SMQT Quiz Flashcards
True or False?
The practitioner’s order alone is sufficient to warrant the use of the restraint.
False.
The practitioner’s order alone (without supporting clinical documentation) is NOT sufficient to warrant the use of the restraint. The facility is accountable for the process to meet the minimum requirements of the regulation including appropriate assessment
How often should the drug regimen of each resident be reviewed by a licensed pharmacist?
The drug regimen of each resident must be reviewed at least once a month by a licensed pharmacist.
The pharmacist must report any irregularities to the attending physician and the facility’s medical director and director of nursing, and these reports must be acted upon
What is considered significant weight loss or weight gain?
5% or greater in 1 month
7.5% or greater in 3 months
10% or greater in 6 months
At what temperatures should hot and cold foods be held?
Hot foods should be held at 135F or above
Cold foods should be held at 41F or below
True or False?
Freezing kills bacteria.
False.
Freezing does not kill bacteria. Rapid death of most bacteria occurs at 165 degrees F or above.
At what temperatures should dishes be washed and rinsed in a High Temperature Dishwasher (for heat sanitization)?
For High Temperature Dishwasher/ heat sanitization:
Dishes should be washed at 150F-165F
Dishes should be rinsed at 180F
At what temperatures should dishes be washed and rinsed in a Low Temperature Dishwasher (for chemical sanitization)?
For Low Temperature Dishwasher/ chemical sanitization:
Dishes should be washed at 120F
Dished should be rinsed with a 50 ppm (parts per million) final chlorine rinse
How should dishes be manually sanitized?
After manual washing and rinsing, dishes and utensils are sanitized by immersion in either:
Hot water (at least 171 degrees F) for 30 seconds; or
A chemical sanitizing solution used according to manufacturer’s instructions. Chemical sanitization requires greater controls than hot water sanitization. Manufacturer’s instructions must always be followed
What temperature range is considered the “Danger Zone” for food?
“Danger Zone” means temperatures above 41F and below 135F that allow the rapid growth of pathogenic microorganisms that can cause foodborne illness. Potentially Hazardous Foods held in the danger zone for more than 4 hours (if being prepared from ingredients at ambient temperature) or 6 hours (if cooked and cooled) may cause a foodborne illness outbreak if consumed.
At what internal temperature should food reach when reheated for resident consumption?
Food that is cooked and cooled must be reheated so that all parts of the food reach an internal temperature of 165 degrees F for at least 15 seconds before holding for hot service.
What size should a semi-private and private bedroom measure?
80 sq feet for semi-private
100 sq feet for private
What are the 3 components of Immediate Jeopardy?
- Non-compliance
- Harm or threat to resident health and safety/ serious adverse outcome
(Harm can be actual or potential harm) - Need for immediate removal
How long does the facility have to correct an Immediate Jeopardy once the survey team leaves the building?
The facility has 23 days allowed to correct the IJ once the survey team leaves the building
What happens if a facility does not implement an Immediate Jeopardy removal plan prior to the exit conference?
If the removal plan cannot be implemented prior to the exit conference of the original survey in which IJ was cited, the IJ continues until an onsite revisit verifies the date that IJ was removed
What are the 5 resident care areas that must be included in the initial pool?
At least one resident who Smokes, one resident who is receiving Dialysis, one resident on Hospice, one resident on a Ventilator, and three residents who are on Transmission-Based Precautions should be included in the initial pool for the team if available.
How many Resident Representative/Family interviews should be completed by the survey team?
The goal is to complete at least THREE RRI/family interviews across the team on the first day of the survey to be better informed for sampling decisions. You may call the resident representative/family, especially if you have observational concerns with a resident in the initial pool
How long does the facility have to complete the baseline assessment?
The facility has 48 hours to complete the baseline assessment upon admission
What is an indicator of malnutrition?
A low serum albumin level
Which of the following drugs ordered but not administered at least once would constitute a significant medication error?
Pepcid
Phenytoin
Periactin
Voltaren
Digoxin
Ativan
Carbamazepine
Theophylline
Phenytoin
Digoxin
Ativan
Carbamazepine
What are the 3 mandatory facility tasks assigned to all surveyors?
Dining
Infection control
Sufficient and competent nurse staffing
What are the mandatory facility tasks assigned by the TC?
Environment
Staffing
Infection Control
Kitchen/Dining
Beneficiary notification review
Medication administration
Medication storage and labeling (only if there is a problem with medication administration)
Resident council
What triggered facility tasks should be completed only if the team identifies concerns?
Personal funds
Resident assessment
Binding arbitration agreement
True or False?
Offsite selected residents and complaint/ FRI residents need to be screened for inclusion of the initial pool.
False.
All offsite selected residents (unless discharged) and any complaint/ FRI residents are to be included in the initial pool, and therefore do NOT need to be screened. (At least ensure they are in the building)
True or False?
Offsite selected residents and complaint/ FRI residents need to be screened for inclusion of the initial pool.
False.
All offsite selected residents (unless discharged) and any complaint/ FRI residents are to be included in the initial pool, and therefore do NOT need to be screened. (At least ensure they are in the building)
For any resident marked as non-interviewable, refused, unavailable, or out of the facility, what should you do?
For any resident marked as non-interviewable, refused, unavailable, or out of the facility, review the record for the following information:
Pressure ulcers
Dialysis
Infections
Nutrition
Falls in the last 120 days
ADL decline in the last 120 days
Low risk bladder and bowel (B&B)
Unplanned hospitalizations
Elopement
Change of condition in the last 120 days
What 3 closed record reviews must be included in the investigation?
Death
Hospitalization
Discharge
You are required to finalize the closed record selection before you can start the sample selection. These residents are not included in the total sample number.
What information can you share with the facility at the exit conference?
Do not discuss survey results in a manner that reveals the identity of an individual resident. If the provider asks for the specific tag, you should provide this information, cautioning that the tags are preliminary. Under no circumstances, should you provide the scope and severity for a given deficiency, unless it is an immediate jeopardy.
