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Bets Will 737 SKV > SKV Glen > Flashcards

SKV Glen Flashcards

1
Q

The 737- 700/800 minimum obstruction clearance path, in a turn, is determined by

A

the wingtip arc

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2
Q

The 737-900 minimum obstruction clearance path, in a turn, is determined by

A

the tail arc

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3
Q

Which flight deck lights are powered with loss of normal electrical power?

A

Standby compass light, dome lights, instrument flood lights, and selected system information and warning lights.

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4
Q

Cabin EXIT lights will automatically illuminate when

A

EMER EXIT LIGHTS switch is ARMED and electrical power to DC bus No. 1 fails or AC power has been turned off.

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5
Q

On aircraft equipped with LED strakelet taxi lights, the Captain should slowly cycle the taxi light switch to signal the Marshaller because

A

LED lights need time to activate after the switch is placed to ON

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6
Q

Turning the STERILE light switch ON will

A

Illuminate a blue light above the flight deck door to alert the flight attendants and disable the passenger electronic outlets.

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7
Q

An illuminated ELT (Emergency Locator Transmitter) light represents

A

The ELT has been activated and is transmitting.

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8
Q

What is the function of the unlock push button on the Jamco flight deck door control panel?

A

Electrically unlocks flight deck door

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9
Q

f the unlock push button on the Jamco Flight Deck Door Control Panel illuminates flashing red, ____________.

A

A fault in the door system or status lights has occurred and security of the door is unknown

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10
Q

What is the function of the hard lock push button on the Jamco flight deck door control panel?

A

Stops door emergency entrance unlock function that would occur after 30 seconds, thus keeping door HARD LOCKED for 30 minutes.

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11
Q

What happens to the Jamco flight deck door if the flight deck door emergency entrance open button is pushed, and the flight crew does not intervene?

A

“DOOR, DOOR, DOOR” warning message will stop after 30 seconds and the door will electrically unlock for only 5 seconds to allow access

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12
Q

With the emergency exit switch in the armed position, lights automatically illuminate when:

A

all answers are correct

  • DC bus No. 1 fails
  • AC power is turned off
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13
Q

The passenger oxygen system is supplied by ___________located at each Passenger Service Unit (PSU)

A

individual chemical oxygen generators

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14
Q

The passenger oxygen system is activated automatically by a pressure switch at a cabin altitude of ______ or when the Passenger Oxygen Switch on the aft overhead panel is positioned to ON.

A

14,000 feet

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15
Q

An illuminated “PASS OXY ON” light on the aft overhead panel indicates:

A

The passenger oxygen system has been activated

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16
Q

ow is the flow of oxygen initiated to the passenger masks?

A

By pulling any mask in the unit down

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17
Q

Once passenger oxygen is activated, oxygen flows for approximately _____ and cannot be shutoff.

A

12 minutes

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18
Q

B737-800, bleed air is obtained from the ____ & ____ stages of the compressor section of the engine.

A

5th; 9th

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19
Q

B737-800, when 5th low-stage pressure is insufficient, the ___ high-stage valve modulates open to maintain proper pressure.

A

9th

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20
Q

he engine bleed air valve is normally DC power activated and ______ operated.

A

pneumatically

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21
Q

The illumination of the BLEED TRIP OFF light indicates ________.

A

engine bleed air temperature or pressure exceeds a predetermined limit

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22
Q

What occurs when the BLEED TRIP OFF light illuminates?

A

The respective engine bleed air valve closes automatically

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23
Q

What sources of air can be used to start the engine?

A

APU, ground air cart, and engine bleed air

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24
Q

With the isolation valve switch in AUTO, both engine bleed air switches ON, and both air conditioning pack switches AUTO or HIGH, the isolation valve is _____.

A

closed

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25
Q

conditioning pack switch is positioned OFF, the isolation valve is _____.

A

open

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26
Q

Does the APU bleed air switch affect the isolation valve position?

