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Repro/GU > SM > Flashcards

SM Flashcards

1
Q

Provides nutrients to the sperm

A

Seminal vesicle

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2
Q

Round ligament of the uterus is a fibrous cord that’s continuous with…

A

Ovarian ligament

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3
Q

Space with the clitoris and openings of the vagina and urethra

A

Vestibule

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4
Q

Paramesonephric duct persists as

A

Opening at the end of the uterine tubes

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5
Q

Embryonic ureter

A

Mesonephric duct (Wolffian duct)

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6
Q

Exstrophy of bladder/cloaca is caused by

A

Failure of mesoderm migration into cloacal membrane/ventral abdominal wall

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7
Q

Gartner duct cysts

A

Abnormal persistence of mesonephrinc duct in females

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8
Q

Double uterus/vagina

A

Results from failure of fusion of paramesonephric duct with each other or with the UG sinus

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9
Q

Induces Sertoli cell differentiation and male-specific vasculature

A

SRY

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10
Q

WNT4 mutation in 46 XX female

A

Mayer-Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser syndrome

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11
Q

Sox9 suppressed and WNT4 active for

A

Ovarian development

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12
Q

Cells that make AMH

A

Sertoli cells

Works in paracrine fashion

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13
Q

Persistent mullein duct syndrome

A

mutations in AMH in 46 XY male

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14
Q

Placenta previa

A

Late implantation over cervical os

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15
Q

Accreta

A

Implantation on myometrium

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16
Q

Increta

A

Invasion into myometrium

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17
Q

Percreta

A

Invasion through uterine serosa into adjacent structures

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18
Q

3 stages of maternal response to infections of ascending infections in pregnancy

A
  1. Subchorionitis
  2. Chorioamnionitis
  3. Necrotizing amnionitis
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19
Q

3 stages of fetal response to infection

A
  1. Phlebitis (vein)
  2. Arteritis (artery)
  3. Necrotizing funisitis (necrosis in Wharton’s jelly)
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20
Q

Ascending infections of pregnancy

A 
Mycoplasma
Gardnerella
Group B strep
E. coli
Enterococcus
Candida
HSV
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21
Q

Hematogenous infection of pregnancy

A 
Syphilis
TB
Listeria
CMV, Rubella
Toxoplasmosis
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22
Q

Acute villitis

A

Listeria, E.coli, TB

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23
Q

Chronic villitis

A

CMV, toxoplasmosis, syphilis

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24
Q

Presentation of retroplacental hematoma/abruption

A

Painful bleeding

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25
Q

Virchow’s triad

A

Stasis
Hyper-coagulability
Vascular damage

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26
Q

Consequence of FVM

A

Fetal neurologic damages (cerebral palsy)

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27
Q

Monochorionic twin placenta complications

A 
Preterm labor
Twin twin transfusion
Twin reversed arterial perfusion
Cord entanglement
Congenital malformations
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28
Q

P57KIP2

A

Differentiates complete and partial moles because it’s only expressed from maternal chromosomes

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29
Q

Choriocarcinoma metastasizes to where?

A

Lung, brain, liver

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30
Q

Passes through the lesser sciatic foramen

A

Pudenal nerve

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31
Q

Widest dimension of pelvis

A

Between arcuate lines of ilia

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32
Q

Narrowest dimension of pelvis

A

Between ischial spines

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33
Q

Fat filled space that allows for distention of rectum or vagina

A

Ischio-anal (rectal) fossa

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34
Q

Things that attach to the perineal body (central tendon of the perineum)

A

Pelvic diaphragm
Rectum
Urogenital diaphragm

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35
Q

Common sites for kidney stones

A

Renal pelvis
Common iliac vessels
Entrance to bladder

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36
Q

Adenomyosis

A

Presence of endometrial glandular tissue within myometrium.

