soal 1 - 40 Flashcards
- What tumor commonly exhibits high signal intensity on
T2-weighted images, low signal intensity on Tl-weighted
images, and high signal intensity (restricted diffusion) on
diffusion MR images?
A. Pineoblastoma
B. Glioblastoma
C. Arachnoid cyst
D. Epidermoid
E. Meningioma
Jawabannya D
- D. Epidermoids are usually located off of the midline along the basilar cisterns. These tumors often resemble GSF, and thus arachnoid cysts, on T l - and T2-weighted MRI. However, diffusion-weighted MRI is helpful in differentiating epidermoids from arachnoid cysts, because the former exhibit restricted diffusion (high signal, similar to brain parenchyma) and the latter exhibit normal diffusion (similar to CSF). Pineoblastomas, glioblastomas, and meningiomas are rarely confused with epidermoids (Osborn DN, pp. 633-635).
- A 12-year-old male presented with symptoms of ataxia
& diplopia and exhibited facial weakness, hemiparesis, and internuclear ophthalmoplegia on neurologic examination. His T2-weighted MRI (Figure 5.2Q) illustrates which of the following tumors?
A. Lymphoma
B. Choriocarcinoma
C. Yolk sac tumor
D. Ependymoma
E. Infiltrating astrocytoma
JAwabannya : E
- E. The most common brainstem tumor encountered in the pediatric population is an infiltrating astrocytoma. These are most commonly located in the pons (as in this case), and they are usually malignant. Pontine gliomas often present with cranial nerve palsies, extraocular muscle findings, and pyramidal signs. They rarely present with obstructive hydrocephalus, as this is usually a late finding that occurs after the tumors have grown considerably. Pontine gliomas are often hypointense on Tl-weighted images and hyperintense on T2-
weighted images, with variable enhancement. The prognosis for pontine tumors is much worse than for tumors located in the medulla or mesencephalon (Osborn DN, pp. 555-557).
- What MR sequence is the most sensitive in identifying
intracerebral cavernous malformations?
A. Tl-weighted D. Fast spin echo
B. T2-\veighted E. Diffusion
C. Gradient echo
JAWABANNYA : C
- C. Gradient echo sequences are the most sensitive in
identifying any intracerebral lesions that exhibit chronic
hemorrhage (such as cavernomas). Cavernomas often
exhibit a “reticulated core” of mixed-signal intensity on
Tl-weighted images due to the presence of hemorrhage of varying ages. These lesions also often exhibit a hypointense rim on Tl-weighted images, T2-weighted images, and gradient echo sequences that corresponds to hemosiderin deposits. Fast-spin echo sequences are T2-weighted sequences that are not very sensitive in the detection of chronic hemorrhage (Osborn DN, p. 313).
- What is the most common intracranial tumor associated
with neurofibromatosis type 1?
A. Optic nerve glioma D. Meningioma
B. Ependymoma E. Medulloblastoma
C. Neurofibroma
JAWABANNYA : A
- A. Optic nerve gliomas occur in 5 to 15% of all cases of
NF-1. The majority of these tumors are low-grade (pilocytic) astrocytomas, and they can occur bilaterally. These lesions are usually hypo- to isointense on Tl-weighted images and hyperintense on T2-weighted images with variable enhancement. Intracranial meningiomas are commonly observed in NF-2, and neurofibromas usually involve the spinal and peripheral nerves with NF-1 (Osborn DN, pp. 74-76).
- What surgical approach would be most suitable for a
patient with mild tinnitus and the lesion depicted in the
following enhanced Tl-weighted MRI (Figure 5.5QJ?
