SLA 9 - ENT (B) Flashcards

1
Q

The skeleton of the external nose is composed of which two components?

A

Bony component – located superiorly, and is comprised of contributions from the nasal bones, maxillae and frontal bone.

Cartilaginous component – located inferiorly, and is comprised of the two lateral cartilages, two alar cartilages and one septal cartilage. There are also some smaller alar cartilages present.

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2
Q

Outline the pathogenesis of saddle nose deformity.

A

Nasal trauma causes direct damage to the septal bone or cartilage, resulting in a saddle nose deformity.

Note trauma may also cause a nasal septal haematoma, whcih develops between the cartilage and surrounding perichondrium. This desprives the septum of its blood supply, resulting in avascular necrosis of the cartilaginous septum and deforming the nose.

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3
Q

Give the:

a) sensory

b) motor

innervation to the nose and its respective muscles.

A

a) External nasal nerve (branch of CN Va)

b) Facial nerve (CN VII)

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4
Q

What are the functions of the nasal cavity?

A
  • warms and humidifies inspired air
  • removes and traps pathogens and particulate matter
  • sense of smell
  • drains paranasal air sinuses and lacrimal ducts
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5
Q

What are the functions of conchae in the nasal cavity?

A

Increases the surface area of the nasal cavity, so more inspired air comes into contact with cavity walls.

They also disrupt fast, laminar flow of the air to make it slow and turbulent. Thus the air spends longer in the nasal cavity so that it can be humidified.

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6
Q

What are the functions of:

a) nasolacrimal duct

b) Eustachian tube

A

a) drains tears from the eye, opening into the inferior meatus.

b) allows the middle ear to equilibrise with the atmospheric air pressure, opening into the inferior meatus.

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7
Q

Outline through which route an URTI may cause a middle ear infection.

A

As the Eustachian tube connects the middle ear and upper respiratory tract, it is a path by which infection can spread from the upper respiratory tract to the ear.

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8
Q

What is epistaxis?

What is the most likely source?

A

Nosebleed.

It is likely to occur in the anterior third of the nasal cavity, known as Kiesselbach’s area.

Note if bleeding is pronounced or prolonged, the source is likely the sphenopalatine arteries.

The cause can be local (e.g. trauma) or systemic (e.g. hypertension).

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9
Q

What are the functions of the paranasal air sinuses?

A
  • lightening the weight of the head
  • supporting immune defence of the nasal cavity
  • humidify inspired air
  • increasing resonance of voice
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10
Q

Describe the clinical relevance of the sphenoid sinus sitting in close anatomical proximity to the hypophyseal fossa.

A

The hypophyseal fossa houses the pituitary gland.

This means that - in pituitary pathology - it can be accessed surgically by passing instruments via the sphenoid bone and sinus (ie. endoscopic trans-sphenoidal surgery) without the need for a more extensive craniotomy.

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11
Q

What is acute sinusitis?

A

An acute infection (<30 days) causing inflammation of the membranous lining of the sinuses.

Note if more than one air sinus is affected, this is known as parasinusitis.

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12
Q

What is the common aetiology of acute sinusitis?

A

Viral disease if infection <10 days

Bacterial disease if infection >10 days or if symptoms worsen around day 5.

Most common bacterial organisms are:
- Streptococcus pneumoniae
- Haemophilus influenzae
- Moraxella catarrhalis

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13
Q

Presentation of acute sinusitis.

A
  • facial discomfort
    • nasal abstruction
  • nasal discharge or post-nasal drip
  • hyposmia / anosmia
  • headache
  • fatigue
  • dental pain
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14
Q

Acute sinusitis causing toothache commonly suggests involvement of which specific paranasal air sinus?

Why does this cause toothache?

A

Maxillary paranasal air sinus.

Maxillary sinus is innverated by the infraorbital nerve, so pain may be referred to the upper jaw or teeth.

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15
Q

Management of acute sinusitis.

A

Reassure pts that generally a viral infection that will resolve within 3/52.

Symptom control measures include:
- paracetamol / ibuprofen for pain or fever
- intranasal decongestant
- nasal irrigation with warm saline solution
- warm face packs to provide relief
- adequate fluids and rest

If symptoms persist for 3/52 or pt at high risk of complications, abx should be considered.

First-line: phenoxymethylpenicillin (500 mg qds for five days) or co-amoxiclav if more systemically unwell. Alternatives for those who are allergic to penicillin are doxycycline (200 mg stat then 100 mg od for seven days - not in children aged <12 or pregnant women) or clarithromycin (250 mg-500 mg bd for seven days), or erythromycin.

