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Heme/Oncology > SM > Flashcards

SM Flashcards

1
Q

Correcting sample turbidity for determining falser high Hb

A

Replace plasma with saline

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2
Q

Red cell agglutination results in

A

Falsely decrease RBC count

Falsely high MCV

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3
Q

MCV

A

Volume of packed RBCs/Red cell count

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4
Q

Roeleaux formation (stacked coins) means

A

High protein level

inflammation or malignancy

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5
Q

Plasmapheresis

A

Gets rid of IgM in serum to decrease viscosity

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6
Q

Which antibody causes cold agglutination

A

IgM against RBC

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7
Q

Causes of cold agglutination

A

Mycoplasma, EBV, lymphoma, non-lymphoid malignancy

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8
Q

Central pallor of RBC should be

A

<1/3 the diameter

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9
Q

Microcytic, hypochromic RBC

A

Iron deficiency

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10
Q

Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia

A

DIC, TTP, HUS, HELLP syndrome

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11
Q

Haptoglobin

A

Sign of hemolysis

Binds to free Hb

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12
Q

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia is secondary to what and causes what on blood smear

A

CLL and spherocytes

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13
Q

When shouldn’t you give rasburicase (recombinant urate oxidase used to prevent tumor lysis in CLL tx)

A

If patient has G6PD deficiency

Results in bite cells

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14
Q

Immature erythroid blood cells can artificially elevate

A

WBC count

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15
Q

Decrease Hgb and Hct but increase RBC count

A

Thalassemia

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16
Q

CBC parameters that don’t change between the sexes

A

MCV and RDW

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17
Q

Fick equation

A

Blood flow x Hgb x (A SaO2 - V SaO2)

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18
Q

Typical P50 for O2

A

27 mmHg

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19
Q

Shift O2 dissociation curve to the right

A

Decreased pH

Increased [CO2], 2,3 BPG, temperature

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20
Q

Mentzer index

A

MCV/RBC count

If <13, thalassemia is more likely than iron deficiency

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21
Q

Burr cell (Echinocytes)

A

Liver disease and chronic kidney disease

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22
Q

Mutation in uroporphyrinogen 3 cosynthase

A

Congenital eryhtopoietic porphyria (CEP)

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23
Q

Clinical manifestations of CEP

A 
Photosensitivity
Anemia
Splenomegaly
Hypertrichosis
Decreased RBC lifespan and anemia
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24
Q

Autosomal dominant mutation in RBC membrane proteins

A

Hereditary Spherocytosis

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25
Q

Acanthocytes (spur cells)

A

Anorexia

Severe nutritional deficiency

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26
Q

Target cells (codocyte)

A

Macro - liver disease

Micro - Thalassemia, hemoglobin E, C disease

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27
Q

Results in pancytopenia and macrocytois

A

B12/folate deficiency

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28
Q

Beta locus for Hb located on

A

chromosome 11

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29
Q

Alpha locus for Hb located on

A

chromosome 16

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30
Q

Genetics of SCD

A

glutamic acid replaced by valine at the 6th codon of the beta gene

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31
Q

Gardos channel on RBC

A

Ca2+ in; K+ and water out

Causes sickling in SCD

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32
Q

KCl co-transporter

A

Activated by decreased pH (acidosis)
K+, Cl- and water leave the cell
Causes sickling in SCD

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33
Q

Cell fee Hb is a sink for what and causes what

A

NO

Vasomotor dysregulation

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34
Q

Most common location of vaso-occlusions in SCD

A

Post-capillary venules due to lowest O2 tension

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35
Q

Most common cause of death in children with SCD worldwide

A

Infection

Encapsulated - S pneumoniae, H influenzae, S aureus, Salmonella

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36
Q

Viral infection that causes aplastic crisis in SCD

A

parvovirus B19 (5th disease, slapped cheeks)

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37
Q

Infection leading to acute chest syndrome in SCD

A

Mycoplasma, chylamydia, S pneumoniae

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38
Q

SCD tx

A 
Penicillin prophylaxis 
Hydroxyurea -> HbF
Transfusions
Stem cell transplantation
Pain management
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39
Q

Most important determinant of intact RBC membrane

A

Cell surface/volume ratio

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40
Q

Non-spherocytic hemolytic anemia (CNSHA)