Present with menorrhagia and dysmenorrhea with a uniformly enlarged uterus

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37
Q

STI that’s symptomatic in women

A

Chlamydia

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38
Q

Factors that increase risk of transmission of HIV

A

Hormonal effects
Nonoxynol - disrupts mucosal surface
Trauma

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39
Q

Microbicides

A

Tenofovir gel and barrier placement

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40
Q

HPV subtypes that cause genital warts

A

6, 11

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41
Q

HPV subtypes that cause cervical cancer

A

16, 18

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42
Q

Loose adherence of gonorrhea

A

Pili

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43
Q

Tight adherence of gonorrhea

A

Opa proteins

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44
Q

Charcot joint results from

A

Tabes dorsalis due to tertiary syphilis

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45
Q

Tx for syphilis

A

Penicillin

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46
Q

Remains unchanged during pregnancy

A

Gastric emptying time

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47
Q

Effect of pregnancy on hepatic labs

A

Increased D-dimer and Alk phos

Decrease albumin

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48
Q

Change in immune cell types during pregnancy

A

Increase CD8 and granulocytes

Decrease CD4 and monocytes

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49
Q

Fetal breathing movements begin when?

A

16-22 weeks

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50
Q

Stages of lung development

A 
Pseudoglandular stage (5-16 weeks)
Canalicular stage (16-25 weeks)
Terminal sac/alveolar stage (25 weeks - 8 yrs of life)
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51
Q

Given to maintain PDA

A

Prostaglandins

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52
Q

Women who have delivered before have a —- during delivery

A

Sharper acceleration curve

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53
Q

4th generation of progestins and analogue of spironolactone

A

Drospirenone

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54
Q

Hepatic changes from ethinyl estradiol exposure

A

Decrease albumin, LDL

Increase goblins, coagulation proteins, angiotensinogen, sex hormone binding proteins, TG and HDL

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55
Q

Medical abortion agents

A

Mifepristone

Misoprostol

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56
Q

Contraindications to medical abortions

A 
Ectopic pregnancy
IUD
Corticosteroid
Hemorrhagic disease/porphyrias
Anticoagulants
Adrenal failure
Prostaglandin allergy
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57
Q

Osmotic dilators

A

Laminaria, lamicel, dilapan

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58
Q

Cycle fecundability

A

Single menstrual cycle results in pregnancy

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59
Q

Cycle fecundity

A

Single cycle results in live birth

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60
Q

Iatrogenic intrauterine adhesions

A

Asherman’s syndrome

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61
Q

Causes of ovarian dysfunction

A 
PCOS
Hypothalamic amenorrhea
Hyperprolactinemia
Thyroid disease
POI
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62
Q

When to check serum progesterone when assessing ovulation

A

day 21 of cycle

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63
Q

Good sperm volume

A

> 1.5 ml

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64
Q

Good sperm concentration

A

> 15 million/ml

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65
Q

Good sperm motility

A

> 40%

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66
Q

Good sperm morphology

A

> 4%

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67
Q

First line tx for ovulatory dysfunction in woman with PCOS

A

Letrozole

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68
Q

Most predictive for IVF success

A

Age and ovarian reserve

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69
Q

Connective tissue disease increases risk of what during pregnancy

A

Cervical insufficiency

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70
Q

Contraindications to cerclage in CI

A 
Contractions/labor
PPROM
Infection
Fetal demise
Major fetal anomaly
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71
Q

Contraindications to expectant management

A

Labor
Significant vaginal bleeding
Infection

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72
Q

Maternal symptoms from preeclampsia

A

Headache
Visual changes
RUQ pain

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73
Q

Used to prevent eclampsia

A

MgSO4

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74
Q

Presentation of spontaneous abortion

A

Vaginal bleeding
Pelvic pain
Incidental finding on US

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75
Q

What should you absolutely screen women for that are going through menopause?

A

Depression!

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76
Q

FDA approved SSRI for VMS

A

Paroxetene

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77
Q

What menopausal symptoms don’t resolve without treatment

A

Local vuvlovaginal symptoms

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78
Q

What layer is missing from the uterine tube?

