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Animal Management Y1 > Small Animal > Flashcards

Small Animal Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the demographic of pet ownership in the UK.

A 
About 50% of households own a pet. 
11 million cats
10 million dogs
1 million rabbits
0.5 million chickens

Drives a lot of business - pet foods, insurance, superstores, vet care, grooming.

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2
Q

Describe the major laws about cats and dogs.

A
  • Dogs must be microchipped before 8 weeks old. If not, £500 fine and loss of right to animal if continuous. Has reduced amount of strays.
  • Sale of Goods Act 1979 means owners must be told of any congenital diseases or defects in the pet before purchase/bringing in to home.
  • Pet Animals Act 1951-1983 means breeders must have licenses, dogs must be weaned from 8 weeks, individual bitch cannot exceed 6 litters in a lifetime, 1 litter per year only.
  • Animal Welfare Act means owners not meeting welfare needs can be persecuted.
  • Dangerous Dog Act means specific breeds bred for dog fighting must be registered with the police, neutered and muzzled in public, allows for owner prosecution. Concern that this is ineffective and should be aimed at owners because attacks shown to be non-breed specific.
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3
Q

Describe the legislation around tail docking.

A

Traditionally on puppies under 4 days old. Is illegal for any person to dock and any vet to dock with or without anaesthesia.

For: improve appearance to conform to breed standard, prevention of injury later, peripheral hygiene, young puppies do not show signs of pain under 4 days old.

Against: no necessity, induces pain and suffering, prevents dog using tails for communication, phantom pains and surgical complications.

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4
Q

Describe legislation around dew-claw removal.

A

Similar arguments to tail docking.

Currently permitted procedure to remove during first 2 weeks of life and later in life under anaesthetic if they cause problems for the dog later.

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5
Q

How are cats and dogs acquired?

A

Kennel club and breeders for dogs.

90% of cats are not pedigree, so pedigree and exotic breeds managed by GCCF, governing council of cat fancy.

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6
Q

How are cats and dogs managed?

A
  • Feed pre-prepared or raw food diets
  • Vaccination against common viral and bacterial diseases
  • Preventative treatment for intestinal worms and fleas
  • Neutering
  • Grooming
  • Nail clipping
  • Ear cleaning
  • Teeth brushing
  • Dentistry
  • Exercise
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7
Q

What things are assessed in routine small animal clinical examination from demeanor, posture and gait from a distance?

A
  • How well
  • How frightened
  • How it interacts with the environment
  • Discomfort
  • Limb symmetry
  • Size of abdomen
  • Limb or neck concerns
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8
Q

What things are assessed in routine small animal clinical examination from eyes and nose?

A
  • Pupils same in diameter and dilation
  • Symmetry of face and whiskers
  • Eyes and nose not drooping on one side
  • Swelling, redness or discharge from eyes
  • Turn down eyelids and look at external and internal nostrils for discharge and inflammation
  • How air is expelled
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9
Q

What things are assessed in routine small animal clinical examination from the external ear canal?

A
  • Evidence of erythema: inflammation, pinkness, discharge
  • Excess hair and polyps
  • Smell ears to see if discharge is significant or not
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10
Q

What things are assessed in small animal clinical examination from oral cavity?

A
  • Turn up upper lip on both sides
  • Look at teeth, particularly upper pre-molars
  • Look at hard palate, base of tongue, inner and outer aspects of oral cavity, gum on sides of mouth
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11
Q

What is assessed in routine small animal clinical examination from superficial lymph node palpations?

A
  • Submandibular gland symmetry
  • Run hands along shoulders for pre-scapular lymph node
  • Popliteal lymph nodes and feel above stifle for popliteal lymph fluid
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12
Q

What is assessed in routine small animal clinical examinations for auscultating heart and lungs?

A
  • Full exertion of chest in breathing and respiration rate
  • Respiratory noise
  • Any breathing difficulties
  • Auscultation of heart on both sides
  • Heart rate
  • Rhythm
  • Heart sounds

Also femoral pulse

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13
Q

What is assessed in routine small animal clinical examination for abdomen and peritoneum?

A

Palpate from thoracic chest backwards using fingers to roll organs against each other.

Look at anus and genitourinal opening.

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14
Q

Do dogs and cats have reactions to vaccines?

A

Relatively uncommon in dogs, more likely in cats. Tumours can occur around vaccinations sites in cats, injection site sarcoma, particularly in multivalent vaccines. So not vaccinated in neck or scruff but nasty cancers can result in amputations.

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15
Q

What is the severity, incidence, method of transmission and vaccination of canine distemper?

