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HH-60G > SMA HH60G MQF 15 AUG 2021 > Flashcards

SMA HH60G MQF 15 AUG 2021 Flashcards

1
Q

(T/F): Medical evacuation flights may be operated to transport seriously ill or injured persons, and/or to transport medical personnel, equipment, or supplies under emergency conditions when other means are not suitable or readily available. Ensure mission requests are coordinated through appropriate Rescue Coordination Center (RCC).

A

True

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2
Q

In which of the following flights in a passenger never allowed, even if they are designated as MEP?

A. Any flight involving remote ops

B. Any flight involving NVG air refueling

C. Any flight involving practice water operations

D. Any flight involving practice emergency procedures

A

D. Any flight involving practice emergency procedures

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3
Q

Aircraft that remain on alert for more than ___ hours require a preflight by maintenance personnel in addition to a full preflight by a qualified crewmember.

A. 72

B. 24

C. 36

D.96

A

A. 72

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4
Q

Hoist equipped alert aircraft will plan for a/an _____ in the event of a hoist malfunction/failure.

A. Primary insertion

B. Hoist quick splice kit

C. Raft

D. Alternate insertion/extraction

A

D. Alternate insertion/extraction

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5
Q

(T/F): Once aircraft is accepted for alert, make the following entry in the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) FORM 781A, Maintenance Discrepancy and Work Document: “INFO NOTE: Aircraft accepted for alert (time/date). HIT, Hover and Hoist checks completed”.

A

True

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6
Q

To ensure integrity of the preflight, no maintenance (aircraft or weapons) will be performed without approval of the AC. A _____ will be present whenever maintenance is performed, or at the completion of the maintenance to check the area(s) in which maintenance was performed, to include the appropriate cockpit configuration.

A. Flight engineer

B. Aircraft commander

C. Qualified HH-60 aircrew member

D. Aerial Gunner

A

C. Qualified HH-60 aircrew member

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7
Q

Who may direct arming of crewmembers as deemed necessary by mission threat analysis?

A. Aircraft commanders

B. Group commanders

C. Squadron commanders

D. Wing commanders

A

C. Squadron commanders

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8
Q

With _____ approval, civilian law enforcement or medical personnel may be transported to mishap/disaster sites when responding under immediate response authority (IRA) as outlined in AFI 10-801. Under imminent, serious conditions, when unable to make contact for approval or time does not permit approval, the military commander may approve civilian law enforcement/medical personnel to aboard the aircraft to save lives, prevent human suffering, or mitigate great property damage within the United States.

A. Wing/CC

B. OG/CC

C. SQ/CC

D. MAJCOM A3

A

A. Wing/CC

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9
Q

The responsibility for mission planning/preparation is shared jointly by the individual _____, and the operations and intelligence functions of the organization.

A. Copilots

B. Flight Leads

C. Aircrew members

D. Aircraft commanders

A

C. Aircrew members

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10
Q

While over featureless terrain or water, limit _____ to those necessary for mission accomplishment.

A. Formation maneuvers

B. Communications

C. Climbs and descents

D. None of the above

A

A. Formation maneuvers

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11
Q

The ______ ensures all passengers are briefed IAW applicable flight manuals and MAJCOM guidance.

A. Aerial Gunner

B. Flight engineer

C. Aircraft commander or flight lead

D. Squadron/CC

A

C. Aircraft commander or flight lead

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12
Q

The following minimum weather weather criteria (ceiling/visibility) apply during VFR training operations: Day training ____, Night unaided and emergency procedures ____, NVG ____.

A. 1000/3, 700/1, 700/3

B. 1000/3, 700/2, 800/2

C. 700/1, 1000/3, 700/2

D. 700/1, 700/2, 700/3

A

C. 700/1, 1000/3, 700/2

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13
Q

For all flights, VFR or IFR, plan to land at the destination with no less than ____ pounds of usable fuel.

A. 300

B. 400

C. 500

D. 600

A

C. 500

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14
Q

Helicopters may be authorized by the squadron commander to operate into prepared/unlighted areas unaided, provided the crew is aware of all ____, and aircraft lighting provides sufficient illumination to clearly see the ____, landing surface, and obstacles.

A. Obstacles/wind sock

B. Lighting/approach path

C. Obstacles/approach path

D. Training rules/survivor location

A

C. Obstacles/approach path

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15
Q

Conduct all operations at or above ____ feet AGL except when lower altitudes are required for takeoff, departure, arrival, landing, operational missions, exercise/training flights in approved areas or approved exercise missions.

A. 200

B. 400

C. 500

D. 1000

A

C. 500

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16
Q

(T/F): When the route of flight is beyond autorotational distance from land, all occupants will wear life preservers, aircrew members will wear approved underwater breathing devices, a life raft will be carried onboard the aircraft, and anti-exposure suits will be worn IAW AFI 11-301, Aircrew flight Equipment series and MAJCOM instructions.

A

True

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17
Q

A publication kit ____ be onboard the aircraft prior to departure.

A. May

B. Should

C. Must

D. Will not

A

C. Must

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18
Q

TOLD will be computed and briefed _____.

A. Prior to crew show

B. Prior to crew brief

C. Prior to preflight

D. Prior to takeoff

A

D. Prior to takeoff

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19
Q

Flying units will maintain a _____ weight and balance book within flight planning areas.

A. Digital

B. Reference only

C. Hardcopy

D. None of the above

A

C. Hardcopy

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20
Q

A _____ device and V-blade knife will be readily available during hoist operations.

A. Hoist Cable Cleaning

B. Hoist Cable Quicksplice

C. Hoist Cable Snatch Block

D. Hoist Cable Weight Check

A

B. Hoist Cable Quicksplice

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21
Q

The _____ will ensure aircrew and deploying personnel are aware of the length of the devices.

A. Safetyman

B. Flight engineer

C. Deploying team

D. Aircraft commander

A

D. Aircraft commander

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22
Q

Regarding the maintenance debriefing, the _____ will debrief maintenance personnel on the condition of the aircraft and equipment.

A. Flight lead

B. Enlisted aircrew

C. Aircraft commander (or designated crewmember)

D. Other aircraft commander

A

C. Aircraft commander (or designated crewmember)

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23
Q

Operations will not be conducted with any malfunction in the _____, quantity or warning systems, except on life or death missions.

