelination
E. Induction

Answer 32

JAWABANNYA :

173-C;

174-B.

Alobar holoprosencephaly (AH) is the most severe
form of this disorder and consists of a monoventricle,
fused thalami and a peripheral rim of undifferentiated cerebral tissue. AH is associated with severe craniofacial abnormalities, renal dysplasia. Polydactyly, and trisomy 13. Lobar holoprosencephaly is the mildest form of this disorder and consists of a nearly complete falx with separation of the basal ganglia and absence of the septum pellucidum (Osborn DN, pp. 38-43).

Question 33

175. What is the most common location for spinal cellular ependymomas?

A. Cervical spine
B. Thoracic spine
C. Lumbar spine
D. Cauda equina
E. Conus medullaris

Answer 33

JAWABANNYA : A

175. A. The most common location for cellular spinal
     ependymomas is the cervical spine, while myxopapillary
     ependymomas are often in the region of the cauda equina (Osborn DN, pp. 906-910).