SMLE study revision Flashcards

1
Q

post antibiotic C diff infection antibiotic?

A
oral vancomycin (or oral metronidazole)
severe infection with C difficle: creatinine \>1.5 or WBC \>15000 \>\> oral fidaxomicin (preferred)
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2
Q

scoring system for pneumonia?

A

CURB-65 sscore
C: confusion
U: urea >7 mmol/L
R: respiratory rate >30/min
B: blood pressure <90/60
Age >65

0-1: home treatment
2: admit
3-5: ICU

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3
Q

what is growing pain?

A

Growing pains most commonly occur in children 3–12 years old and manifest with episodic, bilateral pain that predominantly affects the lower extremities (shins, calves, thighs, popliteal fossa). The cramping pain most commonly occurs at the end of the day or during the night, ranges from mild to severe, and can awaken the child from sleep. Symptoms typically resolve by the morning and are not present during the day or during periods of activity. Growing pains is a clinical diagnosis because physical examination and diagnostic imaging show no abnormalities. Management consists of analgesics and massages, and reassuring patients and their parents of the condition’s benign nature.

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4
Q

urine electrolyte changes after 1-3 days of vomiting?

A

high urine sodium
high urine potassium
low urine Cl
alkaluria

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5
Q

urine electrolyte changes after vomiting for > 3 days

A

low urine Na
low urine K
low urine Cl
aciduria

vomiting leads to dehydration which will secrete ADH to reabsorb water and aldosterone to reabsorb sodium and secrete potassium and hydrogen ions

so urine will be low in sodium and high potassium and aciduria

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6
Q

earliest sign of rheumatoid arthritis on plain x ray?

A

juxta articular osteopenia
causing the classical hitch - hiker’s deformity

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7
Q

target INR for Afib, aortic and mitral valve replacement, VTE

A

Important target International Normalised Ratios (INRs) to remember include:

For patients with atrial fibrillation: 2-3
For patients with metallic valve replacements: 2-3 (aortic valve) 2.5-3.5 (mitral valve)
Following venous thromboembolism (VTE): 2-3
Note that for patients with a recurrent VTE whilst on Warfarin, the target INR should be increased from 2-3 to 3-4.

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8
Q

when to administer Anti-D

A

Anti-D prophylaxis should be administered during the 28th week of gestation and within 72 hours following the birth of an Rh-positive baby.

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9
Q

screening on celiac disease in patients with type 1 diabetes?

A

on diagnosis and every 2 years in asymptomatic patients

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10
Q

investigations of DIC:

A

Thrombocytopenia
Increased prothrombin time
Increased fibrin degradation products (such as D-dimer)
Decreased fibrinogen

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11
Q

treatment of giant cell arteritis:

A

Uncomplicated disease: oral glucocorticoids, e.g., prednisolone
Ischemic organ damage (e.g., impaired vision): Consider initial pulse therapy with IV glucocorticoids before oral glucocorticoids.
Pulse therapy with methylprednisolone
Oral glucocorticoids (initially, or following pulse therapy), e.g., prednisolone

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12
Q

types of rapid acting insulin:

A

aspart, lispro, glulisine

onset: 5-15 min
peak: 1 hour
duration: 3-4 hours

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13
Q

Types of short acting insulin and characteristics:

A

regular insulin
onset: 30 min
duration of action: 4-6 hours
standard insulin option for lowering blood glucose during hyperglycemic crisis
the only insulin given IV

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14
Q

types and characteristics of intermediate acting insulin:

A

NPH insulin
onset: 1-2 hours
duration: 10-16 hours
used for glucocorticoid induced hyperglycemia

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15
Q

Long acting insulin types and characteristics:

A

Glargine, detemir, degludec
onset 1-4 hours
duration 24 hours

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16
Q

When to give long term oxygen therapy in COPD patients:

A
  • PaO2 ≤ 55 mm Hg or SaO2 ≤ 88% at rest despite optimal medication
  • OR PaO2 55–60 mm Hg or SaO2 <90% in patients with pulmonary hypertension, CHF, or polycythemia
    Target oxygen saturation: > 90%
    Recommended duration: continuous oxygen therapy for ≥ 15 hours/day
    Reevaluate after 60–90 days (with ABG or pulse oximetry).
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17
Q

Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome

A

Aetiology
Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) is caused by a congenital accessory electrical pathway which connects the atria to the ventricles bypassing the AV node.

This accessory pathway leads to the potential for re-entrant circuits to form leading to supraventricular tachycardia

  • Features on ECG in WPW
    Delta waves (slurred upstroke in the QRS)
    Short PR interval (<120ms)
    Broad QRS
    If a re-entrant circuit has developed the ECG will show a narrow complex tachycardia

-Management of WPW
Radiofrequency ablation of the accessory pathway
Drug treatment (such as amiodarone or sotalol) to avoid further tachyarrhthmias. These are contraindicate din structural heart disease.
Surgical (open heart) ablation - rarely done and only used in complex cases
-Unstable pateints > cardioversion
-In patients with an orthodromic AV reciprocating tachycardia (narrow QRS complex with short PR interval) management is with vagal manoeuvres (carotid sinus massage or Valsalva manoeuvre) in the first instance. If this fails IV adenosine should be administered.
-Contraindications in WPW
Digoxin and NDP-CCBs (e.g. verapamil) are contraindicated for long term use because they may precipitate ventricular fibrillation.

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18
Q

which autoantibodies are associated with systemic sclerosis?

A
  • Anti-centromere antibodies are specific for limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis
  • Anti-Scl-70 antibodies are specific for diffuse systemic sclerosis
  • Anti RNA polymerase
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19
Q

Poor prognostic factor for pneumonia

A

Community-acquired pneumonia severity index (PSI) for adults
One point per year Age 62 pints
Pleural effusion (10 points)
Non for CBC or DM

A number of risk factors for mortality have been identified. Having two or three of the following variables have been associated with high risk in several studies:
Blood urea nitrogen> 20 mg/dL
Diastolic blood pressure less than 60 mmHg, and/or
RR 30 per minute.
plus
Confusion and
Age greater than 65 years constitute the CURB-65 score

Increasing age, presence of COPD and malignancy as comorbidities, hypothermia, tachypnea, PaO2/FiO2 ratio ≤250 mmHg, low Alb level, high BUN level and mechanical ventilatory support predict a worse prognosis;
Combination therapy should be considered for CAP

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20
Q

Common side effects of bupropion

A

Bupropion Common side effects
Headache, weight loss, dry mouth, trouble sleeping (insomnia), nausea, dizziness, constipation, fast heartbeat, and sore throat.
Diaphoresis (5% to 22%)
Constipation (8% to 26%),
Blurred vision (≤15%)

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21
Q

management of status epilepticus

A

-ABCDE approach
-Oxygen
-Ensure IV access
-Arterial Blood gas
-Bloods for glucose, FBC/UE/CRP,Calcium/Phosphate/Magnesium, drug levels if the patient is on anti-epileptic medications
-Anaesthetic review to ensure the airway is managed
-IV lorazepam 4mg
A second dose of lorazepam should be given if no response
-In the absence of IV access, PR diazepam or buccal midazolam can be administered.
-If the initial benzodiazepine fails, further anti-convulsants can be used:
Leviteracetam
Phenytoin
Valproate
-If seizures continue to persist, intubation and general anaesthesia is necessary.

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22
Q

most common causative agent of infective endocarditis

A

staph aureus

stept viridans post dental procedure
staph epidermidis infected peripheral venous catheter

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23
Q

smoking cessation management options

A

1- nicotine replacement therapy
gum, lozingens, patches, nasal spray, inhaler
Increases smoking cessation 1.5 times more than control.
Avoid with recent MI, arrhythmia, and unstable angina.

2- Bupropion
Increases smoking cessation rates about 2 times more than control.
*Avoid with seizure disorder and eating disorder. May be associated with suicidal ideation.
Safety in pregnancy is unclear.

3-Varenicline
Increases smoking cessation rates about 3.5 times more than control and almost 2 times more than bupropion.

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24
Q

SIRS diagnostic criteria

A

SIRS is diagnosed if ≥ 2 of the following 4 criteria are fulfilled:

  • Temperature: > 38°C or < 36°C
  • Heart rate: > 90/min
  • Respiratory rate: > 20/min or PaCO2 < 32 mm Hg
  • White blood cell count: > 12,000/mm3, < 4000/mm3, and/or > 10% band cells-
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25
Q

management of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis

A

Indications (presence of any of the following in a patient with cirrhosis and ascites):

  • Abdominal pain and/or tenderness
  • Fever > 37.8°C (100°F)
  • Ascitic fluid neutrophil count ≥ 250/mm3

Most common isolates: Escherichia coli, Streptococcus spp., Staphylococcus spp., and Klebsiella

Managemnet:
community acquired infection with no beta lactam antibiotic exposure: IV 3rd generation cephalosporin (cefotaxime)

hospital acquired infection: pipracillin tazobacam monotherapy

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26
Q

Autoimmune hepatitis serology

A

Patients present with the following signs and symptoms:

Jaundice
Fatigue
Loss of appetite
Hepatomegaly
Splenomegaly
Abdominal pain

Liver function test results
Liver function tests are usually deranged and indicate a hepatic pattern of disease such as Raised ALT and bilirubin with normal/mildly raised ALP.

Patients may have an IgG predominant hypergammaglobulinemia.

Type 1 - The commonest type. These patients have raised levels of anti-smooth muscle antibodies (80%), and antinuclear antibodies may also be positive (10%).
Type II - Less common but often more severe; anti liver/kidney microsomal antibodies type 1 tend to be positive.
Type III - Also less common, and often positive for anti-soluble liver antigen.

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27
Q

risk factors for recurrence of febrile seizure

A

Initial complex febrile seizure
Family history of febrile seizures
Initial febrile seizure with temperature < 40°C
Age of onset < 18 months [5]
Structural brain lesions, cerebral palsy

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28
Q

treatment of shoulder dystocia

A

1- McRobert manuver
Or all four position
2- traction with
-Wood’s screw manuver
-Robin manuver 2
3-Cleidotomy or symphysiotomy (division of the foetal clavicle or maternal symphysial ligament)
4-Zavanelli manoeuvre: replacement of the head into the canal and then subsequent delivery by caesarean section

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29
Q

causes of polyhydramnios

A

Excess production can be due to increased foetal urination:

Maternal diabetes mellitus
Foetal renal disorders
Foetal anaemia
Twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome
Insufficient removal can be due to reduced foetal swallowing:

Oesophageal or duodenal atresia
Diaphragmatic hernia
Anencephaly
Chromosomal disorders

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30
Q

What is mullerian agenesis?

A

Both of the Müllerian ducts fail to develop, leading to the absent or hypoplastic uterus, absent cervix, and vaginal agenesis (but functional ovaries)
Develop normal secondary sexual characteristics
Presentes with primary amenorrhea
Normal female karyotype
Investigation: testostrone.

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31
Q

at what age do you diagnose primary amenorrhea?

A

no spontanous uterine bleeding has occured by the age of 16 years or if patient hasnt menstruated after 2 years of thelarche
no evidence of breast development by age 14

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32
Q

primary amenorrhea

A

BREAT PRESENT, UTERUS PRESENT:
1- imperforated hymen >> monthly dysmenorrhea but absent bleed >> hematocolpus on ultrasound >> hymenectomy
2- vaginal septum >> MRI >> surgical correction
3-anorexia nervosa >> hypogonadotropic hypogonadism

BREAT PRESNET, UTERUS ABSENT:
1- Mullerian agenesis: (mayer rokitansky kvester hauser syndrome)
karyotypically female 46XX
absent fallopian tube, uterus, cervix, upper vagina.
patient developes secondary sexual characteristics, normal pubic and axillary hair.

2-Androgen insensitivity:
karyotypically male 46 XY
lack of androgen receptor function >> wolffian duct structure atrophy >> patients grow up as females
female secondary sexual characteristics are present (testes secrete estrogen)
normal male level of testostrone
no pubic or axillary hair
Tx: testes removal at age of 20

BREAST ABSENT, UTERUS PRESENT:
1- gonadal dysgenesis: Turner syndrome 45X >> streak gonads
2- hypothalamic pituitary failure: severe weight loss, excessive exercise, low body fat

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33
Q

Abnormal uterine bleeding normal parameters

A

frequency: 24-38
cycle to cycle variation: +/- 2/20 days
duration of flow: 4.5-8 days
volume: 5-80mL

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34
Q

Management of abnormal uterine bleeding:

A

ACUTE
1- Hospitalize if Hb <7g/dL, hemodynamically unstable
stabiliaze pateints who are hemodynamically unstable.
2- High dose progestrone only therapy is first line for heavy acute bleeding
3- IV conjugated equine estrogen:
4- Combined oral contraceptives
5- Oral progestrone
6- Tranesxamic acid
If there is no respose within 12-24 hours consider surgical managemnet
7- Dilation and currettage:
8- Balloon tamponade
9- Selevtive embolization
10- hysterectomy

CHRONIC: (>6 months)
1- NSAID: to normalize prostaglandin
2- Anti fibrinolytic therapy (Tranexamic acid)
3- Coordinate endometrial sloughing *best for anovulation* (oral medroxy progestrone acetate pr norethindrone)
4-Endometrial supression: (Levonorgesrel intrauterine system)

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35
Q

when is the anomaly scan normally performed for OBGYN?