A. Hydraulic fluid

B. Main fuel tank

C. Spare fuel tank

D. Auxiliary fuel tank

A

B. Main fuel tank

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24
Q

Accomplish all flight manual checklists using the Challenge - Response (C-R) method for _____ checklist procedures.

A. Normal

B. Refueling

C. Weapons

D. Emergency

A

A. Normal

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25
Q

A restraint device will be worn by _____.

A. All personnel

B. Anyone not an evaluator

C. Anyone not an instructor

D. Mission essential personnel

A

A. All personnel

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26
Q

Secondary restraint device attachment points will be the cabin cargo tiedown fittings or Crew Overhead Restraint System (CORS) cable. A maximum of _____ restraint devices will be attached per cargo tiedown ring.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

A

B. 2

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27
Q

Aircraft may be flown with ___ strobe light(s) inoperative.

A. One

B. Two

C. Both

D. All

A

A. One

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28
Q

Aircraft may operate in restricted areas and warning areas with _____ lighting IAW AFI 11-202V3 and Federal Aviation Administration exemptions.

A. All

B. Some

C. Reduced

D. No

A

C. Reduced

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29
Q

Without wing walkers, aircrew will abide by taxi distances and restrictions per AFI 11-218, Aircraft Operations and Movement on the Ground, and will not taxi an aircraft within ____ feet of obstructions without wing walkers and no closer than ____ feet with wing walkers unless exempt or waived.

A. 25, 5

B. 25, 10

C. 100, 5

D. 100, 10

A

B. 25, 10

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30
Q

The maximum ground taxi speed is ____ knots ground speed.

A. 10

B. 15

C. 20

D. 25

A

B. 15

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31
Q

Rotor turning crew changes are authorized. The new crew will review aircraft ____, weight and balance, ____ and completed asterisk items of the “Before Takeoff” checklist.

A. Forms, fuel quantity

B. Form 70, Pax manifest

C. Forms, TOLD

D. Fuel Quantity, TOLD

A

C. Forms, TOLD

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32
Q

If a situation is encountered where the aircraft is on a Red X and qualified maintenance personnel are not available, home station maintenance supervision may authorize the ____ to clear the red x condition.

A. Chief of Maintenance

B. SQ/CC

C. Aircraft Commander

D. Flight Engineer

A

D. Flight Engineer

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33
Q

When not directly involved in the refueling operation, personnel will remain clear of the fuel servicing safety zone (FSSZ), with the exception of ____.

A. VIPs (General Officers, High ranking foreign nationals)

B. Large Force exercises/General Aviation FBOs

C. Approved Hot Refueling/FARP/Contingency Operations

D. None of the above

A

C. Approved Hot Refueling/FARP/Contingency Operations

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34
Q

In the event a forced or precautionary landing occurs at a location where communications are not available, the following procedures apply: If the aircraft is safe for flight, the _____ may authorize a one time flight to a suitable location for a corrective maintenance accessibility or to a location where communication can be established.

A. Aircraft Commander

B. Evaluator Flight Engineer

C. Instructor Flight Engineer

D. Maintenance Qualified Pilot

A

A. Aircraft Commander

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35
Q

When conducting multiple approaches to the same area, power available/required will be briefed for the maneuver that provides the _____ power margin.

A. Smallest

B. Greatest

C. Wind corrected

D. Out of ground effect

A

A. Smallest

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36
Q

When the anticipated power margin is 10% or less, a second aircrew member will reconfirm power computations. One crewmember will utilize the ____ and the other will utilize flight manual performance charts or ____ to provide two sources of TOLD.

A. Last knows TOLD/Best guess based on fuel burn

B. Pre-mission brief TOLD/CDU

C. CDU/approved automated programs

D. None of the above

A

C. CDU/approved automated programs

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37
Q

The landing zone power available requirement for training approaches to a site with a clear escape route is; power available must be equal to or greater than power required for:

A. OGE hover power

B. The intended hover height

C. OGE hover power (no greater than 50ft) +5%

D. The intended hover height (no less than 10 feet) +5%

A

D. The intended hover height (no less than 10 feet) +5%

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38
Q

The landing zone power available requirement for training approaches to a site with a restricted escape route is: power available must be equal to or grater than ______.

A. OGE power hover

B. The intended hover height

C. OGE hover power +5%

D. The intended hover height +5%

A

C. OGE hover power +5%

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39
Q

When landing to a surface area smaller than your rotor diameter, such as a pinnacle, or ridgeline, power for an ____ hover must be available (training and operational)

A. IGE

B. OGE

C. IGE +5%

D. OGE +5%

A

B. OGE

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40
Q

The use of contingency power for pre-mission and in-flight planning purposes is _____.

A. Mandatory

B. Advisable

C. Prohibited

D. Normal

A

C. Prohibited

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41
Q

Except during operational/exercise CSAR missions, landings to a non-surveyed/unprepared landing zones require a ____ and ____ recon.

A. Thorough/Hasty

B. High/Low

C. Map Data/On the approach

D. Obstacle/Route

A

B. High/Low

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42
Q

When training/re-currency is being conducted in the cabin, the instructor/flying supervisor _____ be used as a primary scanner on the opposite side of the aircraft.

A. Will

B. May

C. Should

D. Will Not

A

D. Will Not

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43
Q

Which one of the following may be practiced in the aircraft during emergency procedure sortie:

A. Power Settling

B. Single DEC malfunctions

C. Dual DEC malfunctions

D. Actual engine shutdown in flight

A

B. Single DEC malfunctions

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44
Q

Accomplish all emergency procedures to runways, taxiways, helipads, or other areas approved by the ____ and listed in the local chapter 8.

A. Group Commander

B. Aircraft Commander

C. Squadron Commander

D. MAJCOM commander

A

C. Squadron Commander

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45
Q

When torque available is limited by actual throttle manipulation the landing area should be a/an ____ and must provide ample room for a/an ____.

A. Runway/Go-around

B. Auxiliary field/autorotation

C. Prepared area/roll-on landing

D. Low-level area/autorotation

A

C. Prepared area/roll-on landing

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46
Q

Do not initiate a stabilator malfunction when aircraft attitude is greater than ____ nose low.

A. 10 degrees

B. 15 degrees

C. 20 degrees

D. 25 degrees

A

A. 10 degrees

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47
Q

All practice autorotations will be terminated no lower than ___ feet AGL, and a maximum ground speed of ___ knots.

