Small Animal Science Final Exam Flashcards by Katelyn Arnold

Which law was signed into effect in 1966 and regulates who may own or sell certain animals, and animal living conditions?
A. Lacey Act
B. Welfare Act
C. Endangered Species Act
D. Rights Act

B. Welfare Act

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is NOT an animal rights group?
A. PETA
B. Local animal rights group
C. Mercy for Animals
D. National Animal Interest Alliance

D. National Animal Interest Alliance

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is NOT true about the beliefs and actions of animal rights groups?
A. Use violence to portray their message
B. Animals have the right to live their own lives
C. Humans do not have the right to use animals
D. Support regulations of animal recreational sports

D. Supporting regulations of animals being used in recreational sports

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is NOT a common practice for law enforcement in regards to animals?
A. Prohibiting the running at large animals, specifically cats and dogs
B. Limiting the number of animals a resident may own
C. Allowing the ownership of poisonous or dangerous animals
D. Controlling animal noise such as barking dogs

C. Allowing the ownership of poisonous or dangerous animals

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

In which year was the Endangered Species Act signed into law?
A. 1937
B. 1983
C. 1973
D. 1990

C. 1973

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which type of animal breeds on their own while maintaining loose ties with humans?
A. Semi-domesticated animals
B. Tamed wild animals
C. Domesticated animals
D. Undomesticated animals

B. Tamed wild animals

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which act prohibits the illegal trade of any fish or wild animals which were taken, possessed, transported or sold in violation of any law, treaty or regulation of the United States?
A. The 28 Hour Law
B. Endangered Species Act
C. Lacey Act
D. Public Health Service Policy

C. Lacey Act

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is NOT a federal law, but organizations must comply with it in order to receive funding from PHSP member agencies?
A. Public Health Service Policy
B. Laboratory Welfare Animal Act
C. The 28 Hour Law
D. Animal Control

A. Public Health Service Policy

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which animal rights activist protested animal cruelty and research in "A Dog's Tale"?
A. Fred Meyers
B. Mark Twain
C. Peter Singer
D. Ingrid Newkirk

B. Mark Twain

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What does PETA stand for?
A. People, Ethics and Trust with Animals
B. Pets and Ethical Treatment Association
C. People for the Ethical Treatment of Animals
D. People for the Ethical Training of Animals

C. People for the Ethical Treatment of Animals

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is NOT a biological cause of overpopulation in companion animals?
A. Earlier puberty
B. Neglectful owners
C. Shorter pregnancies
D. Larger litters

B. Neglectful owners

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following animals are considered to be nocturnal?
A. Rabbits
B. Gerbils
C. Dogs
D. Birds

B. Gerbils

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following are estimated to cost the most dollars annually?
A. Rabbits
B. Gerbils
C. Cats
D. Birds

C. Cats

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Birds cost up to how much annually for basic care?
A. $600
B. $1,071
C. $550
D. $225

C. $550

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What breed of dog would most likely be a guide animal for the blind?
A. Labrador Retriever
B. Beagle 
C. Siberian Husky
D. Yorkshire Terrier

A. Labrador Retriever

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of the bi-directional relationship between humans and their pets?
A. Reliable food source
B. Protection from predators
C. Shelter
D. Independence

D. Independence

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What type of dog assists the police in capturing criminals?
A. Alert dogs
B. Working dogs
C. Guide dogs
D. Hearing dogs

B. Working dogs

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is NOT a benefit of chew toys for dogs?
A. Keep teeth plaque free
B. Minimize bad breath
C. Keep entertained
D. Prevent obesity

D. Prevent obesity

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

How many dogs and cats are euthanized each year in animal shelters across the United States?
A. 10 million
B. 12 million
C. 15 million
D. 17 million

C. 15 million

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which of the following animals need an unlimited supply of quality hay?
A. Rabbits
B. Gerbils
C. Dogs
D. Birds

A. Rabbits

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What is it called when living tissue is transplanted from one species to another?
A. Radiograph
B. Xenograft
C. CAT scan
D. Skin graft

