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LAM II - RUSS > Small Ruminants > Flashcards

Small Ruminants Flashcards

1
Q

Oldest domesticated farm animals?

A

Goats

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2
Q

of Chromosomes goats have?

A

60

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3
Q

Broad reasons people keep goats?

A

meat, milk, hides, fiber

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4
Q

Eating Methods:

Goats are _____, while sheep are ______

A

browsers, grazers

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5
Q

A limiting factor in goat keeping is sometimes….

A

the strong smell associated with the males

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6
Q

Two genuses of wild goats?

A

Genus capra, genus hemitragus

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7
Q

The 6 main breeds of dairy goats

A 
Nubian, 
Saanen,
Toggenburg,
Alpine,
Oberhaslie
La mancha
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8
Q

Two main types of meat goats

A

Boer Spanish

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9
Q

3 main reasons to keep sheep

A

meat, milk, fiber

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10
Q

T/F due to their different grazing spectrum, sheep cannot be pastured with cattle and horses

A

F, they can be.

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11
Q

2 main wool types of sheep

A

Merino, Rambuillet

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12
Q

5 main meat types of sheep

A 
Suffolk,
Southdown
Dorset
Texel
Hampshire
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13
Q

3 main hair types of sheep

A

Barbados black belly,
Virgin Island white
Katahdin

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14
Q

T/F The gums are not the best location to accurately assess membrane color in sheep/goats

A

T, look at the bulbar and palpebral conjunctiva.

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15
Q

When examining the bulbar and palpebral conjunctiva, where should you apply pressure to get the third eyelid to appear?

A

Apply pressure at the lateral canthus of the globe.

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16
Q

Membrane examination:

1) Pale to white is suggestive of _____
2) yellow to light brown is suggestive of ____
3) large prominant vessels in bulbar conjunctiva is indicative of _____

A

1) Haemonchosis
2) hemolysis secondary to copper toxicosis
3) toxemia

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17
Q

Flaccid paralysis of the ear, eyelid, muzzle, cheek, and/or nostril combined with excessive drooling and/or tongue protrusion is highly suggestive of what disease?

A

Listeriosis

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18
Q

PE:

No menace response with an intact pupillary light reflex is common with what disease?

A

Polioencephalomalacia

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19
Q

PE:

A bilateral clear to serous nasal discharge is normal or abnormal?

A

Nomal

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20
Q

PE:

The presence of ulcerative or proliferative lesions on the lips, muzzle, and nostril may indicated what two diseases?

A

ORF or Bluetongue

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21
Q

PE:

An accumulation of fluid in the submandibular space (aka ______) is often secondary to ________

A

(aka bottle jaw)

gastrointestinal parasitism.

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22
Q

PE:

An acetone odor to the breath indicates _____. This is typically associated with ______ in sheep.

A

Ketosis.

Pregnancy Toxemia

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23
Q

PE:

A foul odor form the mouth suggests _____, ______, or even ______

A

stomatitis, pharyngitis, pneumonia.

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24
Q

PE:

vomiting in a small ruminant is almost always associated with a ______.

A

toxic plant ingestion.

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25
Q

PE:
Large firm round swellings located behind the ramus of the mandible or between the mandibles are suggestive of ________ affeting the ____ and ____ lymph nodes

A

CLA (caseous lymphadenitis)

Parotid or Submandibular

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26
Q

PE:

Swellings located along the cheek may be associated with ____, ____, or _____.

A

Abscesses, salivary gland mucoceles, impacted cud.

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27
Q

PE:

Firm nodular swellings along the lower jaw often indicate _______ in sheep

A

actinobacillosis

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28
Q

T/F

Rectal temp, Resp rate, and Heart rate are easily elevated in the anxious small ruminant.

A

T

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29
Q

1) The thymus gland is visibly apparent as a (soft/hard) discrete swelling in the upper neck of young goats.
2) Especially common in what breed?
3) Do not confuse it with a ____ or _____

A

1) soft
2) Nubians
3) goiter or abscess

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30
Q

1) ______ cysts appear as a round, floctuent swelling located at the base of the neck.
2) Are they benign or malignant?
3) What would it be if it was a large firm swelling in the upper neck area?

A

1) wattle
2) benign
3) abscessed retropharygneal lymph node.

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31
Q

PE:

Where is the hear most easily auscultated?

A

on the left side at the 4th to 5th intercostal space.