A

No

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27
Q

Does the APU bleed air valve, on the B737-800, automatically close when the APU is shut down?

A

Yes

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28
Q

The APU bleed air valve is___ activated and ______ operated.

A

DC; pneumatically

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29
Q

With the DUAL BLEED light illuminated, engine thrust must be _______.

A

limited to idle, if not conducting single engine taxi operations on the ground.

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30
Q

What causes a wing-body overheat condition?

A

a bleed air duct leak

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31
Q

If a leak in the bleed duct from the APU occurs, which WING-BODY OVER HEAT light will illuminate?

A

Left

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32
Q

With the ISOLOATION VALVE switch in AUTO, the isolation valve _________ if either engine BLEED air or air condition PACK switch is positioned OFF.

A

Automatically opens

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33
Q

The Wing-Body Overheat (OVHT) TEST switch _____________.

A

All answers are correct

  • Tests wing-body overheat detector circuits
  • Illuminates both WING-BODY OVERHEAT lights
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34
Q

Conditioned air for the cabin comes from _________________.

A

either the aircraft air conditioning system or a preconditioned ground source

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35
Q

Conditioned air from the ______, upstream of the mix manifold, flows directly to the flight deck.

A

left pack

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36
Q

Air from the left pack, air from the right pack, and air from the recirculation system is combined in the ________.

A

mix manifold

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37
Q

The APU can supply air for ________ on the ground for all operations

A

two packs

Left AND Right

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38
Q

In flight with the air conditioning PACK switches in AUTO and both packs operating, _________.

A

the packs provide “normal air flow”

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39
Q

Inflight with one PACK operating _________.

A

the operating pack provides high air flow automatically, if the flaps remain retracted.

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40
Q

The ram air system is used to provide cooling for the __________ in the air conditioning systems.

A

heat exchangers

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41
Q

In a B737-800, what happens if an amber ZONE TEMP light illuminates?

A

the MASTER CAUTION light will illuminate, and the trim air valve closes

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42
Q

The recirculation fan system __________ the air conditioning load and the engine bleed air demand.

A

reduces

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43
Q

What makes the equipment cooling OFF light illuminate?

A

loss of air flow due to failure of an equipment cooling fan

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44
Q

The TRIP RESET switch resets the ______________.

A

all answers are correct

  • BLEED trip OFF, PACK trip OFF
  • DUCT OVERHEAT on the B737-700, or the ZONE TEMP on the B737-800
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45
Q

annunciators during recall indicates _____________.

A

a failure of the primary or standby pack controls

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46
Q

If both primary and standby pack controls fail for the same pack _________.

A

the pack will continue to operate without control unless excessive temperatures cause the pack to trip off

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47
Q

Cabin pressurization and ventilation is controlled by?

A

he outflow valve and the overboard exhaust valve

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48
Q

The main outflow valve is actuated by one of _____ DC motors and is the overboard exhaust exit for the majority of the air circulated through the passenger cabin.

A

two

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49
Q

On the cabin altitude panel, which scale on the CABIN Altimeter (ATL) / Differential Pressure (DIFF PRESS) Indicator indicates the cabin altitude in feet?

A

Inner Scale

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50
Q

On the cabin altitude panel, which scale on the CABIN Altimeter (ATL) / Differential Pressure (DIFF PRESS) Indicator indicates the differential pressure between cabin and ambient in psi?

A

Outer Scale

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51
Q

How can the intermittent cabin altitude warning horn be cut out?

A

By pushing the Altitude (ATL) HORN CUTOUT Switch

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52
Q

At what cabin altitude will the intermittent cabin altitude warning sound?

A

10,000 feet

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53
Q

How is the cabin rate of climb displayed?

A

on the cabin rate of climb indicator

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54
Q

On the Cabin Pressurization Panel, which modes automatically pressurize the aircraft?

A

AUTO & ALTN

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55
Q

On the Cabin Pressurization Panel, the MAN mode controls aircraft pressurization _____________.