B. Xenograft

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What human disease is related to the simian immunodeficiency virus (SIV), which effects non-human primates?
A. Hepatitis
B. Diabetes
C. HIV
D. Respiratory disease

C. HIV

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What was discovered after testing on cats and prevents the clotting of blood?
A. Antibiotics
B. Antiblood
C. Anticoagulants
D. Anesthesia

C. Anticoagulants

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What act requires minimum standards of treatment and care for animals?
A. Animal Care Act
B. Animal Rights Act
C. Animal Health Act
D. Animal Welfare Act

D. Animal Welfare Act

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

``` Who wrote against animal experimentation with his book, "Animal Liberation"? A. Peter Singer B. Ivan Pavlov C. Charles Darwin D. Aristotle ```

A. Peter Singer

``` Who was the first to divide organisms into two groups - plants and animals? A. Charles Darwin B. Aristotle C. Louis Pasteur D. Claude Bernard ```

B. Aristotle

``` In the late nineteenth century, who experimented on dogs to evaluate their "conditioned" responses, like salivation? A. Ivan Pavlov B. Rudolph Jaenisch C. Claude Bernard D. Louis Pasteur ```

A. Ivan Pavlov

``` Who suggested primates were capable of human emotions? A. Rudolf Jaenisch B. Peter Singer C. Louis Pasteur D. Charles Darwin ```

B. Peter Singer

``` Which of the following administers licenses and registration to research facilities? A. PHSP B. APHIS C. IACUC D. FDA ```

B. APHIS

``` Surgical procedures were often first studied on which animal? A. Dog B. Cat C. Non-human primate D. Pig ```

A. Dog

``` What tells a newly hatched herring gull to peck a small red spot on its mother's beaks in order to be fed? A. Genetics B. Instinct C. Pheromones D. Habituation ```

B. Instinct

``` What controls walking? A. Genetics B. Hormones C. Pheromones D. Environment ```

A. Genetics

``` What type of pheromone is excreted from the stinger of a worker bee which signals other bees to threats, explaining why once one bee has stung, others move in? A. Trail pheromones B. Aggregation pheromones C. Alarm pheromones D. Territorial pheromones ```

C. Alarm pheromones

``` What causes females to become more agitated and aggressive towards other animals and humans? A. Epinephrine B. Amino acids C. Pregnancy D. Testosterone ```

C. Pregnancy

``` What hormone stimulates the development of the male sex organs and sperm? A. Estrogen B. Testosterone C. Progesterone D. Epinephrine ```

B. Testosterone

``` What hormone is released when dogs fight or feel threatened? A. Estrogen B. Progesterone C. Testosterone D. Epinephrine ```

D. Epinephrine

``` What causes animals to communicate through the ground of other foundations? A. Substratum B. Acoustic C. Habituation D. Chemoreception ```

A. Substratum

``` What takes place when one animals watches the actions of another and learns from those actions? A. Habituation B. Conditioning C. Observation D. Playing ```

C. Observation

``` Which of the following explains the reason for rapid learning which occurs during a brief receptive period, often right after birth or hatching? A. Habituation B. Imprinting C. Reasoning D. Conditioning ```

B. Imprinting

True or False: The atria are the top two chambers of the heart.

True

True or False: Long bones are found in the wrist and ankle regions.

False

True or False: Smooth muscles are involuntary.

True

True or False: Arteries carry blood away from the heart.

True

True or False: The small intestine is also known as the colon.

False

``` Which of the following are parts of the small intestine? A. Duodenum B. Jejunum C. Ileum D. All of the above ```

D. All of the above

``` What is not a type of bone found in dogs and cats? A. Short B. Long C. Round D. Irregular ```

C. Round

``` What are the proteins produced by living organisms and function as catalysts? A. Enzymes B. Bile Salts C. Electrolytes D. Neurons ```

A. Enzymes

``` What is the protective tubular sheath of skin covering the penis? A. Scrotum B. Prepuce C. Epididymides D. Prostate ```

B. Prepuce