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32
Q

PE:

Murmurs are usually associated with ________, _______, and ______

A

congenital heart disease, endocarditits (especially if animal is febrile), and intrathoracic masses.

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33
Q

PE:

Mediastinal masses are most commonly _______ or _____s.

A

abscesses or thymomas.

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34
Q

T/F

Auscultation of the lungs in small ruminants is often not indicative of the extent or severity of respiratory disease

A

T

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35
Q

Normal bronchovesicular sounds are quite (soft/harsh) in a small ruminant.

A

Harsh

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36
Q

It is important to listen to the lungs well foward under the elbow since _______ is quite common in lower respiratory disease.

A

anterior ventral consolidation.

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37
Q

PE:

Short shallow breaths often indicate _____ and may not be associated with abnormal lung sounds.

A

pleural pain

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38
Q

PE:

Eliciting a cough by tracheal palpation indicates _______

A

tracheobronchitis

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39
Q

Radiographic examination and transtracheal wash are (easy/difficult) to perform in the small ruminant patient.

A

easy.

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40
Q

PE:

___, _____ and ____ may all cause a distended abdomen.

A

bloat, advanced pregnancy, ruptured bladder.

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41
Q

Older ewes or does that have had multiple pregnancies may exhibit a distended (dorsal/ventral) abdomen secondary to ___________

A

ventral,

chronic stretching of the abdominal musculature

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42
Q

PE:

Dorsally the rumen contains _______ and should feel…….

A

gas

soft and indentible.

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43
Q

PE:

A blueish discoloration of the teat and/or skin around it is most likely due to ______

A

Gangrenous mastitis

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44
Q

T/F
Normal small ruminant milk contains less white blood cells that the bovine, and a trace to plus +1 is considered normal on the CMT exam

A

F, they contain more WBC, but trace to +1 is considered normal

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45
Q

A lame animal with a painful, engorged udder is most likely due to ______

A

Gangrenous mastitis

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46
Q

Lambs and kids presenting as sitff and unwilling to ambulate is most likely due to _____

A

White muscle disease

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47
Q

Parasitic migrations within the spinal cord often begin as what clinical sign?

A

Hind limb lameness

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48
Q

PE:

A foot that is damp and/or red is indicative of ______

A

Foot rot

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49
Q

PE:

A repetitive positive response to hoof testers and digital pressure is indiciative of _____

A

Hoof abscess

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50
Q

A goat with lameness and enlarged carpal joints is most likely due to ____

A

CAE

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51
Q

One way to induce urination in a sheep (not manually expressing bladder) is by…

A

holding the nostrils closed for a period of time

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52
Q

Ketones in the urine of the sheep is almost pathognomonic for ____

A

pregnancy toxemia

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53
Q

Determining the ability to urinate in the male small ruminant is extremely important. Why?

A

Because urolithiasis is very common.

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54
Q

Pruritis with secondary skin excoriation is indicative of ____ or ____

A

Lice infestation or allergic contact dermatitis

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55
Q

Multiple nodules in the dermis along the neck and a back that ooze a white ribbon like substance when squeezed is indicative of ____ in the goat

A

demodectic mange

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56
Q

T/F
Wool break characterized by patches of loose and/or missing wool is a very common sequela to severe illness in the sheep.

A

T

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57
Q

Etiology of pregnancy toxemia?

A

Negative energy balance in late gestation.

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58
Q

Risk Factors for pregnancy toxemia?
1.
2.
3.

A
  1. Late gestation, multiple lambs or kids
  2. Thin or overconditioned animals
  3. Concurrent disease affecting feed intake
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59
Q 
Clinical signs of pregnancy toxemia?
1.
2.
3.
4.
A
  1. Seperation from flock or herd.
  2. head pressing or brief nervous episodes, star gazing
  3. Ketone smell of breath
  4. Recumbancy, coma
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60
Q 
Clinical Pathology of Pregnancy toxemia.  
1.
2.
3.
4.
A
  1. Early Hypoglycemia, later hyperglycemia
  2. Ketonemia/ketonuria
  3. Metabolic acidosis, dehydration
  4. Uremia
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61
Q 
Differential Diagnosis for Pregnancy Toxemia:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
A
  1. Hypocalcemia
  2. Listeriosis
  3. Rabies
  4. Brain abscess
  5. Otitis
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62
Q 
Treatment of Pregnancy Toxemia:
1.
2.
3.
4.

