Skin and special senses Flashcards

1
Q

Auspitz sign

A

Auspitz sign : Peeling off the surface scale reveals regular areas of pinpoint bleeding (seen in psoriasis) Due to thick adherent scale in psoriasis and proximity of vessels to stratum corneum

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2
Q

Woods light

A

Woods light: Ultraviolet light : 365nm, Fluorescence in the visible range when applied to certain skin conditions e.g. Erythrasma : coral pink Pseudomonas infection : yellow green Tinea capitis : light blue Pigment : epidermal lighter, dermal darker Porphyrins : red teeth, urine, blister fluid

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3
Q

Diascopy

A

Diascopy: Diascopy is a test for blanch ability performed by applying pressure with a finger or glass slide and observing color changes. It is used to determine whether a lesion is vascular (inflammatory or congenital), nonvascular (nevus), or hemorrhagic (petechia or purpura). What is the reason? It differentiates telangiectasia from petechia.

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4
Q

Dermographism

A

Dermographism: Where skin is stroked and the skin responds with a wheal (red swollen skin). This is indicative of a tendency to urticaria (hives). Probably represents Mast cell sensitivity to trauma

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5
Q

Nikolsky sign

A

Nikolsky sign: Shearing stress on the skin causes separation of the skin along a horizontal plane. This results in a traumatic bulla. Occurs in fragile skin. May occur in epidermolysis bullosa in babies Typically a sign of superficial blistering disorders such as Pemphigus

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6
Q

Dermoscopy

A

Dermoscopy: Dermoscopy : clinical application. Pigmented lesions : e.g. Melanoma. Non pigmented lesions : e.g. BCC. Vascular lesions. Scabies, bites

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7
Q

Koebner phenomenon

A

Koebner phenomenon: Also called isomorphic phenomenon. Localisation of a non:infective skin disorder to area of trauma. Many forms of trauma : physical, chemical, thermal, ultraviolet. Examples: Psoriasis, lichen planus, vasculitis, erythema multiforme, vitiligo, atopic dermatitis

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8
Q

Macule

A

:Macule: flat area of altered colour or texture, less than 0.5cm in diameter

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9
Q

Patch

A

:Patch: a flat area of altered colour, greater than 0.5cm in diameter

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10
Q

Papule

A

:Papule: a solid raised lesion, less than 0.5cm in diameter

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11
Q

Nodule

A

:Nodule: a solid raised lesion, greater than 0.5cm in diameter

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12
Q

Plaque

A

:Plaque: a palpable flat top raised lesion, greater than 0.5cm in diameter

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13
Q

Vesicle

A

:Vesicle: raised clear fluid:filled lesion, less than 0.5cm in diameter

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14
Q

Bullae

A

:Bullae: raised clear fluid:filled lesion, greater than 0.5cm in diameter. Can one of two types; flaccid or tense

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15
Q

Pustule

A

:Pustule: pus containing lesion, less than 0.5cm in diameter

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16
Q

Abscess

A

:Abscess: a localised accumulation of pus in the dermis or subcutaneous tissue

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17
Q

Weal/Wheal

A

:Weal/Wheal: transient raised lesion due to dermal oedema (red middle, white outside)

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18
Q

Comedone

A

:Comedone: papule due to a blocked sebaceous follicle, occurring in acne. Can be open (blackhead) or closed (whitehead)

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19
Q

Excoriation

A

:Excoriation: loss of epidermis following trauma (technical word for scratch)

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20
Q

Lichenification

A

:Lichenification: well:defined thickening of the skin with accentuation of skin markings due to repeated rubbing and scratching

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21
Q

Scale

A

:Scale: flakes of stratum corneum

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22
Q

Crust

A

:Crust: rough surface consisting of dried serum, blood, bacteria and cellular debris that have been extruded through an eroded epidermis

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23
Q

Scar

A

:Scar: new fibrous tissue post wound healing. 3 different types; Atrophic : thinned, Hypertrophic : enlarged within the wound boundary and Keloid : enlargement beyond the wound boundary

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24
Q

Ulcer

A

:Ulcer: loss of epidermis and dermis (loss of both layers)

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25
Q

Fissure

A

:Fissure: an epidermal crack due to dryness (more likely to cause scarring)

