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INTERNAL > Small Animal PQ > Flashcards

Small Animal PQ Flashcards

1
Q

Which statement is NOT true for PSS in dog?

A

The extra-hepatic PSS occurs in large bred dogs

True:
✓ The symptoms of PSS can worsen after feeding of protein rich food (meat)
✓ The post-prandial bile acid level of the blood is higher than normal in PSS
✓ In congenital PSS the nervous symptoms are episodic

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2
Q

Oliguria – Etiology, dog:

A

Inadequate water intake, dehydration, acute nephrosis

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3
Q

Which statement is WRONG?

A

In acute kidney failure, mannitol infusion…
 Can be repeated up to 5 times in case of anuria
True:
✓ Should only be given to a previously rehydrated patient
✓ Can be repeated many times if diuresis is present
✓ Is recommended in oliguric patients

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4
Q

Pathophysiology of obesity – Which of the following statements is true?

A

Hyper-plastic obesity occurs mainly in growing animals

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5
Q

Which statement is NOT true?

A

 The ALP-isoenzymes in the cat – Liver, bone, steroid, induced isoenzymes
True:
✓ The bilirubinuria is always pathogenic in cat, associated with hyper-bilirubinaemia
✓ The ALT and AST are hepato-cellular enzymes
✓ The bile acid, ALP, GGT levels are elevated in cholestasis

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6
Q

Ectopic ureters…Which answer is WRONG?

A

 Are occurring only in females
True:
✓ Are causing constant urine dripping
✓ Can be diagnosed by X-ray or CT exam

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7
Q

Ethmoid hematoma cause:

A

Angiomatous tissue over-growth

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8
Q

Congestive heart failure – 3rd stage, NYHA grading:

A

Fatigue, collapse caused by exercise, abdominal oedema, acites

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9
Q

Rabies vs. Aujeszky disease – Differences in symptoms in dog and cat:

A

Anisocoria and paresthesia are common in Aujeszky disease. Attacking behaviour is common in rabies

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10
Q

Which statement is NOT true for chronic hepatitis in dog?

A

 Centro-lobular mono-nuclear cell infiltration, inflammation, centro-lobular necrosis, fibrosis
True:
✓ Peri-portal mono-nuclear cell infiltration, inflammation, periportal necrosis, fibrosis
✓ Chronic procedure, n improvement for 4-6 weeks
✓ The histopathology is independent from the case

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11
Q

Treatment of benign prostatic hypertrophy in dogs:

A

Only in symptomatic cases, castration, Finasteride

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12
Q

Prerenal azotaemia…Which is the WRONG answer?

A

 May be caused by urine leaking through the wall of the urinary organs
True:
✓ Could be due to dehydration
✓ May cause kidney damage without treatment
✓ Can be corrected with fluid therapy

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13
Q

Regurgitation definition:

A

Retrograde evacuation of undigested food from the oesophagus by a passive way

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14
Q

The most important aspect of struvite urolithiasis in dogs?

A

Urine acidification

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15
Q

Feline Viral Leukaemia – Etiology:

A

Pathogen: Retrovirus, Oncorna virnae family (FeLV)
Infection: Via saliva, via nasal secretions, in outdoor cats

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16
Q

Paraprostic cysts are:

A

Remnants of the Mullerian duct or Retention cysts

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17
Q

Rabies incubation period:

A

Usuaully 2-4 weeks, but can be shorter or longer, depending on which body part was infected
Incubation period is 2-8 weeks and disease lasts for 4-6 days

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18
Q

Characteristics of iatrogenic osteoporosis – Dog:

A

After long-term glucocortocid therapy - ↓ osteoblast activity and ↓ Ca utilisation

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19
Q

Which is NOT associated with nephrosis syndrome?

A 
 Hypotension
True:
✓ Sub-cutaneous oedema
✓ Glomerulonephropathies
✓ Higher thrombosis risk
✓ Hyper-tension is ALWAYS associated with kidney disease!
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20
Q

Common symptoms of chronic renal disease:

A

Non-regenerative anaemia, hyper-tension, blindness

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21
Q

Laryngeal paralysis – Dog – Infectious origin:

A

Rabies, Aujeszky disease, botulism

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22
Q

Fanconi symptoms in dogs. Which answer is WRONG?