5.DO NOT GIVE _____

A
  1. Fluids, supportive care.
  2. Insulin and fluids
  3. Anabolic steroids
  4. C-section
  5. Glucose! Giving glucose is associated with increased death.
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63
Q

Hypocalcemia:
1. Etiology?

2. Risk Factors:
a)
b)
c)
d)
A
  1. Negative calcium balance

2.

a) forced exercise, long distance transport
b) feed deprivation
c) gazing oxalate rich plants
d) feedlot sheep on high magnesium diets

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64
Q

Clinical Findings in hypocalcemia cases:

1) in early cases?
2) in late cases?
3) in all cases?

A
  1. stilted gait, tremors
  2. Recumbancy
  3. Muscular inactivity
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65
Q

Differential Diagnosis for hypocalcemia
1.
2.
3.

A
  1. Pregnancy toxemia
  2. Carb engorgement
  3. Oxalate toxicosis
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66
Q

Treatment of Hypocalcemia?

A

Calcium borogluconate IV or oral calcium paste

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67
Q

Hypomagnesemia

  1. Etiology?
  2. Two main risk factors?
A
  1. Inadequate intake of magnesium

2. Grazing on young green cereal crops, or high milk yield in ewes or does

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68
Q

Polioencephalomalacia:

Etiology?

A

Thiamine deficiency

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69
Q

3 risk factors for polioencephalomalacia

A

Thiaminases, high sulfate intake, certain drugs like amprolium

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70
Q 
Polioencephalomalacia: Clinical findings:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
A
  1. Sudden onset of symptoms
  2. Head tremors, head pressing, star gazing, blindness
  3. Recumbancy, convulsions, opisthotonus
  4. Remen inactivity
  5. Death
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71
Q

Polioencephalomalcia Tx:
1.
2.

A
  1. Thiamine hydrochloride - 10mg/kg

2. Dietary change

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72
Q

Primary Copper deficiency (inadequate copper in diet) can lead to _____ in lambs

A

Enzootic ataxia in lambs

73
Q

Secondary Copper deficiency (copper unavailable) can be due to:
1.
2.
3.

A
  1. High molybdenum
  2. HIgh sulfate in combo with high molybdenum
  3. Swayback in sheep, salt sickness in cattle and sheep
74
Q

Risk factors for Copper Deficiency:

  1. What areas?
  2. What seasons?
  3. What age of animal
A
  1. Coastal Sandy Areas
  2. Copper content lowest in spring and summer?
  3. Younger
75
Q

Clinical Signs of Copper Deficiency:
1.
2.
3.

A
  1. Limp, straight, “Steely” wool
  2. Anemia, diarrhea, weight loss
  3. Weak lambs, in coordination, “swayback”
76
Q

Clinical Pathology of Copper Deficiency

  1. ______ may be misleading
  2. Consider _____ or ____ instead.
A
  1. Blood samples

2. Liver biopsy, hair analysis.

77
Q

Copper toxicosis:Etiology:

  1. Primary -
  2. Secondary -
A
  1. excess copper intake

2. high retention of copper

78
Q

Copper Toxicosis: Risk Factors
1.
2.

A
  1. Sheep very susceptible to copper toxicosis

2. Accidental overdose or contamination of feedstuffs

79
Q 
Clinical Signs of Copper Toxicosis:
.1
2.
3.
4.
A
  1. Diarrhea
  2. Hemoglobinuria
  3. Jaundice
  4. Anemia
80
Q

Cobalt Deficiency:

  1. Related to deficiency of ______
  2. Young/Old animals affected more often?
A
  1. vitamin b12

2. young

81
Q

Clinical signs of cobalt deficiency
1.
2.
3.

A
  1. poor growth and productivity
  2. lacrimation/wool matted on face
  3. anemia
82
Q

Cobalt deficiency Treatment:
1.
2.

A
  1. Oral dosing of cobalt sulfate

2. Vitamin B12 injectable

83
Q

Iodine Deficiency Etiology:

  1. Primary -
  2. Secondary
A
  1. Deficient intake in feed or water

2. high calcium diet or goitrogenic plants

84
Q

Clinical signs of Iodine Deficiency
1.
2.

A
  1. Thyroid Enlargement

2. Alopecia

85
Q

Treatment of Iodine deficiency

A

Iodized salt

86
Q

Selenium Deficiency Etiology
1.
2. Often associated with ___ deficiency

A
  1. Selenium deficient soil or inhibited uptake by plants

2. Vit E.

87
Q

Selenium Def.
Clinical Signs:
1.
2.

