SmarterMA Terms Flashcards

1
Q

“Ac”

A

“Before meals” (“ante cibum”)

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2
Q

“Pc”

A

“After meals”

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3
Q

“Bid”

A

Two times daily

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4
Q

“Tid”

A

Three times daily

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5
Q

“Qid”

A

Four times daily

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6
Q

Qh

A

Every hour

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7
Q

Q4h

A

Every 4 hours

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8
Q

Q8h

A

Every 8 hours

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9
Q

Q12h

A

Every 12 hours

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10
Q

Qd

A

Every day

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11
Q

“PRN”

A

As needed (“pro re nata”)

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12
Q

“Stat”

A

Immediately, ASAP

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13
Q

AM

A

Morning

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14
Q

PM

A

Evening

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15
Q

“gtt”

A

Drops

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16
Q

“Po”

A

By mouth

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17
Q

“Pr”

A

Rectally, dosage route

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18
Q

“Pv”

A

Vaginally, dosage route

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19
Q

“Otic”

A

In the ear, dosage route

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20
Q

“Opth”

A

In the eye, dosage route

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21
Q

“Sol”

A

Solution

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22
Q

“Tab”

A

Tablet

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23
Q

“Qs”

A

As much as is needed

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24
Q

“Sig”

A

Write (on the label)

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25
Q

SubQ/SQ/SC

A

Subcutaneous

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26
Q

“Supp”

A

Suppository

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27
Q

“Sl”

A

Sublingual

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28
Q

“Top”

A

Topical, dosage route

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29
Q

Absorption
(Medication pathways)

A

Process by which a drug enters the bloodstream after administration

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30
Q

Distribution
(Medication pathways)

A

The process by which a drug is transported throughout the body via the circulatory system

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31
Q

Metabolism
(Medication pathways)

A

The process by which the body breaks down a drug into smaller components, making it easier to eliminate from the body

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32
Q

Excretion
(Medication pathways)

A

The process by which a drug and its metabolites are eliminated from the body

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33
Q

Hemoptysis

A

Coughing up of blood

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34
Q

Hematesis

A

Vomiting up of blood

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35
Q

Hematuria

A

Blood in the urine

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36
Q

Amenorrhea

A

Absence of a menstrual period

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37
Q

Menarche

A

The first menstrual period

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38
Q

Dysmenorrhea

A

Severe cramping during menstrual periods

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39
Q

Tardive

A

Slow onset of symptoms

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40
Q

Nosocomial

A

Diseases acquired while in a healthcare setting

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41
Q

Ischemia

A

Restriction of oxygen-rich blood to a part of the body

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42
Q

Hypertrophy

A

The enlargement of an organ or tissue

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43
Q

Hypotrophy

A

The underdevelopment of an organ or tissue

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44
Q

Necrosis

A

Death of a cell or tissue

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45
Q

Sign

A

Objective, observable by others (ex. fever, rash, et.)

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46
Q

Symptom

A

Subjective, self-reported by the patient (ex. pain, nausea, et.)

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47
Q

Sign v Symptom

A

Signs are objective while symptoms are subjective

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48
Q

“Sx”

A

Symptoms

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49
Q

“nsf”

A

No significant findings

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50
Q

“ns”

A

No-show

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51
Q

“Pe”

A

Physical exam

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52
Q

“Sob”

A

Shortness of breath

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53
Q

Pharmacokinetics

A

The branch of pharmacology concerned with how the body moves drugs through the body

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54
Q

Pharmacotherapeutics

A

The study of how medications are used to treat medical conditions (the effectiveness and safety of drug treatments)

55
Q

Pharmacodynamics

A

Studies the biochemical and physiological effects of drugs and their mechanisms of action (how drugs affect the body)

56
Q

Pharmacogenetics

A

The study which combines pharmacology and genomics to understand how an individual’s genes affect their response to drugs

57
Q

Myalgia

A

Muscular pain

58
Q

Malaise

A

The general feeling of discomfort and fatigue when sick

59
Q

Neuropathy

A

Conditions which affect the nerves

60
Q

Neuralgia

A

Severe, shooting, or stabbing pain that occurs along the course of a nerve

61
Q

Diaphoresis

A

Extreme sweating

62
Q

Anhidrosis

A

Lack of sweating

63
Q

Ascites

A

The abnormal fluid accumulation in the abdominal cavity

64
Q

Parenteral

A

A route of medication administration which bypasses the digestive tract (commonly via injection)

65
Q

Epistaxis

A

Nose bleed

66
Q

Antineoplastics

A

A class of drugs designed to treat cancer by slowing down the growth and spread of cancer cells