A

 Ketonuria
True:
✓ Glosuria
✓ Metabolic acidosis
✓ Aminoaciduria
Fanconi - A general term for a group of diseases marked by dysfunction of the proximal renal tubules with multiple defects in reabsorption. There is increased urinary excretion of glucose (in
the absence of diabetes mellitus), phosphorus, sodium, uric acid and amino acids, and metabolic acidosis.

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23
Q

Which drug is NOT anti-histamine?

A 
 Flumetazon
True:
✓ Chlorpiramine
✓ Hydroxyzine
✓ Dimetindene-maleate
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24
Q

In which endocrine disorder is there NO polydipsia / polyuria?

A 
 Hypo-thyroidism
True:
✓ Diabetes mellitus
✓ Diabetes insipidus
✓ Cushing’s syndrome
✓ Hyper-thryoidism
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25
Q

Feline bronchial disease / Feline asthma:

A

Paroxysmal, dry, ‘hacking’ cough, open mouth (loud) breathing, prolonged expiration

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26
Q

What is associated with portal hyper-tension?

A

Arterio-portal / Arterio-venosus fistula

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27
Q

Which is NOT associated with portal hyper-tension?

A 
 Hepatic micro-vascular hypoplasia
True:
✓ Aterioportal / Arterio-venosus fistula
✓ Idiopathic non-cirrhotic porate hypoplasia
✓ Hepatoportal fibrosis
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28
Q

Renal amyloidosis typically found in which cat breed?

A

Abyssinian

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29
Q

The effect of Pimobendan:

A

Positive inotropic drug, with some vasodilatory effect

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30
Q

A feature of the von Willebrand’s disease:

A

Prolonged surgical bleeding

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31
Q

Which statement is true?

A

The blood level of hepato-cellular enzymes (ALT, AST) is elevated in case of necrosis, inflammation,
increased permeability of the hepatocyte membrane

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32
Q

Acute pancreatitis – Symptoms in dog:

A

Vomiting, abdominal pain, anorexia

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33
Q

Addison’s disease in dogs – Diagnosis:

A

Na+
/K+ < 27
Cl- ↓
ACTH-stimulation test +

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34
Q

IRIS stage-1 chronic renal failure is associated with:

A

Decreased specific gravity of urine

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35
Q

Acute pancreatitis – Pathogenesis – Dog:

A

Premature, cascade-like activation of pancreas enzymes results in auto-digestion of pancreas

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36
Q

Which treatment is suggested in the long-term treatment of canine atopic dermatitis?

A

Allergen specific immunotherapy (hyposensibilisation)

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37
Q

Which parasite died NOT cause parasitic encephalitis / myelitis?

A 
 Gasterophilus larvae
True:
✓ Strongylus vulgaris larvae
✓ Habronema spp.
✓ Setaria spp
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38
Q

1st degree atrio-ventricular block – Characteristics:

A

Prolonged PQ interval

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39
Q

2nd degree atrio-ventricular block – Characteristics:

A

P-wave present, ventricular complex absent (= QRS)

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40
Q

3rd degree atrio-ventricular block – Characteristics:

A

Multiple P waves and no QRS complex

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41
Q

Which statement is NOT typical for cat?

A

 The portal hyper-tension, ascites and PU/PD are common signs in hepatopathies in cats.
True:
✓ The common bile duct joins to the major pancreatic duct before entering the duodenum
✓ The acute neutrophil cholangitis is the consequence of ascending bacterial infection
✓ The hepatic encephalopathy is a common consequence of the feline hepatic lipidosis due to the arginine deficiency.

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42
Q

Canine chronic bronchitis:

A

Daily cough for more than 2 months, prolonged expiration and an expiratory push

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43
Q

Forms of lymphoma in dogs:

A

Mediastinal, alimentary, multi-centric

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44
Q

What is polycythaemia absoluta vera?

A

Benign bone marrow neoplasm, which is causing elevated packed cell volume

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45
Q

Rodenticide poisoning diagnostic tests:

A

Clotting time > 20 mins.

