Smith - Cellular Homeostasis Flashcards

1
Q

In unicellular organisms:
primary limitation on proliferation is availability of _______ and _______
natural selection favors the cells that ______ more
more division = more mutations = faster ______
when a cell can no longer divide the organism _____

A

nutrients and energy
divide
evolution
dies

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2
Q

In multicellular organisms:
vast majority of cells are ____ dividing, regardless of availability of nutrients (stop dividing when they bump against one another
______ controls on different cell types
more divisons = more mutations = more _______
when a cell can no longer divide the organism must ___ ______
____ ____ is controlled

A
not
different
problems
be replaces
cell death
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3
Q

In the cell cycle, the cell first ______ its contents, then ______ into ____ _____ ______

A

duplicate
divides
two daughter cells

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4
Q

The division part of the cell cycle is called ______, and usually lasts about _____

A

mitosis

one hour

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5
Q

_____ phase is where there is the most variability among cell types

A

G1

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6
Q

The length of _______ determines the length of the cell cycle, with ____ being the greatest determinant

A

interphase

G0

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7
Q

The checkpoint at ____ is to ensure if the environment is favorable for division

A

G1

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8
Q

The checkpoint at ___ is to check is the environment is favorable AND that DNA is duplicated; and the cell with undergo apoptosis if not

A

G2

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9
Q

The checkpoint at ______ is to ensure the chromosomes are attached to the spindle

A

metaphase

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10
Q

_______ are normal cellular genes that function in cell proliferation

A

protooncogenes

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11
Q

Protooncogenes have a _____ mutant phenotype; cellular transformation occurs with a mutation in ____ allele

A

dominant

one

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12
Q

A mutated protooncogene is called a ______

A

oncogene

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13
Q

______ _____ _____ are anti proliferative genes

A

tumor supressor genes

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14
Q

Tumor supressor genes have a _____ mutant phenotype; loss of expression in _____ allele leads to uncontrolled cell division

A

recessive

both

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15
Q

_____ _____ are signals for proliferation, usually several work in concert to stimulate cell division; do not induce division, bind to specific cell receptors thus involved in signal transduction pathways, PDGF is the model

A

growth factors

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16
Q

How cells respond to PDGF (platelet derived growth factor):
increase in intracellular ____ ions
reorganization of ___ stress fibers to facilitate attachment
activation and nuclear translocation of _____ _____
____ synthesis and _____ division

A
calcium
actin
transcription factors
DNA
cell
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17
Q

Growth factors: PDGF

growth factor + growth factor receptor –> receptor _________

A

oligomerization

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18
Q

Growth factors: PDGF

receptor oligomerization —> receptor ____ activation (intrinsic = ______; extrinsic = ______)

A

PTK (protein tyrosine kinase)
part of receptor
separate protein that associates with receptor

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19
Q

Growth factors: PDGF

receptor PTK activation –> ______ of PTK moiety —> docking sites form

A

phosphorylation

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20
Q

Growth factors: PDGF

once docking sites form —> _______ of signaling enzymes —> activation of _____ _____

A
recruitment
signal transduction (ST) elements
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21
Q

PTKs transfer a __________ group of ATP to _________ residues on target substrate proteins

A

γ-phosphate

tyrosine

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22
Q

Tyrosine phosphorylation, which is a covalent modification of proteins, provides a _________ and ________ (by the action of protein tyrosine phosphatases) mechanism of modifying the enzymic activity of target proteins.