A

18-20+6

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36
Q

Signs of placental separation and imminent placental delivery in third stage of labor?

A

Gush of blood

Lengthening of the umbilical cord

Ascension of the uterus in the abdomen

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37
Q

causes of oligohydramnios:

A

Uteroplacental insufficiency leading to intrauterine growth restriction. This may be due to maternal disease such hypertension or pre-eclampsia, maternal smoking and placental abruption.
Abnormalities with the foetal urinary system(amniotic fluid is derived mainly from foetal urine). Examples include renal agenesis, polycystic kidneys or urethral obstruction.
Premature rupture of membranes
Post-term gestation
Chromosomal anomalies
Maternal use of certain drugs (prostaglandin inhibitors, ACE-inhibitors)

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38
Q

side effects of progestin only hormone injection: Medroxyprogesterone acetate

A
  • Irregular breathing
  • Bone loss (gained back after stopping medication)
  • Doesnt cause weight gain.
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39
Q

Absolute contraindication to the combined estrogen and progesterone contraception:

A
  • Hypertension 140-159/90-99mmHg
  • Pregnancy
  • Acute liver disease
  • History of vascular disease: DVT, CVA, SLE,
  • Hormonally dependent cancer
  • Smoker age >35
  • Migraine with aura
  • Diabetes mellitus iwth vascular disease
  • Thrombophilia
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40
Q

Contraception during breastfeeding?

A

Depo provera injections/ progestrone only pills

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41
Q

what is the mode of action for emergency contraception? what are the medications used?

A

prevent ovulation
oral ulipristal acetate and levonorgestrel

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42
Q

screening for gestational diabetes: when to screen early?

A

-Second trimester (at 24–28 weeks): Recommended in all pregnancies
-Early screening (prior to 24 weeks) is recommended in women with risk factors
Gestational diabetes prior to pregnancy
Recurrent pregnancy loss
At least one birth of a child diagnosed with fetal macrosomia

Initial screening: 50-g, one-hour oral glucose challenge test
Blood glucose level should be < 135 mg/dl
If positive, patients are given the 100-g oral glucose challenge test as confirmation
Confirmation test: 100-g, three-hour oral glucose tolerance test (oGTT) ≥ 140 mg/dl–

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43
Q

Polycystic ovarian syndrome: clinical feature, Investigation:

A

Pathology:
1- Chronic anovulation: >> infertility, irrigular bleeding, endometrial hyperplasia and endometrial cancer
2- increase testrone >> increase LH, hirsutism
3- ovarian enlargement on ultrasound

CLINICAL FEATURE:

  • Menstrual irrigularities: anovulation and infertility, amenorrhea
  • Obesity >> sleep apnea
  • Non alcaholic fatty liver disease
  • Acanthosis negricans
  • Hirsutism

INVESTIGATIONS:
1- Hormonal profile:
- LH to FSH ratio high
-Progestrone low
-Androgen high
-Testostrone high
-Sex hormone binding capacity is high
- Estrol high
-Estradiol high

2- Ultrasound:
peripheral small fibers, necklace apperance, 3-10ml, dense stroma

TREATMENT:
1- Irregular bleeding: OCP
2- Hirsutism: OCP or spironolactone
3- Infertility: clomiphene citrate for ovulation induction or human menopausal gonadotropin or Letrozole. metformin can increase ovultaion

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44
Q

folic acid quantity for a healthy lady wants to conceive and with no prior disease or disorder

A

1mg
for average risk women supplements with 400micrograms per day/ 0.4mg
women at increase risk of NTDs (either due to prior pregnancy with NTD or seizure disorders) >> 4mg of folic acid daily

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45
Q

treatment of hyperemesis gravidarum

A

1- Pyridoxine (vitamin B6) and/or doxylamine
2- For refractory symptoms, add one of the following:
Diphenhydramine
Dimenhydrinate
Prochlorperazine
Promethazine
3- For refractory symptoms despite combination therapy above, add one of the following:
Metoclopramide
Ondansetron
Promethazine
4- Last resort: Add chlorpromazine or methylprednisolone.
Thiamine repletion (in patients with severe recurrent vomiting)

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46
Q

How to diagnose an Anembryonic pregnancy:

A

presentation: could be asymptomatic, loss of pregnancy symptoms, falling B-HCG
investigation:
- Gestational sac measuring >25mm and no visible embryo
- No visible embryo during a follow-up endovaginal ultrasound ≥ 11 days after confirming the presence of a gestational sac with a yolk sac
- No visible embryo during a follow-up endovaginal ultrasound ≥ 2 weeks after confirming the presence of a gestational sac without an embryo or a yolk sac

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47
Q

Treatment of abortion (inevitable, incomplete, missed abortion)

A

1- Expectant management (option for women < 14 weeks gestation): Surgical evacuation is usually recommended if evacuation does not occur after 4 weeks.
2- Medical evacuation
Misoprostol is used to induce cervical ripening and expulsion of the products of conception.
When available, pretreatment with mifepristone 24 hours prior is recommended.
3- Surgical evacuation (dilation and curettage)
Preferred method in septic abortion or if there is heavy bleeding or significant maternal disease, unstable patinets
Complications include uterine perforation, hemorrhage, endometritis, and/or intrauterine adhesions [2]
Rh(D)-negative women should receive Rh(D)-immune globulin in all cases of vaginal bleeding during pregnancy.

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48
Q

Name the 3 types of placenta accreta:

A

Placenta accreta occurs where adherence of the placenta directly to superficial myometrium but does not penetrate the thickness of the muscle.

Placenta increta occurs where the villi invade into but not through the myometrium

Placenta percreta occurs when the villi invade through the full thickness of the myometrium to the serosa. There is increased risk of uterine rupture and in severe cases the placenta may attach to other abdominal organs such as the bladder or rectum.

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49
Q

contraindication to methotrexate treatment in ectopic pregnancy:
indications to treat surgically:

A
  • Hemodynamically unstable
  • MTX sensitivity
  • Renal, liver or hematologic dysfunction
  • Active pulmonary disease
  • Active peptic ulcer
  • Breastfeeding
  • B-HCG 6000-15,000
  • Gestational sac >3.5
  • Embryonic cardiac motion seen

indications to treat surgically:

  • Hemodynamically unstable
  • Contraindications to MTX
  • Ruptured ectopic pregnancy or signs or intraperitoneal bleeding
  • Failed medical management

surgical options:
1- laparoscopic salpingectomy: removal of the affected fallopian tube.
2- laparoscopic salpinsotomy: removal of the ectopic pregnancy.
3- laparotomy if hemodynamically unstable, ruptured ectopic pregnancy, large amount of intraperitoneal bleed.

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50
Q

risk of ectopic pregnancy following one previous ectopic and following two previous ectopic pregnancies?

A

following one ectopic pregnancy is 10% and following 2 ectopic pregnancy is 25%

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51
Q

secondary prophylaxis or rheumatic fever - Duration of therapy:

A

penicillin

1- Rheumatic fever with carditis + residual heart disease:
10 years or until the age of 40 (which ever is longer)
2- Rheumatic fever with carditis but no residual heart disease:
10 years or until the age of 21 (whichever is longer)
3- Rheumatic fever without carditis:
5 years or until the age of 21 (whichever is longer)

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52
Q

treatment of neutropenic fever

A

monotherapy with an antipsudomonal beta lactam agent: cefepime, meropenem, imipenem, piperacillin tazobactam, ceftazidime

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53
Q

results of Down syndrome in chromosomal study performed during:

A

11-13+6

  • AFP low
  • PAPPA low
  • Eostriol low
  • thickened nuchal translucency
  • B-HCG high
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54
Q

indications for cervical cerclage: and management:

A

Clinical diagnosis typically before 24 weeks’ (may be up to 28 weeks’) gestation;
OR
History of ≥ 2 previous midtrimester pregnancy losses or ≥ 3 preterm births not explained by any other cause, and a transvaginal ultrasound cervical length < 25 mm before 24 weeks’ gestation (short cervical length)

Management:
In women with risk factors (i.e. previous preterm birth), serial cervical ultrasound monitoring between 16–24 weeks’ gestation
-Cervical cerclage placed at 13-14 weeks
Definition: placement of a supportive suture in the cervicovaginal junction to prevent early pregnancy loss or preterm birth
Indications: only in singleton pregnancies
Progesterone supplementation (vaginal or intramuscular): indicated for a short cervical length at < 24 weeks’ gestation

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55
Q

prevention of preeclampsia?

A

low dose asprin initiated between 12-28 weeks gestation and until delivery

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56
Q

treatment of magnesium sulfate toxicity?

A

monitory reflexes for respratory depression
treated with calcium gluconate

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57
Q

when is nuchal translucency performed and what does it indicate?

A

performed as part of the first trimester combined screening at 10-13 weeks
A thickened nuchal translucency increases the likelihood of aneuploidy and cardiac disease

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58
Q

treatment of giardiasis?

A

metronidazole or tinidazole

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59
Q

what is bronchiolitis?

A

generally affects < 2 years old
Most common cause is RSV or parainfluenza virus
presents with rhinorrhea, low-grade fever, cough, poor feeding followed by respiratory distress
on auscultation wheeze and crackles

1- Supportive treatment
-Adequate hydration
-Relief of nasal congestion/obstruction
-Monitoring
2- Indications for hospitalization
Toxic appearance, poor feeding, dehydration, lethargy
Marked respiratory distress
Age < 12 weeks and/or history of prematurity (< 34 weeks)
Pre-existing heart, lung, or neurological conditions
Immunodeficiency
3- Treatment in severe
-Bronchodilators, epinephrine and corticosteroids

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60
Q

treatment of hypertensive emergency and hypertensive urgency

A

HYPERTENSIVE URGENCY:
>180/120 without signs of end organ damage
treatment:
- outpatient management
-consider a rapid-acting oral antihypertensive agent: clonidine, captopril, labetalol, prazosin

HYPERTENSIVE EMERGENCY:
-ICU admission
-reduce blood pressure max 25% within the first hour to prevent coronary insufficiency and to ensure adequate cerebral perfusion pressure.
-reduce blood pressure to 160/100-110mmhg over the next 2-6 hours
-reduce BP to baseline over 24-48 hours
-medications given IV
1- calcium channel blocker: Nicardipine, Clevidipine
2- Nitric oxide dependent vasodiltaor: sodium nitroprusside and nitroglycerine
3- Direct arterial vasocilators: hydralazine
4- antiadrenergic drugs: esmmolol, labetalol

RECOMMENDATION BASED ON ASSOCIATED CONDITION:
1- aortic disseection: Esmolol, labetalol
2- pulmonary edema: clevidipine, sodium nitroprusside, nitroglycerine
3- acute coronary syndrome: Nitroglycerine, esmolo, labetalol, nicardipine
4- acute renal failure: clevidipine, nicardipine, fenoldopam

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61
Q

what is ischemic hepatitis?

A

acute diffuse liver injury due to hypoperfusion
2% of patients admitted to the ICU develop ischemic hepatitis.

ETIOLOGY:

  • impaired perfusion due to heart failure, severe hypotension, shock, thromboembolism, cardiac tamponade.
  • hypoxemia: respiratory failure.
  • septic shock, burns, surgery.

INVESTIGATION:
1-Medical history and physical examination: cardiopulmonary disease, hypotension
2- Laboratory studies
-Severely elevated AST levels (> 1000 U/L)
Serum levels peak 1–3 days
Values return to normal within 7–10 days, once hepatic perfusion is restored.
-Elevated bilirubin levels
-Elevated LDH levels
-ALT:LDH ratio of < 1.5
-Elevated serum creatinine and BUN levels
-Normal alkaline phosphatase levels
-Coagulation studies: prothrombin time may be prolonged

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62
Q

if a child develop high fever and rash after a vaccine what should be done?

A

give prophylactic paracetamol and give antihistamine if develop rash

if the patient develop severe symptoms come back to ER.

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63
Q

what would happen if a female received Rubella vaccine and got pregnant before 2 months?