A

manually by the Outflow Valve switch

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56
Q

On the Cabin Pressurization Panel, with the pressurization mode selector in the MAN mode, the outflow valve switch takes approximately _______ to move the outflow valve in the full range of motion.

A

20 seconds

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57
Q

On the Cabin Pressurization Panel, an amber AUTO FAIL

light indicates _____________.

A

automatic pressurization system (dual channel) failure is detected

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58
Q

On the Cabin Pressurization Panel, if both the amber AUTO FAIL light and the green ALTN light is illuminated, _________.

A

a single channel controller failure has occurred

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59
Q

The OFF SCHED DESCENT light indicates the aircraft began descent before having reached the planned cruise altitude. The controller programs the cabin ____________.

A

to land at the takeoff field elevation without further pilot inputs

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60
Q

Engine ignition must be selected to _____ prior to and during engine anti-ice operation.

A

CONT

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61
Q

Window heat must be ON _______ before takeoff.

A

10 minutes

62
Q

Probe heat must be ____________.

A

ON before takeoff

63
Q

Which flight deck windows are not electrically heated?

A

L3 and R3

64
Q

Temperature controllers maintain window heat on windows ________ at the correct temperature to ensure maximum strength of the windows in the event of bird impact.

A

L1, R1, L2, and R2

65
Q

On the Window Heat Panel, when an overheat condition is detected, power is removed from the window, __________, and the green ON light extinguishes.

A

an amber OVERHEAT Light is illuminated

66
Q

On the Window Heat Panel when a green window heat ON light is illuminated, ___________.

A

window heat is being applied to selected window(s).

67
Q

Placing the WINDOW HEAT Test Switch to OVHT_______________.

A

simulates an overheat condition.

68
Q

Placing the WINDOW HEAT Test Switch to PWR TEST_______________.

A

provides a confidence test by applying full power to all windows that that the switch set to ON.

69
Q

Windshield scratching will occur if the windshield wipers are operated on _____ windshield.

A

a dry

70
Q

Engine bleed air thermal anti-icing prevents the formation of ice on the _____.

A

engine cowl lip

71
Q

Each cowl anti-ice valve is _______ controlled and ______ actuated.

A

electrically; pressure

72
Q

What occurs when the ENG ANTI-ICE switches are positioned to ON?

A

All answers are correct

  • Turning ENG ANTI-ICE ON automatically adjusts FMC Vref speed.
  • Turning ENG ANTI-ICE OFF returns stick shaker logic, minimum maneuver speeds and airspeed indications to normal.
73
Q

If the cowl anti-ice valve fails to move to the position indicated by the ENG
ANTI-ICE switch, the COWL VALVE OPEN light ________ and an amber TAI indication illuminates on the CDS after a short delay.

A

remains illuminated bright blue

74
Q

On the Engine Anti-Ice Panel, an amber illuminated COWL ANTI-ICE Light indicates __________.

A

excessive pressure in the duct leading from the cowl anti-ice valve to the cowl lip

75
Q

A green TAI on the upper display unit above the N1 gage, indicates __________

A

cowl anti-ice valve(s) open

76
Q

An amber TAI on the upper display unit above the N1 gage, indicates __________

A

cowl anti-ice valve is not in position indicated by related engine anti-ice switch.

77
Q

The wing anti-ice system does not include the _______ or the_________.

A

leading edge flaps; outboard leading edge slats

78
Q

On the ground, both of the wing anti-ice valves close if either engine thrust is above the takeoff warning setting or ____________.

A

either temperature sensor senses a duct over temperature

79
Q

On the Wing Anti-Ice Panel, what does a bright blue Wing Anti-Ice VALVE OPEN Light indicate?

A

The related wing anti-ice control valve is in transit, or, related wing anti-ice control valve position disagrees with WING ANTI–ICE switch position.

80
Q

Which of the following Wing Anti-Ice system statements is not true?