Prothrombin time > 15 secs

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46
Q

Causes of acute interstitial nephritis in small animals:

A

Leptospirosis

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47
Q

Food allergy diagnosis in dog, cat:

A

Hypoallergenic monodiet then provocation with the suspected causative agent

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48
Q

Congenital heart diseases causing volume overload:

A

PDA(Patent Ductus Arteriosus), VSD( Ventral Septal Defect)

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49
Q

Acute colitis – Dog, cat - Clinical signs:

A

Small amount, pudding-like, mucinous, bloody (haematocheria) diarrhea

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50
Q

Which statement is true?

A

Collie and Shetland sheepdog are predisposed to dermatomycosis

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51
Q

How would you treat a cat diagnosed with intersitial cystitis (FIC)?

A

Increase water intake

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52
Q

Acromegaly causes:

A

Dog: Progesterone treatment, mammary gland tumour, ovarian cysts
Cat: Pituitary tumour

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53
Q

The progression of renal diseases caused by… Which is NOT correct?

A 
 Isostenuria
True:
✓ Proteinuria
✓ Hyper-parathyroidisim
✓ Glomerular hyper-tension
54
Q

Parvo viral enteritis in dog – Therapy:

A

Intestinal diet or Enteral nutriiton, anitbiotic, fluid therapy.

55
Q

Common symptoms of chronic renal disease:

A

Abdominal pain, polyuria, hypocalcemia

56
Q

Acute pancreatitis – Symptoms – Dog:

A

Vomiting, abdominal pain, anorexia

57
Q

Beta-blocker anti-arrytmic drugs:

A

Atenolol, Propanolol, Esmolol

58
Q

Nomotopic impulse formation disorders:

A

Sinus tachycardia, respiratory arrythimia, sick sinus syndrome

59
Q

Neuro-physiological background of Botulism:

A

General muscular paralysis due to inihibited ACh at the pre-synaptic motor nerve endings.

60
Q

Acute blood loss anaemia, therapy:

A

Stop bleeding, HAES(Hydroxyethyl starch), whole blood transfusion

61
Q

Decompensated congestive heart failure – Drugs:

A

ACE inhbiition, Furosemide, Pimobendan

62
Q

Examinations of the abdominal distension for SA:

A

Undulation, US, X-ray, abdominocentesis

63
Q

Benign prostatic hyper-plasia treatment:

A

Only in symptomatic patients, castration Finasteride

64
Q

Cystitis in cat treatment:

A

Increase water intake

65
Q

Nomotrop impulse formation disorder: question came out twice in exam

A

Sinus tachycardia, respiratory arrhyymia, sick sinus syndrome

66
Q

Copper storage treatment:

A

D-penicillamine

67
Q

Dierhofer triangle border:

A

In front: Caudal part of heart

From behind: Diaphragmatic line

68
Q

FORL treatment:

A

Extraction of teeth

69
Q

Acromegaly treatment:

A

Ovariehysterectomy

70
Q

Hypo-adrenocorticisim:

A

Primary cortisol decreased and aldosterone decrease

71
Q

The bacterial rhinitis is almost always a secondary disease, usually with viral infection in the
background.

A

Both statements are true

72
Q

Addison’s disease in dogs – Causes, pathogenesis:

A

a) The primary is due to auto-immune inflammation of the adrenals. The secondary disease is caused by
incorrect glucocorticoids therapy

73
Q

Treatment of CKD(chronic kidney disease) patients include… Which is NOT correct?

A

 Diuretics per os
True:
✓ Renal diet, phosphorus binders
✓ ACE inhibitors, anti-hypertensive drugs
✓ Erythropoietin injection, potassium supplementation

74
Q

The glutaraldehyde test from blood is detecting:

A

Positive acute phase proteins, like globulin, fibrinogen

75
Q

Which treatment is NOT adequate for a dog that drank anti-freeze 12 hours ago?

A

D-penicillamine

76
Q

Hyper-adrenocorticism of dogs – Therapy:

A

Crisis: 0.9% saline, hydrocortisone
Later: Fludrocortisone, Prednisolone, salt

77
Q

Borders of the Diernhofer triangle:

A

In front: Caudal part of heart
From behind: Diaphragmatic line
The enlarged cardiac dullness and behind it the Diernhofer triangle including an air-containing lung lobe
between the diaphragm and the caudal border of the heart. In this area, the percussion sound of the
thorax is normal in healthy animals.