A. Retrosigmoid
B. Translabyrinthine
C. Middle fossa
D. Transpetrosal infratemporal fossa
E. Transcochlear
JAWABANNYA : C
- C. This postcontrasted Tl-weighted MRI study depicts an intracanalicular acoustic neuroma. Where there is an attempt to preserve the patient’s hearing, either the suboccipital or middle fossa approach is used, because the translabyrinthine or transcochlear approaches sacrifice hearing. The suboccipital (retrosigmoid) approach is the most commonly used procedure by neurosurgeons for lesions mostly located within the CPA. It provides excellent control of the lower cranial nerves, brainstem, and vascular
structures within the CPA. However, only the proximal twothirds of the IAC can be safely exposed without traversing the inner ear. The middle fossa approach allows access to the labyrinthine segment of the facial nerve without sacrificing hearing and is the procedure most commonly used for small intracanalicular lesions. The dura is elevated from the floor of the middle fossa and the labyrinthine segment of the facial nerve identified medial to the geniculate ganglion. Access to the posterior fossa and CPA is somewhat limited and retraction of the temporal lobe is necessary for exposure. The transpetrosal infratemporal fossa corridor is not typically used for CPA tumors but instead for tumors of the jugular foramen such as paragangliomas and meningiomas
(Bernstein, pp. 394-395, 430).
- This lateral internal carotid angiogram (Figure 5.6Q) illustrates
what persistent fetal circulation?
A. Primitive trigeminal artery
B. Persistent otic artery
C. Persistent hypoglossal artery
D. Proatlantal intersegmental artery
E. None of the above
JAWABANNYA : A
- A. The primitive trigeminal artery (PTA) represents a
persistence of the embryonic anastomosis between the cavernous segment of the internal carotid artery and the paired longitudinal neural arteries (vertebrobasilar system). The PTA is the most cephalad of the persistent fetal circulations; it is also the most common. The PTA is associated with an increased incidence of intracranial aneurysms. The
persistent otic artery originates from the petrous ICA, the persistent hypoglossal artery originates from the cervical ICA, and the proatlantal intersegmental artery can originate from the internal or external carotid artery (Osborn DCA, pp. 65, 91-93).
- Which of the following ratios is typically decreased with
primary CNS neoplasms on MR spectroscopy?
A. Myoinositol:total creatine
B. Cholines- a c e t y l aspartate
C. Choline:total creatine
D. Ar-acetyl aspartate:total creatine
E. Myoinositol:N-acetyl aspartate
JAWABANNYA : D
- D. Ar-acetyl aspartate (NAA) is a neuronal marker and is generally decreased in most CNS pathologic conditions. Total creatine is generally constant within the brain regardless of the presence of disease. Elevations of choline indicate increased plasma membrane turnover and synthesis, which is commonly observed with neoplasms. Thus, neoplasms are usually associated with decreases in NAA and elevations in choline and myoinositol (and lactate); total creatine is largely constant. The ratio of NAA to total creatine is thus decreased, whereas the ratios in A, B, C, and E are all increased with CXS neoplasms (Castillo et al., pp. 1-5).
- An 8-year-old female presented with symptoms of persistent headaches, nausea, and emesis for 1 week. The patient was somewhat lethargic and was noted to have a mild left hemiparesis on examination. Axial contrasted Tl-weighted MRI (Figure 5.8Q) illustrates what abnormality?
A. Pilocytic astrocytoma
B. Subependymoma
C. Choroid plexus papilloma
D. Hemangioblastoma
E. Medulloblastoma
JAWABANNYA : E
- E. Medulloblastomas are aggressive, primitive neuroectodermal tumors that occur primarily in the pediatric population. Medulloblastomas are found exclusively in the posterior fossa and usually reside in the midline (vermis). Occasionally these lesions are found in the lateral cerebellum, but this usually occurs in adults and older children. Medulloblastomas are aggressive tumors that frequently metastasize throughout the CNS via spinal fluid pathways. On MRI, medulloblastomas are generally isointense on Tl-weighted images, with variable signal on T2-weighted images and intense enhancement with contrast. The lesions usually occupy most of the fourth ventricle and are often associated with communicating hydrocephalus. The history and MRI findings in this case are most consistent with a medulloblastoma. Choroid plexus papillomas are predominantly supratentorial lesions in the pediatric population, and pilocytic astrocytomas are usually cystic. Subependymomas do not typically enhance, and they are found almost exclusively in adults. Hemangioblastomas are also rare in children and occur most frequently in the brain parenchymas (Osborn DN, pp. 613-618).
