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SMDR 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Immunization periodicity:

A

Daily

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2
Q

Halogen testing underway periodicity:

A

Daily

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3
Q

Preventative Maintenance System checks and update 3-M completion SKED programs periodicity:

A

Weekly

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4
Q

Habitability sanitation inspection periodicity:

A

Quarterly

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5
Q

Stretcher bearer training periodicity:

A

Bi - Weekly

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6
Q

Controlled Substance Inventory and report periodicity with NO transaction:

A

Quarterly

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7
Q

Controlled Substance Inventory and report periodicity with transaction:

A

Monthly

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8
Q

Who submits the CSI report and who does it go to?

A
  • Senior member of the CSIB

- Submitted to CO

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9
Q

Emergency AMAL gear and equipment inventory periodicity:

A

Semi-Annually

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10
Q

List Emergency Supplies:

A
  • Sick Bay Emergency Medical Material
  • IDC Emergency Kit
  • Battle Dressing Station (BDS)
  • Mass Casualty Boxes (FAB)
  • Gun Bags
  • Boat Boxes
  • Stretchers and Litters
  • Decontamination
  • CBRN Force Health Protection (FHP)
  • Non-Combatant Evacuation Operation (NEO) material
  • Oxygen Supply (Medical Gases)
  • Surgical Instruments Sets, Sterilization procedures, and Sterilization Log
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11
Q

Bulk head to Bulk head of medical storerooms periodicity:

A

Annually

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12
Q

Bulk head to Bulk head inventory document:

A

Memorandum For the Record (MFR)

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13
Q

Mass Casualty drill periodicity:

A

Semi-Annually

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14
Q

HREC audit periodicity:

A

Semi-Annually

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15
Q

HREC verification periodicity per Navy directive:

A

Annually

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16
Q

Long Range Training Plans periodicity:

Who is the report submitted to?

A
  • Annually

- Training Officer

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17
Q

Retiring records periodicity per Navy directives:

A

Annually

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18
Q

When and Why are Memorandums For the Record (MFR) Submitted:

A

As needed to document significant events

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19
Q

Who exercise overall control and accountability of the Quality Assurance (QA) program?

A

TYCOM

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20
Q

Who does the IDC inform immediately if any patients are outside his scope of practice?

A

CO

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21
Q

Who do we seek for immediate consultation for any questionable cases?

A

Medical Officer

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22
Q

What instruction delineates an IDCs required maintained skill level within scope of care?

A

OPNAVINST 6400.1

IDC Training Certification and Supervision Guidelines

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23
Q

Who counter-signs all SF 600s for junior HMs?

A

IDC

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24
Q

What chapter of the 6000.1 refers to Navy Ready Reserve Personnel?

A

Chapter 6: Medical Planning

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25
Q

What is Chapter 7 of the 6000.1?

A

Blood Program

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26
Q

What Chapter of the 6000.1 cover NAVMED 6700/3?

A

Chapter 3: Fiscal/Supply Management

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27
Q

What Chapter of the 6000.1 covers Medical Boards?

A

Chapter 4: Health Care

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28
Q

What is the NAVMED 6700/3?

A

Medical and Dental Equipment Maintenance Record

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29
Q

What Chapter of the 6000.1 covers Calcium Hypochlorite (HTH) storage?

A

Chapter 5: Environmental Health and Preventative Medicine Afloat

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30
Q

What Chapter of the 6000.1 covers Active Duty Women’s Physical examination?

A

Chapter 4: Health Care

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31
Q

What Chapter covers Planning Board for Training (PB4T)?

A

Chapter 2: Training

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32
Q

What Chapter of the 6000.1 covers Shipboard Emergency Medical Readiness?

A

Chapter 4: Health Care

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33
Q

What Chapter of the 6000.1 covers Medical Department Organizational Manual?

A

Chapter 1: General

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34
Q

What Chapter of the 6000.1 covers Drugs Requiring Special Custodial Care?

A

Chapter 3: Fiscal/Supply Management

35
Q

What Chapter of the 6000.1 covers Inspection and reporting procedures for PREVMED ?

A

Chapter 5: Environmental Health and Preventative Medicine Afloat

36
Q

What Chapter of the 6000.1 covers Casualty evacuation?

A

Chapter 6: Medical Planning

37
Q

What instructions govern Medical Department Inspections?

A

COMNAVSURFPAC/COMNAVSURFLANTINST 3502.7

ATGPACINST 3502.1

38
Q

How often are Dental Readiness Inspection (DRI)?

A
  • Every 18 months

- 120 days prior to deployment

39
Q

When is the Medical Readiness Inspection (MRI) conducted and who conducts it?