A

live attenuated vaccines should not be given to women for 1 month before planned pregnancy.
however if pregnancy occurs within 4 weeks from live vaccine then its safe to proceed the pregnancy and no reported cases of fetal damage from live vaccine
the risk of damage to fetus is hypothetical

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64
Q

first-trimester vaccine in pregnancy

A

influenza vaccine

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65
Q

which vaccine is contraindicated in immunodeficiency

A

live attenuated vaccine:
MMR
Varicella
Zoster
Yellow fever
Rotavirus
Influenza (intranasal)
Smallpox
Adenovirus
Typhoid (oral, Ty21a)

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66
Q

which vaccines are contraindicated in HIV patients?

A

oral polio and BCG

HIV patient can receive live vaccine if
1- asymptomatic
2- CD4 percentage is more than 15% in children less than 5 years
3- if CD4 count is more than 200 cell/micro in children above 5 years

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67
Q

contraindications to DTP vaccine?

A
  • encephalopathy within 7 days of previous vaccine
  • unstable CNS condition
  • anaphylactic reaction to previous dose
  • High fever or severe acute illness (delay till the child is doing well)

Precautions to DTaP vaccine

  • Febrile seizure after DTap
  • Hisrory of crying or high fever or febrile seizure from previous vaccine
  • History of gullian barre syndrome within 6 weeks of previous DTap
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68
Q

varicella vaccine contraindications

A

live attenuated vaccine
in children less than 7 year: give 2 doses with 3 month apart
in children above 7 years: give 2 doses with 4 weeks apart.
-Primary immunization
The CDC recommends two doses of the vaccine: first dose at 12–15 months of age ; second dose at 4–6 years of age (may be given earlier, but must be at least three months after the first dose)
A combined measles, mumps, rubella, varicella (MMRV) vaccine is available.
-Catch-up vaccination
Two doses of varicella vaccine recommended for all children without evidence of immunity between the ages of 7–18
After 18 years of age:
Individuals in close contact to individuals at high risk of infection (e.g., caretakers of immunocompromised patients)
Individuals at high-risk of exposure to infected individuals (e.g., childcare employees)
Before patients undergo immunosuppressive therapy or organ transplantation
Seronegative women of child-bearing age
Individuals with severe neurodermatitis

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69
Q

patients who have an allergy to egg, chicken protein or gelatin which vaccine is contraindicated?

A

yellow fever vaccine

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70
Q

if a pregnant is taking a biological agent during pregnancy which vaccines are affected?

A

affect the immune response against live vaccine
live vaccine should be given at 6 months or ideally at 12 months

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71
Q

in chronic granulomatous disease which vaccine is contraindicated?

A

live vaccine
BCG
yellow fever
plague

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72
Q

MMR and varicella vaccine contraindications

A

neomycin and gelatin are contraindications to MMR and varicella

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73
Q

which vaccine is contraindicated in patients with siblings who are immunocompromised?

A

oral polio is contraindicated as it is transmitted feco orally

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74
Q

what can happen years after measles vaccine?

A

subacute sclerosing panencephalitis
initial symptoms between 8-11 years of age Clinical presentation: characterized by four clinical stages
Stage I: dementia, personality changes
Stage II: epilepsy, myoclonus, autonomic dysfunction
Stage III: decerebration, spasticity, extrapyramidal symptoms
Stage IV: vegetative state, autonomic failure

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75
Q

when should a live vaccine be given after stopping steroid or chemotherapy?

A

4 weeks after stopping steroids
oral steroid cause immunosuppression only if given more than 2 weeks with a dose 2mg/kg per day

12 weeks after stopping chemotherapy
no live or killed vaccine after rituximab for 6 months

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76
Q

brucelosis

A

zoonotic disease from animal (from raw meat or unpasturized milk)
affect CNS, heart (aortic valve endocarditis)

General
Flu-like symptoms (undulating fever)
Night sweats
High, potentially undulant fever
Painful lymphadenopathy
Localized infection
Arthralgias, low back pain → osteoarticular infection (e.g., osteomyelitis, spondylitis)
Epididymal and testicular tenderness, flank pain → genitourinary infection (e.g., epididymo-orchitis, pyelonephritis)
Murmurs, friction rubs, tachycardia → cardiac infection (e.g., endocarditis, myocarditis)

investigation:
serum agglutination test

treatment
<8 yeras: TMP/SMX and rifampicin
>8 years: doxycyclin and rifampicin
duration of treatment:
- 6 weeks if no CNS, CVS or back involvement
- >3-6 months

non pregnant adults: doxycyclin + steptomycin or gentamycin

pregnant female: TMP/SMX + rifampin

adult or child >8 years: brucellosis + spondylitis >> doxycyclin + rifampin

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77
Q

what is milwaukee shoulder syndrome:

A

subtype of BCP-associated osteoarthritis characterized by noninflammatory osteoclast-mediated destructive arthritis of the shoulder joint

clinical feature:
typically affect shoulder
causing joint pain, swelling, restricted range of motion, crepitus with joint movement

diagnostics:
- synovial fluid analysis: few WBC, many RBC, CPP crystals, alizarin red S stain
- Calcium hydroxyapatite

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78
Q

Acute rheumatic fever:

A

delayed inflammatory complication of group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal (streptococcus pyogenes) pharyngitis that occur within 2-4 weeks of acute infection.
post-acute tonsilitis or pharyngitis

COMPLICATION:

  • acute pancarditis
  • chronic cardiac valvular changes

CLINICAL FEATURE:
JONES criteria:
-constitutional symptoms: fever, malaise, fatigue
-migratory polyarthritis
-Heart: pancarditis, valvular lesion (mitral valve most common)
-CNS: Sydenham chorea: involuntary, nonrepetitive movement of the limbs, neck, head, face. occur 1-8 months after infection.
-Skin: subcutaneous nodule, erythema marginatum

DIAGNOSTIC:

  • ANtistreptolysin O titer
  • Antistreptococcal DNAse B titer

MANAGEMENT:
-penicillin V (first line)
for symptomatic management:
1- NSAID, asprin, naproxen
2- glucocorticoids

PREVENTION:
Primary infection: treatment of GAS tonsilitis or pharyngitis with penicillin V

Secondary prevention:
patients with a history of ARF are at high risk for recurrence
IM penicillin G benzathine every 4 weeks

whichever of the following results in the longest treatment duration:
Possible ARF: 12 months
Rheumatic fever without carditis: 5 years or until the patient reaches 21 years of age
Rheumatic fever with carditis (with no residual heart disease): 10 years or until the patient reaches 21 years of age
Rheumatic fever with carditis and permanent valvular heart defects: 10 years or until the patient reaches 40 years of age

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79
Q

abruptio placentae

A

normally implanted placenta seperates from the uterine wall before delivery
TYPES: overt/external OR Concealed/internal

RISK FACTOR:

  • previous abruptio
  • hypertension
  • maternal blunt trauma
  • cocaine abuse

CLINICAL PRESENTATION:

  • painful late trimester vaginal bleed
  • uterine pain and tenderness
  • in moderate abruptio: fetal monitoring shows tachycardia, decreased variability, mild late deceleration. in severe cases fetal monitoring will show bradycardia.

INVESTIGATON: ultrasound.

TREATMENT:
-emergency C-section
if >36 weeks and heavy bleed but controlled => vaginal delivery
-conservative if pregnancy is remote from term and both fetus and mother are stable.

COMPLICATION:

  • DIC
  • Acute tubular necrosis
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80
Q

treatment of dyspepsia if H pylori negative and if positive? how to confirm eradication

A

dyspepsia with h pylori negative?
PPI for 8 weeks

H.pylori positive
1- Triple therapy:
PPI + clarithromycin + amoxicillin (or metronidazole) for 10-14 days
2- Quadruple therapy:
PPI + bismuth + tetracyclin + metronidazole

CONFIRM ERADICATION:
4-6 weeks after completion of treatment regimen
-Urea breath test
-Stool antigen test
-Biopsy

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81
Q

echinococcosis infection

A

TRANSMISSION:
-hand to mouth

Echinococcus granulosus (cystic echinococcus): singular hydatid cyst; Echinococcus multilocularis (alveolar echinococcosis): infiltrative growth.

CLINICAL FEATURE:
-hydatid cyst: RUQ pain, N/V, hepatomegaly, lung involvement in 25% of cases

INVESTIGATION:
1-LAB: mild eosinophilia, abnormal liver function test
2- Serology: positive ELISA
3- Ultrasound: initial
4- CT scan: diagnostic

TREATMENT:
CYSTIC:
-medical therapy if <5cm –> albendazole
-Ultraosund or CT guided percutanous drianage: in combination to medical therapy if >5cm
-Surgery: if >10cm or complicated cyst.

ALVEOLAR:
1- curative resection followed by at least 2 years of albendazole.

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82
Q

Amebiasis:

A

Entamoeba histolytica

TRANSMISSION: feco oral

CLINICAL FEATURE:
1- Intestinal amebiasis:
-Incubation period: 1-4 weeks
- loose stool with mucus and bright res blood
-painful defcetation, tenesmus, abdominal pain, cramps, weight loss, anorexia
-fever only in 10-30%
-high risk of recurrence through self inoculation
ALWAYS CONSIDE IN PATIENTS THAT PRESENT WITH DIARRHEA AFTER TRAVELING TO TROPICAL OR SUBTROPCAL DESTINATION.

2- Extraintestinal amebiasis:
95% amebic liver abscess: usually solitary abscess in the right lobe: RUQ pain, fever

INVESTIGATION:
1- stool analysis: (BEST INITIAL) identification of cyst or trophozoit in fresh stool, trophozoit often contain ingested erythrocyte
2- colonoscopy with biopsy: flask shaped ulcer
3- serology (PCR or ELISA) the best diagnostic

Extra intestinal amebia
1- serology antibody
2- aspiration of abscess
3- ultrasound: hypoechoic solitary lesion
4-CT or MRI: well defined round lesion with contrast enhancing wall

TREATMENT:
-asymptomatic: no treatment
-Symptomatic intestinal and extraintestinal: metronidazole or tinidazole followed by luminal agent (paromomycin) to eradicate cyst (if liver abscess followed by Diloxanide furate)
oral metronidazole for 7-10 days
oral imidazole for 5 days
IV is not superior to oral
- Aspiration vua ultrasound or Ct guided if complicated liver abscesses:
Indications:
Localized in the left lobe
Pyogenic abscess
Multiple abscesses
Failure to respond to pharmacotherapy
-Surgical drainage: should generally be avoided

COMPLICATION: ameboma: a tumor like mass caused by granulomatous reaction in the intestine in amebiasis which result in a large local lesion of the bowel

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83
Q

empiric antibiotic treatment for community acquired pneumonia in outpatient setting

A

1- previously healthy patient without comorbidities or risk factor for resistant pathogen:
Monotherapy with one of the following:
Amoxicillin
Doxycycline
A macrolide (only in areas with a pneumococcal macrolide resistance < 25%): Azithromycin, Clarithromycin

2- patients with comorbidites or risk factor for resistant pathogen:
- Combination therapy
An antipneumococcal β-lactam:
Amoxicillin-clavulanate
Cefuroxime
Cefpodoxime
PLUS one of the following:
A macrolide
Azithromycin
Clarithromycin
Doxycycline
- Monotherapy: with a respiratory fluoroquinolone
Gemifloxacin
Moxifloxacin
Levofloxacin

DURATION OF TREATMENT:
5 days are usually sufficient

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84
Q

treatment of hepatocellular carcinoma

A

1- very early stage HCC: (<2cm)
First line
Minimal concomitant liver disease: surgical resection
Significant concomitant liver disease: liver transplantation if Milan criteria are met
Alternative: ablative therapy e.g. radiofrequency ablation

2- intermediate stage (>3 tumors or >3cm)
Locoregional therapy with:
Transcatheter arterial chemoembolization
Transarterial radioembolization

3- Advanced HCC: (portal vein invasion/ nodal or extrahepatic metastesis)
Systemic chemotherapy
First line: targeted treatment e.g., with atezolizumab/bevacizumab
Alternatives
Nontargeted chemotherapy
Hepatic arterial infusion chemotherapy

4- End stage HCC:
typically supportive care only

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85
Q

How to read a CTG?