A

Stall warning logic, airspeed indications, and minimum maneuver speeds return to normal when Wing Anti-Ice is turned OFF.

81
Q

On the Probe Heat Panel, an amber CAPT PITOT light indicates ________.

A

the probe is not heated

82
Q

What supplies conditioned air to No. 1 windows for defogging?

A

WINDSHIELD AIR Control knob located on the forward panel

83
Q

The use of Aileron Trim with the Autopilot engaged is _______.

A

prohibited

84
Q

The Autopilot Flight Director System (AFDS) is a dual system consisting of _____individual flight control computers (FCCs) and a single mode control panel.

A

two

85
Q

All Autopilot Flight Director System (AFDS) modes can be disengaged either by selecting another command mode or _______________.

A

by disengaging the A/P and turning the F/Ds off

86
Q

Autopilot engagement in CMD or CWS is inhibited unless ________.

A

all answers are correct

  • No force is being applied to the control wheel.
  • The STAB TRIM AUTOPILOT cutout switch is at NORMAL
87
Q

In single A/P operation, full automatic flare and touchdown capability and A/P go-around capability are ______.

A

not available

88
Q

What allows both A/Ps to be engaged at the same time?

A

the Approach mode

89
Q

The A/P automatically disengages when any of the following occurs:

A

all answers are correct

  • Pushing either A/P disengage switch or pushing either Takeoff / Go-around (TO/GA) switch with a single A/P engaged in CWS or CMD below 2000 feet RA
  • Activating either pilot’s control wheel trim switch or loss of respective hydraulic system pressure
90
Q

The F/Ds can be operated __________.

A

with or without the A/P and A/T

91
Q

How is the master FCC indicated?

A

by illumination of the respective master (MA) F/D indicator light

92
Q

What following indications regarding AFDS status annunciations are displayed in the A/P status display located above the attitude indicator?

A

all answers are correct

  • CMD, FD, 1 CH
  • CWS P, CWS R
93
Q

What does CMD in the autopilot status display of the AFDS indicate?

A

one or both autopilots are engaged

94
Q

What does FD in the autopilot status display of the AFDS indicate?

A

the flight director is ON and the autopilot is either OFF or engaged in CWS

95
Q

What does CWS P in the autopilot status display of the AFDS indicate?

A

pitch mode engaged in CWS

96
Q

What does CWS R in the autopilot status display of the AFDS indicate?

A

roll mode engaged in CWS

97
Q

What does 1CH in the autopilot status display of the AFDS indicate?

A

for a single A/P ILS approach, annunciates after localizer capture and remains on for entire approach

98
Q

What does N1 on the AFDS Flight Mode Annunciations Autothrottle Mode indicate?

A

The autothrottle maintains thrust at the selected N1 limit displayed on the thrust mode display, including full go-around N1 setting.

99
Q

What does GA on the AFDS Flight Mode Annunciations Autothrottle Mode indicate?

A

The autothrottle maintains thrust at reduced go-around setting.

100
Q

What does RETARD on the AFDS Flight Mode Annunciations Autothrottle Mode indicate?

A

Displayed while autothrottle moves thrust levers to the aft stop. RETARD mode is followed by ARM mode.

101
Q

What does FMC SPD on the AFDS Flight Mode Annunciations Autothrottle Mode indicate?

A

The autothrottle maintains speed commanded by the FMC. The autothrottle is limited to the N1 value shown on the thrust mode display.

102
Q

What does THR HLD on the AFDS Flight Mode Annunciations Autothrottle Mode indicate?

A

No autothrottle mode engaged. The thrust lever autothrottle servos are inhibited; the pilot can

103
Q

What does ARM on the AFDS Flight Mode Annunciations Autothrottle Mode indicate?

A

No autothrottle mode engaged. The thrust lever autothrottle servos are inhibited; the pilot can set thrust levers manually.