A
  1. Acute or sub-acute enzootic muscular dystrophy (white muscle disease)
  2. Stiff gait, recumbency.
88
Q

Treatment for Selenium Def.
1.
2.

A
  1. Injectable vit E. and selenium

2. oral supplementation

89
Q

Selenium Toxicosis Etiology:

  1. Acute?
  2. Chronic?
A
  1. Associated with overdosing

2. Associated with ingestion of plants

90
Q 
Selenium Toxicosis Clinical Signs:
.1.
2.
3.
4.
A
  1. Dullness
  2. Stiff gait/lameness
  3. Emaciation
  4. Rough hair coat, hair loss, hoof abnormalities
91
Q

T/F:

Lead toxicosis can only occur in a chronic form.

A

F

It can be acute or chronic

92
Q

Sources of Lead Toxicosis:
1.
2.
3.

A
  1. Lead paint,
  2. batteries
  3. oil
93
Q

Clinical Signs of Lead Toxicosis in Sheep
1.
2.
3.

A
  1. Stiff gait, lameness
  2. paralysis, recumbency
  3. unthriftiness
94
Q

Clinical Signs of Lead Toxicosis in Goats
1.
2.
3.

A
  1. Anorexia
  2. Fetid diarrhea
  3. Tenesmus
95
Q

Treatment of Lead Toxicosis:

A

Calcium versenate

96
Q

Salt Deficiency: Clinical Signs
1.
2.
3.

A
  1. Anorexia
  2. Rough hair coat
  3. Pica, salt craving, urine drinking
97
Q

Clinical Pathology of Salt Deficiency
1.
2.

A
  1. Low USG

1. low serum sodium and chloride concentrations

98
Q

Salt Toxicosis Etiologies
1.
2.

  1. Usually causes ____ signs
A
  1. When animals on salt deficient diets gain access to salt.
  2. may occur from drinking salt water
  3. Neuro
99
Q 
Clinical Parasites relevant to small ruminants:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8
A
  1. Coccidia
  2. Strongylosis
  3. Lungworms
  4. Meningeal Worms
  5. Nasal Bot
  6. Liver and Rumen Flukes
  7. Fly Strike
  8. Babesiosis
100
Q
  1. Coccidiosis is associated with what specific agent in small ruminants?
  2. What is a nickname for this disease?
  3. Mostly affects what age?
A
  1. Eimeria
  2. “Mucky Butt”
  3. Younger animals that are over 3 weeks of age.
101
Q 
Risk factors for Coccidiosis
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
A
  1. Weaning
  2. Overcrowding
  3. Wet environment
  4. Feet and feces in feeders
  5. Poor nutrition
102
Q

Clinical findings with Coccidiosis
1. Heavy ____ population in feces, especially a few days after diarrhea develops.

  1. __________ in feces is diagnostic
A
  1. Heavy oocyst population

2. Oocyst count greater than 5000/gram of feces

103
Q

T/F

Coccidiosis is a self limiting disease

A

True, but it is also recommended that you attempt to reduce or eliminate factors associated with the buildup of coccidia

104
Q

Drugs used to treat Coccidiosis:
1.
2.
3.

A
  1. Sulfonamides
  2. Amprolium
  3. Ionophores
105
Q

Main strongylosis species that affect small ruminants:

1.
2.
3.

A
  1. Haemonchus
  2. Trichostrongylus
  3. Nematodirus
106
Q

2 lungworm species that affect small ruminants

A
  1. Dictyocaulus filarial

2. Muellerius capillaris

107
Q

What is the full name of the meningeal worm that affects small ruminants?

A

Paralaphestrongylus tenuis

108
Q

What are the two flukes that affect small ruminants?

A

Fasciola and Paramphistomum

109
Q

What is the tapeworm that affects small ruminants?

A

Monezia

110
Q

T/F

Babesia does not occur in the United States

A

True

111
Q

Risk factors for Babesiosis:
1. Disease is milder in (younger/older) animals.

  1. Heaviest losses in what areas?
A
  1. Disease is milder in younger animals

2. Heaviest losses in areas where ticks are uncommon; animals may lose immunity

112
Q 
Clinical Signs of Babesiosis 
1.
2.
3.
4.
A
  1. Acute onset with high fever
  2. Anorexia, weight loss
  3. Jaundice
  4. Sudden Death
113
Q

2 Drugs used to treat Babesiosis:
1.
2.

  1. Best way to control Babesiosis?
A
  1. Imidocarb
  2. Diminazene
  3. Eradication of Ticks
114
Q

2 main ticks that carry Babesiosis?
1.
2.