A

RBC enzymopathies

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41
Q

Drug that triggers acute hemolytic anemia in G6PD deficiency

A

Sulfa drugs

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42
Q

PKLR mutations

A

Pyruvate kinase deficiency

Leads to increase 2,3 BPG as compensation

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43
Q

Drugs that cause warm antibody hemolytic anemia

A

methyldopa, penicillin, quinidine

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44
Q

Hapten induced drug absorption

A

High dose penicillin
Cephalosporins, tetracycline
Drug binding to RBC is a critical step

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45
Q

Immune complex drug anemia

A

Quinidine, quinine, sulfonamides, isoniazid

Neoantigen - Coomb’s test would be negative

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46
Q

Autoimmune drug anemia

A

methyldopa, levodopa, procainamide
Drug stimulates production of autoantibody
So doesn’t matter if you stop the drug

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47
Q

Acute cold-antibody hemolytic anemia

A

Mycoplasma and EBV

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48
Q

Anti-I

A

mycoplasma

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49
Q

Anti-i

A

EBV, lymphoma

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50
Q

Transfusion can make hemolysis worse in

Also corticosteroids aren’t effective in

A

Cold agglutinins

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51
Q

Direct Coomb’s test positive

A

Warm agglutinins

Rh hemolytic disease

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52
Q

Indirect Coomb’s test positive

A

Cold agglutinins

ABO hemolytic disease

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53
Q

Mutation in PIG-A responsible for GPI-anchored protein deficiencies in

A

PNH

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54
Q

PNH

A

Cells deficiency in membrane inhibitor of lysis, CD59, leading to complement -mediated lysis of RBC.

Causes pancytopenia
Can evolve - aplastic anemia, myelodysplasia, leukemia

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55
Q

Results in thrombosis in portal vein, cerebral vessels and cutaneous veins

A

PNH

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56
Q

Erythropoiesis production time

A

5 days

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57
Q

EPO interacts with

A

Epo-R on MEP

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58
Q

EPO is useful when

A

Renal insufficiency
Post chemo
MDS
Early aplastic anemia

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59
Q

EPO not useful when

A 
Pernicious anemia
Aplastic anemia (late)
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60
Q

Interacts with c-mpl receptor on MEP

A

Thrombopoietin

Not useful clinically

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61
Q

Granulopoiesis production time

A

5-7 days

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62
Q

Other names for M-CSF

A

CSF-1, c-fms

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63
Q

Primes granulocytes for activation

A

GM-CSF

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64
Q

Used to shorten post chemo neutropenia

A

GM-CSF and G-CSF

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65
Q

SE of GM-CSF

A

Fever, eosinophilia

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66
Q

Example of class 1 cytokine receptors

A

IL3-R, IL5-R, GM-CSF-R

EPO-R, G-CSF-R

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67
Q

Example of class 3 cytokine receptors

A

VEGF-R

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68
Q

DNA repair defect of cross-link repairs

A

Fanconi anemia

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69
Q

Telomere defect

A

Dyskeratosis congenita

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70
Q

Mutation on SDBS gene

A

Shwachman-Diamond syndrome

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71
Q

Accumulation of mutations in HSC genome

A

MDS

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72
Q

Source of HSC in clinical use

A

Bone marrow
Cord blood
Cytokine mobilized

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73
Q

Committed progenitor cells, BFU-E and CFU-E, are

A

EPO dependent

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74
Q

Single amino acid substitution caused by point mutation activating cryptic mRNA splice site

A

Hemoglobin E disease

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75
Q

Acute hemolysis is more prominent in

A

Alpha thalassemia and HbH disease compared to beta-thalassemia

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76
Q

What to balance in thalassemia tx

A

Appropriate transfusions and adequate iron chelation

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77
Q

HbH clinical features

A

Iron overload
Hepatosplenomegaly
Cholelothiasis
Anemia during pregnancy

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78
Q

Agents available for iron chelation

A

DFO, Deferiprone, Deferasirox

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79
Q

Inhibitors of platelet coagulation generated by endothelium

A

Prostacyclin, NO

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80
Q

Antithrombotic mechanisms

A

Antithromin 3
Protein C and S
TFPI
Fibrinolytic system

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81
Q

Primary hemostasis

A

Vasoconstriction and aggregated platelets

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82
Q

Secondary hemostasis

A

Fibrin formation for more permanent clot

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83
Q

Burst of thrombin generation

A

Thrombin activates 5, 8, 11

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84
Q

Factors inhibited by warfarin

A

2, 7, 9, 10

These are all vitamin K dependent

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85
Q

Inhibitors of thrombin

A

Antithrombin and thrombomodulin

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86
Q

Inhibitors of Va and VIIIa

A

Protein C and Protein S

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87
Q

TFPI inhibits

A

Xa and TF-VIIa

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88
Q

Protease next 2 inactivates

A

Free factor 11a

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89
Q

Plasmin leads to fragments of cross-linked fibrin

A

D-dimers

Can be elevated even with clot present

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90
Q

PAI-1

A

Inhibitor of tPA (plasminogen activator)