A
  • Within 90 days of deployment
  • Every 18 months
  • Conducted by ISIC
40
Q

What instruction cover the Dental Readiness Inspection (DRI)?

A

COMUSFLTFORCOMINST 6600.1

41
Q

Board on Inspection and Survey (INSURV) periodicity:

A
  • Prior to commission
  • Prior to de-commision
  • At every Refueling and Overhaul (ROH) about every 5 years
42
Q

What is the purpose of INSURV?

A
  • Ship wide survey to determine the efficiency in which tax payer money is being spent
  • Reported to Congress via COC
43
Q

What instruction governs NAVOSH?

A

OPNAVINST 5100.19

44
Q

OPNAVNOTE 5215:

A

A semi - consolidated instruction issued by Washington DC, HQ organizations ( OPNAV, BUMED, JAGC, NAVAIR, SECNAV, ETC

45
Q

What Manuel provides concise procedures for the drafting of DON GENADMIN messages?

A

Navy Telecommunication User’s Manuel (NTP-3 series)

46
Q

What is used for providing the correct Plain Language Address (PLAD) for messages of any type?

A

Message Address Directory (USN PLAD-1)

47
Q

Where can you find MRI checklists?

A

COMNAVSURFPACINST 6000.2

COMNAVSURFLANTINST 6000.2

48
Q

What is the OPNAVNOTE 5400?

A

Standard Navy Distribution List

49
Q

Where can I find a list of Homeport/Squadrons?

A

Standard Navy Distribution List

OPNAVNOTE 5400

50
Q

When does MRD conduct inspections on emergency AMALs.

A

M-1 Basic Phase

51
Q

What readiness milestone includes CRAV?

A

Readiness Evaluation 3 ( READ-E 3 )

52
Q

How many section of MRI are there, and what are they?

A

Section 1 - Administration and Training
Section 2 - Supplies and Equipment
Section 3 - Emergency Medical Preparedness
Section 4 - Ancillary Services
Section 5 - Environmental Health Services
Section 6 - Occupational Health Programs

53
Q

C - Status Determination: 90% +

A

C - 1 Full Ready

54
Q

C - Status Determination: 80% +

A

C - 2 Substantially Ready

55
Q

C - Status Determination: 70% +

A

C- 3 Marginally Ready

56
Q

C - Status Determination: - 69%

A

C - 4 Not Ready

57
Q

What Logs are IDCs required to maintain?

A
  • Sick Call
  • Training
  • Heat Stress
  • STI
  • Potable Water
  • Pest Control
  • Temperature
  • Medical Waste / Disposal
  • Consultation
58
Q

IMR Status of a sailor with missing record?

A

Indeterminate

59
Q

If a sailor is due for Tetanus what is there IMR status?

A

Partially Medically Ready

60
Q

If a sailor is a dental class 2 what is their IMR status?

A

Fully Medically Ready

61
Q

If a sailor is a dental class 3 what is their IMR status?

A

Not Medically Ready

62
Q

COMNAVSURFINST 3502.1:

A

Surface Force Training Manual

63
Q

How long is the Long Range Training Plan good for?

64
Q

Who is the LRTP submitted to?

A

Training Officer

65
Q

What is the minimum number of Stretcher Bearers needed?

66
Q

What is medicals role for Health related GMTs?

A

Act as a Resource

67
Q

What is the minimum number of phone talkers required?

68
Q

When is training conducted on First Aid Boxes?

69
Q

What is OPNAVINST 6400.1?

A

Certification Supervision and Employment of IDCs

70
Q

When do we brief the crew on Medical services provided ashore and afloat?

71
Q

Who gets trained on Heat Stress and Hearing Conservation?

72
Q

What personnel require special training?

A
  • Food Service
  • Potable Water
  • Barber Shop
  • Laundry
  • CHT Systems
73
Q

Is Occ Health a NAVOSH program?

74
Q

Is Environmental Health a NAVOSH program?

75
Q

Who chairs the PB4T?

76
Q

What is the minimum amount of officer on a med board?

77
Q

Who determines a sailor is unfit for duty?

A

CPEB - Central Physical Examination Board

78
Q

Junior sailors have how long to qual in 3M, DC, HM PQS?

79
Q

Return to duty:

A

Closest MTF

80
Q

Not returning for duty:

A

Closest to Home

81
Q

What is the ANNEX Q?

A

Medical appendix of the OP PLAN

82
Q

Define OP PLAN:

A

Provide guidance of operations in order to accomplish the objective

83
Q

What chapter of the 6000.1 covers Motion Sickness?

SMDR (1 decks)

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