A
  • Fatal/severe disabling illness with respiratory and gut signs
  • Rare incidence
  • Direct contact and aerosol
  • Modified live vaccine every 3 years
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16
Q

What is the severity, incidence, method of transmission and vaccination for canine parvovirus?

A
  • Fatal/severe with haemorrhagic vomiting and diarrhoea
  • Direct contact and environment
  • Low incidence
  • Modified live vaccine every 3 years
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17
Q

What is the severity, incidence, method of transmission and vaccination for infectious canine hepatitis?

A
  • Fatal/severe causes fading puppy syndrome or liver failure
  • Direct contact and vertical transmission
  • Rare incidence
  • Modified live vaccine every 3 years
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18
Q

What is the incidence, method of transmission and vaccination of leptospirosis?

A
  • Uncommon incidence
  • Stagnant water and contact with rat (reservoir host) urine
  • Zoonotic and non-core vaccination but highly recommended
  • Inactivated vaccine
19
Q

What is the severity, incidence, method of transmission and vaccination of feline panleukopenia/feline infectious enteritis?

A
  • Acute fatal gastroenteritis and cerebellar hypoplasia in unborn kittens
  • Direct contact and environment
  • Rare incidence
  • Modified live vaccine every 3 years
20
Q

What is severity, incidence, method of transmission and vaccination for feline viral rhinotracheitis?

A

Cat flu - 2 viruses, calici and herpes.

  • Upper and lower respiratory infections, eye problems and mouth ulcers
  • Aerosol, eye contacts and nose discharge
  • Common incidence
  • Modified live sub unit vaccine every 3 years
21
Q

Describe gut roundworm endoparasites.

A

Adults in small intestine and in pregnancy migrate across placenta to puppy and through milk to puppies. Shed lots of eggs so can contaminate and form an intermediate host.

22
Q

Describe gut tapeworm endoparasites.

A

Small intestine. Segmented containing eggs released as packages. Heavy burdens may be associated with ill-thrift-diarrhoea and weight loss.
1 zoonotic when dogs fed infected sheep.

23
Q

Describe lungworm endoparasites.

A

Coronary arteries. Migrates through vessels to pulmonary arteries in dogs and foxes. Cause pneumonia at lungs. Swallowed larvae pass in faeces to slugs and snails, which may be ingested by dogs.

Clinical sign: increased tendency to bleeding.

24
Q

Describe flea exoparasites.

A

Eggs drop off into environment, where they have larval and pupae stages. Flea faeces in animal coat. Mild burden = irritation. Heavy burden = anaemia. Often have allergic reaction to fleas and faeces.

Treat with sprays, spot ons, oral treatment and tapeworm treatment (fleas are immediate host for common tapeworm). Decontaminate living environment and treat in-contact animals.

25
Q

Describe tick exoparasites.

A

Found on grassy areas using questing behaviour to wait for mate and mammalian host. Can carry Borelia or Lyme’s disease.

Hook or tweezer to completely remove mouth parts. Consider topical or oral medications to reduce tick attachment.

26
Q

What are common conditions in older dogs?

A 
Arthritis and mobility and grooming issues
Dental disease 
Overactive thyroid 
Kidney disease 
Diabetes
27
Q

Discuss management of older dogs and cats.

A
  • Grooming and claw clipping
  • Floor surfaces, ramps, steps and platforms
  • Litter trays for cats and easy access toilet sites for dogs
  • Thermal/electric blankets
  • Food and water positioning
  • Stimulating
  • Horizontal scratch posts for cats
28
Q

What is the pet passport system?

A

UK dogs travel freely in Europe if vaccinated against rabies, treated for any endoparasites and exoparasites. Animal health certificate no more than 10 days ago from vets.

29
Q

Describe the normal development of puppies and kittens.

A
  • At birth, body temperature is lower than adults and altrical species born quite underdeveloped
  • Born with eyes and ear canals closed and immobile initially
  • Eyes open at week 2
  • Swim/creep at 2-3 weeks
  • Start standing at 3-4 weeks
  • Squeak/mewl if underfed or cold
  • Require stimulation to eliminate faeces and urine
  • At 4 weeks, they are active, have coordination, vocalisation, independence, play fighting, chasing and pouncing.
  • At 6 weeks, hearing developed, coordination impriving, voluntary elimination in kittens ad varying development in puppies.
  • 6 months: sexual characteristics but huge breed variation. Bigger size = longer it takes to hit puberty.
  • Adult size at 10-18 months
30
Q

Describe management of puppies with a bitch.