78
Q

Immune-mediated haemolytic anaemia, characteristic laboratory findings:

A

Regenerative anaemia, auto-agglutination, spherocytosis

79
Q

Blood in the urine is detected with:

A

Benzidine test

80
Q

Which hereditary skin disease is lethal?

A

Grey collie syndrome

81
Q

Diabetes insipidus, which is correct?

A

The most effective drug in the central form is Desmopressin

82
Q

Thromboembolic meningoencephalitis (TEME) – Prognosis and treatment:

A

Sulfonamides, antibiotics might help in early stage

83
Q

Cervical stenotic myelopathy – Diagnostics:

A

Myelography

84
Q

Nomotopic impulse formation disorders:

A

Sinus tachycardia, respiratory arrhythmia, sick sinus syndrome

85
Q

Rubber jaw – Underlying disorders – Dog:

A

Chronic renal disease – Secondary hyper-parathryoidism

86
Q

EPI (Exocrine Pancreatic Insufficiency) – Diagnosis – Dog:

A

Serum TLI (Trypsin-Like Immunoreactivity) measurement

87
Q

Which is the main and initiating cause of the calcium-phosphorus imbalance in chronic renal
failure?

A

Retention of phosphorus

88
Q

Causes of hyper-tension in kidney patients. Which answer is NOT correct?

A 
 Dehydration
True:
✓ Prolonged activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
✓ Increased peripheral resistance
✓ Systemic vasoconstriction
89
Q

Stomatitis – Clinical signs:

A

Drooling, halitosis, reddening of the mucous membrane of the oral cavity

90
Q

Temporohyoid osteoathropathy – Diagnostics. Which is NOT true?

A 
 Ultrasound
True:
✓ X-ray
✓ Endoscopy
✓ CT
91
Q

Mega-oesophagus – Cause – Dog:

A

Disorders accompanied with neuromuscular dysfunction

92
Q

Anti-emetics – Dog:

A

Chlorpromaszine, Teithylperazine, Macropitant, Metoclopramide

93
Q

Pleuritis, purulent-exudative – Cat – Symptoms

A

Fever, thoracic exudate, mixed dyspnoea with increase inspiratory efforts, disappearance of the
Diernhofer triangle

94
Q

Teratology of Fallot consists from:

A

Ventricular septal defect, aorta-transposition, pulmonary stenosis, right ventricular hypertrophy

95
Q

Idiopathic head shaking – Cause:

A

Trigeminal neuralgia

96
Q

Which statement is NOT true for chronic hepatitis in dog?

A

 Centro-lobular mono-nuclear cell infiltration, inflammation, centro-lobular necrosis, fibrosis
True:
✓ Peri-portal mono-nuclear cell infiltration, inflammation, peri-portal necrosis, fibrosis
✓ Chronic procedures, no improvement for 4-6 weeks
✓ The histopathology is independent from the cause

97
Q

Decompensated congestive heart failure – Dogs:

A

ACE-inhibitors, Furosemide, Pimobendane

98
Q

Prevention of epileptic seizures – Medicament – Dog:

A

Phenobarbital, potassium-bromide

99
Q

Heterotrop impulse formation disorders – Ventricular:

A

Paroxysmal ventricular tachycardia, ventricular fibrillation, ventricular flutter

100
Q

Fat derived peptides – Effects of cytokines and hormones produced by adipocytes:

A

Mild chronic inflammation, long-lasting oxidative stress

101
Q

Ketone bodies in the urine are detected by:

A

Sodium nitroprusid agent

102
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma – Occurrence – Cat:

A

The most common malignant tumour of the oral cavity

103
Q

Diseases with haemorrhagic diathesis:

A

Chronic kidney disease, DIC, von Willebrand’s disease

104
Q

What is the most important test for diagnosing glomerulonephropathies?

A

Detection of severe proteinuria

105
Q

CKD – Which answer is WRONG?