A

Submucosa

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79
Q

Cervical glands

A

Branched and often with cysts

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80
Q

Estrogen effects on breast tissue

A

Elaboration of glands and ducts

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81
Q

Progesterone effects on breast tissue

A

Dilated ducts with milk

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82
Q

Placenta previa

A

No pain

Fetal heart rate monitoring normal

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83
Q

Vasa previa

A

Active, heavy bright red bleeding compromising fetus

Fetal heart rate monitoring abnormal

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84
Q

Causes nausea and vomiting of pregnancy

A

HCG

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85
Q

Causes GERD, constipation, decreased gallbladder motility of pregnancy

A

Progesterone

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86
Q

Etiology for anovulation

A 
PCOS
Hypothalamic amenorrhea
Hyperprolactinemia
Thyroid disease
Premature ovarian failure
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87
Q

For women age 40-45 with irregular menstrual cycles, exclude

A

pregnancy, hyperprolactinemia and thyroid dysfunction

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88
Q

Estrogen only therapy leads to an increase risk of what?

A

Endometrial cancer`

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89
Q

Rapid plasma reagin

A

Test used for syphilis prior to to dark field microscopy

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90
Q

NE acting on —- receptor contracts bladder neck

A

Alpha 1 receptors

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91
Q

NE acting on —- receptor relaxes detrusor muscle

A

B3 receptor

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92
Q

ACh acting on — receptor contracts detrusor muscle

A

M3 receptor

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93
Q

Stress incontinence

A

Lost of tone in UG diaphragm and increased intra-abdominal pressure

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94
Q

Highest control of micturition

A

Periaqueductal grey (PAG)

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95
Q

L Region of brainstem

A

Controls striated muscles to promote urinary continence

AKA - Pontine Storage Center

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96
Q

M Region of brainstem

A

Controls smooth muscle to promote urination

AKA - Pontine Micturition Center

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97
Q

Why does a UTI lead to urinary frequency?

A

Afferent sensory nerves are hyper sensitized which leads to a lower threshold for bladder contractions.

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98
Q

What nervous system is needed for defection but not urination.

A

Enteric nervous system

Ex: Hirschsprung’s disease -> megacolon

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99
Q

Example of conditions that can damage NANC nerve terminal and result in the absence of male erection in the presences of viagra

A

Diabetes

CV disedase

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100
Q

Orgasm

A

Rhythmic contractions of perineal muscles

Pudenal nerve activated globally

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101
Q

Neuropeptides of LSt (lumbar sphinothalamic) nerves

A

Galanin, CCK, enkephalin, NK-1R

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102
Q

Sexually dimorphic nuclei in the hypothalamus located in the medial prepotic area

A

Bigger in males

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103
Q

Lesion in SDN in males

A

Problems with sexual function and motivation

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104
Q

Lesion in SDN in females

A

Problems with mate selection

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105
Q

Inhibits sexual function

A

Ventral medullary regions of brainstem

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106
Q

Trisomy 21 maternal serum findings

A

Decreased AFP, uE3

Increased hCG, inhibin A

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107
Q

Large nuchal translucency

A

Down’s Syndrome

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108
Q

Measured for open neural tube defects

A

AFP and acetylcholinesterase

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109
Q

Confined placental mosaicism is associated with

A

IUGR

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110
Q

Growth and density of amniotic fluid cells is ideal at

A

16-18 weeks gestation

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111
Q

Maternal age increases risk for autosomal aneuploidies and sex chromosome aneuploidies except

A

45, X Turner’s syndrome

Polyploidies or micro deletions

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112
Q

Increase risk of translocation Down’s syndrome if

A

Mom is carrying the robertsonian translocation

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113
Q

When is maternal serum screening less effective

A

Twin gestations

Younger maternal age groups due to lower PPV

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114
Q

Carrier detection African American

A

Hemoglobinopathies, Hgb S, C

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115
Q

Carrier detection Mediterranean

A

Beta-thalassemia

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116
Q

Carrier detection SE Asian

A

Alpha-thalassemia

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117
Q

Carrier detection Caucasian

A

CF

118
Q

Carrier detection Ashkenazi Jews

A

Tay-Sachs, CF, Canavan, Gaucher, familial dysautonomia

119
Q

Omphalocele is common in

A

Trisomy 18 (Edward’s syndrome)