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91
Q

Hepzyme

A

Neutralizes heparin which is present when patient has a central venous catheter

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92
Q

HHT is also known. as

A

Osler-Weber-Rendu syndrome

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93
Q

Mutation in Endogeni or ALK1 gene leading to dysregulated TGF-beta

A

HHT

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94
Q

Cryoprecipitate

A

Used to replace factor 8 and fibrinogen and vWF

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95
Q

1 Bethesda unit

A

Amount of antibody that neutralizes 50% of factor 8 or 9 in normal plasma after 2 hrs of incubation

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96
Q

Competitively inhibits binding of plasminogen and t-PA (used post-surgically)

A

Amicar/transexamic acid

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97
Q

Factor deficiency that doesn’t affect PT or PTT

A

Factor 13

Crosslinks fibrins

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98
Q

Riastap

A

Plasma-derived fibrinogen concentrate

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99
Q

Why should you transfuse carefully in long-standing anemia?

A

TACO

Transfusion-associated circulatory overload

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100
Q

Indications for giving EPO

A

Renal disease

Chemotherapy

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101
Q

Random donor platelets that require 5 units for adult dose

A

Whole-blood platelet unit

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102
Q

The way most platelet donation is done in the USA

Single-donor platelets

A

Plateletpheresis

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103
Q

Prevents anti-Rho antibodies from form when given D+ RBC

A

Rh immune globulin

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104
Q

Plasma has less — than FFP

A

Factor 8

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105
Q

Factor 7 1/2 life

A

4-6 hrs

Shortest

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106
Q

Factor 8 1/2 life

A

12 hrs

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107
Q

Other factor 1/2 lives

A

1-2 days

108
Q

Fibrinogen 1/2 life

A

2-4 days

109
Q

Factors available on US market

A

7, 8, 9, 10, 13, fibrinogen

110
Q

Factors not available on US market

A

Factor 5 and 11

111
Q

INR target for warfarin tx

A

2-3

112
Q

Ig to ABO carbohydrate

A

IgM

113
Q

Donor plasma that typically causes TRALI

A

multiparous women

114
Q

Normal lifespan of platelets

A

9-10 days

115
Q

TPO is produced by what and binds which receptor

A

Produced by the liver constitutively and binds the c-Mpl receptor on platelets, MK cells, stem cells

116
Q

Platelet secondary hemostasis function

A

Provide phospholipid and calcium as co-factors for coagulation cascade.
Stores factor 5 and 8

117
Q

Platelet proliferation receptor acts through

A

JAK-STAT

118
Q

Platelet differentiation acts through

A

MAP kinase

119
Q

Aspirin inhibits

A

Platelet function

120
Q

Platelet count where spontaneous bleeding occurs

A

50k

121
Q

NAIT

A

Neonatal alloantibody immune thrombocytopenia

122
Q

Congenital platelet disorders

A

Bernard Soulier

Wiscott-Aldrich syndrome

123
Q

When do we see HIT

A

4-10 days after initiation of heparin

124
Q

Thrombocytopenia in HIT

A

Decrease platelet count of 50% or more

Count can still be normal

125
Q

HIT - venous or are arterial thrombosis?

A

2/3 venous

126
Q

Direct thrombin inhibitors

A

Argatroban, Bivalrudin

127
Q

Triad of symptoms for thrombotic microangiopathies (TMAs)

A

Thrombocytopenia
Intravascular hemolysis (see schistocytes)
Renal failure

128
Q

Pathophysiology of TTP

A

Decreased ADAMTS13 leading to increase vWF multimers

129
Q

Treatment for TTP

A

Plasmapheresis - replace ADAMTS13

Rituximab - reduces relapse

130
Q

Treatment for atypical HUS

A 
Plasmapheresis
Eculizumab (anti C5 ab)
131
Q

Glanzmanns Thrombasthenia

A

Platelets dysfunctional due to lack of G2b/3a (binds fibrinogen)