A
  1. Rhiphicephalus

2. Heamaphysalis

115
Q

Foot Rot Etiology

A

Dichelobacter (bacteriodes) nodosus

116
Q 
Risk Factors for Foot Rot:
1.
2.
3.
4. Most susceptible sheep breed?
5.
A
  1. Wet warm weather
  2. Bacteria survives up to two weeks off host.
  3. Overcrowding.
  4. Merino
  5. Some strains more virulent than others
117
Q 
Clinical Findings of Foot Rot
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
A
  1. Lameness/grazing on knees/recumbency.
  2. Horn becomes under-run
  3. Swelling and moistness of the interdigital cleft.
  4. May or may not have a foul odor.
  5. May become chronic
118
Q 
Differential Diagnosis for Foot Rot:
1.
2.
3.
4.
A
  1. Foot abscess
  2. Strawberry foot rot
  3. Laminitis
  4. Bluetongue
119
Q

Treatment of Foot Rot
1.
2.
3.

A
  1. Hoof trimming
  2. Foot bathing in zinc sulfate or sodium laurel sulfate
  3. Parenteral treatment.
120
Q

T/F: Vaccination in foot rot is pretty pointless

A

F

it hastens healing and helps to prevent relapses and reinfection

121
Q

Echthyma etiology

  1. Agent?
  2. Enzootic in _____
  3. Morbidity rate?
A
  1. Parapox virus
  2. lambs or kids mostly 3-6 months of age
  3. 70-80%
122
Q

Risk Factors for Ecthyma
1.
2.

A
  1. Outbreaks at any time, but mostly in the summer

2. Iatrogenic transmission

123
Q

Clincial Signs of Ecthyma
1.
2.
3.

A
  1. Scabs covering ulcerated areas of granulation
  2. lesions on muzzle, lips, nostrils, udder of ewe or doe.
  3. Rarely systemic
124
Q 
Differential Diagnosis for Ecthyma 
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
A
  1. Bluetongue
  2. Ulcerativedermatosis
  3. Mycotic dermatitis
  4. Facial eczema
  5. Dermatophilosis
  6. Sheep pox
125
Q

Treatment of Ecthyma?

A

None, just symptomatic care.

126
Q

Control of Ecthyma

1.

A
  1. Live vaccine on scarified area of the skin
127
Q

Pink eye etiology
1.
2.
3.

A
  1. Mycoplasma
  2. chlamydia
  3. secondary infection with Branhamella ovis
128
Q

Pink Eye Risk factors:

  1. Season?
  2. Areas?
  3. Management?
A
  1. warm summer months
  2. Long grass, flies
  3. Recent introduction of new stock from sale barn
129
Q

Pink eye clinical signs
1.
2.
3.

A
  1. Severe conjunctivitis and/ore panopthalmitis
  2. one or both eyes affected with temporary blindness
  3. corneal ulceration
130
Q

Pink Eye: Treatment

  1. Drug?
  2. Symptomatic treatment of ____
  3. Therapy may have what side effect?
  4. Be sure to provide ______ and _____
A
  1. Oxytetracycline ointment/injectable
  2. pain or ulcers
  3. prolong recovery and lead to quicker reinfection
  4. protection from predators and good care during recovery
131
Q

T/F

Caseous lymphadenitis is rarely zoonotic

A

T

132
Q

Etiology of Caseous lymphadenitis (CLA)?

A

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

133
Q

Risk factors for CLA:

  1. Organism lives in….
  2. Transmission by _____ and _____
  3. Peak incidence as (young/adult/old)
A
  1. Organism lives in environment for a very long period of time.
  2. Transmission by shearing, discharge from abscess
  3. Adult.
134
Q

Clinical Signs of CLA

  1. Often (internal/external) abscesses in sheep.
  2. Location of abscesses in goats?
  3. What can happen to chronic abscesses?
  4. Internal abscesses related to development of ______
A
  1. Internal
  2. Abscesses around head and neck, external lymph nodes.
  3. break open, drain, heal over.
  4. thin ewe syndrome
135
Q

CLA
Diagnosis:
1. Do not confuse with ________ or _____ in lambs.