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16
Q

Suggest 5 causes of chronic sinusitis.

A
  • infection with Staphylococcus aureus
  • fungal infection
  • allergic rhinitis
  • nasal polyps
  • immunodeficiency

Note sinusitis classed as chronic if classical presenation of sinusitis but sx > 90 days.

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17
Q

Outline the pathogenesis of allergic rhinitis.

A

IgE mediated inflammation of the nasal mucosa following exposure to allergens, causing the release of histamine. Subsequent increase in epithelial permeability promts migration of inflammatory cells to the area.

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18
Q

Outlinet the symptoms seen in the following response phases of allergic rhinitis:

a) Acute-phase response (minutes)

b) Late-phase response (hours)

A

a) sneezing occurs within a few minutes of exposure, due to stimulation of afferent nerve endings.

An increase in nasal secretion follows shortly afterwards.

b) nasal obstruction

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19
Q

Define the features of the following categories of allergic rhinitis:

a) seasonal allergic rhinitis

b) perennial rhinitis

c) occupation rhinitis

A

a) commonly occurs due to pollen or grass cuttings (hayfever), but other triggers include mould spores and weeds.

b) occurs throughout the year (persistent) commonly triggered by dust mites and domestic pets.

c) exposure to allergens at work (e.g. flour, wood dust, latex gloves) trigger.

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20
Q

What are the common causes of the following classes of rhinorrhoea?

a) clear

b) unilateral

c) yellow / green

d) blood tinged (unilateral)

e) blood tinged (bilateral)

A

a) infection unlikely

b) CSF leak

c) allergy or infection

d) tumour, foreign body or nose picking

e) bleeding points, nose picking

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21
Q

Management of allergic rhinitis.

A

Allergen identification and avoidance.

Can offer topical nasal antihistamines or oral antihistamines.

Topical intranasal steroids are first line treatment for pregnant or breastfeeding women.

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22
Q

What are the functions of the oral cavity?

A
  • digestion
  • communication
  • breathing
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23
Q

Outline the physiology of the gag reflex.

A

The gag reflex is protective against foreign bodies touching the posterior aspects of the oral cavity.

Afferent nerve: Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)

Efferent nerve: Vagus nerve (CN X)

When stimulated, a reflex arc leads to contraction of the pharyngeal musculature and the elevation of the soft palate.

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24
Q

What is the function of the parotid gland?

A

Produces serous saliva, rich in enzymes, which is secreted into the oral cavity to lubricate and digest food.

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25
Q

Name the neurovascular structures that pass through the parotid gland.

A
  • facial nerve (gives rise to five terminal branches within)
  • external carotid artery (gives rise to the posterior aurticular, maxillary and superficial temporal artery)
  • retromandibular vein (major vessel responsible for venous drainage of the face)
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26
Q

Outline the management of a parotid gland tumour.

A

The parotid gland is the most common site of a salivary gland tumour. These tumours are usually benign, such as an adenolymphoma. In contrast, tumours of the submandibular and sublingual glands are less common, but more likely to be malignant.

Treatment usually involves surgical excision of the tumour and parotid gland, known as a parotidectomy. During this procedure, it is critical to identify and preserve the facial nerve and its branches.

Damage to facial nerve or its branches will cause paralysis of the facial muscles. The affected muscles will lose tone, and the area will ‘sag’. The inferior eyelid can be particularly affected, falling away from the eyeball (known as ectropion).

27
Q

What is parotitis?

Why can parotitis cause otalgia?

A

Parotitis refers to inflammation of the parotid gland, usually as a result of an infection. The parotid gland is enclosed in a tough fibrous capsule. This limits swelling of the gland, producing pain.

The pain produced can be referred to the external ear. This is because the auriculotemporal nerve provides sensory innervation to the parotid gland and the external ear.

28
Q

What are the three sensory inputs of the balance system?

A
  1. Vestibular (ie. equilibrium, spatial awareness, rotation)
  2. Visual (ie. sight)
  3. Proprioceptive (ie. touch)
29
Q

How do the sensory inputs to the balance system maintain balance?

A

The vestibulo-ocular reflex collates vestibular and visual inputs to adjust eye position.

The vestibular, visual and proprioceptive sensory inputs are collated to output motor impulses to make postural adjustments.