A

1- fetal heart rate
- normal range 110-160 beats/min
Tachycardia causes: terbutaline, atropine, scopolamine (beta adrenergic agonist), fever, thyrotoxicosis
Bradycardia: beta adrenergic blockers, local anesthesia, fetal congenital heart block

2- baseline variability:

  • absent
  • minimal: <5beats/min
  • moderate: 6-25 beats/min
  • marked variability: >25

3- accelerations:

  • if >32 weeks gestation: acceleration is >15 beats/min above baseline for >15 seconds but <2 min
  • If <32 weeks gestation: acceleration has a peak of 10beats/min above baseline for >10 seconds but <2 min

4- deceleration
-Early deceleration: the peak of the deceleration occurs at the same time as the peak of contraction
Associated with uterine contraction

-Late deceleration:
The deceleration is delayed in timing, the deceleration occur after the peak of contraction
Associated with placental insufficiency

-variable decelerations:
Associated with umbilical cord compression

-sinusoidal pattern: smooth sine wave like undulating pattern
Indicated fetal anemia and vasa previa

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86
Q

Fetal heart rate categories:

A

Category 1: Normal

  • baseline 110-160
  • baseline FHR variability moderate
  • late or variable deceleration: absent
  • early deceleration present or absent
  • acceleration: present or absent

Category 2: intermediate
Treatment: fetal resuscitation if no improvement > c section

Category 3: abnormal
-recurrent late deceleration
-recurrent variable deceleration
-bradycardia
-sinusoidal pattern
Treatment: prepare for delivery + fetal resuscitation >> no improvement immediate C-section

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87
Q

Intrauterine resuscitation

A

1- decrease uterine contraction: turn off IV oxytocin
2- argument IV fluid volume
3- high flow oxygen administration 8-10L of oxygen by face mask
4- amino infusion:
5- change position to lateral position to decrease pressure on inferior vena cava
6- vaginal examination to rule out prolapse
7- scalp stimulation

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88
Q

Abnormal first stage of labor

A

NORMAL FIRST STAGE
1-Latent phase: onset of labor till 6cm cervical dilation
2- active phase: from 6cm to 10cm dilation

ABNORMAL FIRST STAGE
1- prolonged latent phase
In nulliparis women >20 hours
In multiparis women >14 hours
Management:
Supportive care
Unless rupture of membranes >> argumentation with oxytocin

2- prolonged active phase
-No change in cervical dilation after 6hours of inadequate contraction
-No change in cervical dilation after 4 hours of adequate contraction.
Management:
-argument with oxytocin
-aminotomy

3-ARREST of active phase
>6cm dilation
->4 hours of adequate contraction
->6hours of i adequate contraction despite oxytocin
Management: c-section

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89
Q

Abnormal second stage of labor

A

DEFINITION:
Arrest of fetal descent
>3 hours in nulliparis women
>2 hours in multiparis women
(One hour extra if epidural is given)

Management:

  • instrumental delivery (if head is engaged at +2 station and beyond)
  • C- section (if 3 attempts of instrumental delivery failed)
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90
Q

Oxytocin side effect

A
  • uterine tachysystole >> can lead to abruptio placenta or uterine rupture
  • category 2 or 3 FHR
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91
Q

Effect of medications of fetal heart rate pattern intrapartum
1- Mg sulfate
2- Epidural analgesic
3- Oxytocin

A

1- Mg sulfate: decrease in short term variability,
2- Epidural analgesia: late or prolonged deceleration (maternal hypotension >> uteroplacental insufficiency
3- oxytocin: late or prolonged deceleration + uterine hyper stimulation

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92
Q

Contraindications to external cephalic version

A

Should be offered >37 weeks

ABSOLUTE CONTRAINDICATION:

  • Previous classical C section
  • previous uterine surgery (myomectomy)
  • placenta previa
  • non reassuring fetal heart rate
  • multiple pregnancy
  • mechanical obstruction to vaginal birth (pelvic fracture, large fibroid, fetal hydrocephalus)
  • uterine rupture
  • macrosomia
  • unexplained APH

RELATIVE CONTRAINDICATIONS

  • early delivery
  • oligohydramnios or rupture membrane
  • known nuchal cord
  • structural uterine abnormality
  • fetal growth restriction
  • prior abeuptio or it’s risk
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93
Q

Management of post term pregnancy

A

If patient is 41 weeks gestation > fetal surveillance
If patient is 42 weeks gestation > induction of labor
If complications develop > induction of labor
If gestational age is uncertain > induce labor by 41 weeks gestation.

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94
Q

When is the quadruple test performed and what is it used for

A

Performed at 15-20 weeks gestation

FOR DOWN SYNDROME

  • MS-AFP and estriol >> decreased
  • B-HCG and inhibin A >> increased

FOR TRISOMY 18
All four markers are decreased

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95
Q

Vaccines given intramuscularly

A

DTP/DTaP
Hepatitis B
IPV
Hib
PCV-7

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96
Q

Intradermal vaccine

A

BCG

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97
Q

Subcutaneous vaccine

A

Measles and yellow fever vaccine

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98
Q

Tocolysis options for preterm labor

A

FIRST LINE:
1- indomethacin if patient 24-32 weeks gestation
2- Nifedipine if 32-34 weeks gestation

SECOND LINE
1- Nifedipine if 24-32 weeks gestation
2- terbutaline if 32 to 34 weeks gestation

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99
Q

terbutaline tocolysis side effect:

A

MOTHER SIDE EFFECT:

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100
Q

management of premature rupture of membrane

A

Unstable patients
Prompt delivery in:
Patients with signs of intraamniotic infection, abruptio placentae, cord prolapse
Signs of fetal distress (nonreassuring fetal heart rate)
Additionally, collect cervical cultures and commence empiric antibiotic therapy ampicillin and gentamicin.
Stable patients
Gestational age: ≥ 37 0/7 weeks (term)
Delivery by induction of labor is generally recommended.
Expectant management for up to 12–24 hours is reasonable in otherwise uncomplicated pregnancies and in the absence of infection.
Gestational age: 34 0/7–36 6/7 weeks (late-preterm)
Expectant management and induction of labor are both reasonable options.
Expectant management
Bed rest, pelvic rest
Induction of fetal lung maturity: single-course of antenatal corticosteroids if not previously given if there is no evidence of chorioamnionitis and delivery is anticipated in > 24 hours and < 7 days
Gestational age: 24 0/7–33 6/7 weeks
Expectant management
Bed rest, pelvic rest
Prophylactic antibiotics to reduce the risk of infection and delay delivery
Ampicillin IV PLUS erythromycin IV followed by amoxicillin PO PLUS erythromycin PO
OR
Ampicillin IV PLUS azithromycin IV followed by amoxicillin PO PLUS azithromycin PO
Single-course of antenatal corticosteroids (betamethasone or dexamethasone)
Tocolysis can be used to delay delivery for up to 48 hours so that antenatal corticosteroids can be administered. [14]
Magnesium sulfate if preterm delivery < 32 weeks gestation is anticipated [15]
Gestational age < 23–24 weeks
Fetal outcome is generally poor in PPROM before or at the limit of viability.
The choice of management depends on patient-specific factors and preference.
Expectant management
Not recommended before viability
Same approach as for pregnant women at 24 0/7–33 6/7 weeks

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101
Q

management of post partum hemorrhage

A

C_SECTION >> B lynch suture >> artery embolisation (if hemodynamically stable) laparotomy and artery ligatioon (if hemodynamically unstable) >> hysterectomy

VAGINAL DELIVERY >> Bakri balloon >> artery embolisation (if hemodynamically stable) laparotomy and artery ligatioon (if hemodynamically unstable) >> hysterectomy
1- oxytocin 10-40 units in 500-1000mL of normal saline
2- 0.2mg of ergonavine or methylergonavine IM (contraindicated in preeclampsia or hypertension)
3-prostaglandin F2a IM
4- Carboprost (Hemabate) IM (contraindicated in asthma)
5- misoprostol per rectum or subinguinal
6- uterine compression suture (B-Lynch suture)
7- bimanual compression and massage of uterine corpus
8-packing (large volume balloon cather)
9-percutanous catheter into the uterine arteries for injection of thrombogenic material to control blood flow and hemorrhage
10- hysterectomy

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102
Q

indications to evacuate a vaginal hematoma after episiotomy

A
  • >5cm
  • Expanding
  • Painful
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103
Q

what ultrasound findings suggest a malignant adnexal mass?

A
  • Mass size graeter than 10cm
  • Irrigular
  • High flow on color doppler
  • Pappilary or solid (hypoechoid) mass
  • Presence of ascitis
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104
Q

patient with complement deficiency which vaccine can he be given?

A

all the vaccines

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105
Q

measles vaccine schedule:

A

should be given at 9, 12, 18 and then again at 4-6 years
Live vaccine MMR

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106
Q

patient with dog bite (rabies) what should you do?

A

If the wound is MAJOR with major scratches or involving mucus membrane or bleeding
1- give immunoglobulin
2- vaccinate
-if not previously vaccinated >> give on days 0,3,7, and 28
-if previously vaccinated >> give on days 0 and 3

if the wound is MINOR with only minor scratch without bleeding:
-no need for immunoglobulin
-Give vaccination
if not previously immunized on days 0,3 and 28
if previously immunized on day 0 and 3

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107
Q

which vaccine is contraindicated to patients with previous history of intussusception?

A

Rota virus vaccine

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108
Q

contraindicates to live attenuated vaccines

A
  • immunodeficiency
  • history of recet blood transfusion, blood products or immunoglobulin
  • steroids for more than 2 week more than 2mg/kg per day
  • should be delayed 3-11 months after IVIG
  • should be delayed after 6 months of PRBC
  • should be delayed after 7 month of givening FFP or platlet
  • immediatly after packed RBC products
  • Live attenuated vaccines should be delayed after 3 months or before 2 weeks of chemotherapy.
  • Pregnancy
  • if received another live vaccine 4 weeks ago
  • anaphylaxis to the vaccine
  • Allergy to neomycin or geeatin are contraindications to MMR and varicella
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109
Q

which vaccine is contraindicated in eczema patients?

A

smallpox vaccine

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110
Q

influenza vaccine indications

A

INDICATIONS:

  • all infants >6 months given annually
  • all children exposed to or living with healthcare workers, chronic illness or immunodeificnexy
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111
Q

Gullian barre syndrome etiology

A

it usually follows a gastroentestinal infection by 1-4 weeks

  • Campylobacter jeujeni
  • CMV (most common virus)
  • Influenza vaccine
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112
Q

patients with chronic respiratory disorders should receive which vaccines?

A

1- Influenza
2- Pneumococcal vaccine

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113
Q

women presents with recurrent still births which vaccine should be given and when

A

rubella is teratogenic and should be givem 1 month before getting pregnant or immediately after deliver.

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114
Q

Hard signs of vascular injury

A
  • Severe or uncontrolled hemorrhage
  • Large, expanding or pulsatile hematoma
  • Thrills or bruits
  • Shock unresponsive to IV fluid resuscitation
  • Abset or diminished radial pulse
  • Neurologic deficit (hemiplegia) consistent with cerebral ischemia
  • Air bubbling from a wound
  • Massive hemoptysis or hematemesis
  • Respiratoy distres
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115
Q

most common cause of infective endocarditis in pediatric patients
what is the treatment of staph epidermides

A

in general staph aureus

  • for patients with underlying congenital herat disease: strept virdans >>> vancomycin
  • for patients with normal heart: staph aureus >>> vancomycin
  • for patients with prosthesis: staph epidermis >>>> treated with vancomycin, rifampicin and gentamycin
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116
Q

Measles (Rubeola) infection features

A

clinical feature:

  • Fever and conjunctivitis, coryza, cough and pathognomonic koplik spots on the buccal mucosa
  • Sudden development of a high fever, malaise and exantham (erythematous maculopapular rash) start on the face and spreads down
  • usually in children older than 5
  • no hands and foot changes
  • no strawberry tongue

treatment

  • supportive
  • vitamin A
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117
Q

etiology of otitis media

A

most common ause below 2 years:

  • Streptcoccus pneumonia
  • Hemophilis influenza
  • Moraxella catarahlis

most common in children above 2 years:

  • psudomona arguinosa
  • Staph aureus
118
Q

intususseption: High yield notes.