Treatment:
2.

A
  1. Other causes of abscessation or suppurative lymphadenitis in lambs
  2. None!
136
Q

Control of CLA:
1.
2.
3.

A
  1. Identify infected animals
  2. Culling
  3. Vax
137
Q

Clostidium types, the animals they affect, and disease name.

  1. Clostridium perfringens type B affects….
  2. Clostridium pefringens type C affects….
  3. Clostridium perfringerns type D affects…
A
  1. Lambs up to 3 weeks of age. Lamb dysentery
  2. Adult sheep on pasture (pain/convulsions) OR young lambs and kids up to 1 week old = hemorrhagic enterotoxemia.
  3. Lambs or adult sheep - Pulpy Kidney
138
Q

C. Perfringens Type D -

  1. Most common in what age sheep?
  2. (short/long) disease course?
  3. CxS:
  4. Usually affects animals in (poor/best) BCS?
  5. Morbidity? Mortality?
A
  1. lambs 3-10 weeks of age
  2. short.
  3. convulsions, staggering, recumbency, death
  4. Best
  5. 10%, 100%
139
Q

Tetanus Risk Factors
1.
2.

A
  1. Wounds

2. Cohabitation with horses

140
Q

Clinical Findings with Tetanus

  1. (slow/fast) onset.
  2. Posture?
  3. GI?
A
  1. fast!
  2. sawhorse
  3. Bloat and Trismus
141
Q

Treatment of Tetanus
1.
2.
3.

A
  1. Systemic antibiotic therapy
  2. Wound treatment
  3. Symptomatic therapy
142
Q

Tetanus Vax Protocol

  1. Schedule?
  2. Type of vaccine?
  3. Also protects against what other disease?
A
  1. two doses spaced 1-2 months apart, than annual boosters.
  2. Multivalent
  3. enterotoxemia
143
Q

Bacterial pneumonia

  1. Aka _____
  2. Etiology?
  3. ____ or _____ are organisms that will predispose.
A
  1. Pasteurellosis
  2. Pasteurella hemolytica
  3. Adenovirus, parainfluenza virus
144
Q

T/F: Pasteurella hemolytica may be a normal inhabitant of ovine nasopharynx.

A

T

145
Q

Risk factors for Bacterial Pneumonia
1. Age most affected?
2. Occurs in sheep on _____, quicker spread in ____
3.

A
  1. lambs, puerperal ewes.
  2. pasture, feedlots
  3. stress
146
Q 
Clinical Signs of Bacterial Pneumonia
1.
2.
3.
4. Survivors have...
A
  1. Dyspnea, mouth frothing
  2. cough, nasal discharge
  3. loud breath sounds, gurgling
  4. chornic pneumonia
147
Q

Treatment of Bacterial Pneumonia
.1.
2.

A
  1. Antibiotics

2. Supportive Care

148
Q

Caprine Arthritis Encephalitis:

Etiology?

A

Non-onchogenic lentivirus

149
Q

Two main syndromes caused by CAE

A

Leukoencephalomyelitis and Chronic Arthritis

150
Q

Clinical Signs of Leukoencephalomyelitis d/t CAE

  1. Affects what age?
  3. Mental state?
A
  1. < 1 year of age
  2. Weakness/paresis/tetraparesis
  3. Bright, alert, eating and drinking
151
Q

Clinical signs of Chronic Arthritis d/t CAE

  1. Age affected?
  2. Affects what joints?
A
  1. > 6 mo

2. Carpal, Tarsal, and Stifle joints

152
Q

Best Ways to Diagnose CAE
1.
2.

A
  1. Agar Gell Immunodiffusion Test

2. ELISA test

153
Q

Control of CAE
1.
2.
3

A
  1. Testing
  2. Culling
  3. Seperate newborn kids from their infected dams at birth and rear seperately on pasturized milk or milk from non-infected dams.
154
Q

Ovine Progressive Pneumonia.

1. Etiology?

A
  1. Retrovirus
155
Q

Ovine progressive pneumonia (OPP)

Risk Factors:
1. (does/does not) occur in goats?
2 (does/does not) occur in wild ruminants?
3. How is transmitted to young? 
4. How is it transmitted to adults?
5. Morbidity %?
A
  1. Does, occasionally.
  2. Does not.
  3. Milk from dam to offspring.
  4. Laterally.
  5. up to 70%
156
Q 
Clinical Signs of OPP
1. Incubation time?
2. Onset?
3. 
4. 
5.
A
  1. up to 2 years
  2. Inidious
  3. listlessness/emaciation
  4. Dyspnea/nasal discharge/cough
  5. Firm udder enlargement.
157
Q

Diagnosis of OPP:
1.
2.