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26
Q

Erosion

A

:Erosion: loss of epidermis only

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27
Q

Striae

A

:Striae: linear, macular or mildly hypertrophic lesion which progress from purple to pink to white, with histopathological appearance of a scar and is associated with excessive steroid use, glucocorticoid production, growth spurts and pregnancy

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28
Q

Telangiectasia

A

:Telangiectasia: an erythematous, fine linear lesion composed of capillaries. Is a dilated blood vessel within the dermis itself and applying pressure can make them disappear

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29
Q

Discrete

A

:Discrete: individual (lesion separated from each other)

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30
Q

Confluent

A

:Confluent: merging together

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31
Q

Linear

A

:Linear: in a line

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32
Q

Target

A

:Target: concentric rings

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33
Q

Annular

A

:Annular: like a circle with central clear

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34
Q

Discoid/nummular

A

:Discoid/nummular: coin shaped

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35
Q

Generalised/widespread

A

:Generalised/widespread: all over the body

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36
Q

Localised

A

:Localised: restricted to one area of the body

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37
Q

Flexural

A

:Flexural: body folds e.g. groin, neck, behind ears

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38
Q

Extensor

A

:Extensor: knees, elbow, shins

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39
Q

Pressure areas

A

:Pressure areas: sacrum, buttocks, ankles, heels

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40
Q

Dermatome

A

:Dermatome: an area of the skin supplied by a single spinal nerve

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41
Q

Photosensitive

A

:Photosensitive: sun exposed areas e.g. face, neck, back of hands

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42
Q

Kobner phenomena

A

:Kobner phenomena: linear eruption arising from trauma

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43
Q

Erythema

A

:Erythema: redness due to inflammation and vasodilation which blanches on pressure

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44
Q

Hypo:pigmentation

A

:Hypo:pigmentation: areas of paler skin

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45
Q

Hyper:pigmentation

A

:Hyper:pigmentation: areas of darker skin due to various causes e.g. post inflammation

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46
Q

De:pigmentation

A

:De:pigmentation: white skin due to loss of melanin

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47
Q

Petechia

A

:Petechia: non:blanching, red cell extravasation (pinhead size/pin:point macules)

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48
Q

Purpura

A

:Purpura: larger red cell extravasation which can be palpable or non:palpable. Red or purple colour due to bleeding into the skin which does not blanch on pressure

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49
Q

HAIR DISTRIBUTION

A

:Glabrous skin (skin totally devoid of hair) includes the palms, soles and portions of the genitalia

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50
Q

Hair Phases

A

Anagen, Catagen, Telogen and exogen

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51
Q

Anagen

A

Is the growing phase. During this phase the follicle penetrates deeply into the hypodermis, before the keratinocytes in the follicular bulb proliferate forming the hair shaft

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52
Q

Catagen

A

. It is during this phase that melanocytes responsible for giving hair its pigment are dispersed among the keratinocytes

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53
Q

Telogen

A

Is the programmed cell death phase. After anagen is complete, the keratinocytes and melanocytes undergo programmed cell death to form the characteristic hair structure

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54
Q

Exogen

A

Shedding phase

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55
Q

Which ducts empty into the hair follicles

A

Both the sebaceous and apocrine ducts empty into the hair follicles itself

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56
Q

There are 3 general types of hair

A

Lanugo (fine long hair of foetus and shed 1 month prior to birth), Vellus (which is the fine short hair present all over the body) and Terminal hair (the thick hair on our scalp, beard axillae and genitals)

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57
Q

Pre:pubertal hair function

A

Do not have terminal hair in the axilla or pubic area and boys have no facial hair

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58
Q

Puberty hair function

A

Hair growth in axillae and anogenital areas and males may develop more profuse body hair all over

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59
Q

Middle age hair function

A

Androgen turns frontal scalp hair from terminal to vellus hair. Conversely ongoing exposure of androgens changes vellus to terminal hairs

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60
Q

Females hair function

A

Particularly after menopause they develop facial hair around the beard area

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61
Q

The nails have a number of different functions, including;

A

Protect the distal phalanges of fingers and toes , Enhance fine touch discrimination, Help us pick up objects, They are an efficient natural weapon