Platelet count is normal

132
Q

Bernard Soulier

A

Defect in G1b-V-X (vWF receptor) on platelets
Large platelets
Moderate to severe bleeding

133
Q

Wiskott Aldrich

A

Only condition that causes microthrombocytopenia
Defect in WAS gene
X-linked
Immune deficiency, eczema, microthrombocytopenia

134
Q

Congenital bone marrow failure syndromes

A

Dyskeratosis congenita
Fanconi’s anemia
Osteopetrosis

135
Q

Acquired bone marrow failure syndromes

A

Aplastic anemia

Myelofibrosis

136
Q

IRIDA

A

Iron refractory iron deficiency anemia

Caused by inactivation of TMPPSS6

137
Q

IL-6 receptor antagonist

A

Tocilizumab

Decreases hepcidin in anemia of inflammation

138
Q

Infections associated with hemochromatosis

A

Listeria, yersinia, vibrio

139
Q

Causes of macrocytosis that’s not B12 or folate

A 
Alcohol
Liver disease
Hypothyroidism
Bone marrow failure
Reticulocytosis
Drugs (hydroxyurea, anti-retrovirals)
140
Q

Most common cause of B12 deficiency in the elderly

A

Atrophic gastritis with deficient HCl secretion

141
Q

Mechanism behind Trousseau syndrome (migratory thrombophlebitis)

A

Tissue factor by tumor
Procoagulants by tumor
Compression of vessels by tumor

142
Q

Tumors with highest rates of VTE

A

primary brain tumors, pancreatic, stomach, lung

143
Q

Protein C inactivates

A

Factor 5 and 8

144
Q

Protein S binds to

A

C4b

145
Q

What conditions increase C4b and therefore decrease free Protein S

A

Estrogen&pregnancy, Sickle cell, HIV

146
Q

Chemo drug that decreases antithrombin

A

I-asparaginase

147
Q

Autoantibodies of APS

A

Lupus anticoagulant
Anti-B2 glycoprotein
Anti-cardiolipin

148
Q

Direct thrombin inhibitors

A

Dabigatran, argatroban, Desirudin, bicalirudin

149
Q

Direct factor 10a inhibitors

A

Rivaroxaban, apixaban, edoxaban

150
Q

Drugs that increase warfarin sensitivity

A 
Antibiotics: erythromycin, fluconazole, INH
Cardiac: amiodarone, propranolol
Anti-inflammatories: piroxicam
GI: cimetidine, omeprazole
Herbs: ginkgo, garlic
151
Q

Drugs that increase warfarin resistance

A

Antibiotics: nafcillin, rifampin
Anticonvulsants
Other: sucralfate, cholestyrame
Herbs: St Johns Wort

152
Q

Used to monitor unfractionated heparin

A

aPTT

Can also use UFH anti-Xa level

153
Q

Unfractionated heparin side effects

A

Bleeding, HIT, osteoporosis, hyperkalemia

154
Q

Tx for HIT

A

Argatroban

155
Q

Reversal agent for dabigatran

A

Idarucizumab

156
Q

Reversal agent for rivaroxaban, apixaban

A

Andexanet alpha

157
Q

Anticoagulation meds not good for pregnancy

A

DOACs and warfarin

158
Q

Where is vitamin K absorbed and what is required?

A

Terminal ileum

Bile acids

159
Q

Used to treat fibrinogen disorders

A

Cryoprecipitate

160
Q

Most common cause of chronic DIC

A

Malignancy

161
Q

Most common manifestation of anti-phospholipid syndrome

A

Venous thrombosis

162
Q

Most important for colorectal cancer staging

A

Depth of invasion and lymph nods

163
Q

Main considerations for PCa

A

Unilateral vs. bilateral disease
Extraprostatic extension
Seminal vehicle invasion

164
Q

Increases risk of bilateral breast cancer

A

Lobular carcinoma in situ

165
Q

Invasive ductal carcinoma

A

Most common breast cancer
Hard and stellate appearance
Cords or solid nests of malignant cells invading stroma

166
Q

Invasive lobular Ca

A

Lack of cohesion, strands of infiltrating small tumor cells in single-file
E-cadherin assent
Mets: serosal surfaces, bone marrow, meninges

167
Q

Most important for staging breast cancer

A

Tumor size, multifocality, lymph node

168
Q

HTLV-1

A

ATLL

169
Q

EBV

A

Burkitt lymphoma, NK/T cell neoplasms

170
Q

HHV8

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma, Castleman’s disease, primary effusion lymphoma