67
Q

Antipyretics

A

A class of drugs which reduce fevers (anti-fever meds)

68
Q

Drug Schedule I

A

Not acceptable for medical use; high potential for abuse

69
Q

Drug Schedule II

A

Acceptable for medical use; high potential for abuse

70
Q

Drug Schedule III

A

Acceptable for medical use; lower potential for abuse

71
Q

Drug Schedule IV

A

Acceptable for medical use; lower potential for abuse

72
Q

Drug Schedule V

A

Acceptable for medical use; lowest potential for abuse

73
Q

A BMI less than 18.5 is considered…

A

Underweight

73
Q

A BMI between 18.5 and 24.9 is considered…

A

Normal weight

74
Q

A BMI between 25 and 29.9 is considered…

A

Overweight

75
Q

A BMI greater than 30 is considered…

76
Q

A BP <120/<80 is considered…

77
Q

A BP of 120-129/<80 is considered…

78
Q

A BP of 130-139/80-89 is considered…

A

Stage I Hypertension

79
Q

A BP of >140/>90 is considered…

A

Stage II Hypertension

80
Q

A BP of >180/>120 is considered…

A

Hypertensive Crisis

81
Q

“-pathy”

A

Relating to disease (suffix)

82
Q

Dysuria

A

Painful urination

83
Q

“-emia”

A

Relating to a blood condition (suffix)

84
Q

“-ole”

A

Refers to something small (suffix)

85
Q

Mnemonic for blood draw order

A

Your Brother Robert Gives Lovely Gifts

86
Q

How many electrodes are required for a 12-lead EKG?

87
Q

Mnemonic for capillary blood draw order

A

Gasp, Lucy GreetS Ozzy’s Son

Gasp = Blood gases (green, lithium heparin)
Lucy = Lavender
GreetS = Green (sodium heparin)
Ozzys = Other additives (grey)
Son = Serum tubes (yellow/gold/red)

88
Q

Which administration route is utilized to complete a Mantoux (PPD) test?

A

Intradermal injection

89
Q

When collecting a capillary sample for a peripheral blood smear, what guidelines should be kept in place?

A
  • Wipe the initial drop of blood with gauze and use the second drop of blood
  • Puncture the skin perpendicular to the grooves of the fingerprint to form a blood drop
  • Puncture the middle or ring fingers
  • Touch the blood to the slide between 0.5 to 1.0 inches from the end of the slide
90
Q

An interrupted baseline EKG artifact made up of a disruption of the tracing and a flat line are indicative that…

A

An EKG lead has been disconnected

91
Q

A somatic tremor EKG artifact made up of jagged, up-and-down spikes is indicative of…

A

Excessive patient movement

92
Q

Weber test for audition

A

1) Place a vibrating tuning fork on the patient’s forehead or head
2) Ask the patient to indicate when they hear the sound equally in both ears
3) If the sound is heard more loudly in one ear, it may indicate an issue with that ear

93
Q

Rinne test for audition

A

1) Place a vibrating tuning fork on the patient’s mastoid bone (behind the ear)
2) Ask the patient to indicate when they can no longer hear the sound equally
3) Hold the tuning fork in front of the patient’s ear and ask them to indicate when they can no longer hear the sound
4) Compare the length of time the sound was heard by the patient when it was placed on the bone versus when it was held in front of the ear
5) If the sound is heard longer when the tuning fork is held on the patient’s mastoid bone (behind the ear) or if heard longer when the tuning fork is in front of the ear but not twice as long, it may indicate an issue with the ear

94
Q

When processing a urine specimen, which factors must be considered?

A
  • Ideal volume of 30-45 mL
  • Patient should not flush the toilet
  • Temperature should be recorded within 4 minutes to ensure freshness
95
Q

When processing a urine specimen, which factors must be considered?

A
  • Ideal volume of 30-45 mL
  • Patient should not flush the toilet
  • Temperature should be recorded within 4 minutes to ensure freshness
96
Q

A newborn screening card should be collected when?

A

Between 24 and 48 hours of birth. This allows the baby to have already eaten and stabilized.

97
Q

In an obese patient, which vein is typically the only one which can be palpated and is considered the second best site for venipuncture?

A

Cephalic vein

98
Q

How many times should an EDTA tube be flipped?

A

8-10 times.
“Yellow, Lavender, Green, and Grey, flip them 8 to 10 today!”

99
Q

What could be the cause of AC interference on an EKG?

A

Cell phone use due to the electrical interference.

100
Q

How long should one wait before checking the results of an allergen scratch test?

A

15-20 minutes.