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62
Q

APOCRINE SWEAT GLANDS

A

:Discharge from this gland is directly into hair follicles (as opposed to onto the surface). When this is first secreted, no odour is detected, it is actually the bacterial action on the secretion which develops the odour. This gland does produce some pheromones

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63
Q

ECCRINE SWEAT GLANDS

A

:Are glands that open directly onto the skin. A well acclimatised person can perspire up to several litres per hour. The secretions from this gland start out as isotonic, but end as hypotonic as sodium is reabsorbed

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64
Q

SEBACEOUS GLANDS

A

? Are found all over the body, typically associated with hair follicles. The largest glands and the greatest density of glands is found on the face and scalp. These glands secrete sebum
? These glands have a number of important functions, such as; Antibacterial agent, Antifungal agent, Contributes to the normal barrier function of the skin
: Sebaceous gland activity is high at birth before declining to almost nothing between 2 and 6 years of age
: From 7, sebum levels increase until the age of 20
: After the 20s, sebum secretion declines
: Men on average have higher rates of sebaceous gland secretions compared with females (why males have worse acne than females)

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65
Q

Where are there no sebaceous glands

A

The palms and soles, which have no hair follicles are devoid of any sebaceous glands. (except for glabrous skin / skin without hair, for example eyelids, nose, penis, nipples etc.)

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66
Q

NON:CELLULAR COMPONENTS OF SKIN

A
  1. Vasculature
  2. Sensory Receptors: There are few different types of sensory receptors. Free nerve endings, Pacinian corpuscle, Meissner’s corpuscle cells and Peritrichial free nerve endings.
  3. Glands: Sebaceous glands (empty into hair shaft), Eccrine sweat glands (open directly onto surface), Apocrine sweat glands (empty into hair shaft)
  4. Hair
  5. Nails
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67
Q

FUNCTIONS OF SKIN

A

and chemical barrier (microorganisms and ultraviolent light) and repair
: barrier
: Endocrine organ
: Vitamin D synthesis
: Psychological and communication effect through appearance
: Thermoregulation
: Sensory organ

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68
Q

STRUCTURE OF SKIN

A
  1. Epidermis
  2. Dermis
  3. Hypodermis
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69
Q

EPIDERMIS

A

? It is made up of stratified squamous keratinised epithelium and is avascular
? The epidermis primarily functions as a protective barrier, and is continually regenerating
? The main cell type in this layer are Keratinocytes (which produce keratin)
? Other non:keratinocytes in the epidermis include; Melanocytes (pigment cells), Merkel cells (nerve ending associated) and Langerhans cells (antigen presenting cells)
1. Stratum Germinativum / Basale
2. Stratum Spinosum
3. Stratum Granulosum
4. Stratum Lucidum
: Is a thin clear layer of dead skin cells that is only visible in areas of thick skin e.g. hands and soles of the feet
: It is made up of 3 : 4 layers of dead, flattened keratinocytes
5. Stratum Corneum

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70
Q

DESQUAMATION

A

? Is the migration of cells from the deepest layer of the epidermis (the stratum Basale) superficially to the thick keratinised plug of dead cells before being shed
? This transit time from the deepest layer to the stratum corneum is around 14 days, with the cells remaining on the thick keratinised plug for another 14 days before they are lost
? Thus, the total time from the basal layer to shedding of the skin cells is around 28 days

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71
Q

KERATINOCYTE

A

? These cells are produced within the Stratum Basale and migrate superficially. As this migration occurs, these cells undergo increased differentiation (e.g. loses its nucleus)
? These cells secrete keratin which are produced and secreted by keratin intermediate filaments in the cytoplasm of the cell

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72
Q

Alopecia

A

Hair loss, can be scarring or non-scarring (scar tissue does not have hair)

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73
Q

Hair pigmentation

A

Melanocytes in the cortex of a persons hair shaft cause colour. Hair is only actively pigmented in the anagen phase.

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74
Q

MELANOCYTE

A

are located in the stratum basale, dermis and in hair follicles. synthesis melanin, and is contained within structures known as melanosomes and which are transferred to keratinocytes via dendritic processes. function of this melanin is to screen out harmful UV radiation and to give pigmentation to skin

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75
Q

Langerhan cells

A

cells have long dendritic processes which radiate throughout the epidermis. function as antigen presenting cells and are able to migrate through the epidermis and dermis into lymph nodes.