A

rapid

reversible

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23
Q

The importance of PTKs in cell _______ and ________ function is illustrated by the defects resulting from _________ in these genes occurring in humans

A

proliferation
effector
mutations

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24
Q

Mutations in ______ can result in severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) due to severe abnormalities in T cell development, X-linked agammaglobulinemia, an immunodeficiency characterized by lack of IgG antibody production, chronic myeloid leukemia (CML), acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL), and occasionally in acute myeloid leukemia (AML)

A

PTK

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25
Docking sites created by PTK can lead to recruitment of _______ _______ enzymes, specifically PLC and GAP
downstream signaling
26
PDGF is a ______ ______ receptor, it involves ________ and _____-____ cascades, it is involved in the recruitment of _____, the second messengers are _____ and ______, and its molecular switch is ______
``` membrane bound phosphatidylinositol Ras-MAPK PLC IP3 DAG Ras ```
27
If Ras is on then _____ undergoes uncontrolled division; because Ras regulates the _____ pathway, which is involved in the regulation of DNA synthesis and cell division (TF activation)
MAPK
28
Grb2 and Sos recruit _____ and is inactive due to GDP; _____ promotes the activation of _____ whereas ____ inactivates ____ by stimulating its intrinsic ______ activity
``` Ras Sos Ras GAP Ras GTP ```
29
______ of all tumors have mutation in ____ that render it constituently active
30% | Ras
30
With cytokines; hemopoietic receptors are ____ _____, JAKs couple the receptor directly to ________, STATs ________ in cytoplasm then translocate to the nucleus to activate _______
membrane bound transcription phosphorylated transcription
31
``` True or False The following are key regulators of the cell cycle: cyclin/CDK complexes retinoblastoma protein (Rb) p53 (tumor supressor gene) CDKIs E2F family of Tfs ```
True
32
Cyclin/CDK (cyclin dependent kinses) the _______ of cyclins via mRNA/protein levels the _______ on CDKs via phosphorylation and CDKIs A CDK can have _____ activities when interacting with different cyclins
abundance activity differing
33
Growth factors usually exert effects between the onset of ____ and the _____ _____ (late G1)
G1 | restriction point
34
Once past the restriction point, the rest of the phases up to mitosis are ______, but not ______
committed | unregulated
35
_________ is the gatekeeper of the restriction point
retinoblastoma (Rb)
36
In early G1, ______ prevents transcription factors, closer to the restriction point _________ phosphorylates _____; hyperphosphorylated _____ releases TFs allowing the cycle to pass the restriction point
Rb cyclin D-CDK4 Rb Rb
37
If damage is detected during the cell cycle, ________ induces unphosphorylation of Rb
CDKI p21
38
In S phase, ______ monitors for damage
p53
39
While committed, the cell cycle can be _____ ____ beyond the restriction point if DNA needs to be repaired
slowed down
40
Irreparable damage during cell cycle = ________
apoptosis
41
In apoptosis; inappropriate cell death can lead to _________ disorders, subversion of cell death leads to _____ or ______ disease
degenerative cancer autoimmune
42
In apoptosis, caspases are _________, | ______ is a regulator and its antiapoptotic
proteases | Bcl-2
43
Cell death domains attract ________ which induce _____ _____ activation cascade, causing apoptosis; survival factors stimulate ______ which inactivate _______ allowing the cell to survive
procaspases proteolytic caspase Bcl-2 caspases
44
Hyperphosphorylation and inactivation of Rb leading to deregulated malignant cell proliferation leads to ______ cancer(s)
breast
45
Loss of Rb control of cell cycle, leading to deregulated malignant cell proliferation leads to _____ cancer(s)
retinoblastoma(s)
46
Loss of Rb control of cell cycle leads to ______ cancer(s)
cervical
47
Loss of inhibition of cyclin D-CDK4/6 complexes, resulting in inappropriate hyperphosphorylation and inactivation of Rb leads to ______ cancers
many; a variety of tumor cells
48
Loss of inhibition of cyclin D-CDK4/6 complexes, resulting in loss of Rb control of cell cycle leads to _______ cancer(s)
melanomas
49
Each tumor originated from a _____ mutant cell(s) that outgrew its neighbors
single
50