120
Q

Most common micro deletion syndrome

A

22q11.21 (DiGeorge)

CHD (tetralogy of fallot), cleating, ID, immune disorders

121
Q

Age of peak incidence of cervical cancer

A

45

122
Q

Risk factors for cervical cancer

A

Multiple sexual partners
Early initiation of sexual activity
High parity
Smoking

123
Q

Keratinization and intracellular bridges

Pap test good at detecting

A

Squamous cell carcinoma (Cervical cancer)

124
Q

Glandular and produces mucin

Pap test not good at detecting

A

Adenocarcinoma (Cervical cancer)

125
Q

High risk HPV

A

16 - most cervical cancers

18- associated with adenocarcinoma

126
Q

Low risk HPV

A

6, 11

127
Q

E6

A

Leads to the degradation of p53

128
Q

E7

A

Leads to the lost RB-E2F and as a result an increase in P16 which pushes the cell into the cell cycle

129
Q

Cause of Lichen sclerosis

A

Autoimmune or low estrogen

See thinning and atrophy of the epithelium with stroll hyalinization (dense fibrosis)

130
Q

What occasionally arises from lichen sclerosis?

A

Invasive squamous cell carcinoma

131
Q

Lichen simplex chronicus

A

Squamous cell hyperplasia caused by chronic irritation (itching)

132
Q

Differentiated pathway of vulvar squamous cell carcinoma

A

Associated with p53 mutation, lichen sclerosis and older women

133
Q

Manifestation of underlying neoplasm of sweat glands or skin adnexae.
Sometimes represents internal malignancy (colon cancer, urothelila carcinoma)

A

Vulvar Paget’s disease

134
Q

3 M’s (moulding, multi nucleation, margination) with pink nuclear inclusions (Cowdry A)

A

HSV 2

135
Q

Inflammation is plasma cell rich and surrounds blood vessels

A

Syphilis

136
Q

Smoking leads to a decrease of which hormone

A

Estrogen

137
Q

Heterozygote mutation of MED12 on chromosome X

A

Leiomyoma

138
Q

Most commonly mutated gene in endometroid cancer

A

PTEN

139
Q

Treatment for breast cancer that actually increases risk for endometrial polyps

A

Tamoxifen

140
Q

Menses is caused by a drop in

A

Progesterone

141
Q

Plasma cells seen in chronic endometritis

A

Perinuclear clearing

Eccentric nucleus with clockface chromatin

142
Q

Fused cribiforming glands with a Swiss cheese appearance

A

Endometroid carcinoma

143
Q

Cowden syndrome

A

Germline mutation in PTEN predisposing to endometrial carcinoma

144
Q

JAZF1:JJAZ1 fusion

A

Endometrial stromal nodule/sarcoma

145
Q

Infiltrative tumor nests (tongue-like projections) with small ovoid cells with little cytoplasm