A
  • Kept in whelping box at 25-30 degrees
  • Solid food at 3-4 weeks in weaning
  • Worming for roundworm at weaning
  • Socialisation window = 6-12 weeks
  • Re-homing after 6 weeks but 8 if a registered breeder
31
Q

Describe management of kittens with a queen.

A
  • Initially undisturbed
  • Weaning at 3-4 weeks
  • Worming for roundworm at weaning
  • Re-homing after 6 weeks
32
Q

What is the role of post-purchase consultation?

A
  • Clients encouraged to engage in puppy classes and weigh and worm consultations
  • Check if healthy and feeding well
  • Any behavioural issues: settling in, socialisation, social referencing, habituation, toilet training, obedience training in dogs
33
Q

How is re-homing of puppies and kittens managed?

A
  • Bed/blankets that smell of mother or litter mates
  • Follow breeder’s diet plan and make any changes slowly
  • Have same/similar sized bowl as breeder’s
  • Introduce small area of house initially and provide indoor confined space/kennel/crate for puppies
  • Provide kittens with same/similar litter substrate
  • Provide sources of warmth and noise
  • Adaptil: dog pheromone that bitches produce to encourage puppies to be exploratory at 3-4 weeks and is an emotional stabiliser/appeasement
  • Feliway: feline facial pheromone that calms cats
34
Q

Describe socialisation in kittens and puppies.

A

Has specific time window that has a great effect on development temperament and subsequent adult behaviour.

Absence of experience and social referencing = abnormal behaviour and adult behavioural problems.

Puppies = 3-12 weeks
Kittens = 3-6 weeks
35
Q

Describe how to toilet train puppies.

A
  1. Begin as soon as re-homed and manage owner understanding and expectations
  2. Create an association between going outside, eliminating and rewarding with positive reinforcement
  3. Give plenty opportunity (every 30 mins) to get this right
  4. Create space to eliminate where owner is not present away from bed and food. Keep bed area toilet free and take care with confining them here
  5. Try catch phrase as they eliminate
36
Q

Describe feline elimination management.

A

Toileting outside core space. Toilets are clean, private and do not smell like other cats.

  1. Use litter type used by breeder and use deeply filled trays, as they like to dig
  2. Have 1 tray for every kitten, plus 1 spare. Keep these clean but only once a week so it still smells like them. Avoid ammonia based products
  3. Site trays away from core space, in the corner and covered
  4. Put kitten on tray or show them where tray is as soon as they wake up or eat
37
Q

What is the length of pregnancy/gestation in bitches and queens?

A

65 (58-68) days

38
Q

Describe the litters sizes from bitches and queens.

A

Bitches - variable 1-12 and very dependent on breed. In general, the smaller the breed, the smaller the litter size

Queen - average 4 kittens

39
Q

How can pregnancy be diagnosed for bitches and queens and when can each method be used?

A
  • Abdominal palpation – day 28 in the bitch and day 21 in queens
  • Ultrasound scan from day 20
  • Blood samples to detect either acute phase proteins or the hormone relaxin from day 21
  • X rays: radiographically from day 42 when skeletons start to ossify

Behavioural or other changes are less reliable, as both species have a progesterone dominated phase whether mated or not, including mammary development, abdominal thickening and nest making.

40
Q

How should diet be managed in pregnancy?

A
  • High calorie density foods later in pregnancy
  • Multiple smaller meals
  • Up to 4 weeks pregnancy when calorific intake should be static
  • Weeks 5-7, intake should be increased by 20%
  • Weeks are 8-9 and 1st week lactation – intake should be increased to 50% above normal
  • 2nd and 3rd weeks lactation – intake should be 100% above normal
  • Taper slowly to weaning
41
Q

Describe the labour stages in cats and dogs.

A
  1. Begins with uterine contractions and ends with full cervical dilation. Restlessness, nest-making, shivering, inappetence, hiding/seeking reassurance, panting, occasional vomiting up to 24 hours.
  2. Birth of pup/kitten
  3. Expulsion of the placenta. Stage 2 and 3 have active and visible contractions of the abdomen, recumbency or standing. 10-30 minutes from onset of active straining to birth, time between puppies/kittens up to 4 hours.
42
Q

How is reproduction controlled in female cats and dogs?

A
  • Surgical ovariohysterectomy/’spaying’
  • Surgical ovariectomy/keyhole surgery or laparoscopic spay in bitches
  • Medical suppression of ovarian activity with progestogens. Limited use as very high risk of side effects, particularly in cats with diabetes mellitus for example.
43
Q

How is reproduction controlled in male cats and dogs?

A
  • Castration – bilateral orchiectomy
  • Vasectomy – very rarely performed
  • Medical suppression with implant of GnRH agonist

Animal Management Y1 (10 decks)

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