``` What is any disease causing agent such as a virus or bacteria? A. Neuron B. Ion C. Pathogen D. Lymph ```

C. Pathogen

``` Which of the following is NOT a herding dog? A. Brussels Griffon B. Border Collie C. German Shepard D. Welsh Corgi, Cardigan ```

A. Brussels Griffon

``` What is the accurate weight range for Australian Cattle Dogs? A. 45 to 55 pounds B. 75 to 100 pounds C. 85 to 95 pounds D. 35 TO 45 pounds ```

D. 35 to 45 pounds

``` What does not describe German Shepard behavior? A. Loyal B. Hardworking C. Fearful D. Strong ```

C. Fearful

``` What is the weight range of the Old English Sheepdog? A. 70 to 100 pounds B. 60 to 100 pounds C. 50 to 70 pounds D. 50 to 60 pounds ```

B. 60 to 100 pounds

``` What is NOT indicative of most Beagles? A. Intelligent B. Energetic C. Inactive D. Even-tempered ```

C. Inactive

``` What breed of hound dog is unable to bark? A. Bloodhounds B. Beagles C. Dachshund D. Basenji ```

D. Basenji

``` Which of the following is NOT a breed of Dachshund? A. Thick haired B. Wire haired C. Smooth haired D. Long haired ```

A. Thick haired

``` Rhodesian Ridgebacks grow a short and dense coat in which of the following colors? A. Light or blue wheaten B. Blue C. Red D. Light or red wheaten ```

D. Light or red wheaten

``` Which of the following breeds grows a thick and puffy white coat? A. Boston Terrier B. Bichon Frise C. Dalmatian D. Poodle ```

B. Bichon Frise

``` What is the weight range of the Bulldog? A. 75 to 100 pounds B. 30 to 50 pounds C. 40 to 50 pounds D. 90 to 100 pounds ```

C. 40 to 50 pounds

``` What is NOT indicative of Poodle behavior? A. Playful B. Bold C. Shy D. Social ```

C. Shy

``` Which of the following is NOT a color option for the Border Terrier's coat? A. Black B. Red C. Tan D. Grizzle ```

A. Black

``` What is the weight range for Pugs? A. 12 to 14 pounds B. 18 to 24 pounds C. 8 to 14 pounds D. 14 to 18 pounds ```

D. 14 to 18 pounds

``` What is NOT indicative of Pug behavior? A. Happy B. Playful C. Aggressive D. Bold ```

C. Aggressive

``` What is the accurate height range for Shih Tzus? A. 6 to 11 inches B. 5 to 7 inches C. 8 to 11 inches D. 9 to 12 inches ```

C. 8 to 11 inches

``` Which of the following is NOT a breed of cat? A. Tokinese B. Calico C. Ragdoll D. Maine Coon ```

B. Calico

``` What accurately describes the hair of the American Shorthair? A. Long and thin B. Short and thin C. Short and thick D. Long and thick ```

C. Short and thick

``` What accurately describes Burmese eye color? A. Purple B. Black C. Red D. Yellow ```

D. Yellow

``` What is the result of crossbreeding Siamese and Persian cats? A. Maine Coon B. American Shorthair C. Himalayan D. Manx ```

C. Himalayan

``` What does NOT accurately describe the behavior of the Maine Coon? A. Shy B. Good natured C. Great with children D. Social ```

A. Shy

``` What is the most popular cat breed? A. Maine Coon B. Tokinese C. Manx D. Persian ```

D. Persian

``` What is the largest cat breed? A. Ragdoll B. Maine Coon C. Sphynx D. Tokinese ```

A. Ragdoll

``` What accurately describes Russian Blue hair? A. Long and thick B. Long and thin C. Short and thick D. Short and thin ```

C. Short and thick

``` What accurately describes the shape of the Siamese cat's eyes? A. Pearl-shaped B. Almond-shaped C. Square-shaped D. Pecan-shaped ```