A

Endometrial stromal sarcoma

146
Q

Chemo agent used for carcinoma of the cervix

A

Cisplatin

147
Q

Cigarette paper

A

Lichen sclerosis

148
Q

Sites of metastasis for vulvar carcinoma

A

Lung, bone, brain, liver

149
Q

May represent underlying colon or urothelial cancer

A

Paget’s disease

150
Q

Lateral boundary of perineum

A

Obturator internus muscle

151
Q

Pelvic diaphragm converges on the

A

External anal sphincter

152
Q

Superior fascia of UG diaphragm is located

A

Posterior and is deep

153
Q

Inferior fascia/perineal membrane is located

A

Anterior and superficial

154
Q

Both the pelvic diaphragm and UG diaphragm attach to

A

central tendon of the perineum

155
Q

Pubovesicular ligament in females is similar to

A

Puboprostatic ligament in male

156
Q

2 muscles within the UG diaphragm

A

External urethral sphincter

Deep transverse perineal muscle

157
Q

Pudendal nerve block anesthetizes

A

UG diaphragm and perineum

No cervix

158
Q

Sacral epidural anesthetizes

A

Cervix and upper vagina

Misses body of uterus and fundus

159
Q

Anesthesia of choice for childbirth

A

Lumbar epidural

160
Q

Facilitates erection by impeding venous flow

A

Ischiocavernosus muscle

161
Q

Expels the last drops of urine and contracts during ejaculation

A

Bulbospongiosus

162
Q

In females, the ureters are extremely close to

A

uterine arteries

163
Q

In males, the inferior gluteal artery is from

A

anterior division of internal iliac

164
Q

In females, the inferior gluteal artery is from

A

posterior division of internal iliac

165
Q

Artery that supplies the prostate gland

A

Inferior vesical artery

166
Q

GnRH superagonist

A

Leuproloide

167
Q

Synthetic GnRH

A

Gonadorelin

168
Q

GnRH antagonist

A

Ganirelix, degarelix

169
Q

Side effect of GnRH superagonists and antagonists

A 
Nausea, headaches
Erectile dysfunction
Bone loss
Initial flare - bone pain, ureteral obstruction
Vaginal dryness, vaginal atrophy
170
Q

Recombinant LH/hCG

A

Chorionogonadotropin

171
Q

Recombinant FSH

A

Follitropin

172
Q

Adverse effect of gondatropin administration in men

A

Gynecomastia

173
Q

Depot testosterone

A

Testosterone propionate

174
Q

Synthetic orally effective testosterone

A

Methyltestosterone

175
Q

Anabolic testosterone

A

Stanozolol

176
Q

Inhibits conversion of DHEA to testosterone by inhibiting 17-hydroxylase

A

Abiraterone

177
Q

Inhibits 5a-reductase

A

Finasteride

Dutasteride

178
Q

Blocks androgen receptor

A

Enzalutamide
Docetaxel
Flutamide
Spironolactone

179
Q

Synthetic 19-nortestosterone derivatives (progesterone)

A

Norethindrone, levonorgestrel

180
Q

SERMs

A

Tamoxifen, Raloxifene

Anti-breast cancer drugs

181
Q

Aromatase inhibitors

A

Letrozole

Anastrozole

182
Q

Antiprogestin

A

Mifepristone

183
Q

SARMs

A

Enzalutamide

Bicalutamide

184
Q

Inhibits proliferation of prostate cancer by targeting WDR5 complex

A

ERID 27

185
Q

Targets NR4A to decrease fibroids

A

6-mercaptopurine

186
Q

SERM that selectively antagonizes feedback inhibition at the pituitary and promote follicle maturation and induce ovulation

A

Clomiphene

187
Q

Committed spermatogonium

A

Type 1 pale spermatogonium

188
Q

Release of sperm into the lumen

A

Spermiation

Interruption in this often causes male infertility

189
Q

Morphological changes to sperm

A

Spermiogenesis

190
Q

Epithelium of rete testis

A

Simple cuboidal

191
Q

Has pseudo stratified columnar epithelium

A

Efferent ductules and seminal vesicle and prostate

192
Q

Heat regulation in testis

A

Pampiniform plexus of veins

193
Q

Indications for radiologic assessment

A 
Penetrating trauma
Blunt + gross hematuria
Blunt + microhematuria and shock
Deceleration injuries
Pediatric injuries with hematuria
194
Q

Bladder neck injury is most common in

A

Prepubescent boys

195
Q

Best way to assess for testicular injury

A

Testicular ultrasound

196
Q

Clinical presentation of scrotal trauma

A

Significant pain

Firm scrotum, tender, ecchymosis

197
Q

US finding suggesting testicular rupture

A

Heterogenous echo pattern within the testicular parenchyma with loss of contour

198
Q

Most common cause of ureteral injury

A

iatrogenic

199
Q

Most of the vagina should be suspended over

A

Levator ani

If not -> prolapse

200
Q

Obliterative procedure that involves closing the vaginal canal

A

Colpocleisis

201
Q

What’s more important for women’s sexual functioning? Neurotransmitters or hormones?