- Which of the following features is usually NOT observed with oligodendrogliomas on MRI?
A. Calcification
B. Hemorrhage
C. Cystic
D. Heterogenous signal on Tl-weighted images
E. Intense homogenous enhancement
JAWABANNYA : E
- E. Oligodendrogliomas generally exhibit mixed signal
intensity on Tl-weighted images and hyperintensity on
T2-weighted images with mild heterogenous enhancement. These lesions exhibit calcification 70 to 90% of the time, are often associated with cysts, and frequently have evidence of chronic hemorrhage (Osborn DN, pp. 564-566).
- Which of the following characteristics is NOT observed
in tuberous sclerosis (Bourneville disease)?
A. Autosomal recessive inheritance pattern
B. Cortical hamartomas
C. Subependymal giant cell astrocytoma
D. Cardiac rhabdomyomas
E. Mental retardation
JAWABANNYA : A
- A. Tuberous sclerosis (TS) is an autosomal dominant neurocutaneous disorder associated with the triad of seizures, mental retardation, and adenoma sebaceum. TS has variable expressivity and very high penetrance. Patients with TS often exhibit cortical tubers, subependymal nodules along
the lateral ventricles, and benign foci of ysmyelination in the deep white matter on MRI. Subependymal giant cell astrocytoma develops in 15% of all patients with TS; it frequently occurs near the foramen of Monro and typically presents with obstructive hydrocephalus. TS is also associated with retinal phakomas, subungual fibromas, cardiac rhabdomyomas, and aneurysms (Osborn DN, pp. 9 3 - 9 8 ) .
- What is the appropriate management of the lesion depicted
in this lateral internal carotid angiogram (Figure 5.HQ,)?
A. Repeat angiography in 6 to 12 months
B. Oral anticoagulation
C. No further treatment is required
D. Urgent surgical treatment
E. Follow up MRA in 6 to 12 months
JAWABANNYA : D
- D. This angiogram illustrates a dural arteriovenous fistula (DAVF) with prominent retrograde cortical venous drainage. Most DAVFs originate from the transverse and sigmoid sinuses along the skull base, although the cavernous sinus is also frequently involved. The presence of retrograde cortical venous drainage places the patient at significant risk for subarachnoid hemorrhage, and mandates treatment.
The treatment of DAVF usually consists of preoperative embolization followed by surgical obliteration of the nidus. Successful treatment entails disconnection of the cortical venous drainage from the nidus. Follow-up angiography may be appropriate with DAVF without retrograde cortical venous drainage but would be inappropriate in this case (Osborn DN, pp. 301-306).
- Which of the following locations is typically NOT
involved with diffuse axonal injuries?
A. Brainstem
B. Deep white matter
C. Cerebellum
D. Corpus callosum
E. Thalamus
JAWABANNYA : C
- C. Diffuse axonal injury most commonly involves the
corticomedullary junction of the frontal and temporal lobes or the corpus callosum. DAI can also occur in the deep white matter (usually at gray-white junctions), dorsolateral brainstem, caudate nuclei, thalamus, and internal capsule. DAI rarely involves the cerebellum (Osborn DN, pp. 212-214).
- A 12-year-old male presented with partial complex
seizures. The patient was neurologically intact. MRI revealed a cystic right mesial temporal lobe lesion that is hypointense to brain on Tl-weighted images and hyperintense on T2- weighted images, with mild rim enhancement. The most likely diagnosis is which of the following?
A. Ganglioglioma
B. Pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma
C. Pilocytic astrocytoma
D. Germinoma
E. Glioblastoma
JAWABANNYA : A
13. A. Gangliogliomas are generally cystic supratentorial tumors that present in pediatric patients with seizures or elevated intracranial pressure. They are most commonly located in the temporal lobes and are hypointense on Tlweighted
images and hyperintense on T2-weighted images,
with variable enhancement patterns. Pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma (PXA) can also present in children with epilepsy, although it is more typically found in a superficial location adjacent to the leptomeninges. PXA is usually cystic with an enhancing mural nodule. Germ cell tumors (including germinomas) are usually found in the pineal or parasellar regions, and pilocytic astrocytomas are usually located in the posterior fossa or third ventricle in children (Osborn DN,
pp. 580-581).