A

proximal part invaginates into the distal part leading to mechanical obstruction.
AGE: 6-18 months
ETIOLOGY: 75% idiopathic. Meckle’s diverticulum, enlarged payers patch,
MOST COMMON SITE: ileocecal invagination.
CLINICAL FEATURES:
-abdominal pain, abdominal distension, vomiting, constipation
-palpable sausage shaped mass in RUQ
-high pitched sounds
-current jelly stool
INVESTIGATION:
-Abdominal x ray: bowel obstruction sign
-Ultrasound is best initial” target sign, donut sign, psudo kidney sign
-Contrast or pneumatic ENEMA using ultrasound or fluoroscopy is best confirmatory
TREATMENT:
IV fluids, keep NPO, NG tube
-NON surgical: air enema (hydrostatic reduction with normal saline or water soluble contrast enema) under ultrasound or fluscopy guidance
Contraindicated in secondary intussuception, <3m, peritonitis, necrosis
can be done for 3 trials
recurrence after enema is 10%
-SURGICAL: indicated when
pathological lead point is suspected
failed conservated management
suspected gangrenous or perforated bowel or peritonitis
critically ill
recurrence after surgery is 1%

119
Q

Pyloric stenosis: high yield notes

A

aquired pyloric circler muscle hypertrophy resulting in gastric outlet obstruction
AGE: 2 weeks to 2 months
more common in males
ETIOLOGY: smoking during pregnancy, first male boy, young maternal age, bottle feeding, macrolide antibiotics (erythromycin)
CLINICAL FEATURE: repeated episodes of projectile non billious vomiting after meals, palpable olive mass, peristalitic waves, hungry after vomiting, electrolyte disturbance
INVESTIGATION:
-Ultrasound (initial) elongated >16mm and thickened >4mm pylorus
-Barium study: narrow pyloric orifice, string sign, beak sign, double railroad tract sign
TREATMNET:
IV fluid, NPO, NG tube, correct electrolyte,
Ramstad pyloromyotomy

120
Q

incubation period od food poisoning

  • Staph aureus
  • Vibro cholera
  • Closteridium perfringens
  • salmonella
  • Ecoli
  • Cambylobacter
  • Cyclospora
A

staph aureus 30min to 8 hours

vibrio cholera 2 hours to 48 hours

clostridium perfringens 6-48 hours

Salmonella, Ecoli, Cambylobacter 2-5 days

Cyclospora and listeria 1-4 weeks

121
Q

treatment od dermatitis herpetiforms

A

characterized by eruption of burning and intensly puritic papules and vesicle
associated with celiac disease
treatment: Gluten free diet, Dapsone

122
Q

when to strat antibiotic in patients with gastroenteritis

A

shigella
Clostridum difficile
sever dehydration
prolonged illness (more than one week)
immunosuppressed

antibiotic treatment in shiga toxin Ecoli can lead to HUS
however in shigella doesn’t increase risk of HUS

123
Q

what is the gallbladder ghost triade

A
  • small gallbladder less than 1.9cm
  • thin gallbladder wall
  • irregular contour

this triad is 97% sensitive and 100% specific for biliary atresia
which is discontinuity of the extrahepatic biliary system
treated with kasai hepatoportoenterostomy by age of 2 months

124
Q

which organism that can cause seizure after gastroenteritis

A

shigella can cause febrile seizures
either due to electrolyte disturbance
or affect the CNS directly leading to encephalopathy (Ekiri syndrome)

125
Q

eosinophilic esophagitis

A

allergic inflammatory condition of the esophagus that involves eosinophils

eosinophel migrates to the esophagus in large numbers, then precipitate an allergic reaction when a trigger food is eaten

Clinical feature: excessive chewing
associated with atopy
best diagnostic: endoscopy and biopsy

126
Q

indications for IV antibiotics in pediatric UTI

A
  • Age <2 months
  • Clinical urosepsis (toxic apperance, hypotension, poor capillary refill)
  • Immune compromise
  • Vomiting or inability to tolerate oral medication
  • Lack of adequate outpatient follow up
  • Failure to respond to outpatient therapy
127
Q

DVT management

A
128
Q

MI ECG

A
129
Q

prophylactic treatment for patients previous history of TIA

A

antiplatelet: either aspirin or clopidogrel

130
Q

long term secondary prevention of ischemic stroke

A

for long-term prevention of ischemic stroke

recommend treatment with an antiplatelet agent using either aspirin, clopidogrel, or aspirin-extended-release dipyridamole.

asprin is first line

131
Q

motion sickness treatment:

A

scopolamine first line

diphenhydramine

132
Q

side effects of methotrexate

A

Gastrointestinal problems, such as nausea, stomach upset, and loose stools

●Stomatitis or soreness of the mouth

●Abnormal liver chemistries, which are typically mild elevations in hepatic transaminases (hepatotoxicity)

●A macular punctate cutaneous eruption, which usually occurs on the extremities, often affecting the elbows and knees, but sparing the trunk

●Central nervous system symptoms, including headache, fatigue, malaise, or impaired ability to concentrate

●Alopecia

●Fever, which is drug-related, although fever can also occur due to infection

●Hematologic abnormalities, particularly macrocytosis, in addition to infrequent but severe myelosuppression (see ‘Myelosuppression’ below)

133
Q

how to differentiate between organic and functional pain?

A
134
Q

giardia high yield points

A

Etiology:

waterbone from drinking recreational water, child care setting, travelers, swimmers hhhth

feco oral route

clinical feature

  • foul smelling, volumonious, frothy and fatty stool (not bloody)
  • excessive gas, abdominal pain and cramps
  • fatigue
  • nausea and vomiting
  • anorexia

diagnostic: stool analysis (3 samples in different days)

best diagnostic: stool antigen or PCR

treatment: 7-10 days of metronidazole or tinidazole

135
Q

wilson disease

A

autosomal recessive

impaired copper excretion

clinical features:

  • hepatosplenomegaly, portal hypertension, abdominal pain, jaundie, ascitis, hepatic encephalopathy
  • kayser fleischer ring
  • parkinsonsim, dysarthria, dystonia, drooling, tremor
  • renal fanconi syndrome

diagnostic

1- best initial: 24 hour urine collection for copper, low serum ceruloplasim

2- best test: lover biopsy or genetic (chromosome 13

treatment:

D penicillamine or trienitine hydrochloride

136
Q

COPD exacerbation management

A

-Inhaled beta agonist: Albuterol 2.5 mg diluted to 3 mL via nebulizer or 2 to 4 inhalations from MDI every hour for 2 or 3 doses; up to 8 inhalations may be used for intubated patients, if needed

Short-acting muscarinic antagonist (anticholinergic agent): Ipratropium 500 micrograms (can be combined with albuterol) in 3 mL via nebulizer or 2 to 4 inhalations from MDI every hour for 2 to 3 doses

Intravenous glucocorticoid (eg, methylprednisolone 60 mg to 125 mg IV, repeat every 6 to 12 hours)

Antibiotic therapy*: Appropriate for majority of severe COPD exacerbations; select antibiotic based on likelihood of particular pathogens (eg, Pseudomonas risk factors, prior sputum cultures, local patterns of resistance)

  • No Pseudomonas risk factor(s): Ceftriaxone 1 to 2 grams IV, or cefotaxime 1 to 2 grams IV, or levofloxacin 500 mg IV or orally, or moxifloxacin 400 mg IV or orally
  • Pseudomonas risk factor(s): Piperacillin-tazobactam 4.5 grams IV, or cefepime 2 grams IV, or ceftazidime 2 grams IV

Antiviral therapy (influenza suspected)*: Oseltamivir 75 mg orally every 12 hours or peramivir 600 mg IV once (for patients unable to take oral medication)

137
Q

hyperparathyroidism indications for surgery

A
  • Symptomatic patients
  • Asymptomatic patients who meet at least one of the following criteria:
    • Age < 50 years
    • Serum calcium level more than 1 mg/dL higher than the normal upper limit
    • Impaired renal function (eGFR < 60 mL/min)
    • Increased calcium excretion (> 400 mg/day) in combination with an increased risk for nephrolithiasis
    • Evidence of nephrolithiasis or nephrocalcinosis via imaging
    • Reduced bone mineral density (T-score < -2.5 at lumbar spine, total hip, femoral neck, or distal third of the radius, or preexisting asymptomatic vertebral fracture)
138
Q

isoniazid adverse reaction

A
  • peripheral neuropathy, ataxia, paresthesia (neurologic side effects can be reduced by concomitant administration of pyridoxine “vitamin B6”)
  • hepatotoxicity
139
Q

organophosphates High Yield Points

A

an organophosphate compound and irreversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor

clinical feature:

management

1-decontaminate (wash skin, remove clothes)

2- measure erthrocyte chilinesterase activity

3- atropine

140
Q

how to differentiate between hirschsprung and functional constipation

A

management of hirshprung disease is colostomy initially then followed by definitive surgical treatment by modified duchamel procedure, swenson procedure or pull through surgery (Suave procedure)

141
Q

how to differentiate between marasmus and kwashirkor?

A

Marasus is deficiency in all major nutrients

Kwashirkor is deficiency in protients primerily

142
Q

when is endoscopy indicated in a child with foreign body ingestion

A
  • sharp opjects
  • long objects (more than 5cm)
  • round batteries
  • super magnetic object
  • patient is symptomatic: fever or pain
  • object not passed and still in stomach for 4 weeks
143
Q

diagnostic test of gastrinoma

A

assumed to arise fro endocrine cells of the gut (mostly the duodenum) or pancreas

best initial test: esophagogastroduodenoscopy to rule out H.pylori and malignant ulcers

confirmatory: increase serum gastrin if non conclusive secretin stimulation test

144
Q

Tracheomalacia

A

softening trachea cartilage

clinical presentation:

  • upper airway: stridor and barking cough
  • lower airway: monophonic wheeze

Classification

  1. type 1: congenital, sometimes associated with tracheoesophageal fistula or esophageal atresia
  2. type 2: extrinsic compression sometimes due to vascular rings
  3. type 3: acquired due to chronic infection or prolonged intubation or inflammatory condition like relapsing poluchondritis

management:

if mild and isolated usually resolve by 2 years

if severe then requires surgical intervention

145
Q

when is diagnostic study required in patients with laryngomalacia

A

a flexible fibrooptic scope is required when

  • severe episode of distress
  • cyanotic spell
  • growth failure
  • feeding difficulty
  • suspicious of other cause in larynx
146
Q

treatment for pelvic inflammatory disease

A

Treatment of PID consists of broad antimicrobial coverage against the likely pathogens, including Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Chlamydia trachomatis, and the gram-negative and gram-positive organisms that comprise the cervical and vaginal flora, including anaerobic organisms

Indications for hospitalization

  • Severe clinical illness (eg, high fever, nausea/vomiting preventing oral intake, severe abdominal pain)
  • Suspected pelvic abscess
  • Pregnancy
  • A possible alternative diagnosis that could warrant surgery (eg, appendicitis)
147
Q

managment of penetrating neck injury:

A
148
Q

treatment of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura

A

ADAMTS113 deficiency

clinical feature:

Prompt initiation of plasma exchange therapy (PEX)

149
Q

what is a follicular cyst, a theca luteal cyst and corpus luteal cyst

A
150
Q

acetaminophen toxicity treatment

A

Give activated charcoal (AC) 50 g to all adult patients presenting within 4 hours of ingestion, unless contraindicated; AC may be useful for coingestants beyond 4 hoursTreat with N-acetylcysteine (NAC) if:Serum APAP concentration drawn at 4 hours or more after a single acute ingestion is above the “treatment” line of the treatment nomogram for APAP poisoning

  • <4 hours >> activated charcoal wait till 4 hours then plot the APAP
  • 4-24 >> plot the APAP >> if level are high enough NAC
  • >24 hours >> give NAC if patient is symptomatic
151
Q

treatment of premenstrual syndrome

A
152
Q

asthma management in patients <5 years old

A
153
Q

classification of PPD reaction

A
154
Q

types of respiratory failure

A

Type 1: Hpoxemic: PO2 <60mmHg on room air: pneumonia, pulmonary edema, pulmonary embolism

Type 2: hypercapnic/ventilatory: PCO2>50mmHg: COPD, asthma, neurological

Type 3: peri-opeartive (a subset of type1)

Type4: shock secondary to cardiovascular instability

155
Q

most common cause of pneumonia in cystic fibrosis patients age younger than 5 years and older than 5 years?