101
Q

How far apart should individual allergens be tested during an allergen scratch test?

A

1-2 inches apart

102
Q

Which bandaging technique is used to wrap a sprained ankle?

A

Figure 8 technique

103
Q

What is an example of a blood draw that must be placed on ice within 30 minutes of collection?

A

Arterial blood gases (ABG), lactic acid, ammonia, pyruvate

104
Q

What are factors to consider during an at-home semen specimen collection?

A
  • Patients should abstain from ejaculation for 2-7 days prior to collection
  • Use of a sterile container
  • Avoid condom use to collect sperm as they likely have spermicides
  • The sample should be kept warm and protected from light
  • Specimen must be analyzed within 1 hour of collection
105
Q

If a patient cannot tell the difference between red and green, what tool should be used to assess this?

A

Ishihara chart

106
Q

What is a Snellen chart used for?

A

The Snellen chart is used to measure visual acuity at a distance of 20 feet.

107
Q

What is impedance audiometry utilized for?

A

Impudence audiometry assesses the function of the middle ear and hearing

108
Q

What is a tonometer utilized for?

A

A tonometer is utilized to measure the pressure inside of the eye (intraocular pressure)

109
Q

What is an Ishihara chart utilized for?

A

The Ishihara chart is utilized to evaluate a patient’s color vision.

110
Q

How long is urine collected during a urine creatinine test?

A

For a urine creatinine test, urine is collected for 24 hours.

111
Q

What test result does warfarin administration affect?

A

PT/INR (Prothrombin time/International Normalized Ratio)

112
Q

True/False: Allowing an alcohol rub to dry before inserting a needle is critical to preventing hemolysis.

113
Q

What is the dimension of a standard calibration square on an EKG sheet?

A

10 mm height x 5 mm width

114
Q

How much does one large box measure on an EKG?

A

0.2 seconds

115
Q

How much does one small box measure on an EKG?

A

0.04 seconds

116
Q

What is the normal setting for the standardization mark on an EKG print out?

118
Q

Airborne transmission precaution should be followed by a medical assistant when handling which of the following patients?

1) Measles
2) MRSA
3) Mumps
4) Meningitis

A

1) Measles

119
Q

When a medical assistant is instructing a patient on a 24-hour urine collection. Which instructions should the assistant provide?

A

The first void in the morning should be discarded.
The collected urine should be kept refrigerated.
All samples should be placed into the same container.

120
Q

“Problem focused” examination

A

Limited examination of specific body area mentioned in the chief complaint

Ex.: examining a sprained ankle only

121
Q

“Expanded problem focused” examination

A

Limited examination of specific area mentioned in chief complaint as well as related systems

Ex.: examining a sprained ankle and assessing related leg movement

122
Q

“Detailed” examination

A

Extended examination of specific body area and related systems, as well as past and present medical history

Ex.: examining a sprained ankle, leg movement, and reviewing past ankle injuries

123
Q

“Comprehensive” examination

A

General examination of multiple symptoms

Ex.: full physical exam

124
Q

What is the minimum amount of time a medical assistant should recommend a patient to keep their bandage on after a venipuncture?

A

15 minutes.

125
Q

During a peak flow test, the patient…

A

Exhales forcefully; measures the capacity of the lungs

126
Q

What instructions should the medical assistant include while directing a patient on collecting a sputum specimen for laboratory testing?

A

The specimen should be collected right after waking up as sleep allows time for mucus to build up and accumulate.
Specimen should be collected before eating, or several hours after eating to prevent cross-contamination. Same applies to drinking to avoid diluting the sputum.

127
Q

When should a medical assistant aliquot a serum specimen?

A

Immediately after centrifugation.

128
Q

After completing a venipuncture, how long is it necessary to monitor the venipuncture site after releasing pressure and placing a bandage to check for any bleeding?

A

5 to 10 seconds.

129
Q

At what angle is an arterial venipuncture performed?

130
Q

How long should a urine pregnancy test take for a result?

A

3 minutes.

131
Q

What does a normal tympanogram produce on its graph?

A

A peaked line is indicative of a normal tympanogram reading with normal middle ear pressure and function.

Tympanometry is a diagnostic test of the movement of the eardrum in response to changes in air pressure to assess for fluid buildup or the presence of an infection.

132
Q

When performing an EKG on a patient with breast implants, in what area should the CCMA place the chest leads V4, V5, and V6?

A

The CCMA should place chest leads V4, V5, and V6 closer towards the midaxillary line to place leads further from the breast implants and avoid interference.

133
Q

How long should a serum specimen tube be allowed to clot before centrifugation?

A

30 minutes.