B. Almond-shaped

``` What does NOT accurately describe Siberian behavior? A. Solitary B. Loyal C. Affectionate D. Playful ```

A. Solitary

``` Which of the following breeds is a close relative of the Abyssinian? A. Turkish Angora B. Somali C. Ragdoll D. Russian Blue ```

B. Somali

``` What cat breed is hairless? A. Somali B. Maine Coon C. Oriental D. Sphynx ```

D. Sphynx

``` What accurately describes Tonkinese fur? A. Soft and thin B. Soft and silky C. Rough and thin D. Rough and silky ```

B. Soft and silky

``` What does NOT accurately represent Tonkinese behavior? A. Affectionate B. Alert C. Playful D. Quiet ```

D. Quiet

``` What cat breed is known as independent and stubborn? A. Turkish Angora B. Somali C. Abyssinian D. American Shorthair ```

A. Turkish Angora

``` What accurately describes cockatiel feathers? A. Blue B. Gray C. Black D. Red ```

B. Gray

``` What accurately describes the lifespan of the cockatoo? A. More than 20 years B. More than 80 years C. More than 10 years D. More than 40 years ```

D. More than 40 years

``` Guppies include how many varieties of fish? A. Over 200 B. Over 100 C. Over 50 D. Over 300 ```

D. Over 300

``` Tetras are known for what body color? A. Blue B. Silver C. Red D. Black ```

B. Silver

``` Which of the following is NOT a guinea pig breed? A. Abyssinian B. White Crested C. Lop D. American ```

C. Lop

``` What is the most common breed of guinea pig? A. Peruvian B. Texel C. Teddy D. American ```

D. American

``` What breed of guinea pig is mostly-hairless? A. Texel B. Skinny C. American D. Abyssinian ```

B. Skinny

``` What accurately describes the hair of the Teddy Guinea Pig? A. Wiry and thick B. Wiry and thin C. Smooth and thick D. Smooth and thin ```

A. Wiry and thick

``` Which of the following is required for the Angora? A. Toys B. Additional space to run C. Additional space to breed D. Grooming ```

D. Grooming

``` Which of the following is NOT a breed of rabbit? A. Lop B. Himalayan C. Maine Coon D. Californian ```

C. Maine Coon

``` What is the largest breed of rabbit? A. Himalayan B. Flemish giant C. Lop D. Angora ```

B. Flemish giant

``` Which of the following best describes the color of lops? A. Variable B. Blue C. Tan D. Black ```

A. Variable

``` What accurately represents the body color of the African Clawed Frog? A. Gray or brown B. Black or red C. Green or brown D. Gray or red ```

A. Gray or brown

``` American Green Tree Frog color was compared to what? A. Leaves B. Soil C. Grass D. Water ```

C. Grass

``` What reptile is known to grow as large as dogs? A. Ball python B. Tortoise C. Green Iguana D. Gecko ```

B. Tortoise

Which of the following is a reason many pets are abandoned each year? A. They do not fit the lifestyle of the family B. They lose their "cuteness" C. They require too much time and/or money D. All of the above

D. All of the above

``` What is the most overlooked pet healthcare issue? A. Rabies shot B. Annual check-up C. Neutering D. Dental check-up ```

B. Annual check-up

``` When taking you pet to a new or different veterinarian, what documents should be taken? A. Registration papers B. Vaccination sheets C. Receipt from purchase of animal D. None of the above ```

B. Vaccination sheets

Why are vaccinations important? A. They protect pets from contagious disease B. They keep the animal calm C. They prevent unwanted litters D. They protect pets from cancerous disease

A. They protect pets from contagious diseases

True or False: You should continuously change your pet's diet.

False

``` Giving your pets treats throughout the day will _____. A. Increase its appetite B. Clean its teeth C. Ruin its appetite D. None of the above ```

C. Ruin its appetite

``` What food should you never feed your pet? A. Ice cream B. Chocolate C. Onions D. All of the above ```

D. All of the above