30
Q

What is the definition of vertigo?

A

A sensation that you, or the environment around you, is moving or spinning.

Note it differs from dizziness, as this causes a sense of faintness, unsteadiness and weakness.

31
Q

What is the definition of:

a) syncope

b) pre-syncope

A

a) loss of conscioussness (ie. fainting)

b) the feeling that you are about to faint

32
Q

Define nystagmus and explain what is meant by the jerk nystagmus.

A

Nystagmus is the repetitive and involuntary movements of the eye.

Jerk nystagmus is a rhythmic eye oscillation characterised by a slow drift of the eyes in one direction (slow phase), that is then corrected by a fast movement in the reverse direction (fast phase).

33
Q

What is the cause of vestibular neuritis?

A

Reactivation of latent HSV-1 in the vestibular ganglion, affecting the superior divisions of the vestibular nerve.

Note the superior division of the vestibular nerve is much longer than the inferior nerve, and travels through a narrow passage, making it vulnerable to the effects of swelling or ischaemia.

34
Q

What is the cause of acute labyrinthitis?

A

Inflammation of the membranous labyrinth affects the vestibular apparatus and the cochlea.

Viral labyrinthitis is most common, however bacterial labyrinthitis is possible and is a dangerous condition.

35
Q

Presentation of vestibular neuritis and acute labyrinthitis.

A

Vestibular neuritis and acute labyrinthitis present with a suddent, spontaneous and often incapacitating vertigo.

Vertigo is not triggered by movement but may be exacerbated by movement.

Nausea and vomiting are frequent features.

Note in acute labyrinthitis, the following features may also be present:
- hearing loss
- feeling of fulness in the ears
- tinnitus

Note upper respiratory tract infection symptoms are common.

36
Q

Management of vestibular neuritis.

A

Reassure the patient that the symptoms will usually settle over several weeks.

Advise that bed rest may be necessary.

Advise on safety issues (e.g. do not drive while they are dizzy, inform their employer, discuss risk of falling in home).

In order to alleviate vertigo, nausea and vomiting symptoms, a short oral course of prochlorperazine or an antihistamine can be prescribed.

If treatment failure and symptoms are not resolving, consider referral to balance specialist.

Admission to hospital may be necessary if nausea and vomiting is severe and cannot tolerate oral fluids or drug treatment.

37
Q

What are otoliths?

What is the function of otoliths?

A

Otoliths are calcium-carbonate structures in the vestibular apparatus, that sense gravity and linear acceleration.

38
Q

Outline the pathophysiology of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo.

A

Otoliths within the semi-circular canals become detached, allowing them continue to move after the head has stopped moving and thus falsley sense a sensation of gravity and linear sensation.

This gives rise to the feeling of vertigo.

39
Q

Which semi-circular canal most often experiences detached otoliths in BPPV?

A

Posterior semicircular canal ( 90%)

Lateral semicircular canal (10%)

Anterior semicircular canal (<1%)

40
Q

Presentation of BPPV.

A
  • acute vertigo attacks provoked by head movements
  • symptoms worse in morning
  • light-headedness and imbalance
  • hearing and tinnitus are NOT features

Note BPPV may present as a fall - up to 54% of patients admitted to hospital following a fall have BPPV.

41
Q

Which manouvre can be used to check for BPPV in adults with vertigo on head movements?

A

Hallpike manouvre

After carrying out the manouvre, observe the pts eyes for teh development of nystagmus.

42
Q

Management of BPPV.

A

Advise symptoms are usually self-limiting, and can be limited by getting out of bed slowly and reducing head movements.

Advise on safety issues (e.g. do not drive while they are dizzy, inform their employer, discuss risk of falling in home).

Repositioning techniques, including Epley’s manoeuvre or Brant-Daroff exercises, can be used to treat.

Refer to a specialist if symptoms are ongoing, recurrent or diangosis is uncertain.

Brandt-Daroff exercises
43
Q

What is a vestibular migraine?

A

Recurrent spontaneous vertigo attacks, lasting from 5 minutes to 72 hours.

Vertigo can precede, accompany or occur after a headache.

44
Q

What is Ramsey-Hunt syndrome?

A

Occurs when the varicella-zoster virus becomes reactivated in the geniculate ganglion of the facial nerve.

45
Q

Presentation of Ramsey-Hunt syndrome.