A

Neurotransmitters

202
Q

Excitatory neurotransmitters for libido in the limbic system

A

NE and dopamine

NO, ACh, estrogen, androgens

203
Q

Inhibitory neurotransmitters for libido in the pre-frontal cortex

A

serotonin and prolactin

204
Q

When does testosterone surge in women?

A

Before ovulation when you should be wanting to have sex

205
Q

SHBG is higher in

A

women

206
Q

Conditions with low SHBG

A

PCOS, insulin resistance, anabolic steroids, hypothyroidism, obesity

207
Q

Conditions with high SHBG

A

Anorexia, pregnancy, OCP, hyperthyroidism

208
Q

What doesn’t regulate libido

A

End organ

209
Q

What regulates arousal

A

Central and hormonal regulation

End organ physical capability

210
Q

Most important for pain-free intercourse in women

A

End organ physical capability

211
Q

Facilitator of arousal and orgasm

A

Oxytocin

212
Q

Regulation of orgasm in women

A

Central and end organ mainly

213
Q

Associated to hypoactive sexual desire disorder

A

Alcohol, OCP, SRRI**

214
Q

CNS area that integrates libido

A

MPOA

215
Q

CNS area that integrates thoughts and desire

A

Paraventricular nucleus

216
Q

CNS area that inhibits libido and desire

A

PGN

217
Q

Inhibits PDE2, 3, 4

A

Papaverine

218
Q

Inhibits Ang 2, PGF, endothelin-1

A

Rhos kinase inhibitors

219
Q

7-fold increase in risk of CV events in men < 40 presenting with

A

ED

220
Q

Contraindications to PDE-5 inhibitors

A

Nitrates, Amyl Nitrate

221
Q

Central scarring with very eosinophilic cells filled with mitochondria in the kidney

A

Renal Oncocytoma

222
Q

Chicken wire appearance, small acini filled with glycogen and lipids

A

Clear cell RCC

223
Q

Hematuria, flank mass, flank pain

A

Triad for papillary RCC

224
Q

Prominent intercellular borders that appear plant like

Pale cytoplasm rich in lysosomes

A

Chromophobe RCC

225
Q

Cause of hemorrhagic cystitis

A

Cytotoxic agents such as cyclophosphamide

226
Q

Malakoplakia

A

Chronic E.coli combined with phagocytic defect

See calcifications in the cytoplasm of macrophages

227
Q

Loss in a large segment of chromosome 9

A

Urothelial papillary carcinoma

228
Q

FGFR3 mutation

A

Low grade urothelial carcinoma

229
Q

P53 mutation

A

High grade urothelial carcinoma

230
Q

Stimulates TH1 response to fight bladder cancer

A

BCG

231
Q

Increases risk of upper tract urothelial cancer

A

Lynch 2 syndrome

232
Q

Tumor markers for GCNIS and Seminoma

A

C-kit, Oct-4, PLAP

233
Q

AFP and Glypican 3 positive and Schiller-Duval body

A

Yolk sac tumor

234
Q

What cell type is lost in prostate cancer?

A

Basal cells

235
Q

Stains for prostate basal cells

A

p63 + 34bE12

236
Q

Gleason pattern 2

A

back to back glands

237
Q

Gleason pattern 3

A

Donut infiltrating glands; no stroma

238
Q

Gleason pattern 4

A

Fused glands

239
Q

Gleason pattern 5

A

Solid sheet of cells

Cribiform pattern with central necrosis

240
Q

Prostatic ductal adenocarcinoma is equivalent to

A

Gleason pattern 4

241
Q

Oat cell carcinoma

A

Small cell carcinoma

242
Q

Prostate cancer’s effect on bone

A

Induces bone formation

243
Q

Hereditary PCa is what percentage of PCa?