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76
Q

Merkel cells

A

are located in the stratum basale in areas of thick skin. function as sensory mechanoreceptors, and thus are closely associated with free nerve endings . these cells which facilitate fine touch.

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77
Q

Dermis

A

deep to the epidermis. made up of a tough, supportive connective tissue matrix. made up of collagen and some elastase tissue. The two layers are papillary(upper thin) and reticular (lower thicker). Cells found in the dermis include fibroblasts, macrophages, mast cells and lymphocytes.

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78
Q

Hypodermis

A

Layer deep to the dermis, made up of subcutaneous and adipose tissues which effectively insulates the body and provides mobility to the skin.

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79
Q

name all parts

A
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80
Q

Name all parts

A
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81
Q

impetigo possible causes and pathogens.

A

Spreads person to person contact
1. Bullous
- Is a thin walled blister that is full of clear yellow fluid which rupture rapidly leaving exudative
- Is typically caused by Staph Aureus
2. Crusted or Non-Bullous
- Presents with multiple crusts and erosions at one site : face
- May also present as pustular satellite lesions that have a red base and yellow gold crust that is adherent
- Is typically caused by Staphylococcal or Streptococcal bacteria
3. Ulcerated lesions
- Usually caused by Strep Pyogenes

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82
Q
A

Impetigo

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83
Q

folliculitis causes and pathogens.

A

characterised by inflamed hair follicles
 Signs and symptoms of folliculitis is a tender red papule that is often associated with a surface pustule centred on a hair follicle
CAUSES
1. Infection
- Bacteria that commonly cause it include Staph aureus and Pseudomonas Augerginosa
- Yeasts that cause it include Pityrosporum ovale
- Fungal causes include Tinea capitis from Microsporum canis

  1. Occlusion: greasy ointments
  2. Irritation: Waxing, plucking
  3. Specific skin diseases: acne variants
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84
Q

boils possible causes and pathogens.

A

Is a deep form of folliculitis that develops from superficial folliculitis
caused by an acute pustular infection of a hair follicle by Staphylococcus Aureus
present ; Tender red nodule which enlarges
- Fever
- Enlarged draining lymph nodes
- People will typically present with

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85
Q
A

Folliculitis

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86
Q

Who is at risk of developing skin conditions

A

 People who are at risk for developing furunculosis (like all infections) include diabetics, obese patients, malnourished patients, patients with poor skin hygiene and those who are otherwise immunocompromised (e.g. alcoholism)

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87
Q
A

Boil: deep folliculitis

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88
Q

paronychia: acute and causative pathogens

A

ACUTE PARONYCHIA
 Is an infection of the paronychium (the area surrounding the nail bed) that can develop over a few hours and is typically caused by a Staph infection
 Patients that present with acute paronychia will typically have nail folds which are painful, red and swollen (sometimes yellow pus will be evident under the cuticle)

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89
Q
A

Acute paronychia

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90
Q

paronychia: chronic and causative pathogens

A

 Unlike the acute form of the disease, chronic paronychia is not caused by strep or staph
 It presents over a period of weeks and months, and is common in individuals who have their hands wet all the time
 It is caused by several different microorganisms (yeasts and bacteria) like candida species and negative bacilli
- It typically starts in one nail fold before spreading to the others
- Affected nails become swollen and are lifted off the nail plate
 A key difference between acute and chronic paronychia is the differences in the nails themselves, in acute there is little change to the nails whereas chronic paronychia will show ridges and dystrophic nails

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91
Q
A

Chronic paronychia

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92
Q
A

Cellulitis

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93
Q

Nominate General treatment for cellulitis. Be able to give general reasons why it occurs and generalised treatment.