A. 10, 30

B. 15, 30

C. 10, 80

D. 15, 80

A

B. 15, 30

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48
Q

During rope ladder operations, the maximum number of personnel on the ladder is limited to ___.

A. 2

B. 3

C. 4

D. 5

A

B. 3

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49
Q

If any flight member/element calls “Blind”, then the other flight member/element will acknowledge will ___ and an informative position call or acknowledge with “Blind”

A. Acknowledged

B. Visual

C. Contact

D. Tally

A

B. Visual

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50
Q

Operating procedures, techniques, etc., which could result in personal injury and/or loss of life if not carefully followed.

A. Note

B. Hazard

C. Caution

D. Warning

A

D. Warning

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51
Q

Operating procedures, techniques, etc., which could result in damaged to equipment if not carefully followed.

A. Note

B. Hazard

C. Caution

D. Warning

A

C. Caution

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52
Q

Operating procedures, techniques, etc., which is considered essential to emphasize.

A. Note

B. Hazard

C. Caution

D. Warning

A

A. Note

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53
Q

Words used when application of a procedure is mandatory.

A. May

B. Might

C. Should

D. Shall and will

A

D. Shall and Will

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54
Q

Words used when application of a procedure is recommended.

A. Will Not

B. Might

C. Should

D. Shall and will

A

C. Should

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55
Q

Words used to indicate an acceptable or suggested means of accomplishment.

A. May

B. Won’t

C. Should

D. Shall and will

A

A. May

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56
Q

Control of fuel to the engine combustion system is done by the ___.

A. Boost Pumps

B. Prime pumps

C. Mechanical Pumps

D. Hydromechanical Unit

A

D. Hydromechanical Unit

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57
Q

The ___ supplies power to the engine ignition exciter.

A. Auxiliary Generator

B. Engine Alternator

C. Main Generator

D. Main Alternator

A

B. Engine Alternator

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58
Q

Complete loss of the engine ___ will result in a loss of Ng signal (with corresponding ENG OUT warning audio and light) as airframe power will continue to sustain the DEC.

A. Alternator

B. Fuel Pump

C. Scavenge Pump

D. Hydromechanical Unit

A

A. Alternator

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59
Q

The ___ controls the electrical function of the engine and transmits information to the cockpit.

A. Overspeed Drain Valve (ODV)

B. Digital Electric Control (DEC) Unit

C. Engine Alternator

D. Both A and B

A

B. Digital Electric Control (DEC) Unit

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60
Q

The engine ignition system is a ___ AC powered, capacitor discharge, low voltage system.

A. Continuous

B. Noncontinuous

C. Continuously cycling

D. Continuously Non-cycling

A

B. Noncontinuous

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61
Q

Two sensors are installed on the exhaust frame of the engine. One sensor provides the ___ signal to the DEC. The other sensor feeds the torque computation circuit and ___ overspeed protection system.

A. Nr

B. Nf

C. Ng

D. TGT

A

B. Nf

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62
Q

When either CONT PWR switch is activated, it provides bias to both DECs to increase the TGT limiter of both engines from the 10 minute limiting value (857-875 Degrees C) to the 2.5 minute limiting value (___ - ___),

A. 0 - 810 Degrees C

B. 903 - 949 Degrees C

C. 881 - 901 Degrees C

D. 886 - 896 Degrees C

A

C. 881 - 901 Degrees C

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63
Q

To perform a cross bleed start, operating engine must be at least ___ percent Ng, 100 percent Nr, APU Off, and Air Source Heat/Start switch placed to ENG, with engine ant-ice off.

A. 90

B. 95

C. 100

D. 100

A

A. 90

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64
Q

Power turbine speed is not governed until the throttle is advanced from ___.

A. Fly

B. Off

C. Idle

D. Lockout

A

C. Idle

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65
Q

With throttle at DEC LOCKOUT, ___ system is deactivated and TGT must be manually controlled.

A. Load Demand

B. Manual TGT limiting

C. Overspeed protection

D. Automatic TGT limiting

A

D. Automatic TGT limiting

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66
Q

What are the two mechanical inputs from the cockpit to the HMU?

A. Collective output and engine throttle

B. Collective output and fuel selector

C. Cyclic output and engine throttle

D. Cyclic output and fuel selector

A

A. Collective output and engine throttle

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67
Q

The Engine Trim switch is located on the copilot’s overhead panel and controls the speed of both engines ____.

A. Individually

B. Involuntary

C. Mechanically

D. Simultaneously

A

D. Simultaneously

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68
Q

If the throttle is placed in LOCKOUT, the engine will still increase/decrease power in response to ____ changes.

A. DEC

B. Nf governing

C. Collective (LDS)

D. Load sharing

A

C. Collective (LDS)

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69
Q

Overspeed protection protects the power turbine from destructive overspeeds by triggering at ____.

A. 110% +/- 2% Ng

B. 110% +/- 2% Nf

C. 120% +/- 1% Ng

D. 120% +/- 1% Nf

A

D. 120% +/- 1% Nf

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70
Q

With the No. 1 or No. 2 starter circuit breakers pulled, the engine will ____ when the overspeed test is performed.

A. Restart

B. Flameout

C. Continue to operate

D. Continuously reignite

A

B. Flameout

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71
Q

If Ng increases above ___ +/- 2% due to Nf overspeed protection failure, the HMU will cutoff fuel flow and the engine will flameout with no automatic relight or capability of restart.

A. 106% Ng

B. 110% Ng

C. 120% Ng

D. 110% Nf

A

B. 110% Ng

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72
Q

A/An ____ provides automatic fuel flow, ignition, and operation of the APU.

A. Digital Electronic Unit (DEU)

B. Electronic Control Unit (ECU)

C. Electronic Starting Unit (ESU)

D. Electronic Sequence Unit (ESU)

A

D. Electronic Sequence Unit (ESU)

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73
Q

An APU accumulator may be recharged by these methods: An electric ground cart which powers the ____ hydraulic pump or a hydraulic ground cart connected to the ____ hydraulic system, the ground test quick disconnects, or by use of the hand pump.