171
Q

Merkel cell polyomavirus (MCV)

A

Merkel cell carcinoma

172
Q

Flower shaped lymphocytes

A

ATLL

173
Q

Oncoprotein of HTLV1 that CD8 cells recognize and allows them to suppress

A

Tax protein

174
Q

Associated with post-transplant lymphoproliferative disease

A

EBV

175
Q

Viral proteins of EBV

A

LMP-1 and EBNA-2

176
Q

Associated with t(8:14) - translocation of myc gene

A

Burkitt lymphoma

177
Q

Starry sky pattern in germinal center

A

Burkitt lymphoma

178
Q

Neutrophil maturation

A

Blast-> promyelocyte -> myelocyte -> metamyelocyte -> band -> neutrophil

179
Q

CD56 and CD16

A

NK cells

180
Q

Myeloid sarcoma

A

Myeloid neoplasms involving the tissue

181
Q

Mantle cell lymphoma is actually a

A

leukemia

182
Q

What morphology is only seen in myeloid lineage

A

Auer rods

183
Q

Phenotypic markers of immaturity

A

CD34, CD117, TdT, CD1a

184
Q

Location of naive B cells waiting to be stimulate

A

Mantle zone

185
Q

CD23 and CD21

A

Follicular dendritic cells

186
Q

CD10

A

Germinal center B cells

187
Q

t(14:18) - expression of BCL-2/IgH

A

Follicular lymphoma

DLBLC

188
Q

Most common B cell lymphomas

A

DLBCL

Follicular lymphoma

189
Q

Phenotype for follicular lymphoma

A

CD10, CD20, CD21, BCL6 (in grade 3)

190
Q

B symptoms

A

Fever, weight loss, night sweats

191
Q

Germinal center markers

A

CD10, BCL6, MUM1

192
Q

Genetics of DLBLC

A

BCL6 over expression
t(14:18)
C-Myc rearrangment

193
Q

Precursor to CLL

A

B cell lymphocytosis

194
Q

Markers of CLL/SLL

A

Kappa restricted, CD5, CD23, negative FMC

195
Q

ZAP70 causes

A

inferior outcomes for CLL/SLL

196
Q

Genetic deletion in blank causes CLL/SLL

A

chromosome 13q

197
Q

CLL/SLL may transform to

A

DLBLC or Hodgkin lymphoma

198
Q

t(11:14); CCND1-IgH

A

Mantle cell lymphoma

199
Q

BCL1 (cyclin D)

A

Mantle cell lymphoma

Product of t(11:14) translocation

200
Q

Anaplastic large cell lymphoma

A

t(2:5) -> ALK
CD30+
Large hallmark cells with horse shoe shaped nuclei

201
Q

Exranodal NK/T-cell lymphoma

A

EBV
CD56
Cytoplasmic CD3

202
Q

Popcorn cells

A

Nodular lymphocyte predominant Hodgkins

203
Q

Reed-Sternberg cells

A

Hodgkin lymphoma

CD30, CD15, PAX5

204
Q

Tx for ET

A

Aspirin

IFN/HU

205
Q

Tx for PV

A

Phlebotomy and aspirin

206
Q

Ruxolitinib

A

Jak 2 inhibitor

Treatment of myeloproliferative disorders

207
Q

Leukoerythroblastosis

A

Myelofibrosis

208
Q

Left shift on blood smear

A

CML

209
Q

Most common cause of stem cell transplant

A

AML

210
Q

Each unit of RBCs has how much iron

A

200-250 mg

211
Q

If someone has G6PD deficiency, when might G6PD levels be normal

A

During period of acute attack because levels may be normal in reticulocytes

212
Q

Causes of aplastic crisis

A 
Folate deficiency
Other vitamin deficiencies 
Aplastic anemia
Marrow replacement (malignancy)
213
Q

Parvovirus B-19 can cause

A

Chronic hemolytic anemia

Aplastic anemia

214
Q

Most common porphyria in adults with chronic blistering cutaneous

A

Phorphyria cutanea tarda

Test plasma or urine porphyrins

215
Q

2nd most common porphyria in adults with acute neurovisceral symptoms

A

Acute intermittent porphyria (AIP)