A
  1. AGID test

2. ELISA test

158
Q

Scrapies

  1. Full disease name?
  2. Which breeds of sheep and goats are susceptible?
  3. What breed may be genetically susceptible?
A
  1. Transmissible spongiform encephalopathy.
  2. ALL BREEDS OF SHEEP AND GOATS.
  3. Suffolk
159
Q

Main Clinical SIgns of Scrapies
1.
2.
3.

A
  1. Behavioral Changes
  2. Pruritus
  3. Locomotor Disturbances
160
Q

Treatment of Scrapies?

A

THERE IS NONE

161
Q

Scrapies Control Program:
1.

2.

3.

A
  1. Identification of infected sheep via live animal testing and slaughter surveillance
  2. Tracing of infected animals to their flock or herd of origin.
  3. Destruction of affected flocks or herds.
162
Q

Paratuberculosis etiology

A

Mycobacterium paratuberculosis aka Johne’s disease

163
Q

Johne’s disease:
Risk Factors:

1.
2.
3.

A
  1. Organism survives for long periods in the environment
  2. Transmitted by feces of infected animals to feed and water
  3. In utero transmission occurs
164
Q

Clinical Signs of Paratuberculosis

1.
2.

A
  1. Emaciation/weakness

2. Feces may be soft, but usually don’t have diarrhea.

165
Q

Diagnosis of Paratuberculosis:
1.
2.
3.

A
  1. Fecal culture
  2. ELISA test
  3. DNA test
166
Q

Treatment of Paratuberculosis

A

THERE IS NO TREATMENT

167
Q

Control of Paratuberculosis
1.
2.
3.

A
  1. Testing
  2. Culling
  3. Sanitation
168
Q 
Listeriosis
1. Etiology
2. Risk factors:
a) 
b)
c)
A
  1. Listeria monocytogenes
  2. a) High infection pressure of organism
    b) lowered resistance
    c) Sudden changes in or change to very wet, cold weather.
169
Q

Clinical Signs of Listeriosis

1.
2.
3.
4.

A
  1. Fever early in the course
  2. Neuro signs
  3. Terminal recumbency
  4. Abortions
170
Q

Diagnosis of Listeriosis
1.
2.

Treatment?

A
  1. CSF fluid analysis
  2. Necropsy

Usually unrewarding

171
Q

Control of Listeriosis
1.
2.

A
  1. Associated with feeding of spoiled silage

2. Reject silage with pH > 5

172
Q

Thin ewe/doe syndrome

  1. Usually affects (young/adult/old) animals.
  2. look for animals with < __ BCS
A
  1. adult

2. 2

173
Q

Nutritional Factors to Consider with Thin ewe/doe syndrome

1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
A
  1. Adequate feeder space
  2. Breed or production incompatibility
  3. Feeding of late cut or weathered hay
  4. Trace mineral deficiencies - selenium, copper, cobalt
  5. inadequate intake
174
Q 
Specific diseases that can cause thin ewe/doe syndrome 
1,
2.
3. 
4
5.
6.
7
A
  1. Foot Rot
  2. CAE
  3. Intestinal parasitism
  4. OPP
  5. CLA
  6. Teeth disease
  7. Blindness
175
Q

Ulolithisasis risk factors:
1.
2.
3.

A
  1. Decreased water availability/intake
  2. Inadequate salt intake
  3. Feeding high grain rations with imbalance of Ca/P
176
Q

Clinical Signs of urolithiasis
1.
2.

A
  1. Anorexia, depression

2. Tenesmus, urine dribbling

177
Q

Diagnosis of urolithiasis
1.
2.

A
  1. PE

2. Urethral process

178
Q

Treatment of urolithiasis
1.
2.

A
  1. Strip off urethral process

2. Abdominal surgery and or perineal urethrostomy

179
Q 
Control of Urolithiasis
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
A
  1. Adequate access to water
  2. Adequate access to salt
  3. Addition of ammonium chloride to the ration in feedlot situations
  4. Maintain Ca/P ratio at 2:1
  5. Avoid feeding high levels of magnesium.

LAM II - RUSS (1 decks)

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