``` Table scraps are bad for your dogs and cats because ____. A. They are high in carbohydrates B. They are high in sodium and fat C. They are low in calories D. They are low in carbohydrates ```

B. They are high in sodium and fat

``` What is the most common chemical pets eat? A. Antifreeze B. Pesticides C. Rat poison D. Cleaning liquids ```

A. Antifreeze

Which of the following is a travel suggestion supplied by Dr. Schwede? A. Do not feed your pet the night before leaving B. Feed your pet right before you leave C. Let your pet out to use the restroom when you stop D. Give your pet warm milk to calm them while traveling

C. Let your pet out to use the restroom when you stop

``` _______ are essential compounds in food which carry out life. A. Nutrients B. Vitamins C. Minerals D. Fatty Acids ```

A. Nutrients

True or False: Cats require a lower level of protein than dogs because their livers break down protein quickly.

False

True or False: Birds require a higher amount of food per unit of body weight than larger animals.

True

``` Which of the following is a basic guideline for a reptile's omnivorous diet? A. 15-40 percent protein B. 20-75 percent carbohydrate C. 5-40 percent fat D. All of the above ```

D. All of the above

``` Which of the following contains high amounts of caffeine which can affect a dog's nervous system and heart? A. Onions B. Chocolate C. Grapes D. Raisins ```

B. Chocolate

``` _______ such as hookworms and whipworms are transferred to animals through the ingestion of feces containing worm eggs or soil contaminated with infected feces. A. Tapeworms B. Roundworms C. Heartworms D. Ringworms ```

B. Roundworms

True or False: Tapeworms and ringworms can be eliminated with regular de-worming.

True

``` Ringworm is a _________ infection caused by an airborne virus, but it can also be transmitted through contaminated soil. A. Bacterial B. Viral C. Surgical D. Fungal ```

D. Fungal

True or False: Behavior is influenced by different stimuli.

True

True or False: "Butterflies" are the inherit behaviors which animals display.

False

``` What is made from amino acids and form enzymes metabolizing food into energy? A. Proteins B. Carbohydrates C. Fats D. Minerals ```

A. Proteins

``` What makes up approximately 50 percent of a balanced food for canines? A. Proteins B. Carbohydrates C. Fats D. Minerals ```

B. Carbohydrates

``` What is essential for bone formation and muscle metabolism? A. Proteins B. Carbohydrates C. Fats D. Minerals ```

D. Minerals

``` Dry dog food contains about what percent of water? A. Zero percent B. Five percent C. 30 percent D. 80 percent ```

B. Five percent

``` What is partially degraded animal tissue sprayed on dog food for palatability? A. Minerals B. Digest C. Fats D. Fiber ```

B. Digest

``` What lists the minimum levels of crude protein and fat, and the maximum levels of water and fiber? A. Guaranteed ingredients B. Absolute analysis C. Guaranteed analysis D. Absolute analysis ```

C. Guaranteed analysis

True or False: The ingredients on dog food must be listed in increasing order of weight.

False

``` A full grown dog should have how many meals a day? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four ```

B. Two

``` Dogs require how many essential nutrients for survival? A. Three B. Four C. Five D. Six ```

D. Six

``` What is required in larger amounts than all other nutrients? A. Minerals B. Water C. Fats D. Proteins ```

B. Water

``` Which of the following diseases causes dogs to have a chronic cough? A. Lyme disease B. Canine distemper C. Bordetella D. Heartworm ```

C. Bordetella

``` What disease is primarily spread by ticks and may have symptoms lasting months after the animal has been treated? A. Lyme disease B. Canine distemper C. Kennel cough D. Heartworm disease ```

A. Lyme disease

``` What disease occurs when an infected female mosquito bites a cat and the larvae migrate through the tissues and eventually into a cat's heart? A. Heart disease B. Heartworm C. Luekemia D. Distemper ```

B. Heartworm

``` Which of he following is NOT a feline respiratory disease? A. Feline viral rhinotracheitis B. Feline calicivirus C. Feline pneumonitis D. Feline penleukopenia ```

D. Feline penleukopenia