A

CELLULITIS – TREATMENT (need to know this)
 Treatment of cellulitis should follow the following process;
1. Rest and elevation of the area
2. Analgesia
- Pain relief like Panadol
3. Oral or Intravenous antibiotics
- Cephalexin
- Flucloxacillin
- Penicillin
4. Address the original cause

INCLUDING
1. Lymphoedema
2. Tinea of the feet (Causes damage to the skin surface itself allowing the causative bacteria to enter)
3. Chronic dermatitis
4. Poor lower leg circulation (if venous circulation is bad there is a poor nutrient gradient)
5. Wounds
6. Herpes simplex infection
7. Dental caries
8. Chronic sinus infection
9. Chronic venous insufficiency

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94
Q
A

COMMON WART
- Most commonly arise on the backs of fingers or toes (particularly around the nails where they can distort nail growth) and on knees
- They start out as a smooth skin coloured papule and eventually enlarge into an irregular hyperkeratotic surface (that resembles cauliflower)
- They most commonly occur on the hands but can sometimes arise on the face and genitals

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95
Q
A
  1. Plane warts
    - Typically occur on the dorsum of the hands, arms and face
    - They normally have a flat surface and are skin coloured or pink
    - Can be described as a smooth slightly elevated flat-topped papule
    - When treating these warts, it is important that you don’t damage the nail bed and other surrounding structures
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96
Q
A
  1. Plantar warts (flat wart)
    - Occur on the soles of the feet and are characterised by a rough surface that only slightly protrudes above the skin
    - They also tend to have a surrounding horny collar
    - When the surface is peeled back you tend to see oozing capillaries (which distinguish the wart from corns)
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97
Q
A
  1. Filiform warts
    - Occur on the face
    - Are characteristically long, stalk like warts that look like threads hanging down
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98
Q
A
  1. Anogenital warts
    - Unlike the others, anogenital warts do cause an issue
    - They are papillomatous cauliflower lesions that occur on moist, macerated vascular surfaces
    - They can coalesce together to form large lesions
    - They also pose a risk of developing into cancer
    - These are considered an STI in adults
    - It is also important to consider sexual abuse if apparent on children
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99
Q
A

MOLLUSCUM CONTAGIOSUM
 Is a viral skin infection that results in round, firm, painless bumps caused by the Poxvirus
 Is a common viral skin infection seen in clinical practice that has two peak periods;
- Children (3 – 9 years of age)
- Young adults (20 – 25 years
 The viral infection itself is spread from person to person via direct skin contact (especially in children)
 Sexual transmission is possible in adults

  • Patients will have clusters of small papules in warm moist areas like the armpit, groin or behind the knee
  • They range in size from 1mm – 6mm
  • They have a waxy, pinkish look with a white central pit (umbilicated pit) (can be white, pink or brown)
  • When they resolve they make become inflamed, crusted or scabby
  • They can persist for months (usually 6 to 12 months) or even years
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100
Q

Recount the skin manifestations of herpes simplex virus.

A

 Is the virus that causes cold sores and genital herpes
 There are 2 main types of herpes simplex virus (HSV). Type 1 and Type 2
1. Type 1
- Is mainly associated with facial infections and extra genital
- Is common in children and lasts around 2 weeks
- Commonly causes acute gingivostomatitis which is accompanied by malaise, fever, headache and enlarged cervical glands
2. Type 2
- Is mainly associated with genital infections (herpes)
- Is typically sexually acquired
- Causes multiple genital and peri-anal vesicles that rapidly ulcerate

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101
Q
A

Varcilla
caused by the varicella-zoster virus
 It is spread by one of two ways;
1. Inhalation of airborne respiratory droplets from an infected
2. Direct contact with the fluid from the vesicles
 It has an incubation time of about 14 days

 In terms of the clinical presentation, the following is true;
- Prodromal symptoms: Like high fever, headache, cold like symptoms, vomiting and diarrhoea for 1 – 2 days
- Rash: They will then develop a rash on the trunk that spreads to the face and extremities
- Papules: The lesions will begin as 2 – 4mm red papules before eventually turning into vesicles
- Vesicle: The vesicle will rapidly form a pustule, which will burst (in 8 – 12 hours) and crust over leaving an eroded red base
- New lesions stop appearing after 4 days and crusts fall off within 7 days
- The vesicles are very itchy and uncomfortable

complications are outlined below;
1. Secondary bacterial infection of skin lesions from scratching
2. Dehydration from vomiting and diarrhoea
3. Viral pneumonia
4. Scarring
5. Disseminated primary varicella infection (high morbidity in immunosuppressed)
6. Infection of a pregnant women