A. APU

B. Backup

C. No. 1

D. No. 2

A

B. Backup

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74
Q

If during an APU start attempt using the override switch, with a GTC-P-36-150 APU installed, if the APU control switch is not placed on while ____ activating the manual override lever, it is likely the APU will fail to start.

A. Simultaneously

B. Waiting 10 seconds to begin

C. Continuously

D. Waiting 30 seconds to begin

A

A. Simultaneously

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75
Q

The blades have a built-in negative ___ degree twist to provide equal lift across the blade span. The tip cap is swept back ___ degrees to decrease noise and tip vortices while increasing airspeed.

A. 10, 20

B. 20, 10

C. 18, 20

D. 20, 18

A

C. 18, 20

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76
Q

Rotor break modified aircraft are ____ from performing any engine operations with the gust lock engaged. Use rotor break instead of gust lock for rotor stopped engine runs on rotor break installed aircraft.

A. Limited

B. Prohibited

C. Restricted

D. Controlled

A

B. Prohibited

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77
Q

Aircraft modified by the -142 Plus Chip Detector System: Helicopter equipped with BIT chip detectors will automatically test for a continuous circuit from the caution/advisory panel lights to the chip detector once the BATT switch is turned ON. All transmission CHIP caution lights, with the exception of the CHIP MAIN MDL SUMP, will illuminate immediately and stay on for ___ seconds and then go out, indicating a continuous circuit exists (checks good).

A. 30 - 45

B. 60

C. 45 - 70

D. 45

A

C. 45 - 70

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78
Q

If the 200 Gallon Internal Auxiliary Fuel Tank contains more than ___ pounds of fuel, the lower cargo rings structure securing the left and right restraint beams may fail on impact with the ground, causing the tank to dislodge.

A. 550 +/- 50

B. 172

C. 538

D. 650

A

D. 650

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79
Q

When the thermistor in the bent line detects an overflow the OVERFLOW indicator on the fuel management panel will go on. Holding the MAIN switch to ____ (Fuel Mgmt Panel) will close the shutoff valve to the main tanks and cause the indicator to go off.

A. SHUTOFF

B. OFF

C. XFER

D. ON

A

A. SHUTOFF

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80
Q

If flow rate through the utility module to the APU accumulator becomes excessive, a ____ shuts off flow.

A. Shutoff valve

B. Logic Module

C. Pressure switch

D. Velocity fuse

A

D. Velocity fuse

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81
Q

____ servos (collective, yaw, and pitch) installed between the cockpit controls and the mixing unit reduce cockpit control forces.

A. SAS 1

B. SAS 2

C. Boost

D. FPS

A

C. Boost

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82
Q

A ____ failure advisory may not automatically cause a Flight Bite Code (FBC) to appear on the AFCC ETI/BITE DISPLAY. This is normal and is designed to reduce nuisance error codes.

A. SAS 1

B, SAS 2

C. boost

D. trim

A

D. trim

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83
Q

If the ground BITE Check is inadvertently initiated, ____ to ensure the FPS authority has been reenabled. The FPS authority will be disabled for approximately 1 minute upon initiation of this check.

A. do not takeoff for approximately 2 minutes

B. initiate takeoff after approximately 30 seconds

C. immediately takeoff

D. you should perform hover check

A

A. do not takeoff for approximately 2 minutes

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84
Q

The ____ enhances dynamic stability in the pitch, roll, and yaw axis.

A. stability augmentation system (SAS)

B. turn coordination

C. boost

D. trim

A

A. stability augmentation system (SAS)

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85
Q

As the vertical gyro comes up to speed or when system is shutdown, derived pitch/roll rate signal which feeds SAS-1 will cause small oscillations in pitch and ross SAS actuators. This is a temporary situation and can be eliminated by pressing ____ switch off.

A. SAS 2

B. SAS 1

C. boost

D. trim

A

B. SAS 1

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86
Q

When trim is disengaged and SAS-1 or SAS-2 are engaged; drift of the cyclic stick in the fore and/or aft direction after a slight bump of the grip is ____.

A. Normal

B. Grounds to return aircraft to maintenance for corrective action

C. Abnormal

D. Not allowed

A

A. Normal

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87
Q

The collective friction lock must fully ____ for proper operation of the IAHHS system.

A. raised

B. Lowered

C. Tightened

D. Loosened

A

D. Loosened

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88
Q

When operationally checking the hoist on the ground, the backup pump control switch must be placed in the ____ for the CCB to function normally.

A. OFF

B. ON

C. AUTO

D. NORMAL

A

C. AUTO

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89
Q

Concerning hoist operations, a/an ____ is not provided in the backup mode. Do not seat the hook against the roller housing when reeling cable in.

A. Up limit switch

B. Down limit switch

C. Cable centering switch

D. Cable shear switch

A

A. Up limit switch

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90
Q

On the GAU-18/A the bolt is locked to the barrel extension assembly by the ____ lock cam.

A. Bolt

B. Breech

C. Barrel

D. Elliptical

A

B. Breech

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91
Q

On the GAU-18/A, the ____ cams the firing pin extension to its rearward position, allowing the sear to engage the sear notch and hold it in the cocked position.

A. firing pin tang

B. bolt switch

C. cocking lever

D. extractor

A

C. cocking lever

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92
Q

Concerning the GAU-18/A, the barrel and barrel extension travel rearward a total distance of ____ inches, until they are stopped and locked by the oil buffer body.

A. 1/2

B. 1 1/8

C. 2 3/4

D. 7 1/8

A

B. 1 1/8

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93
Q

The GAU-18/A receiver assembly and barrel jacket assembly support and protect the ____.

A. rod assembly

B. slide assembly

C. cover assembly

D. barrel assembly

A

D. Barrel assembly

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94
Q

On the GAU-18/A, the ____ applies operating voltages to the .50 caliber booster drive assembly and provides a through connection for the gun ICS switch.

A. CEU

B. DEC

C. ECU

D. GCU

A

C. ECU

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95
Q

Concerning the GAU-18/A electrical harness, the AC output interfaces the ____ with the ____.

A. ICS/booster motor

B. booster motor/ECU

C. triggers/master arm override

D. booster/last round switch

A

B. Booster motor/ECU

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96
Q

The minigun weapons system uses a/an ____ motor to provide drive for the mechanical operation of the minigun.