``` Which of the following common bird diseases attacks a bird's liver? A. Pacheco's disease B. Polyoma virus C. Aspergillosis D. Psittacine wasting disease ```

A. Pacheco's disease

``` What disease is one of the biggest threats to caged birds? A. Pacheco's disease B. Aspergillosis C. Polyoma virus D. Psittacine ```

C. Polyoma virus

``` What guinea pig disease is caused by a vitamin C deficiency? A. Bordetellosis B. Salmonellosis C. Lumps D. Scurvy ```

D. Scurvy

``` In hamsters, what part of the body is attacked by wet tail? A. Intestines B. Arteries C. Veins D. Brain ```

A. Intestines

``` Which of the following is NOT a zoonotic disease? A. Rabies B. Pasteurellosis C. West Nile virus D. Heartworms ```

D. Heartworms

``` What indicates that a disease is present? A. Symptom B. Diagnosis C. Treatment D. Prevention ```

A. Symptom

``` Which of the following is also known as ascarids? A. Roundworms B. Hookworms C. Whipworms D. Ear mites ```

A. Roundworms

``` Which of the following parasites are blood sucking parasites residing in the small intestine? A. Roundworms B. Hookworms C. Fleas D. Ticks ```

B. Hookworms

``` Which of the following parasites can grow more than 20 inches in length? A. Hookworms B. Whipworms C. Tapeworms D. Coccidia ```

C. Tapeworms

``` Which of the following parasites are small, wingless, bloodsucking insects which can lay hundreds of eggs? A. Fleas B. Ticks C. Ear mites D. Roundworms ```

A. Fleas

``` Which of the following parasites are small parasitic arachnids which feed on the blood of mammals, birds, and reptiles? A. Roundworms B. Whipworms C. Ticks D. Ear mites ```

C. Ticks

``` Which of the following is also known as scabies? A. Ticks B. Hookworms C. Ear mites D. Sarcoptic mange ```

D. Sarcoptic mange

``` Which of the following parasites is rod shaped? A. Cocci B. Bacilli C. Spirilli D. Bacci ```

B. Bacilli

``` Which of the following parasites found in adults is usually a sign of another disease compromising the immune system? A. Sarcoptic mange B. Ticks C. Fleas D. Demodectic mange ```

D. Demodectic mange

``` Which of the following body systems provides the body with the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide? A. Integumentary B. Digestive C. Respiratory D. Circulatory ```

C. Respiratory

``` Which of the following transmits signals to different parts of the animal's body and operates basic body functions like breathing and digestion? A. Endocrine B. Nervous C. Respiratory D. Skeletal ```

B. Nervous

``` Which of the following is a strong, heated container used to decontaminate veterinary tools? A. Auto washer B. Autoclave C. Auto wave D. Auto decontaminator ```

B. Autoclave

``` Which of the following uses a device with a light attached to look inside a body cavity or organ? A. Endoscope B. Ultrasound C. Radiograph D. Electrocardiogram ```

A. Endoscope

``` Which piece of equipment is used for the separation of fluids by spinning the vessel holding the material at a high speed? A. Autoclave B. Ultrasound C. Centrifuge D. X-ray ```

C. Centrifuge

``` Which of the following equipment does NOT allow for a visual examination of body parts? A. Ultrasound B. Radiograph C. Electrocardiograph D. Endoscopy ```

C. Electrocardiograph

``` Which instrument records electrical activity of the heart over a period of time by placing electrodes on a patient's body? A. Endoscope B. Ultrasound C. Electrocardiograph D. Radiograph ```

C. Electrocardiograph

``` Which of the following is one of the first tools used when diagnosing a problem due to illness or injury in an animal? A. Radiograph (X-ray) B. Ultrasound C. Electrocardiograph D. Endoscope ```

A. Radiograph

``` Which instrument is used for grasping, compressing, cutting and pulling tissues? A. Clamping forceps B. Thumb forceps C. Needle holders D. Catheter ```