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102
Q
A

MEASLES
 measles virus
 It has an incubation period of 7 – 14 days
 Transmission of the measles virus is facilitated by respiratory droplets from infected persons coughing or sneezing
 In terms of the clinical presentation of the disease,
- Initially patients will symptoms typical to an Upper Respiratory Tract Infection with fever, conjunctival irritation and sometimes photophobia
- 3 – 7 days after the onset of the initial symptoms there will be an erythematous macular rash on face
- 2 – 3 prior to the onset of the measle rash there will be Koplik spots on the buccal mucosa (small pinhead sized white spots)
- A non-pruritic rash (not itchy) will begin on the face and behind the ears, and after 24 – 36 hours it will spread to the entire body (lasts for 3 – 4 days)
- rash coincides with a high fever
- The rash will fade 3 – 4 days after it initially appeared (will fade to a purplish colour, then to brown and coppery with fine scales then to nothing)
 complications the most common of which are outlined below;
1. Diarrhoea (can be fatal if dehydration occurs)
2. Otitis media (may lead to deafness, almost exclusively occurs in children)
3. Pneumonia (most common cause of death)

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103
Q
A

RUBELLA
 Rubella is of little consequence, unless you are pregnant. Infection of a pregnant women: congenital rubella syndrome and can result in;
1. Miscarriage
2. Stillbirth
3. Major birth abnormalities
 It has an incubation period of 12 – 23 days caused by the Rubella Virus
 Transmission is facilitated by respiratory droplets from infected persons coughing or sneezing
 An infected person is contagious from 7 days prior to the rash appearing and for 7 days after
 In terms of the clinical presentation, the following is true;
- Patients may experience slight fever, sore throat, rhinorrhoea (runny nose) and malaise prior to the appearance of the rash
- The rash begins on the face, before spreading to the neck, trunk and extremities
- The may or may not be itchy and usually lasts about 5 days (pink or light red macules about 2 – 3mm in size)
- After the rash passes the skin may shed in flakes (known as desquamation) which assists diagnosis

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104
Q
A

Pavovirus
 Is a common childhood infection that causes a characteristic slapped cheek appearance and rash
 It is caused by Parvovirus B19
 It rarely causes complications, with 30% of infected individuals presenting with no symptoms
 In terms of the clinical progression, the following is true;
- They will first get firm red cheeks which feel burning hot
- This is followed 1 – 4 days later by a network patterned rash on their limbs and then trunk
- May have a slight headache or fever, but usually are quite well
- Usually the rash clears in a few days (some cases can last several weeks)
 No treatment is required

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105
Q
A

ROSEOLA
 spread through respiratory droplets from infected individuals
 In many cases of roseola, the child appears well with few or no signs or symptoms at all
 In terms of the clinical presentation, the following is true;
- High fever for 3- 5 days
- Upper respiratory symptoms like sore throat, cough, runny nose and congestion
- Irritability and tiredness
- A rash appears between days 3 and 5 as the fever stops
- The rash starts on the trunk and can spread to the entire body
- It can be described as a small pink / red maculo-papular rash (2 – 5mm) that blanches (turns white) when touched
- Some macules may be surrounded by a halo of pale skin
- The rash in non-itchy, painless and doesn’t blister
- Can fade in a few hours or persist for as long as 2 – 3 days
 No treatment is required

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106
Q
A

ENTEROVIRUS INFECTIONS
 Is commonly referred to as Hand, food and mouth disease
 It is a common, highly infectious condition that is caused by the Coxsackie virus A16
 It is mild and short lasting and commonly affects children under 5
 It has an incubation period of 4 to 6 days
 Its clinical progression is as follows;
- Small erosions around 3 – 6mm in size will appear in the oral cavity (can sometimes be painful)
- Patients may have a mild fever
- Within 24 hours of the oral lesions, 66% of cases will develop cutaneous lesions which appear as red macules that evolve into cloudy vesicles around 4 – 7 mm in size (surrounded by an erythematous areola)
- These typically are distributed over palms, soles, dorsal fingers and dorsal toes
- They spontaneously resolve within 10 days (without any crusting or scarring)

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107
Q
A

HERPES SIMPLEX
 Is the virus that causes cold sores and genital herpes

 The Herpes Simplex Virus can be spread by the following means;
- Respiratory droplets
- Direct contact with an infection lesion
- Direct contact with infected body fluids
 Once transferred, HSV enters the host through abraded skin or through intact mucous membranes
 Initially it is the epithelial cells that are targeted by the virus, however as a result of retrograde transport through neural tissue (adjacent to the epithelial cells) into sensory ganglia leads, infected persons often experience lifelong latent infection
T1 and T2