A. DC

B. AC

C. Hydroelectric

D. Hydromechanical

A

B. AC

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97
Q

On the GAU-2, the ____ is the main structural component of the gun and is supported in the gun housing by front annular ball bearings and supports the barrel cluster.

A. the bolt assembly

B. Rotor assembly

C. Clutch assembly

D. Removable tracks

A

B. Rotor assembly

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98
Q

On the GAU-2 ____ provide(s) a bearing surface on the bolt assemby’s side.

A. Gun housing

B. Rotor assembly

C. Removable tracks

D. Elliptical cam path

A

C. Removable tracks

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99
Q

On the GAU-2, the inner surface of the safing blade contains the ____ of the cam path which brings the bolt assemblies into battery position and allows the firing pins to be cocked.

A. cover

B. triggering elliptical

C. segment

D. Bearing surface

A

C. segment

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100
Q

When the safing blade is lifted up in the ____ position, the firing pins are unable to be released in the rotor assembly proving a mechanical safety that functions as a cycling sector.

A. Open

B. Closed

C. Locked

D. Unlocked

A

A. Open

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101
Q

On the GAU-2 the clutch solenoid remains energized for ____ msecs upon release of the triggers.

A. 40

B. 80

C. 400

D. 30

A

A. 40

102
Q

On the GAU-2, the booster drive remains energized for ___ msecs upon release of the triggers.

A. 40

B. 80

C. 400

D. 30

A

B. 80

103
Q

After flight, fluid in the hydraulic system will be hot. Piston movement of up to ____ inch into the blue (black on some pumps) overfill zone is acceptable. When piston is beyond this limit, bleed off enough fluid to bring the piston back to ____ inch above the fill limit.

A. 1 / 4

B. 3 / 8

C. 2

D. 1/2

A

B. 3 / 8

104
Q

The thru-flight checklist should be accomplished when the helicopter is assigned missions which require intermediate stops, including shutdown, when flown by the same crew that does not take a crew rest and ____ maintenance has been performed during the stop.

A, No

B, Some

C. Ground

D. Adjustment

A

A. No

105
Q

Do not preflight until ____ systems are safe, switches off, safety pins installed, and safing bars installed.

A. Hoist

B. Hydraulic

C. Armament

D. Secure communication

A

C. Armament

106
Q

Re-accomplish the applicable numbered item of the exterior inspection checklist when maintenance has been performed in that area after the following conditions: 1. the flight crew has initiated the EXTERIOR INSPECTION (and subsequent) checklist and remain at the aircraft during maintenance corrective action. 2. after a precautionary landing and ____.

A. FE clears the red X

B. Emergency is terminated

C. Safe to do so

D. Maintenance has been performed

A

D. Maintenance has been performed

107
Q

Regarding the hoist anti-chaff bar, cuts and pits in the bar could cut or damage the hoist cable. Damage ____ be repaired and marks ____ be painted over prior to hoist operation.

A. should, should

B. should, will

C. will, will

D. will, should

A

B. should, will

108
Q

Ensure ICS cord does not extend between the ____ and the seat frame. Excessive cord length may inhibit collective movement.

A. lower console

B. cyclic friction grip

C. collective friction grip

D. seat adjustment lever

A

C. collective friction grip

109
Q

Use care when opening the nose avionics compartment door during high wind conditions. Wind gusts may damage the ____.

A. Inspector and the support arm

B. Door assembly and support arm

C. Door assembly and the inspector

D. Door assembly and the APR receivers

A

B. Door assembly and support arm

110
Q

AN/AAR-47 plume detector elements contain nickelous sulfate, a ____.

A. probably carcinogen

B. Potential burn hazard

C. Valuable, pilferable mineral resource

D. Potential eye hazard

A

A. probably carcinogen

111
Q

If a BIM indicator shows half ____ color or more on all three bands, when viewed 90 degrees perpendicular to the indicator, the aircraft will not be flown until that blade is replaced or checked for structural integrity.

A. Red

B. Gray

C. Black

D. Yellow

A

A. Red

112
Q

During fuel breakaway valve inspection, if the breakaway valve groove shows and gold/yellow, the aircraft will not be flown until the valve has been ____ by maintenance.

A. repaired

B. replaced

C. signed off

D. inspected

A

B. replaced

113
Q

When using the engine cowling/work platform, do not exceed ____ pounds total weight on platform. Individual on platform will not exceed 250 pounds.

A. 500

B. 400

C. 600

D. 300

A

B. 400

114
Q

Operation of the refueling system with the ventilation ball valve at the bulkhead connection in the ____ position could cause damaged to the auxiliary tanks and possible fuel leaks.

A. Dual

B. Open

C. Closed

D. Intermediate

A

C. Closed

115
Q

If the APU does not start, wait ____ minutes before attempting to restart, to allow fuel to drain.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 5

D. 8

A

B. 2

116
Q

During ground operation at high ambient temperatures, the APU OIL TEMP HI caution light may go on. If this occurs, the APU should be shut down ____ to prevent damage. After a ___ cooling period, the oil level should be checked prior to start.

A

(d) Immediately, 30 minute

117
Q

With the AFCC installed, turning the compass switch rapidly will induce a TRIM FAIL segment light on the AFCS panel. ____ will clear the fault and no FBC will be stored in the AFCC.

A

(b) PWR ON RESET

118
Q

Do not allow personnel within ___ feet of the radar antenna when radar is transmitting.

A

(c) 25

119
Q

The MODE SEL switch on the fuel management panel should not be in ___ and ___ during the Fuel Indicator Test.

A

(b) XFER, AUTO

120
Q

The fuel selectors ___ be in XFD for the first flight of the day.

A

(d) shall

121
Q

When an engine is to be motored without a start, make certain ___ is OFF.

A

(d) engine ignition switch

122
Q

If the rotor head moves due to rotor brake slippage with engine(s) running, the pilot will immediately ___ the engine(s), or if prebriefed ___ the rotor brake.

A

(a) shutoff, release

123
Q

If start is attempted with the ENGINE IGNITION switch OFF, do not place switch ON after motoring has started, or a ___ could occur.

A

(b) hot start

124
Q

Prior to attempting an engine start, the ENG ANTI-ICE ON advisory light shall be ___.

A

(a) on

125
Q

During an engine start, the FUEL PRESS caution light ___ flicker or illuminate and then go off.