104
Q

To engage TO/GA for takeoff ______________ and press either TO/GA switch

A

both FD switches must be ON

105
Q

To engage TO/GA for go-around, press either TO/GA switch when _______

A

all answers are correct

  • Inflight below 2000 feet radio altitude
  • not in takeoff mode and either F/D switch ON or OFF
106
Q

The AFDS Flight Mode Annunciation, in the pitch mode, VNAV SPD commands _______.

A

the AFDS to maintain the FMC speed displayed on the airspeed indicator and/or the CDU CLIMB or DESCENT pages

107
Q

The AFDS Flight Mode Annunciation, in the pitch mode, VNAV PTH commands _______.

A

the AFDS to maintain FMC altitude or descent path with pitch commands

108
Q

The AFDS Flight Mode Annunciation, in the pitch mode, V/S (engaged) commands _______.

A

pitch to hold selected vertical speed

109
Q

The AFDS Flight Mode Annunciation, in the pitch mode, ALT ACQ commands _______.

A

a transition maneuver entered automatically from a V/S, LVL CHG, or VNAV climb or descent to the selected MCP altitude.

110
Q

The AFDS Flight Mode Annunciation, in the pitch mode, ALT HOLD commands _______.

A

pitch to hold MCP selected altitude or uncorrected barometric altitude at which ALT HOLD switch was pushed

111
Q

The AFDS Flight Mode Annunciation, in the pitch mode, MCP SPD commands _______.

A

he AFDS to maintain the IAS/MACH window airspeed or Mach

112
Q

The AFDS Flight Mode Annunciation, in the pitch mode, G/S (engaged) commands _______.

A

the AFDS to follow the ILS glideslope

113
Q

The AFDS Flight Mode Annunciation, in the pitch mode, FLARE (engaged) commands _______.

A

During a dual A/P ILS approach, flare engages at 50 feet radio altitude. FLARE accomplishes the autoland flare maneuver.

114
Q

The AFDS Flight Mode Annunciation, in the roll mode, LNAV commands _______.

A

the AFDS to intercept and track the active FMC route

115
Q

The AFDS Flight Mode Annunciation, in the roll mode, HDG SEL commands _______.

A

the aircraft to turn to, or remain on the heading selected in the MCP Heading Display

116
Q

The AFDS Flight Mode Annunciation, in the roll mode, VOR/LOC (engaged) commands _______.

A

AFDS to track selected VOR course or track selected localizer course along the inbound front course bearing

117
Q

The A/T system operates properly with the EECs ______.

A

all answers are correct

  • ON
  • ALTN
118
Q

Which of the following actions or conditions will disengage the autothrottles?

A

Moving the A/T Arm switch to OFF, pushing either A/T Disengage switch, or two seconds have elapsed since landing touchdown

119
Q

For a dual A/P approach, the second VHF NAV receiver must be tuned to the ILS frequency and the corresponding A/P engaged in CMD prior to _______.

A

800 feet RA

120
Q

If FLARE is not armed by approximately 350 feet RA, _______________.

A

both A/Ps automatically disengage

121
Q

During a single channel A/P approach operation, _________ .

A

an A/P go-around is not available

122
Q

During an A/P go-around, the first push of either TO/GA switch commands the thrust to advance towards the reduced go-around N1 to producing 1000 to

A

commands the A/T to advance to the full go-around N1 limit

123
Q

The AFS provides speed, pitch and thrust commands to avoid exceeding the following limit speeds:

A

Vmo/Mmo, wing flap placards, landing gear placard and minimum speed

124
Q

The flashing character A on the IAS/MACH Display represents _______.
“IAS/MACH A135”

A

an underspeed

125
Q

On the Mode Control Panel, pressing the Changeover (C/O) Switch _______.

A

changes IAS/MACH display between IAS and MACH

126
Q

The IAS/MACH Display is blank when __________.

A

VNAV mode is engaged

127
Q

With the N1 light illuminated, pushing the N1 switch on the Mode Control Panel _______.