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108
Q
A

 Is a viral disease resulting from the reactivation of the varicella virus
 It is typically localised to one or two dermatomes
 As is mentioned above, the pathophysiology of the disease is caused by the reactivation of the varicella virus that has lay dormant in its resting phase within a few anterior horn cells of the spinal cord. This reactivation allows it to grow down the nerves to the skin, resulting in shingles
 We do not know what causes this reactivation, but we know it is more common in the immunocompromised

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109
Q

Types of tinea

A
  1. Tinea barbae (beard)
  2. Tinea capitis (head)
  3. Tinea corporis (body)
  4. Tinea faciei (face)
  5. Tinea manuum (hand)
  6. Tinea pedis (foot)
  7. Tinea unguium (nail)
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110
Q
A
  1. Tinea Capitus (scalp)
    - Is usually much more subtle, and has no signs of inflammation
    - The only sign may be scaling with or without hair loss
    - Patches of hair loss in a young person should indicate tinea capitus (if there is no other obvious trauma)
    - Differential diagnosis: Psoriasis
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111
Q
A
  1. Tinea Corporis (body)
    - Asymmetrical presentation
    - Is an annular type of lesion with an active edge
    - Edge can be raised with a possible pustule
    - Will be scaly along the edges
    - Will be slowly progressing over weeks and weeks
    - Areas of central clearing
    - The only manifestation in darker skin may be silvery scale
    - Differential diagnosis: Crusted scabies, Leprosy, Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
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112
Q

Know the importance and aietology of Pyoderma and its complications and why it occurs in ATI populations

A

 Is any skin infection that is pyogenic (has pus) caused by some sort of bacteria
 This includes superficial bacterial infections like impetigo, ecthyma, folliculitis, furuncle, carbuncle and tropical ulcers
 Skin sores are endemic amongst Aboriginal children in Australians northern tropical regions, and are most commonly caused by Group A Streptococcus (GAS)
(worse in the dry season as they experience more minor trauma that allows GAS to penetrate)
 Whilst the initial infections can be dealt with, infection by Group A Streptococcus is linked to a number of very serious conditions including;
1. Acute Rheumatic Fever
2. Rheumatic Heart Disease
3. Acute Post Streptococcal Glomerulonephritis
 Therefore, if we can reduce GAS infections, we can improve their long-term health

 Scabies is also an extremely important cause of these pyoderma skin sore infections

  1. Oral antibiotics
  2. Intramuscular Injection of antibiotics
  3. Topical methods
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113
Q
A

SCABIES
 Is a condition caused by adult mites which burrow through the stratum corneum
 Mites are transferred by body to body contacts (cannot live outside of a host for long at all)
 Each day, a mite will lay 2-3 eggs a day which take about 2-3 weeks to mature
 Scabies results in a generalised erythematous pruritic rash that is caused by an allergic reaction to the faeces and eggs produced by the scabies (not from the burrowing)
 The clinical presentation characteristics are outlined below;
- Takes about 4 – 6 weeks for the itch and rash to develop
- The itch is worse at night
- The rash typically presents on the trunk
- Burrows are grey-white slightly scaly tortuous lines up to 1cm long (are often easily missed)

  • In Adults: They like between fingers, in finger webbing, the sides of hands and the flexural aspects of the wrists. They also like elbows, ankles, feet, nipples and genitals. They very rarely occur on the face
  • In Children: The palms of hands and the soles of feet (not in adults as skin is too thick), and can often occur on the face and neck
     Diagnosis of scabies is quite difficult. Confirmation is made with a scrapping under microscopy from a burrow.
    1. Scabicide / Permethrin 5% creme
  • Is first line (due to its efficiency and safety)
  • This should be applied from the neck down and left for 8 hours and repeated in a weeks’ time (in case some scabies edge hatch later on)
  • Every time you wash your hands the crème should reapplied (if not treatment will fail)
    2. Benzyl Benzoate 25%
  • Is a second choice as it is more irritating then permethrin
  • Leave on for 24 hours and repeat in a week
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114
Q