A

(b) may or may not

126
Q

If an ENGINE STARTER caution light goes off when the start button is released, and the throttle is OFF, the start attempt ___ by pressing and holding the starter button until 52%-65% Ng is reached; then release button.

A

(c) may be continued

127
Q

To avoid damage to engine ___, do not move throttle to FLY or IDLE to OFF while pressing the starter button.

A

(b) start switch actuators

128
Q

If start was aborted for no TGT increase in 45 seconds, motor engine for ___ seconds.

A

(b) 30

129
Q

Should the starter dropout malfunction, manually disengage starter by ___.

A

(d) all of the above

- pulling ENG START circuit breaker, removing appropriate air source, pulling out on the throttle

130
Q

Regarding the AFCC check, if ETI/BITE display window is blank or displays Computer Bad, what is required?

A

(d) both A and B

- do not take off, return the aircraft to maintenance

131
Q

Regarding the AFCC check, if Computer ___ is displayed, a fault code is present and the clearing steps should be followed.

A

(d) Good

132
Q

When hovering OGE at or near maximum power available in temperatures above 0°C, reference ___ as the primary indication of maximum power available. At temperatures below 0°C, Ng limiting may occur.

A

(a) TGT

133
Q

Regarding the engine HIT/ANTI-ICE check, check each engine individually prior to the first flight of the day, or if ___.

A

(d) engine deterioration is suspected

134
Q

Regarding the engine HIT/ANTI-ICE check, if TRQ is greater than ___% at 92% to 98% Nf on the engine not being checked, a torque stiction malfunction is possible. Do not fly the aircraft.

A

(b) 5

135
Q

A malfunctioning engine anti-ice in conjunction with the engine inlet anti-ice system malfunction may result in power losses as much as ___% of maximum torque available.

A

(d) 40

136
Q

When using the TGT reference table, round the PA ___ and round even-number OATs to the next ___ value.

A

(c) to the nearest value, higher (odd)

137
Q

The power check is done by comparing the ___ with the predicted value from performance charts.

A

(b) indicated torque required to hover

138
Q

If actual power required to hover differs by more than ± ___% TRQ from computed power, re-evaulate existing parameters (i.e. actual main wheel hover height vs. radar altimeter, OAT, PA, wind, and gross weight) and mission requirements.

A

(c) 3

139
Q

Rotor blade to ALQ-144A and/or fuselage contact is possible during ___ landings at higher than normal rates of descent with minimum collective setting and cyclic aft of center position.

A

(b) tailwheel first

140
Q

Regarding the Engine Shutdown Checklist, AFCC step, ___ Reser FBC. Note codes and record on Form 781A, as required. Removing power from the aircraft ___ erase codes.

A

(b) do not, will not

141
Q

Fuel boost pump switches ___ be turned off for engine shutdown to ensure proper operation of engine driven fuel pumps.

A

(d) will

142
Q

After NAV SYS ON/OFF switch is turned OFF, wait ___ seconds before removing aircraft power to allow GPS and INS to complete the power-down cycle.

A

(c) 30

143
Q

If neither the APU generator nor external power is available, complete normal shutdown on No. 2 engine before moving No. 1 and No. 2 ____ to OFF.

A

(a) generator switches

144
Q

Each engine shall be cooled for ___ at a low power setting (below 90% Ng) prior to shutdown.

A

(b) 2 minutes

145
Q

If one or more droop stops do not go in during rotor shutdown, accelerate rotor to ___ Nr.

A

(b) above 75%

146
Q

If refueling is required, when must the valve positions be set for refueling?

A

(a) prior to removing AC electrical power

147
Q

Regarding the rotor brake, maximum rotor speed for rotor brake application is ___% Nr.

A

(c) 76%

148
Q

Radar, radar altimeters, Doppler, ___ and ___ will not be operated in transmitting mode within the Fuel Servicing Safety Zone (FSSZ).

A

(b) TACAN/ transponder

149
Q

The Fuel Servicing Safety Zone (FSSZ) is an area within ___ feet of pressurized fuel-carrying servicing component and ___ feet around fuel vent outlets of aircraft.

A

(c) 50/ 25

150
Q

Do not turn electrical or ___ on or off during refueling.

A

(a) avionics equipment

151
Q

Position fire extinguisher ___ from the refueling point of the helicopter.

A

(b) 10ft.

152
Q

Communication contact between the Hot Refueling Supervisor (HRS) or fire guard and aircrew will be maintained at ___ during refueling operations.

A

(b) all times

153
Q

During refueling, a crew member will visually check for leaks from the ___, aircraft receptacle and nozzle assembly.

A

(d) overboard vents

154
Q

Even though not specifically listed as checklist steps, ___ are prudent actions during critical emergencies, if time permits.

A

(d) making mayday transmissions and setting the transponder to EMER

155
Q

Performing aircraft emergency shutdown, when egressing from an aircraft with munitions and flares on board requires a minimum egress distance of ___ from the aircraft.

A

(b) 600ft.

156
Q

If a lightning strike occurs whereby all aircraft electrical power and electronics subsystems and controls are lost (including the DEC and the engine alternator), both engines go immediately to maximum power with ___ protection.

A

(d) both A and B

- no temperature limiter, no overspeed

157
Q

In the event of a complete loss of all VID displays with no associated malfunction of the engine or transmissions, the DEC will ____.

A

(a) continue to operate normally

158
Q

___ to help prevent smoke generated in the cabin from entering cockpit.

A

(c) Point blower vents aft

159
Q

If AC electrical power is not available, ___ fire bottle(s) can be discharged.

A

(b) only the reserve

160
Q

During electrical system failures, although not specifically listed as checklist steps, it is prudent to check for ___.

A

(c) popped circuit breakers

161
Q

During a dual generator failure, the stabilator will experience an AUTO MODE failure. Although the stabilator position indicator will be ___, the stabilator slew switches will ___ operate.

A

(d) inoperative, still

162
Q

Loss of DC Primary power will result in the engine anti-ice and engine inlet anti-ice valves failing to the open position. This will reduce power available ___.

A

(d) significantly

163
Q

Concerning autorotations, do not respond to ENG OUT audio warning lights until checking ___ and ___ (ensure a VID failure has not occurred).

A

(b) Nr, TGT

164
Q

It is possible that DEC malfunctions can also result in loss of TRQ indications, leaving ___ the most reliable indication of engine power.