A

15%

244
Q

1/2 life of PSA

A

2-3 days

245
Q

Common pattern of mets in PCa

A

Perineural invasion

246
Q

New PCa marker

A

AMACR

247
Q

Lymph nodes first affected by PCa

A

obturator hypogastric nodes

248
Q

1st line tx for PCa mets

A

Androgen deprivation therapy

249
Q

Sipuleucel-T

A

Immunotherapy for low disease burden PCa

250
Q

Bone directed therapy for PCa mets

A

Denosumab and radium 223

251
Q

Olaparib

A

PARP inhibitors

252
Q

Mets for penile carcinoma

A

lung, liver, bone, brain

253
Q

EGFR targeted therapy

A

Cetuximab, erlotinib, gefitinib

254
Q

1/2 life of AFP

A

5-7 days

255
Q

1/2 life of HCG

A

24 hrs

256
Q

What’s never elevated in pure seminomas?

A

HCG and AFP

257
Q

Duplication of short arm chromosome 12 (D-cyclins)

A

Testicular cancer

258
Q

Chemotherapy and radiation resistant

A

Teratoma

259
Q

Lower PCa correlates with what and can lead to false negatives

A

Higher BMI

260
Q

Reduced T:E linked to

A

PCa

261
Q

Free PSA

A

Benign cancer

262
Q

Complex PSA

A

Likely malignant cancer

263
Q

Management for extra-peritoneal bladder ruptures

A

Insertion of Foley catheter

264
Q

Trauma to anterior urethra requires

A

immediate repair

265
Q

Normal testis size

A

> 4 cm x 2 cm

> 20 cc

266
Q

Drug that decreases libido

A

Spironolactone

267
Q

Drug that reduces erectile function

A

Beta blockers and thiazides

268
Q

Drug that reduces ejaculatory function

A

Alpha blockers, SSRIs

269
Q

Dopamine agonists

A

Bromocriptine and carbergoline

270
Q

Aromatase inhibitors

A

Anastrozole, Letrozole, Exemstane

271
Q

P-pili

A

pyelonephritis

272
Q

Type 1 pili

A

Cystitis

273
Q

How do you treat a pregnant woman with a UTI?

A

beta-lactams

TMP/SMX (except 3rd trimester)

274
Q

Nonoxynol increases bacterial

A

adherence

275
Q

Artery to vas deferens

A

Inferior vesicle artery

276
Q

Artery to cremaster muscle

A

Inferior epigastric

277
Q

Twist score

A 
Testicular swelling
Hard testicle
Absent cremasteric reflex
Nausea or vomiting
High-riding testicle
278
Q

Blue dot sight

A

Torsion of appendix testes (Mullerian duct remnant)

279
Q

Failure of rupture of Chawall’s membrane

A

Uretoceles

280
Q

Blood supply to prostate

A

Inferior vesicular artery and internal pudendal artery

281
Q

PSA 2 correlates with volume of prostate

A

40 ml

282
Q

Prototype alpha 1a blocker for BPH

A

Tamsulosin

SE (floppy iris syndrome)

283
Q

Mirabegron

A

beta 3 agonist

284
Q

Postobstructive diuresis

A

> 200 ml/hr x 2 hrs

285
Q

Lymph from the testes drain to the

A

Para-aortic nodes

286
Q

Lymph from the scrotum drains to the

A

superficial inguinal nodes

287
Q

Mild IPSS score for PCa

A

0-7

288
Q

Moderate IPSS score for PCa

A

8-15

289
Q

Severe IPSS score for PCa

A

> 15

290
Q

Lymph node drainage of bladder

A

deep pelvic nodes

Repro/GU (1 decks)

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