The normal mutation rate = _____/cell divison
10 to the 6th
51
Several _____ mutations have to occur over a lifetime, which is why cancer increases exponentially with ____; usually ___-___ mutations required
rare age 3-7
52
90% of human cancers are ________
carcinomas
53
Cancer of the epithelial tissue type is _______
carcinoma
54
Cancer of the connective tissue or muscle tissue type is ________
sarcoma
55
Cancer of the hematopoietic tissue type is ________
leukemia
56
_______ were first identified as viral genes that infect normal cells and lead to transformation
oncogenes
57
C-Src protooncogene is a ______ involved in normal cell growth (removes introns)
PTK
58
Viral oncogene is a _____ _____ of normal cellular gene
mutated homolog
59
A gene can come under control of a _______ ______ or _____ that a virus introduces into the genome
constitutive promoter | enhancer
60
Insertion of a ______ can cause activation of a protooncogene
retrovirus
61
85% of human tumors arise from _____ _____ or ______ in oncogenes
point mutations | deletions
62
In _______ cancer, 50% of these tumors had an activating point mutation in a Ras oncogene, and 75% of these cancers had an inactivating mutation in p53; loss of the DNA-damage sensing function of p53 allows the cells to accumulate, at a rapid rate (these mutations appear to be the rate-limiting steps)
colorectal
63
_______ are extremely rare; the hereditary form results from a deletion or loss of function mutation of the Rb gene in _____ cell In the non-hereditary form, both copes are defective in cancer forms
retinoblastomas | every
64
The most common genetic lesion found in human cancer is in ____
p53
65
Individuals with only one functional _____ are predisposed to sarcoma, lung, breast, larynx, and colon cancers, brain tumors, and leukemias
p53
66
True or False Signs and symptoms of oral cancers can be; white or red patches in the mouth, a mouth sore that doesn't heal, bleeding, loose teeth, painful swallowing, a lump in the neck, and an earache
True
67
True or False | Oral cancer count for roughly 20% of all malignant lesions worldwide
False; only about 5%
68
True or False | The 5-year survival rate of oral cancer is ~80%
False; the survival rate is only 50% mostly due to late detection
69
The majority (96%) of oral cancers are ________
carcinomas
70
Most oral cancers are _______ cell carcinomas that tend to ______ ______
squamous | spread quickly
71
True or False | Oral cancers rank #10 in the global cancer burden
False; they rank at #5
72
True or False | Oral cancers may require surgery, radiation, or chemotherapy (or a combination of them all)
True
73
True or False | Smoking/tobacco use is associated with nearly 90% of all oral cancer cases
False; it is associated with ~75%
74
True or False Besides smoking/tobacco use, other risk factors for oral cancer include heavy alcohol use, HPV, chronic irritation, immunosuppressants, and poor dental/oral hygiene
True; most cancers arise from a combination of different risk factors
75
________ converts nicotine to cotinine which is glucuronidated and then enters the bloodstream
CYP2A6 (cytochrome P450s)
76
in the body, ______ can be oxidized and will act as an alkylating agent, leading to DNA damage
amines
77
_____ are ROS
NOs
78
_____ mutation = oral cancer from smoking
GST
79
Extra-hepatic metabolism of alcohol to acetaldehyde is particularly shown to occur in oral cavity, acetaldehyde is __________, and increases ______ permeability; heterozygous genotype substantially predisposed to esophageal cancer
mutagenic | mucosal
80
______ interferes with DNA repair enzymes; oral microflora produces a considerable amount (streptococci)
acetaldehyde
81
______ decreases secretions from parotid glands
alcohol
82
There is mounting evidence that _____ in ______ is causing a predisposition to oral cancer
alcohol in mouthwash
83
____ is more often a cause of oral cancer than smoking
HPV
84
HPV-16 immortalized cells express higher _____ enzymes; significantly higher concentrations of the _______ compound derived from nicotine in the cervical mucosa of smokers; thus more likely to have carcinogenic nitrosamines produced in those cells
P450 | butanone
85
HPV E6 interacts with ____ preventing commitment to apoptosis
p53
86
HPV E7 binds to ___ preventing damaged cell growth stoppage
Rb
87
HPV E5 inhibits ATPS involved in ________ function, delaying endosomal litigation, delaying the response to ____
lysosomal | ROS