A

(c) TGT

165
Q

Aircraft experiencing ____ should be impounded. Do not perform engine runs or remove/disconnect any components without coordinating with AFLCMC/WIUEC.

A

(c) dual engine rollback

166
Q

The indications of a rollback are during steady state conditions both engine and ___ experience an uncommanded reduction from ____ and stabilize.

A

Nr, 100%

167
Q

During fuel dumping, a fuel venting condition is extremely hazardous when the helicopter is on the ground or in a hover, since ____ produced by the helicopter could ignite vapor and spilled fuel.

A

(c) static electricity

168
Q

The first indication of a hydraulic fluid leak in either system will be the illumination of a ___ caution light, which will activate the leak isolation system.

A

(b) RSVR LOW

169
Q

___ is the most common cause of hoist stoppage.

A

(c) Electrical interruption

170
Q

Concerning weapons system emergencies, a ___ is a delay in the function of the propelling charge.

A

(c) hang fire

171
Q

____ refers to a weapon not rendering a dangerous condition.

A

(a) Safe

172
Q

The term ___ is used to report a complete failure of the weapon to fire.

A

(a) misfire

173
Q

You must wait ___ seconds prior to attempting to clear or repair a malfunctioning .50 cal.

A

(b) 10

174
Q

Safing the weapon will be the operator’s first concern.

A

(a) true

175
Q

Regarding the GAU-18/A, the gun will be pointed in a safe direction until it has been properly ___.

A

(b) cleared

176
Q

If the barrels of the minion can be rotated one full revolution and does not fire, the gun can be considered ___.

A

(b) safe

177
Q

On the minigun, if the gun jams after firing a long burst (___ rounds or more) or many shorts Burts in quick session, the heat of the gun may cause a cookoff of rounds in the gun. If gun cannot be cleared by rotating the barrel cluster in the firing directions, keep gun pointed in a safe direction so it may cool. Wait approximately ___ minutes before removing the housing cover and saving sector or the top cover safing blade assembly.

A

(c) 800/ 5

178
Q

Step 2 in the 7.62mm minigun electrical malfunction checklist requires you to:

A

(d) confirm gun system switch positions

179
Q

Before taxiing ___ will ensure the cargo compartment is secured for flight.

A

(b) the engineer

180
Q

When performing the KY-58 operational check if a steady tone is heard what does this indicate?

A

(d) Reload KY-58 or use another COMSEC Device to perform load

181
Q

Moderate surface winds are a(n) ____ to hoist operations.

A

(d) asset

182
Q

The up-limit switch does not function during backup control power operations. Operating the hoist in the first ___ foot of cable (red or orange colored warning) can result in severe damage to the hoist if hook is fully retracted, rendering the hoist inoperable.

A

(d) 20

183
Q

During the hoist cable weight check, when the hoist cable is under 600lb. load and extended to within the last usable 20ft. (indicated by orange color), the cable could ___ and depart the aircraft.

A

(a) unwind from the drum

184
Q

Crew members operating guns, during all weapons firing missions, will wear eye protection consisting of ___.

A

(d) either A or C

- authorized flying glasses/shatter-proof eye protection, helmet visor

185
Q

Do not release the firing pin on the GAU-18/A with the ___ inserted in the gun.

A

(d) headspace gauge

186
Q

With the .50cal machine gun, ___ of the gun must be checked and adjusted each time headspace is checked and adjusted.

A

(a) timing

187
Q

On the .50cal machine gun, do not charge the gun with the ___ removed.

A

(b) backplate

188
Q

On the .50cal machine gun, timing is the point at which the firing pin releases after recoiling parts reach battery position during ___.

A

(d) counter recoil

189
Q

Using the Downloading Checklist to fill the minigun ammunition chute allows the ___ to be functionally checked.

A

(c) booster motor

190
Q

On the minigun, before performing Power On Downloading, the ammunition chute will be disconnected, the gun will be cleared and the ___ will be installed.

A

(a) safing bar

191
Q

During the minigun ground operational check, under no circumstances will the weapon be cycled on the ground without the ___ installed. Failure to do so will cause the minigun to fire.

A

(b) loading sector

192
Q

With engine and rotor not operating, the APU may be operated continuously up to an OAT of ___ C.

A

(b) + 51°

193
Q

If ___ should occur, primary consideration should be given to getting the helicopter airborne.

A

(b) ground resonance

194
Q

When visible moisture is present, pitot heat, engine anti-ice, and windshield anti-ice ___ be turned on when at or below 10°C.

A

(d) should

195
Q

The reduction in torque available and the resulting decrease in helicopter performance due to reduced air density ___ during desert and hot weather operation.

A

(a) is the main consideration

196
Q

A ___ knot crosswind or tailwind may increase torque required by up to 4% over zero wind values.

A

(b) 3-5

197
Q

Performing a roll-on landing in as little as ___ inches of sand or similar unstable landing surface coupled with braking action can cause the TFU to impact the ground and sustain damage.

A

(d) 2

198
Q

The amount of spray observed on windshield and ___ increase is the best indications of spray ingestion into engine.

A

(b) TGT

199
Q

The torque factor method provides an accurate indication of available power by incorporating ambient temperature effects on ___ engine performance.

A

(a) degraded

200
Q

For single engine operation, pilot must manually maintain the 10 minute TGT limit.

A

(a) true

201
Q

Indicated airspeeds below ___ KIAS are unreliable.

A

(d) 40

202
Q

The LARS radio can store up to ___ radio ID codes simultaneously.

A

(a) 9

203
Q

The LARS operates in UHF band between 225.000 and 400.000 MHz for voice and is tunable in ___ KHz increments.

A

(c) 25

204
Q

The Integrated Optical Sensor Converters (IOSC) perform ___ and ___ functions.

A

(c) Missile Warning, Laser Warning

205
Q

The IOSC filters out the unnecessary parts of the light spectrum and converts the remaining energy to electronic signals. The signals are then sent to the ___ where they are examined to determine if they represent a threat.

A

(b) CP

206
Q

The ___ software manages and executes dispense programs, performs BIT, and communicates with AN/ALE-47 system LRUs.