B. Thumb forceps

``` Which instrument is a drain used to release fluid or gas which has built up in an animal? A. Catheter B. Scalpel C. Cannula D. Syringe ```

C. Cannula

``` Which of the following is the last step in the cleaning and sterilizing process of surgical instruments? A. Scrubbing B. Drying C. Autoclaving D. Soaking ```

C. Autoclaving

``` Which instrument listed below cuts material, other than tissue, which may dull a blade? A. Dissecting scissors B. Utility scissors C. Surgical scissors D. Suture scissors ```

B. Utility scissors

``` In order for a veterinarian to perform chest compressions during cardiopulmonary resuscitation, a dog should be positioned in which of the following positions? A. Dorsal recumbency B. Lateral recumbency C. Medial recumbency D. Ventral recumbency ```

B. Lateral recumbency

``` Which of the following is a procedure used by veterinarians to administer certain medications or to remove toxins by flushing the lower intestinal tract? A. Dental prophylaxis B. Enema C. Expressing anal glands D. Radiology ```

B. Enema

``` Which of the following is a procedure routinely used to provide valuable information about an animal's bones, gastrointestinal tract, respiratory tract, heart and genitourinary system? A. Dental prophylaxis B. Endoscopy C. Ultrasound D. Radiology ```

D. Radiology

``` Which of the following is caused by the body losing a severe amount of blood or fluids? A. Hypothermic shock B. Hyperthermic shocks C. Hypovolemic shock D. Cardiogenic shock ```

C. Hypovolemic shock

``` Which of the following is defined as the percentage of sperm which are progressively motile? A. Sperm motility B. Sperm concentration C. Sperm count D. Sperm morphology ```

A. Sperm motility

``` Which of the following processes involves collecting sperm cells from a male animal and manually depositing them into the reproductive tract of a female? A. In vitro fertilization B. Semen collection C. Embryo transfer D. Artificial insemination ```

D. Artificial insemination

``` Which of the following is defined as the physical blockage of the respiratory tract? A. Hypothermia B. Hypovolemic C. Hypoxemia D. Hyperthermia ```

C. Hypoxemia

``` Which of the following is administered to animals during surgery to help maintain blood pressure and compensate for blood loss? A. Vaccinations B. Antibiotics C. Fluids D. Anesthetic ```

C. Fluids

``` Which of the following is an everyday practice in all aspects of veterinary medicine and is used to help determine how a patient feels? A. Ultrasound B. Radiology C. Physical monitoring D. Vaccination administration ```

C. Physical monitoring

``` Which of the following is defined as the removal of dead tissue? A. Debridement B. Enema C. Prophylaxis D. Trimming ```

A. Debridement

``` Which of the following is used to help determine pregnancy in an animal? A. Radiology B. Embryo transfer C. Endoscopy D. Ultrasound ```

D. Ultrasound

``` Which of the following is determined by the percentage of sperm which are normal in shape and size? A. Sperm motility B. Sperm morphology C. Sperm count D. Sperm concentration ```

B. Sperm morphology

``` Which of the following is a condition caused by the excessive loss of water from the body? A. Dehydration B. Hypoglycemia C. Hypoexemia D. Hypothermia ```

A. Dehydration

``` Which of the following is defined as the first milk produced by the mother after giving birth? A. Dystocia B. Colostrum C. Recumbent D. Lactose ```

B. Colostrum

``` Which of the following is defined as a disease which can be transmitted to humans from animals? A. Zoonotic B. Bacterial C. Parasitic D. Viral ```

A. Zoonotic

``` Which of the following diseases is NOT detected by the 4Dx SNAP test? A. Heartworm disease B. Lyme disease C. Blood parasites D. Leukemia ```

D. Leukemia

``` Antibiotics are used to treat which of the following? A. Visuses B. Bacteria C. Allergies D. Yeasts ```