A

in children below 5 years: Staph aureus

in children above 5 years: pseudomonas aeruginosa

156
Q

pediatric age specific cause of pneumonia and treatment of pneumonia

A

admit patient:

  • not tolerate oral antibiotic
  • severe hypoxia <92%
  • severe tachypnea >50 per minutes in infants and more than 70 per minutes in children older than 1 year
  • toxic appearance
  • patient with underlying medical condition
  • pneumonia complicated by effusion or empyema

Treatment:

Outpatient: Amoxicillin

Inpatient: ceftriaxone + macrolide

157
Q

most common cause of pneumonia according to pediatric age and management

A
158
Q

indication of hospitalization in pediatric pneumonia patients

A

admit patient:

  • not tolerate oral antibiotic
  • severe hypoxia <92%
  • severe tachypnea >50 per minutes in infants and more than 70 per minutes in children older than 1 year
  • toxic appearance
  • patient with underlying medical condition
  • pneumonia complicated by effusion or empyema

Treatment:

Outpatient: Amoxicillin

Inpatient: ceftriaxone + macrolide

159
Q

electrolyte changes in diarrhea

A

in diarrhea there will be metabolic acidosis because of loss of bicarbonate in stool

160
Q

diabetes insipidus

A

Etiology:

1- Central diabetes insipidus: absent synthesis or secretion of ADH from posterior pituitary

  • Primary idiopathic
  • secondary to brain tumor, neurosurgery, traumatic brain injury, pituitary ischemia, infection

2- Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus: defect in ADH receptors in the distal tubules and collecting duct

clinical features:

  • Polyuria
  • Nocturia
  • Polydipsia
  • in severe cases of dehydration, altered mental status, lethargy, seizure, coma and hypotension

investigation:

  • Sodium: mild hypernatremia
  • ADH levels: decreased
  • plasma osmolality: high-normal or slightly elevated
  • urine osmolality: low
  • Water deprivation test: plasma osmolality rises but urine osmolality remains low
  • Desmopressin test:if central DI > urine osmolality rises BUT in nephrogenic osmolality remains low (due to resistance)

Treatment:

1- Central diabetes insipidus: Desmopressin

2- Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus: Thiazide diuretic, NSAID, Amiloride

161
Q

when to investigate nocturnal enuresis and what is the treatment

A

investigate nocturnal enuresis when

1- secondary enuresis: previous dryness was achieved for more than 6 months

2- growth failure

3- symptoms of UTI, weak stream urine, daytime incontinence, polyuria

4- daytime enuresis

Management:

treatment should be started for patients older than 8 year old

initial treatment: behavior and modification therapy

if not responding then Alarm or desmopressin should be started

162
Q

renal tubular acidosis

A

Type 4 RTA: related to defect in aldosterone or renal obstruction

  • congenital adrenal hyperplasia
  • hyporaldosteronism
  • obstructive uropathy
  • spironolactone or amiloride
163
Q

what are the indications for voiding cystourethrogram in pediatric patients

and when is ultrasound performed

and how to diagnose renal scarring after UTI

A

Indications:

children below 6 months:

  • Recurrent UTI (2 pyelonephritis or 3 cystitis Or 2 cystitis and 1 pyelonephritis in 12 months)
  • Atypical UTI
  • UTI and renal ultrasound showed hydronephrosis

from 6 months to 3 years:

  • Atypical UTI
  • Renal ultrasound showed hydronephrosis

what is Atypical UTI:

  • no response to antibiotic after 48 hours
  • presence of hypertension
  • presence of renal failure
  • UTI caused by organism other than E coli
  • presence of abdominal mass
  • poor urine stream

Ultrasound is performed after first febrile UTI

DMSA scan is performed 6-12 months after UTI to detect scarring

164
Q

indications for surgical intervention for vesicoureteral reflux

A
  • Grade 5 reflux
  • if patients reached 5 years old and still has reflux
  • hypertension
  • renal scar
  • renal failure
  • failure of medical treatment
165
Q

treatment of UTI in pediatrics

A

oral antibiotic is the first line treatment in upper and lower UTI

  • oral cephalosporins
  • augmentin
  • TMP/SMX
  • nitrofurantoin

indication to use IV antibiotic:

  • in neonates
  • severely ill
  • immunosuppressed patients
  • patients with underlying renal disease

duration of treatment:

for cystitis only 3-5 days

  • trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole
  • nitrofurantoin
  • augmentin
  • second generation cephalosporins

for pyelonephritis 7-10 days

  • oral second generation cephalosporins
  • amoxicillin and clavulanic acid
  • IV ceftriaxone
166
Q

what is the definition of steroid resistant nephrotic syndrome

A

not responding to oral steroid for 4 weeks and additional 3 doses of IV methylprednisolone

most common cause of steroid resistant nephrotic is focal segmental glomerulosclerosis in pediatric

treatment of steroid resistant nephrotic syndrome:

  • cyclosporine
  • diuretic if needed
  • ACE
167
Q

indications for renal biopsy in nephrotic syndrome

A
  • age less than 1 year or more than 10 years
  • gross hematuria
  • hypertension
  • renal failure
  • low serum complement
  • steroid resistance
168
Q

Tumor lysis syndrome electrolyte changes

what is the treatment of TLS

A
  • hyperkalemia
  • hyperuricemia
  • hyperphosphatemia
  • hypocalcemia

Management:

1- hydration

2- Hyperkalemia: cardiac monitoring and standard therapy for hyperkalemia if K+ ≥ 6 mEq/L, e.g., glucose and insulin (rapid action)

3- Hyperphosphatemia: hydration and possibly oral phosphate binders, e.g., sevelamer

4- Hypocalcemia: Treat only if symptomatic and give the lowest calcium dose to relieve symptoms (see “Hypocalcemia”)

5- Hyperuricemia

  • Allopurinol
    • Indicated as prophylaxis in patients at low to intermediate risk
  • Rasburicase: recombinant uricase that catalyzes the breakdown of uric acid to allantoin
    • Indications
      • Treatment of established TLS
      • Prophylaxis for intermediate to high-risk patients
168
Q

Henoch Schonlein Purpura

A

Etiology:

Clinical feature:

1- Skin: (100% of the cases): symmetrically distributed palpable purpura (most commonly in the lower extremities)

2- Joints: (75% of the cases): arthritis and arthralgia (mmost commonly ankle and knee

3- GI: colicky abdominal pain, can cause intussusception, bloody stool, nausea and vomiting

4- Kidney: Nephritic syndrome symptoms

Investigation:

  • clinical diagnosis
  • Biopsy is indicated in patients with unusual skin presentation or severe renal involvement. (skin leukocytoclastic vasculitis with IgA and C3 immune complex deposition. Kidney mesangial IgA deposition)

Management:

1- General management: adequate oral hydration, bed rest, and symptomatic relief of joint and abdominal pain.

2- Treatment of joint and abdominal pain: NSAID

3- Severe refractory abdominal pain: (failed to respond NSAID, interfere with oral intake): systemic glucocorticoid

169
Q

when should the screening for anemia in pediatric age should be done?

A

all children should be screened for anemia by doing CBC from 9-12 months

in patients with underlying medical condition repeat screening should be done again at 15-18 months

169
Q

Lead poisoning

A

Clinical features:

  • CNS: poor concentration, abnormal behavior, lethargy, seizure
  • GIT: abdominal pain
  • renal failure
  • ABCDEFGH: Anemia, Basophilic stippling, Constipation, Demyelination, Encephalopathy, Foot drop, Gum deposition/Growth retardation/Gout, Hyperuricemia/Hypertension

when to treat:

asymptomatic child with lead level more than 3.38mmol/l or 70mcg/dl

symptomatic children but no encephalopathy with level >2.16mmol/l or 45mcg/dl

  • Treatment [20]
    • Decrease exposure: professional lead paint abatement, dust reduction, minimization of contact with bare soil
    • Nutrition: calcium, iron, zinc, vitamin C, and vitamin D-rich diet [21]
    • Chelation therapy indications: [22]
      • Oral succimer with/without intravenous or intramuscular Calcium EDTA (calcium disodium ethylenediamine tetraacetic acid) [23]
        • Children with BLL ≥ 45 μg/dl [24]
        • Asymptomatic adults with BLL ≥ 80 μg/dl
        • Symptomatic adults with BLL ≥ 50 μg/dl
      • IM dimercaprol
        • Patients with lead encephalopathy
170
Q

what is fanconi anemia

A

from birth

high MCV, high HbF and high ADA

autosomal recessive

absent thumb

short stature

microcephaly

blood transfusion dependent

170
Q

indication for simple blood tansfusion in sickle cell patients

A
  • hemoglobin dropped by >2g/l from baseline
  • patient is symptomatic (respiratory or hemodynamic instability)
  • hyperhemolytic crisis
  • aplastic crisis
  • mild acute chest syndrome
  • before major surgery
171
Q

what is diamond blackfan anemia

A

autosomal dominant

171
Q

indication for exchange transfusion in sickle cell patients

A
  • severe acue chest syndrome
  • stroke
  • silent stroke
  • multiorgan failure
172
Q

investigation of hereditary spherocytosis and what is the treatment

A
  • low MCV
  • high MCHC
  • high RDW
  • high unconjugated bilirubin
  • low haptoglobin
  • high LDH
  • positive osmotic fragility test (initial)
  • Eosin-5-maleimide binding test (diagnostic)

treated with splenectomy (sole definitive treatment)

173
Q

features of fetal alcohol syndrome

A
176
Q

Familial Mediterranean fever

A

The diagnosis of FMF should be suspected in individuals with recurrent febrile episodes accompanied by peritonitis, synovitis or pleuritis, recurrent erysipelas-like erythema, repeated laparotomies for an acute abdomen with no identifiable underlying pathology, a first-degree relative with FMF, and/or membership in an at-risk ethnic group. The diagnosis of FMF is made based on clinical symptoms and supported by ethnic origin and family history. Genetic testing is used to further confirm the diagnosis of FMF and to exclude other autoinflammatory syndromes mimicking FMF. In individuals who meet clinical criteria for FMF but in whom genetic testing is not diagnostic (only one or no pathogenic MEFV mutation), the diagnosis of FMF is supported by a six-month trial of colchicine therapy, which results in a relief of attacks and recurrence after cessation of treatment.

side effect of clochicine: abdominal pain and diarrhea, muscle weakness especially when taking statin, acrolide, verapamil

177
Q

what is hemorrhagic disease of newborn

A

usually happen in babies delivered at home because they did not receive vitamin L

vitamin K deficient factors: 10,9,7,2

both PTT and PT will be prolonged

178
Q

how to differentiate between TTP, ITP, and DIC

A
179
Q

indications for lymph node biopsy in patients with lymphadenopathy

A
180
Q

what is a benign ronaldic epilepsy

A

benign epilepsy with centrotemporal spikes

Clinical features

  • Usually occurs during sleep
  • Facial twitching or numbness, hypersalivation, and speech arrest (during and frequently even after the event)
  • Involvement of an arm/entire side of the body is possible, as is secondary generalization.

Diagnostics: EEG shows centrotemporal spikes or sharp wave

181
Q

Indications of CT head in childhood head injury

A
182
Q

How to differentiate between simple febrile and complex febrile seizure:

A
183
Q

infantile spasm

A
184
Q

when to screen for asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant patient?

management of asymptomatic bacteriuria?

A

screening all pregnan women at least once performed at 12-16 weeks

treatment options include beta lactam, nitrofurantoin (for 5-7 days) and fosfomycin

if pyelonephritis is suspected nitrofurantoin and fosfomycin should not be used as it doesn’t reach the kidney

185
Q

How to diagnose Neurofibromatosis

A

Autodomal Dominant

1-Six or more café-au-lait spots or hyperpigmented macules =5 mm in diameter in
prepubertal chil-dren and 15 mm postpubertal
2-Axillary or inguinal freckles (>2 freckles)
3- Two or more typical neurofibromas or one plexiform neurofibroma

4- Optic nerve glioma
5-Two or more iris hamartomas (Lisch nodules), often identified only through slit- lamp examination by an ophthalmologist
6- Sphenoid dysplasia or typical long-bone abnormalities such as pseudarthrosis
7-Positive genete in allele for NF1 from WBC

186
Q

tuberous sclerosis

A

Autosomal dominant

TSC1 and TSC2 gene mutation

Clinical features:

  • Ash leaf macules
  • cafe au lait spots
  • Peiungual fibroma
  • Angiomyolipoma of renal artery
  • cardiac rhabdomyoma
  • polycystic kidney disease
  • adenoma sebacioum
  • shagren batch
187
Q

Fragile X syndrome

A
188
Q

Spinal muscular atrophy: High Yield

A

Autosomal recessive

genetic disorder where nerve cells in the spinal cord die prematurely (degeneration of anterior horn cells) >> muscle atrophy

Spinal muscle atrophy type 1:

  • hypotonia but alert
  • severe progressive disorder
  • diminished fetal movement during pregnancy
  • arthrogryposis (position deformity of the limb with contracture of at least two joints)
  • fasiculation of the tongue
  • symmetrical flaccid paralysis
  • absent deep tendon reflex
  • intercostal recession
  • weakness of bulbar muscle, weak cry, poor suck with pooling of secretion
  • never sit unaided
  • die of respiratory failure

Spinal muscular atrophy type2:

  • infants are normal at birth
  • develop progressive weakness worse proximally
  • weak sucking, chewing, and swallowing (aspiration)
  • weakness in chest wall and diaphragm
  • can sit but never walk

investigation

1- Genetic testing: best and initial

2- creatine kinase is elevated

3- EMG spontaneous large amplitude, low frequency

4- muscle biopsy atrophy of groups of motor units

189
Q

juvenile dermatomyositis

A
  • autoimmune myopathy
  • symmetrical proximal muscle weakness (most important clinical feature)
  • heliotrope rash (reddish purple rash on the upper eyelid often accompanied by swelling of the eyelid)
  • Gottron’s papules (erythematous, papulosquamous eruption over the dorsal surfaces of the knuckles) (characteristic)
  • nailfold capillary changes, skin ulcerations, calcinosis (soft tissue calcification), nonerosive arthralgia and arthritis, lipodystrophy, and insulin resistance

investigation:

  • serum creatinine kinase is best initial
  • muscle biopsy is diagnostic

Treatment

  • Ultraviolate protection
  • physiotherapy
  • steroid
  • biological agent
190
Q

transiet synovitis

A
  • most common cause of acute hip pain in children 2-12 years
  • often follows or accompanied by viral infection
  • sudden onset hip pain or limp
  • no pain at rest
  • there is decrease range of motion particularly internal rotation
  • no fever
  • at risk of the development of perthes disease ( avascular necrosis of the capital femoral epiphysis of the femoral head)
  • ultrasound may show effusion
191
Q

most coomon cardic anomaly in turner syndrome

most common finding

A

Elongated transverse aortc arch

Bicuspid aortic valve

coarcitation of aorta

most common finding: fold skin at the nape of the neck

192
Q

fatures of congenital rubella syndrome

A

Triade of congenital rubella syndrome

  • Cardiac defect: most common (PDA, pulmonary, pulmonary artery stenosis)
  • Cataract: (other eye manifestations may occur later in life like glaucoma, salt and pepper retinopathy)
  • cochlear defect: bilateral sensorineural hearing loss
  • blueberry muffin rash
193
Q

faetures of marfan syndrome

most common cardiac deformity in marfan syndrome

A

most common congenital heart anomaly: motral valve prolapse

194
Q

features of inncoent murmur

A
  • short
  • soft
  • healthy child
  • no radiation
  • change with posture
  • no thrill (grade 1 to 2)

known as still’s murmur

195
Q

prophylactic measures for patients with congenital heart disease

A
  • high calorie diet (150 kcal/kg)
  • high dense calorie formula
  • immunization like influenza
  • RSV immunoglobulin prophylaxis
196
Q

murmurs

A
197
Q

indications for VSD closure surgically

A

VSD usually close spontanously if small (less than 5mm)

muscular VSD more likely to close than peirmembrenaous

Indications for surgical closure:

  • heart failure not responding to medications
  • large pulmonary blood flow with a ratio to systemic blood flow 2:1
  • early pulmonary hypertension

Method of closure: surgical

198
Q

management of Trtralogy of fallot

A
  • Oxygen
  • Sodium bicarbonate
  • Alpha agonist (phenylephrine)
  • Morphine
  • Adrenergic antagonist (beta blocker)
  • Hydration
199
Q

infective endocarditis diagnostic criteria

treatment for infective endocarditis

surgery is indicated in?

A

modified jones criteria

  • two positive blood culture out of 3 for typical organism (street viridans, staph aureus, HACEK)
  • ECHO findings like vegetation, abscess or dehiscence of prosthetic valve
  • new valvular regurgitation
  • fever
  • predisposing factors like IV drug abuse or congenital heart disease
  • immune phenomena like: roth spot, osler node, glomerulonephritis
  • vascular phenomena like janeway lesion, mycotic aneurysm, conjunctival hemorrhage, septic emboli
  • blood culture result don’t meet the major criteria

treatment: IV vancomycin for 6 weeks

surgery indicated in:

  • fungal endocarditis
  • severe valve regurgitation
  • dehiscence of prosthetic valve
  • myocardial abscess
  • mycotic aneurysm
200
Q

treatment of neonatal sepsis

A

Causes of neonatal sepsis:

  • Group B strept
  • Ecoli
  • Listeria mnocytogene

Treatment of early: ampicillin + gentamycin

Treatment of late: ampicillin + gentamycin + cefotaxime

201
Q

when to worry about vaginal discharge in newborns?

A
  • if persist more than 2 weeks
  • if it became yellow in color
  • if foul smelling
  • if mixed with blood
202
Q

differential of prolonged QT syndrome

A

Congenital:

  1. Jervell Lange syndrome: deafness, syncopal attacks and sudden death
  2. Romano Ward syndrome: autosomal dominant, most common inherited long T syndrome, syncope and sudden death.

Acquired:

  • During sleep
  • hypocalcemia
  • acute myocarditis
  • acute MI
  • hypothermia
  • HOCM
  • cerebral injury
  • advanced AV block
203
Q

approach to pediatric UTI

A

Treatment:

Indications for hospitalization:

  • age <2 months
  • clinical urosepsis
  • immunocompromised
  • vomiting and unable to tolerate oral
  • lack of outpatient follow up
  • failure to respond to outpatient therapy

Emperic antibiotic therapy:

  • children without genitourinary abnormality: Cephalosporin (if enterococcal infection is suspected add amoxicillin or ampicillin)
  • pyelonephritis: second generation cephalosporin (cefuroxime) or third generation (cefixime, cefdinir)

Duration of treatment:

  • Afebrile children are treated for 3-5 days
  • Febrile children are treated for 10 days

Imaging:

  • First febrile UTI in children younger than 2 >> renal bladder ultrasound
  • recurrent febrile UTI >> ultrasound
  • voiding cystourethrogram to diagnose vesicoureteral reflux if
  1. any age with >2 febrile UTI
  2. any anomaly on renal ultrasound
  3. temp >39c and a pathogen other than E coli
  4. poor growth or hypertension
  5. children less than 6 months + atypical UTI, recurrent UTI, hydronephrosis in US
  6. in children above 6 months: atypical UTI, hydronephrosis in rental US
204
Q

triad of wiskott aldrich syndrome:

A

X linked recessive

  • pupura
  • eczema
  • recurrent opportunistic infection with encapsulated organism (eg otitis media)
  • thrombocytopenia

Serum IgM is low

serum IgG is normal

Serum IgA and IgE are elevated

205
Q

chronic granulomatosis disease

A

deficiency of superoxide production by neutrophils and macrophage

Etiology: X linked recessive or autosomal recessive

Clinical feature:

  • recurrent severe infection (chronic skin, lymph node, respiratory , Gi, urinary tract infection) with catalase positive organism (S.aureus, E.coli, candida, klebsiella, psudomonas, aspergillus)
  • Lymphadenopathy
  • Granulomas
    *
206
Q

Chediak Higashi syndrome

A

defect in neutrophil chemotaxis and microtubule polymerization dysfunction

Autosomal recessive

Clinical feature:

  • recurrent pyogenic infection (s. pyogenes, s.aureus, psudomonas)
  • partial albinism
  • progressive degeneration of neurons and peripheral neuropathy
207
Q

features of Edwards syndrome

A

Prince Edward turned 18

  • Prominent occiput
  • Rocker bottom feet
  • Intellectual
  • Nondisjunction (in meiosis)
  • clenched fist
  • low set ears
  • chromose 18
208
Q

Trisomy 13 features:

A

Patau syndrome

  • Microcephaly, holoprosencephaly
  • cleft lip and palate
  • low set ears
  • micropthalmia
  • polydactyly
  • congenital heart defect
  • ricker bottom feet
  • aplasia cutis congenita
  • omphalocele
209
Q

prader willi syndrome

A
  • muscular hypotonia
  • hyperphagia and obesity
  • hypogonadism
  • almond shaped ears
  • intellectual disability
  • behavioral problems
210
Q

Trisomy 21 characteristics

A
  • upward slanting palpebral fissure
  • epicanthal fold
  • brushfield spots
  • apperanc of protroduing tongue
  • broad and flat nasal bridge
  • transevere palmer crease
  • sndal gap
  • clindodactyly
  • short stature
  • atlantoaxial instability
  • Congenital heart defect: Atrioventricular septal defect (endocardial cushion defect)
  • GI: duodenal atresia, hirshprung disease, annular pancreas
  • autoimmune: DM type 1, celiac disease, hypothyroid
  • most common malignancy: leukemia
  • CNS: mental retardation, central hypotonia (most common feature), seizure
  • recurrent otitis media and deafness
211
Q

prune belly syndrome

A
  • partial absence of abdominal wall muscle (prune like or wrinkled appearance)
  • bilateral cryptochrisim
  • urinary tract malformation (obstructed bladder neck: bladder distension)
212
Q

symptoms of galactosemia disorder:

A
  • jaundice
  • seizure
  • metabolic acidosis
  • cataract
  • recurrent e coli infection
  • urinary positive for glucose, amino acid and phosphate
213
Q

caustive organisms for reactive arthritis:

what is the characteristic triad of reactive arthritis

A
  • shigella
  • yersinia
  • salmonella
  • campylobacter
  • chlamydia

arthritis

conjunctivitis

urethritis

214
Q

Post exposure prophylaxis for meningococcal meningitis

A

Rifampin Ceftriaxone (preferred during pregnancy) Ciprofloxacin (avoid during pregnancy and if patient <18 of age)

215
Q

treatment of hydatid cyst

A

a hydatid cyst is caused by echinococcosis is a parasitic disease caused by small tapeworm

fecal contaminated food or water

definitive foxes, dogs, cats

treatment:

  • single cyst + <5cm ==> albendazole
  • single cyst + > 5cm ==> percutanous drainage (puncture, aspiration, injection, reaspiration)
  • daughter cells ==> surgical deroofing + albendazole
  • ultiseperated (rossete like or honeycoming) ==> surgical deroofing or albendazole
216
Q

Herpangina

A

acute infection that manifests with fever, sore throat, herpes-like lesion on the posterior oropharynx and tonsils

Etiology: Coxsackie A virus infection

Clinical feature:

  • high grade fever
  • sore throat
  • herpes like oral lesion: multiple 1mm vesicles located on the posterior oropharynx and tonsils
  • pharyngeal and tonsillar redness

Treatment:

  • supportive care
217
Q

management of increased intracranial pressure

A
  1. elevate head of the bed 30 degree
  2. sedation and analgesia
  3. maintain normothermia
  4. target euvolemia and avoid serum hypoosmolarity (serum sodium >135)
  5. seizure control: prophylaxis for patients with high risk seizure
  6. IV mannitol
  7. Dexamethasone if ICP is caused by CNS infection or neoplasm
  8. SURGICAL therapy
  • CSF drainage: External ventricular drain, lumbar drain, cerebral shunt
  • decompressive crainectomy:
218
Q

pertussis

A

typically affect age <1 year

Stages:

1- catarrhal stage: (1-2 weeks) mild cough, rhinorrhea, low-grade fever

2- paroxysmal stage (2-6 weeks): paroxysmal cough often at night, high pitched whooping cough, posttussive vomiting.

3- convalescent stage: coughing may persist for several weeks before resolving.

Diagnosis:

clinical diagnosis

culture or PCR from deep nasopharyngeal aspiration or posterior nasopharyngeal swab (gold standard)

Treatment:

MAcrolide: azithromycin, clarithromycin

post exposure prophylaxis:

all household contact of pertussis (regardless of their vaccine status) should receive macrolide

219
Q

treatment of thyroid storm:

A
  1. beta blocker to control symptoms
  2. thionamide (block new hormone synthesis): propythiouracil or methimazole
  3. iodine solution (block release of thyroid hormone)
  4. iodinated radiocontrast
  5. glucocorticoids (reduce conversion of T4 to T3)
220
Q

first line treatment for sarcoidosis:

A

glucocorticoids

221
Q

treatment of ulcerative colitis

A
222
Q

Empyema

A

accumulation of pus in the pleural cavity

Etiology: pneumonia

Clinical feature: fever, cough, chest discomfort

Diagnostic:

  • CT ches: split pleural sign
  • pleural fluid analysis: low pH, low glucose, increase LDH, purulent
223
Q

autoimmune hepatitis antibodies

A
224
Q

when does moro reflex disappear, palmer grasp, plantar grasp, rooting, stepping reflex, parachute reflex

A
225
Q

indications of laparotomy after injury

A

Unexplained signs of blood loss or hypotension in a patient who cannot be stabilized and in whom intra-abdominal injury is strongly suspected

●Clear and persistent signs of peritoneal irritation

●Radiologic evidence of pneumoperitoneum consistent with a viscus rupture

●Evidence of a diaphragmatic rupture

●Persistent, significant gastrointestinal bleeding seen in nasogastric drainage or vomitus

226
Q

vascular dementia

A

gradual cognitive decline caused by small or large vessel disease.

Risk factors:

  • Age
  • history of stroke
  • HTN
  • hyperglycemia
  • hypercholesterolemia and hypertriglyceridemia
  • obesity

Investigation:

  • Brain MRI: multiple cortical infract, subcortical infract *lacunar)
  • CT brain: microangiopathy lesion located in white matter, multiple lacunar lesion in subcortical brain
227
Q

differential diagnosis of vulvuvaginitis

A
228
Q

what is the treatment of SLE

A

depends on disease activity which is determined by

  • CBC
  • anti DsDNA
  • ESR
  • CRP
  • C3 and C4
  • GFR
229
Q

what are the medications of SLE that are contraindicated during pregnancy?