A

 In state I – The creatinine level is only mildly elevated (True: No azotaemia!)
True:
✓ There are 4 stages determined by the serum creatinine levels
✓ There are substages based on the presence of proteinuria
✓ There are stages based on serum creatinine

106
Q

Clinical signs of rabies – Order of paralysis:

A

a) Cranial nerve paralysis, spreading backwards from the forelegs to the hindlegs
b) Cranial nerve paralysis, followed by ascending paralysis, followed by ascending paralysis of the limbs

107
Q

Severe, chronic, small-intestinal diarrhoea – Characteristics - Dog and cat:

A

c) Patient has lost weight, has got watery diarrhoea for more than 3 weeks

108
Q

PSS diagnosis:

A

Intermittent clinical symptoms, neural digestive urinary symptoms, plasma ammonia, FBA-PP bile acid ↑,
doppler ultrasonography

109
Q

The most common cardiac disease in cats:

A

HCM Hypertrophic CardioMyopathy

110
Q

Symptoms of haemolytic anaemia:

A

Icterus, haemoglobinuria, bilirubinuria, splenomegaly

111
Q

Characteristics of endocrine skin disorders:

A

Symmetrical hyper-pigmentation, alopecia on the skin, abnormal skin thickness or thinness, chronic
course

112
Q

Acute blood loss anaemia – Therapy:

A

d) Stop bleeding, HAES, whole blood transfusion

e) Strop bleeding, HAES, fresh frozen plasma

113
Q

Food allergy dermatitis – Characteristics:

A

Allergic dermatitis in dogs becoming allergic to specific protein components of the food, localisation:
mainly head, limbs, axillary and inguinal regions

114
Q

Parvo viral enteritis in dogs – Therapy:

A

Intestinal diet or Enteral nutrition, antibiotics, fluid therapy

115
Q

Tetralogy of fallot:

A

Aortic displacement, ventricular septal defect, RV hypertrophy and pulmonary stenosis

116
Q

Babesiosis treatment:

A

Imidocarb dipropionate, Diminazene aceturate, Atavaquone, Azithromycin

117
Q

Which drug is NOT anti-fungal agent?

A 
 Marbocyl
True:
✓ Itraconazole
✓ Terbinafine
✓ Local konazole
118
Q

Which drug is LESS effective in canine demodicosis?

A

Amitraz containing collar

Good efficacy: Washing with Amitraz solution, Ivermectin per os, Advocate spot on

119
Q

Prostatic tumours in Dogs – Which is NOT true?

A 
 Can be removed by surgery
True:
✓ May occur in castrated males
✓ Mostly adenocarcinoma
✓ Can be diagnosed from a biopsy specimen
120
Q

Tetanus – Aetiology, pathogenesis – Dog:

A

Anaerobe wound + Clostridium tetani infection – Tetanospasmin formation – GABA and Glicin inhibition

121
Q

Which drug CANNOT be applied for Feline auto-immune dermatopathies?

A 
 Azathioprine (Toxic for cats!)
Can use the following in cats (as in dogs) for autoimmune dermatopathies:
✓ Cyclosporine
✓ Prednisolone
✓ Dexadresone
122
Q

Ventricular septal defect – Detection – Dog:

A

Doppler echocardiography: Localization usually just below the aortic root

123
Q

Pathophysiology of obesity – Which of the below statements is true?

A

Hyper-plastic obesity occurs mainly in growing animals

124
Q

Which treatment is NOT affecting the severity of proteinuria?

A

All of them above decrease proteinuria

Renal diet, anti-hypertensive drugs, omega-3 fatty acids, ACE-inhibitors

125
Q

The bacterial rhinitis is almost always a secondary disease, usually with viral infection in the
background:

A

Both statements are true

126
Q

Possible causes of hydro-nephrosis:

A

Ureter stone

127
Q

Transitional cell carcinoma in the bladder:

A

May react to NSAID e.g. Piroxicam treatment

128
Q

Which disease accompanied by ascites in Cat?

A

Lymphocytic cholangitis

129
Q

Lymphangiectasis – Characteristics – Dog, cat:

A

Leads to protein losing enteropathy in severe case

130
Q

Characteristics of MEED. Which is NOT true?

A 
 Gastrointestinal reflux
True:
✓ Diarrhoea
✓ Skin lesions
✓ Hypo-albuminemia, liver enzymes ↑ + absorption tests

INTERNAL (3 decks)

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