B. Bacteria

``` What does the dark blue-green dot, which appears in the upper-left corner of the 4Dx SNAP test window, confirm? A. The test was run correctly B. The test was run incorrectly C. The animal is positive for a disease D. The animals does not have a disease ```

A. The test was run correctly

``` Which of the following is NOT a common parasite found when performing a fecal flotation on a small animal? A. Roundworm B. Hookworm C. Heartworm D. Coccidia ```

C. Heartworm

``` Which of the following tests might be used to gain more information as to the severity of an infection within the animal? A. Urinalysis B. 4Dx SNAP C. Microfilaria smear D. Fecal flotation ```

C. Microfilaria smear

``` According to Katie Salas, CVT, how long should you leave the microscope cover slip on top of the fecal flotation before examining it under the microscope? A. 20 to 30 minutes B. 10 to 15 minutes C. 10 to 30 minutes D. 45 minutes ```

B. 10 to 15 minutes

What does a fecal flotation help veterinarians determine? A. Whether or not the animal has blood parasites B. Whether or not the animal has kidney disease C. Whether or not the animal has intestinal parasites D. Whether or not the animal has a bladder infection

C. Whether or not the animal has intestinal parasites

``` According to Jenna Barber, DVM, how often should dogs be tested for heartworm disease? A. Once a year B. Once every two years C. Once every six months D. Once every five years ```

A. Once a year

``` Which of the following is the most common method used to examine a fecal sample? A. Flotation B. Gross examination C. Direct smear D. Centrifugation ```

A. Flotation

``` In order to stimulate the conditions of the body, how long must a culture plate be placed in a heated incubator? A. 12 hours B. 10 hours C. 48 hours D. 24 hours ```

D. 24 hours

Which of the following statements is true when the results show three or more dots in the window of the 4Dx SNAP reader? A. The dog has tested positive for more than one disease or parasite B. The dog has tested negative for more than one disease or parasite C. The test was not performed correctly D. The dog had tested positive for only one disease or parasite

A. The dog has tested positive for more than one disease or parasite

``` What test should be used to specifically identify the strain of bacteria or pathogen affecting the animal? A. Urinary test B. Culture test C. Fecal flotation test D. Complete blood count test ```

B. Culture test

``` Which of the following is true about a dog's packed cell volume (PCV) when he is dehydrated? A. PCV is high B. PCV is low C. PCV is normal, D. PCVmis zero ```

A. PCV is high

A very strong ammonia smell to an animal's urine could indicate which of the following? A. Bleeding in the intestinal tract B. Bacterial infection in the urinary tract C. Dehydration D. Intestinal parasites

B. Bacterial infection in the urinary tracts

``` In order to determine which organisms are most likely the source of a bacterial infection, and to determine the most appropriate method of treatment, a veterinarian might perform which of the following tests? A. Culture test B. Flotation test C. Sensitivity test D. Intestinal parasites ```

C. Sensitivity test

True or False: Grooming and a good diet are essential for healthy skin.

True

True or False: Brushing a dog eliminates dandruff flakes.

True

True or False: Mats do NOT cause any irritation to the skin.

False

``` _______ is influenced by hormones changing. A. Hair thickness B. Shedding C. Growth D. Tangles ```

B. Shedding

True or False: A warm bath can accelerate the shedding process.

True

``` You can use canine shampoo, mild soap, baby shampoo or ________ shampoo to bathe a dog. A. Olive oil B. Canola oil C. Coconut oil D. Mineral oil ```

C. Coconut oil

True or False: Dogs should have their nails clipped every two or three months.

False

``` Use a damp towel or a cotton swab with _________ for cleaning the ears. A. Olive oil B. Canola oil C. Coconut oil D. Mineral oil ```

D. Mineral oil

True or False: The grooming surface should be covered with a non-slip material.

True

True or False: Too much bathing can make a dog's coat dry.

True

``` Which of the following pheromones helps regulate population density? A. Epideictic pheromones B. Aggregation pheromones C. Territorial pheromones D. Sex pheromones ```

A. Epideictic pheromones