A
  • vertigo
  • ipsilateral hearing loss
  • tinnitus
  • facial weakness or drop
  • rash or blisters (tongue, soft palate, external auditory canal, pinna)
46
Q

Name the three pairs of salivary glands.

A
  1. Parotid glands
  2. Submandibular glands
  3. Sublingual glands
47
Q

Outline the production of saliva.

A

Acini of submandibular gland (70%) and parotid gland (30%) produce an isotonic saliva, which drains via the Wharton and Stensen duct respectfully.

Once in the ductal region, cells use transporters to move Na+ and Cl- out of the solution, and to add K+ and HCO3- into the solution, producing a hypotonic solution.

Note the amount of modification by the ductal cells depends how quickly the saliva is moving through the ductal system.

At basal level, the saliva is most hypotonic. When eating, parasympathetic input stimulates salivary secretions and so saliva has less contact with ductal cells.

48
Q

Give the motor innervation to the tongue.

A

Hypoglossal nerve is motor to the intrinsic muscles of the tongue, genioglossus, hypoglossus and styloglossus.

Palatoglossus receives its innervation from the vagus nerve.

49
Q

Give the sensory innervation to the tongue.

A

Anterior 2/3 receives general sensory input via the mandibular nerve (CN Vc) and special sensory input via the facial nerve (CN VII)

Posterior 1/3 receives general sensory and special sensory innervation from the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX).

50
Q

Give the three stages of swallowing.

A
  1. Oral phase
  2. Pharyngeal phase
  3. Oesophageal phase
51
Q

Describe the oral phase of swallowing.

A

Mastication leads to a bolus of food being produced, with the tongue elevated and the soft palate pulled anteriorly against it. This ensures the food is kept within the oral cavity, and allows the airway to remain patent.

Following this, the tongue moves the bolus to the pharynx (voluntary), leading to the stimulation of the swallowing reflex.

52
Q

Describe the pharyngeal phase of swallowing.

A

Pressure receptors in the palate and anterior pharynx detect bolus, signalling to the swallowing centre in the brain stem which:
- inhibits respiration
- raises the larynx
- closes the glottis
- opens the upper oesophageal sphincter

The soft palate elevates to close the nasopharynx, and the vocal cords close to prevent aspiration.

The pharyngeal constrictor muscles move the bolus towards the oesophagus via peristalsis.

53
Q

Describe the oesophageal phase of swallowing.

A

Cricopharyngeus muscle contracts to prevent reflux and respiration begins.

The bolus moves down the oesophagus via peristalsis, which is coordinated by extrinsic nerves.

54
Q

Which glands are most commonly affected by sialothiasis?

Give some risk factors.

A

Submandibular gland (largest volume of saliva produced)

Risk factors include dehydration and reduced salivary flow.

55
Q

Presentation of sialothiasis.

A
  • pain in gland
  • swelling
  • infection
56
Q

What are adenoids?

Give some complications of adenoids.

A

Inflammed pharyngeal tonsils.

Complications include:
- blocked Eustachian tube (middle ear infection)
- snoring / sleep apnoea
- chronic sinusitis
- nasal tone to voice

57
Q

What is cervical lymphadenopathy?

A

Enlragement of cervical lymph nodes in the neck region, being an important clinical indicator of an underlying condition or infection.

58
Q

Give some causes of cervical lymphadenopathy.

A
  • throat infection
  • ear infection
  • dental decay
  • salivary glands
  • cancer
  • HIV
59
Q

Give some red flags symptoms that may present alongside cervical lymphadenopathy.

A
  • sx > 6/52
  • lymph nodes >2cm
  • unintentional weight loss
  • night sweats
  • loss of appetite
  • HIV
  • unexplained fever
60
Q

Give 3 drugs that can cause acute vertigo.

A
  • ototoxic drugs (e.g. loop diuretics, chemotherapies)
  • amlodipine
  • SSRIs
  • diazepams
  • antiepileptics
61
Q

What is an acoustic neuroma?

A

A tumour of the vestibulocochlear nerve, arising from the Schwann cells of the nerve sheath.

They are typically benign and slowly progressive, but if left untreated can cause symptoms through mass effect and pressure on local structures (eventually becoming life-threatening).

62
Q

Presentation of acoustic neuroma.

A
  • unilateral hearing loss (sensorineural)
  • subtle balance disturbance
  • tinitus
  • otalgia
  • ataxia
  • facial pain / numbness
63
Q

Management of acoustic neuroma.

A
  • referal to audiology
  • referral to ENT for microsurgical removal