A

Deselects N1 mode and extinguishes switch light

128
Q

On the Mode Control Panel, Speed mode engages automatically when:

A

all answers are correct

  • ALT ACQ engages or ALT HOLD engages
  • V/S engages or G/S capture occurs
129
Q

Rotating the speed selector knob on the Mode Control Panel _______.

A

sets the speed in IAS/MACH display and positions airspeed cursor

130
Q

Pushing the Speed Intervention (SPD INTV) Switch on the Mode Control Panel when VNAV is engaged __________________.

A

reveals the IAS/MACH display, activates FMC speed intervention, displays the FMC target

131
Q

By engaging VNAV, the FMC command the AFDS pitch and ______________ to fly vertical profile selected on the ____________.

A

autothrottle; FMC CDUs

132
Q

In a VNAV SPD descent, the autothrottle holds ______ and the AFDS _________.

A

idle; holds FMC target speed

133
Q

In a VNAV PTH descent, the autothrottle holds ______ and the AFDS _________.

A

idle but can command FMC SPD mode if ground speed becomes too low to maintain FMC vertical path; tracks FMC descent path

134
Q

The ALTITUDE Display on the Mode Control Panel is set by the Altitude Selector and displays selected altitude from 0 to 50,000 feet in ______ foot increments.

A

100

135
Q

The Vertical Speed (VERT SPEED) Display window _____ when V/S is ______.

A

blanks; not active

136
Q

The Vertical Speed Thumbwheel sets ___________.

A

vertical speed in VERT SPEED display

137
Q

Pushing the Level Change (LVL CHG) switch in a climb commands the autothrottles to hold ______ thrust and the AFDS to hold selected airspeed.

A

limit

138
Q

While in Altitude Hold, if the Altitude Selector on the Mode Control Panel is rotated the ______ mode is armed.

A

V/S

139
Q

When descending or climbing with VNAV engaged, if the ALT INTV switch is pushed, the next altitude restriction in the FMC will be _________.

A

eliminated

140
Q

Pushing the Altitude Hold (ALT HLD) switch commands pitch to hold

A

uncorrected barometric altitude at which the switch was pressed

141
Q

On the Mode Control Panel, the COURSE display shows the course set by the _______.

A

course selector

142
Q

On the Mode Control Panel, rotating the heading selector sets the heading in the_______.

A

heading display

143
Q

On the Mode Control Panel, pushing the LNAV Switch commands the AFDS roll to intercept and track the active _______.

A

FMC route

144
Q

On the Mode Control Panel, pushing the VOR localizer (LOC) Switch commands the AFDS roll to capture and track the selective _______.

A

all answers are correct

  • VOR
  • LOC
145
Q

The bank angle selector sets the maximum bank angle for the AFDS operation in _______ mode(s).

A

HDG SEL or VOR

146
Q

Initially, pushing the Heading Select (HDG SEL) switch commands a turn in the shortest direction towards the heading bug.

A

True

147
Q

Pushing the Approach (APP) Switch arms the AFDS for ___________.

A

localizer and glideslope capture

148
Q

The Command Engage (CMD ENGAGE) switch (A or B) ________.

A

all answers are correct

  • engages the A/P, and displays CMD in the A/P status display
  • enables all command modes
149
Q

The Control Wheel Steering Engage (CWS ENGAGE) switch (A or B) ________.

A

all answers are correct

  • engages the A/P, and displays CWS P and CWS R in the A/P status display
  • engages pitch and roll modes in CWS
150
Q

Pulling down on the Autopilot Disengage (DISENGAGE) bar_______.

A

disengages both A/Ps

151
Q

The Autopilot Disengage Switch on the Control Wheel, ________.

A

all answers are correct

  • disengages the A/P, and a warning tone sounds
  • illuminates the flashing A/P disengage lights
152
Q

The Stabilizer Out Of Trim (STAB OUT OF TRIM) light operates ________.

A

only with the autopilot engaged

Bets Will 737 SKV (1 decks)

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