A
  • clyclophosphomide
  • methotrexate
  • mycophenalate
  • leflunamide
230
Q

features of infectious mononucleosis

A
231
Q

signs of severe asthma exacerbation

A
232
Q

Scarlet fever

A

Etiology Group A streptococcal infection Most common in children aged 5-12 years Clinical feature: Fever Headache Tonsillitis Sandpaper like maculopapular rash with flushed cheeks perioral sparing Tongue is white and coated and may be sore or swollen Treatment Penicillin V Erythromycin

233
Q

Blood transfusion electrolyte disturbance

A

Hyperkalemia Hypocalcemia Hypoglycemia Citrate toxicity

234
Q

Appendiceal carcinoid tumor management

A

Appendectomy is adequate treatment unless Lymph node involved visibly Tumor more than 2cm Mucinous element present in tumor Mesoappendix or base of cecum is invaded In these cases right hemicolectomy is recommended

235
Q

Treatment of lupus

A

Neuropsychiatric lupus: IV cyclophosphamide + corticosteroids Nephrotic and cardiac lupus: Mycophenalate + corticosteroids Systemic Hydroxycholochen + NSAID > steroid > methotrexate

236
Q

antiphospholipid syndrome treatment

A

Acute management

  • SC low molecular weight heparin or UF heparin
  • severe cases: high dose glucocorticods, plasmaphoresis, immunoglobulin

secondary prophylasxis:

1- Low risk: low dose asprin

2- High risk:

  • wishes to get pregnant: LMWH + asprin
  • doesn’t wish to conceive long term treatment with oral warfarin
237
Q

indications for endocsopic removal of foreign bodies

A
  • sharp objects
  • long objects >5cm
  • round batteries
  • magnetic objects
  • not passed in stool for 4 weeks
  • symptomatic: pain or fever

emergent removal

·When the patient shows signs of airway compromise

·When there is evidence of near-complete esophageal obstruction (eg, patient cannot swallow secretions)

·When the ingested object is sharp, long (>5 cm), or a superabsorbent polymer and is in the esophagus or stomach

·When the ingested object is a high-powered magnet or magnets

·When a disk battery is in the esophagus (and, in some cases, in the stomach)

·When there are signs or symptoms suggesting inflammation or intestinal obstruction (fever, abdominal pain, or vomiting)

238
Q

interstinal protozoa

A
239
Q

Erb palsy

A

Brachilal plexus injury

injury to the upper trunk of brachial plexus (c5-c6)

Clinical feature

  • waiter tip posture = flexed wrist with an extended forearm and internally rotated and abducted
  • bicep brachii
  • weak infraspinatus and supraspinatus
  • weak deltoid and supraspinatus
  • weak wrist extensor
  • asymmetric more reflex in infants
240
Q

indications for surgery in a patent with upper GI bleed?

A
  • failure of endoscopy therapy after 2 trials
  • persistent hemodynamic instability despite aggressive resuscitation
  • cardiovascular disease with predictive poor response to hypotension
  • hemorrhagic shock
  • excluding esophageal varices
  • after transfusion of 6 units of blood
241
Q

indications for craniotomy in subdural hematoma

A
  • open skull fracture
  • midline shift >5mm
242
Q

electrolyte changes in refeeding syndrome

A
  • hypokalemia
  • hypophosphatemia
  • hypomagnesemia
  • hyperglycemia
243
Q

when is it safe to operate on an MI patient?

A

after 6 weeks

244
Q

Signs that an ovarian cyst is suspicious for malignancy?

A
  • size >10cm Papillary Solid component Irrigularity Presence of ascitis High color Doppler flow
245
Q

Indications for cholecystectomy in gallbladder polyps:

A
  • >10mm - <3 polyps - increase in size >2mm - age >50 - symptomatic - associated with gallstones -Associated with primary sclerosis cholangitis with cirrhosis Otherwise continue ultrasound evaluation for 3-6 months.
246
Q

What 3 things improve the survival of COPD patients?

A
  • Smoking cessation - Vaccination (influenza and pneumococcal) - Home oxygen therapy
247
Q

Treatment of parapneumotic effusion

A

Pleural drain + pipracillin tazobatam

248
Q

Treatment of asthma

A
249
Q

What are the causative organisms of reactive arthritis

A

Chlamydia, ureaplasma urealyticum Shigella, yersinia, salmonella, campylobacter

250
Q

First line treatment for febrile neutropenia

A

Cefepime Meropenem Impeneum Pipracillin-tazobactam

251
Q

Electrolyte disturbances during re feeding syndrome

A

Hypophosphatemia -Hypokalemia - Congestive heart failure -Peripheral edema -Rhabdomyolysis -Seizures- Hemolysis -Respiratory insufficiency Hypophosphatemia is the hallmark of the syndrome and predominant cause of the refeeding syndrome

252
Q

Treatment of endometrial polyps?

A

Initial => D&C biopsy or hysteroscopy sampling Definitive => laparoscopic hysterectomy Indications for malignancy -old age >55, or post menopausal -endometrial thickening >20mm -abnormal uterine bleed

253
Q

Indication for operative treatment after chest thoracostomy

A
254
Q

Contraindications to IUD

A

Both copper and progesterone -suspected pregnancy -Undiagnosed genital tract bleeding - Acute or chronic PID -Lifestyle risk for STI -Known distorted uterine cavity -Immediatly post septic abortion Copper IUD -known allergy to copper Not contraindicated but increases blood loss and duration of menses and dysmenorrhea

255
Q

What is WAGR syndrome

A

Wilms tumor Anirdia Genitourinary anomalies Retarded mentally

256
Q

How to differentiate between an endometrial polyp and sub mucus fibroid

A

Endometrial polyp is usually a solitary homogenous and echo genie lesion

257
Q

Rules for resuscitation on previable fetus

A

22 => no resuscitation 22-25 =:> discuses risk and benefit with parents >25 => resuscitation is always initiated

258
Q

Complications after esophageal atresia correction

A

Anastomitic leak Esophageal stricture Recurrent fistula GERS

259
Q

When should children be screened for iron deficiency anemia

A

9-12 months

260
Q

Treatment of aspergillus pneumonia

A

Voriconazole

261
Q

Primary biliary cholangitis

A

Woman in 40-50 Fatigue and itching Normal bilirubin with an elevated alkaline phosphatase Xanthelasma/xanthoma Osteoporosis -Antimitochondrial antibody -Liver biopsy is definitive Treated with urodeoxycholid acid or obeticholic acid

262
Q

Acute otitis media: Etiology and treatment

A

Etiology: Streptococcus pneumonia H.influenza Moraxella catarrhalis Treatment Amoxicillin Amoxicillin-Calvulanate

263
Q

Erythema toxicum neonatorum

A

Erythema toxicum neonatorum (ETN) presents with multiple erythematous macules and papules (1 to 3 mm in diameter) that rapidly progress to pustules on an erythematous base. The lesions are distributed over the trunk and proximal extremities, sparing the palms and soles. They may be present at birth but typically appear within 24 to 48 hours. The rash usually resolves in five to seven days, although it may wax and wane before complete resolution. Biopsy will show eosinophils

264
Q

Transient neonatal pustular Melanosis

A

Biopsy will show neutrophils

265
Q

Indications for cholecystectomy in patients with acalculous cholecystitis

A

Gallbladder necrosis Emphysematous cholecystitis Gallbladder perforation Patients without indications for emergency cholecystectomy, who are critically ill or in poor health, or unfit for general anesthesia should be treated with gallbladder drainage

266
Q

Vaccination that is safe during pregnancy

A

Influenza given in first or second trimester DTaP given third trimester between 27-36 weeks

267
Q

Steroid sensitive age

A

24-96 months (2 years to 8 years)

268
Q

Indications for gallbladder polyp cholecystectomy

A

Size >10mm <3 polyps Symptomatic Age >50 Associated with gallstones

269
Q

Management of neuroendocrine appendix tumor

A

1cm —> appendectomy <2cm —> if on the tip of the appendix —> appendectomy. If at the base of the appendix —> right hemicolectomy. >2cm —> right hemicolectomy

270
Q

Pregnancy outcome in sickle cell disease

A

Fetal growth restriction Perinatal mortality Low birth weight Preeclampsia Maternal mortality Eclampsia

271
Q

Characteristics of innocent murmur

A

Grade <2 intensity Softer intensity when the patient is sitting compared to when he is supine Short systolic duration Minimal radiation Musical or vibratory quality

272
Q

B-HCG follow up after molar pregnancy

A

The initial B-hCG level is obtained within 48 hours after evacuation. (baseline) - Then weekly until undetectable. - Once B-hCG is undetectable(for three consecutive weeks), this is confirmed with monthly for another 6 months

273
Q

The risk of GERD post gastric sleeve

A

Between 10-50% Go with 30%

274
Q

Splenic trauma indications for surgery

A

Symptoms: LUQ pain Shoulder pain (kehr’s signs) LUQ mass (balance sign) Gastric bubble displacement Unstable patient >> FAST scan Stable patient >> CT scan Indication for non operative management: Hemodynamically stable <2 units transfusion No increasing hematoma size when followed by ultrasound Stable Hb Indications for splenectomy Grade 5 traumatic injury

275
Q

Malaria prophylaxis

A

Atovaquone proguanil

276
Q

Papillary thyroid cancer management

A

If <1cm —> lobectomy If >1cm —> near total or total thyroidectomy

277
Q

Treatment of pancreatic pseudo cyst

A

Usually wait until maturation of cyst 6 weeks If infected —> percutanous drainage If not infected —> endoscopic drainage

278
Q

Most common location for eczema

A

In infants below 6 months: face and scalp • Between 6 months to 2 years: extensor surfaces of elbows and knees • Between 2-5 years: extensor in elbows and knees, wrist and hands, around mouth and eyes • Above 5 years: flexor surfaces

279
Q

Contraindications to MMR vaccine

A

Severe life threatening allergy Pregnant Weak immune system or on radiation, immunotherapy, steroids, or chemotherapy Has parent or siblings with history of immune system problem Bleeds or bruise easily Recent blood transfusion (wait 3 months0 Has TB Has gotten any other vaccine within 4 weeks ago Moderate to severe illness

280
Q

Side effects of Amitriptyline?

A

Absolute side effect: constipation Most common side effect: weight gain

281
Q

Nerve injury after breast surgery

A

Long thoracic nerve: wining of scapula Thoracodorsal nerve: cant push up + weak adduction Medial and lateral pectoral nerve: weakness of the muscle Intercostobrachial nerve:anesthesia in the inner arm

282
Q

Indications for diyalisis in kidney injury

A

Refractory fluid overload ●Severe hyperkalemia (plasma potassium concentration >6.5 mEq/L) or rapidly rising potassium levels ●Signs of uremia, such as pericarditis, encephalopathy, or an otherwise unexplained decline in mental status ●Severe metabolic acidosis (pH <7.1) ●Certain alcohol and drug intoxications

283
Q

Shigella antibiotic treatment

A

Azithromycin and third generation cephalosporine (cefixime or ceftriaxone)

trimethoprime-sulfamethoxasole and ampicilin are also susciptible

284
Q

Molluscum contagiosum

A

Common localized skin infection caused by molluscum contagiosum On trunk, face, and genitalia Sexually transmitted Lesion appear smooth, dome shaped papilledma with central umbilication Self limited and heals spontaneously Could persist in immunocompromised individual treated with cryotherapy with liquified nitrogen If in the genital region it should be treated

285
Q

Signs of severe pancreatitis

A

Important predictors of severity 8 • Age > 55 • Gastrointestinal bleeding • Fall in Hct within 48 hours • Hypocalcemia and/or hyperglycemia • Inflammatory markers: ↑↑ CRP, ↑ IL-6, ↑ IL-8 • Evidence of shock and/or organ failure o ↑ AST, ↑ ALT o ↑ BUN, creatinine o ↑ LDH pO2 < 60 mm Hg, metabolic acidosis with a base deficit > 4 mmol/L

286
Q

Contraindications to nitrofurantoin

A

nitrofurantoin contraindications Children < 1 month of age Breastfeeding women Women at 38–42 weeks’ gestation or during delivery Hepatic dysfunction [70] Renal dysfunction with a creatinine clearance < 60 mL/min

287
Q

Laparoscopic repair indications and contraindications in hernia

A

laparoscopic repair indications: A- Recurrent B- Bilateral C- Needs less time for recovery. D- Femoral hernia (UTD) E- Female patient (UTD) laparoscopic repair contraindications: A-Inability to tolerate general anesthesia B-Prior pelvic surgery in the preperitoneal space C-Incarcerated inguinal hernia D-Strangulated inguinal hernia E-Large scrotal hernia F-Ascites G-Active infection

288
Q

Elderly vaccines

A

Influenza vaccine Pneumococcal vaccine Herpes zoster vaccine And Tdap one time if not immunized after age 65

289
Q

Pertussis secondary prophylactic for close contact

A

children > 1 month and adults: any macrolide; If macrolides are not tolerated, use trimethroprim-sulfamethoxazole. Infants < 1 month: azithromycin

290
Q

Treatment of uncomplicated cystitis

A

Cephalosporins as first Line oral agent Trimethoprime-sulphamethoxasole Nitrofurantoin Amoxicillin-clav