Test urine prophobilinogen

216
Q

Most common porphyria in children acute non blistering cutaneous symptoms

A

Erythropoietic protoporphyria

Test erythrocyte protoporphyrin

217
Q

Increase neutrophils

A

CML

218
Q

AML risk factors

A

Prior chemo or radiation
MDS, MPS
Benzene, cigarette smoking
Down syndrome, Fanconi anemia

219
Q

Precursor myeloid markers

A

CD34, CD117

220
Q

Granulocytic markers

A

CD13, CD33, MPO

221
Q

Monocytic markers

A

CD14, CD64

222
Q

Microgranular variant of APL

A

bi-loved nuclei

Auer rods: rare

223
Q

Rydapt (midostaurin)

A

FDA approved for AML with FLT3-ITD

224
Q

Targeted therapy in AML

A

FLT-3

IDH2

225
Q

MDS patients typically die from

A

Complications related to cytopenia

226
Q

Genetic syndromes with increase risk of MDS

A

Fanconi anemia, dyskeratosis congenita

227
Q

Treatment for MDS with isolated del(5q)

A

Lenalidomide

228
Q

Marker for stem cells

A

CD34

229
Q

Increased risk of B-ALL in children with?

A

Down syndrome

230
Q

Atypic megakaryrocytes

A

MDS del (5q)

231
Q

Kappa:lambda

A

2:1

232
Q

Most common plasma cell disorder

A

MGUS

233
Q

Multiple myeloma end organ damage

A 
CRAB
HyperCalcemia
Renal insufficiency
Anemia
Bone lesions
234
Q

Dutcher bodies in multiple myeloma

A

Ig in nucleus

235
Q

Russel bodies in multiple myeloma

A

Ig in cytoplasm

236
Q

Normal plasma cells

A

CD19+ , CD56-

237
Q

Neoplastic plasma cells

A

CD19- , CD56+

238
Q

Leads to bone destruction in multiple myeloma

A

MIP1a -> RANKL

239
Q

Myeloma cells dependent on —- for growth, survival, Ig production

A

IL-6

240
Q

Myeloma Ig created can be

A

abnormal and nephrotoxic

241
Q

Rouleaux formation

A

Multiple myeloma

242
Q

Most common cause of death in multiple myeloma

A

Infection

243
Q

Daratumumab

A

targets CD38 cells to kill multiple myeloma cells directly

244
Q

Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia

A

IgM monoclonal gammopathy in the presence of lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma

245
Q

Plummer-Vinson syndrome

A

Iron deficiency
Post-cricoid dysphagia
Esophageal webs

246
Q

Basophilic oval nuclei

A

Descriptive for HPV

247
Q

Most common bone sarcoma

A

Osteosarcoma

248
Q

Vinyl chloride is associated with

A

Hepatic angiosarcoma

249
Q

No role for radiation in which sarcomas?

A

Abdominal or visceral

250
Q

Bimodal and associated with Paget disease

A

Osteosarcoma

251
Q

Arise in metaphysic of bone
Codman triangle-periosteal reaction
Lytic and blastic change

A

Osteosarcoma

252
Q

Affect the shaft of the bone in an infiltrative “onion skinning” pattern

A

Ewing sarcoma

253
Q

Tx for Giant Cell Tumor of Bone

A

Denosumab

254
Q

Preventing tumor lysis syndrome

A

Hydration
Allopurinol
Rasburicase

255
Q

Established drug for FAP

A

Sulindac

NSAID causing regression of adenomas

256
Q

Anti-CTLA4 antibody

A

Ipilimumab

257
Q

Cytokines leading to tumor regression

A

IL-12, IL-2, IFN-g, TNF-a

258
Q

Cytokines leading to tumor progression

A

IL-4, IL-5, IL-10, TGF-b

259
Q

Anti PD-1 antibody

A

Nivolumab

Pembrolizumab

260
Q

Adverse events with immunotherapy

A

Diarrhea/colitis
Rash and/or pruritus
Hepatitis
Endocrine dysfunction

261
Q

Which cancer requires no biopsy to confirm diagnosis

A

HCC

AFP > 500 is diagnostic

262
Q

Common sites of lung mets

A

Brain, bone, liver, adrenal

263
Q

Alectinib

A

Treats EML4/Alk translocation lung adenocarcinoma

264
Q

Cancers that commonly mets to the brain

A

Lung, breast, melanoma

265
Q

Brain mets that commonly bleed

A

Renal cell, melanoma, thyroid cancer, choriocarcinoma

Heme/Oncology (2 decks)

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