QUESTIONS 14-20
Directions: Match the following MR imaging characteristics with the appropriate intracranial hematoma. Some letters may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
A. Hyperacute (up to 4 to 6 hours)
B. Acute (7 to 72 hours)
C. Early subacute (4 -7 days)
D. Late subacute (1 to 4 weeks)
E. Early chronic (weeks to months)
F. Late chronic (months to years)
- Extracellular methemoglobin
- Oxyhemoglobin
- Isointense on T l , hypointense on T2
- Deoxyhemoglobin, echinocytes
- Hyperintense on Tl, hypointense on T2
- Isointense on Tl, hyperintense on T2
- Intracellular methemoglobin
JAWABANNYA :
14-D;
15-A;
16-B;
17-B;
18-C;
19-A;
20-C.
Refer to Table 5.14- 5.20A. The appearance of hyperacute hematomas (up to 4 to 6 hours) on MRI is due to the presence of large amounts of oxyhemoglobin, which is diamagnetic and does not influence Tl and T2 relaxation times. Hyperacute clots have a high
concentration of water, which renders them isointense
on Tl-weighted images and hyperintense on T2-weighted images. Acute hematomas (7 to 72 hours) consist primarily of deoxyhemoglobin, which is paramagnetic and has pronounced effects upon T2 relaxation times but no significant effects on Tl relaxation time. Acute hematomas are therefore isointense on Tl-weighted images and hypointense on T2-weighted images. The precise reason for the dramatic T2 effect remains unclear but is believed to result from phase dispersion and subsequent preferential T2 proton relaxation enhancement. During this stage, the red blood cells shrink, lose their spherical shapes, become trapped in blood vessels, and acquire irregular spiculated projections and form “echinocytes.” Early subacute hematomas (4 to
7 days) consist of intracellular methemoglobin, which is paramagnetic and renders subacute hematomas hyperintense on Tl-weighted images and hypointense on T2- weighted images. With late subacute hematomas (1 to 4 weeks), methemoglobin becomes mostly extracellular (secondary to hemolysis), resulting in a progressively more hyperintense clot on T2-weighted images. Early chronic hematomas (months) generally consist of a pool of dilute-free methemoglobin surrounded by a ferritin- and hemosiderin-containing vascularized wall. At this stage, clots are generally similar in appearance to late subacute clots (hyperintense on both Tl- and T2-weighted images), with a thin-rimmed wall of pronounced hypointensity on T2-weigh ted images (ferritin and hemosiderin deposits). With time (late chronic hematomas, months to years), ferritin- and hemosiderin-containing substances are further deposited throughout the clot, producing hypointense Tl & T2-weighted images (Osbom DN, pp. 154-172).
- A 38-year-old male presented with a 2-day history of
severe headache, photophobia, and emesis. On examination, the patient was neurologically intact. The patient’s CT scan is pictured below (Figure 5.21QJ. Which of the following is NOT necessary in the management of this entity?
A. Angiography
B. Cardiac monitoring
C. Monitoring of electrolytes
D. Hyperdynamic therapy
E. Monitoring for hydrocephalus
JAWABANNYA : D
- D. This GT scan illustrates perimesencephalic subarachnoid hemorrhage, which usually involves subarachnoid blood within the prepontine, interpeduncular, crural, or ambient cisterns. This is generally a benign entity, thought to result from rupture of a small vein. Angiography is required, however, because ruptured basilar apex aneurysms can exhibit a similar hemorrhage pattern. Patients with perimesencephalic hemorrhage can exhibit cardiac and electrolyte abnormalities. Although this disease is not associated with intraventricular hemorrhage, approximately 1% of cases can eventually develop hydrocephalus. Empiric calcium channel blockers, anticonvulsants, and hyperdynamic therapy is not indicated due to the rarity of vasospasm and seizures with this entity. Repeat angiography is controversial
and is generally not indicated if the diagnosis is clear
(Greenberg, pp. 793-795).