A

(d) OFP

207
Q

There are three sequencers that control chaff or flare dispensing. The proper settings for S1 and S2 switches are:

A

(d) all of the above
- FWD flare sequencer S1 switch set to ALE-47 1 and S2 switch set to A, AFT flare sequencer S1 switch set to ALE-47 2 and S2 switch set to A, Chaff sequencer S1 switch set to ALE-47 3 and S2 switch set to A

208
Q

Regarding the CMDS system, placing the maintenance bypass switch up bypasses the ___ relay and arms the CMDS permitting ground testing of the flare dispensers.

A

(b) WOW

209
Q

On the AN/ALE-47, do not cycle the ___ switch on the CCDU unless expendable dispensing is approved and the aircraft is operating in an area cleared for dispensing or in case of emergency.

A

(c) JETT

210
Q

Regarding the AN/ALE-47 Payload Verification Check. SQI is the ___ flare sequencer. SQ2 is the ___ flare sequencer. SQ3 is the ___ sequencer.

A

(b) forward/aft/chaff

211
Q

Concerning the ALQ-144, do not look continuously at the infrared countermeasure transmitter during operation, or for a period of over ___ minute(s) from a distance of less than ___ feet.

A

(a) 1/3

212
Q

The procedures employed to enable the receiver(s) to reach the astern position behind the assigned tanker(s) (boom) or the observation position (drogue) by electronic, radio, and/or visual means.

A

(d) AAR RV

213
Q

In the event of a breakaway a radio call and/or appropriate visual signals will be given:

A

(d) all of the above
- by the tanker when the receiver is judged to be flying erratically, if the tanker or receiver has a malfunction, by the boom operator or if the receiver under-runs the tanker.

214
Q

The refueling altitude should always be chosen with ___ and ___ considerations in mind.

A

(a) terrain/tactical

215
Q

Establish an ARIP a minimum of ___ nm prior to the ARCP.

A

(c) 6

216
Q

___ is the most frequently used procedure.

A

(a) RV Delta

217
Q

This is the only RV in which the receiver maneuvers the aircraft to affect the RV and join-up.

A

(c) RV Echo

218
Q

Minimum visibility for a visual RV is ___.

A

(b) 3 nm

219
Q

RV procedures provide the tanker a means of transitioning from escort/intercept conditions to a position ___ of the receiver ready to begin the join up.

A

(a) 1/2 nm in trail

220
Q

During initial radio contact (EMCON 1 and 2) ____ aircrews will confirm the altimeter setting and identify any changes to the mission briefing.

A

(c) tanker and receiver

221
Q

The common HH-60G term used when a weapon is at an up or down limit of the field of fire and cannot employ due to aircraft altitude/attitude and should be followed by a directive.

A

(b) platform

222
Q

The directive call to move the pattern or impact point, accompanied by a direction is ___.

A

(d) shift

223
Q

The ___ lead is a role flight members fulfill based upon their SA relative to the rest of the flight regardless of their position within the flight or aircraft.

A

(b) tactical

224
Q

An additional consideration which states “Crews should be prepared to employ weapons at a moment’s notice if the situation dictate” is?

A

(d) always assume the area is hostile

225
Q

Regarding weapons employment fundamentals, ___ provides maximum engagement time and reduces the ability of the enemy to return fire.

A

(c) precise timing

226
Q

Firing only at targets not identified as friendly IAW current ROE is called?

A

(b) weapons free

227
Q

Firing only at targets positively identified as hostile IAW with current ROE is called?

A

(c) weapons tight

228
Q

Firing only in self defense or in response. to a formal order is called?

A

(d) weapons hold

229
Q

Choosing the weapon to use will be based on ___.

A

(a) the threat and desired weapon effect on the most likely encountered threat

230
Q

Test firing should be done ___.

A

(d) all of the above

- prior to any potential engagement, in an authorized and designated area, as soon as possible after take off

231
Q

The 7.62mm round can travel over ___.

A

(c) 2 miles

232
Q

The .50 caliber round can travel over ___.

A

(b) 4 miles

233
Q

The recommended minimum engagement distances for simultaneous (formation) weapons employment from the aircraft to the target are ___ for 7.62mm and ___ for .50 caliber.

A

(d) 100 meters/300 meters

234
Q

Tracer burnout for 7.62mm ammunition is approximately ___ meters.

A

(c) 750

235
Q

Tracer burnout for the .50 cal is approximately ___ meters.

A

(d) 1500

236
Q

The incapacitation of fighting troops in a vehicle is a ___.

A

(d) P Kill (Personnel Kill)

237
Q

Damage to a vehicle so that the driver cannot maintain controlled movement is a ___.

A

(b) M Kill (Mobility Kill)

238
Q

The template of the “K” was originally developed for determining pattern ___ in helicopter operations.

A

(c) entry

239
Q

Internal to the aircraft, the non-firing gunner should call when abeam the survivor to ___ extend firing legs.

A

(a) minimize

240
Q

To correct for trajectory shift, the gunner leads the target. The amount of lead depends on ___.

A

(d) both A and B

- airspeed of the helicopter and angle of deflection, velocity of the projectile and range to the target

241
Q

___ describes the characteristics and effects of the projectile at the target.

A

(d) terminal ballistics

242
Q

Increased dispersion may also be expected due to the pilot ___.

A

(b) not flying a steady platform

243
Q

During any AIE operations, when unsafe condition are encountered, stop any additional team members deploying from the aircraft using ___.

A

(c) pre-briefed hand signals

244
Q

Should the aircraft come under fire during rope ladder operations, the aircraft may depart the immediate area using slow forward flight (do not exceed ___ KIAS) to a safe area to recover the team.

A

(c) 40

245
Q

HH-60G crews will not use the rope ladder for emergency extraction of personnel unless the threat to personnel remaining on the ground is ___ than the risk associated with in-flight rope ladder failure.

A

(b) higher

246
Q

The AN-MK 6 aircraft smoke and illumination signal has a burn time of approximately ___.

A

(a) 40 minutes

247
Q

The MK 25 MOD 3 signaling device produces smoke and flame in the ___ minute range.

A

(b) 10-20

248
Q

This signal is a combination distress signal for use under day or night conditions.

A

(d) AN-MK13/124, MOD 0

249
Q

The AN-MK 8 smoke grenade has a smoke time of approximately ___ minutes.

A

(a) 3

250
Q

The MK 18 smoke grenade has a smoke time of approximately ___ minute(s).

A

(d) 1

HH-60G (8 decks)

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