Know Head lice and body lice with treatments

A
  1. Head Lice
  2. Body Lice (Lives on your clothes not your body)
  3. Pubic Lice (Widest claws)

 The main features of all of them are severe itching, following by scratching and eventually a secondary infection
 They reproduce by attaching eggs to hairs and clothing, which are small white structures known as nits
HEAD LICE INFESTATION
 Head lice infestation are very common and occur in over 10% of children
 The peak age of incidence is between 4 – 11 years of age and is typically more common in females
 It is spread by person to person head contact (lice cannot fly)
 In terms of the clinical presentation, the following is typical of a head lice infestation;
- Itching (may develop over months) caused by a delayed hypercreativity reaction
- Nits
- May see excoriations or local lymphadenopathy
 Head lice infestation may result in a secondary bacterial infection
 When attempting to diagnose a head lice infestation, apply conditioner (stuns the lice for 20minutes) and wet comb the hair, you should then wipe the comb on paper towel to identify nits and lice
 Nits more then 1.5cm away from the skin are unlikely to contain live larvae and instead show an old infestation
 Treatment involves repeating the same process described above daily, until there are no more lice (the conditioner suffocates the lice and the combing physically removes the lice). After the nits are gone, the same process should be repeated weekly for several weeks to detect any reoccurrence
 Malathion and permethrin preparations are developing resistance. Regardless daily wet combing is still required
 Prevention of head lice infestation includes;
- Wash clothes and brushes in hot water
- Don’t share towels

BODY LICE INFESTATION
 Infestation by body lice is uncommon except in extreme circumstances of severe poverty poor hygiene (e.g. war, famine)

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115
Q

Basic Mosquito and flea bites presentation

A

 When an insect bites, they often inject a chemical (like an anticoagulant or venom) that causes a painful inflammatory and sometimes allergic reaction
 Different people respond differently depending on their own immunological reaction
 Continued biting will develop red pruritic papules after 1 – 4 days (can last up to 2 weeks)
 Bullous reactions are also common on the legs of children
 There is something known as popular urticarial, which is an allergic reaction to bites (more common in children and new visitors who are desensitized)

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116
Q
A

ACUTE SYSTEMIC LUPUS ERYTHEMATOSUS
 Is the most serious type of Lupus Erythematosus that is often fatal in remote aboriginal communities
 It effects multiple organ systems and has a high mortality
 The clinical features of Acute Systemic Lupus Erythematosus are outlined below;
- Presents typically with a characteristic butterfly rash on the patients’ cheeks, nose and forehead (can sometimes effect the lips, scalp and trunk)
- Hypopigmentation (patches of lighter skin) and scarring
- Erythema on the edge of the hyperpigmented lesion
- There is often lower lip involvement (friable and swollen)
 Lupus is aggravated by sunlight
 Patients with this disease are at risk of the following complications;
1. SCC development on the areas of hypopigmentation (lips and scarring) as they have lost their natural protection
2. Renal disease
3. Increase risk of infection (which can be fatal)
4. Permanent scarring and discoloration
5. Serious risk to newborn if mother is not treated
 Treatment of Acute Systemic Lupus Erythematosus is through sun avoidance, potent topical corticosteroids and systemic immunosuppressive medications

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117
Q
A

SUBACUTE LUPUS ERYTHEMATOSUS
 Is characterised by a non-itchy, dry, well marginated plaque on the upper back and chest that often arises following sun exposure
 It is uncommon for this type of lupus to involve significant internal systemic disease
 The lesions of this type of lupus can shows the following characteristics;
- Annular or polycyclic (meaning ring shaped)
- Papulosquamous (scaly bumps)
- Vasculitis (purple spots)
- Nodular (lumps)
- Well marginated
- Symmetrical

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118
Q
A

DISCOID LUPUS ERYTHEMATOSUS
 Is the most common form of lupus
 It is characterised by unsightly red scaly plaques that develop in areas of sun exposure
 Discoid LE predominately effects the cheeks, nose and ears (but can also involve the upper back, V of neck and the backs of hands)
 Discoid LE can be localised or widespread, and eventually results in post inflammatory pigmentation and hypopigmented scars
 Treatment is with potential topical corticosteroid cream
 Is a cause of form of scarring alopecia (hair loss)

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119
Q
A

Acanthosis Nigricans: INSULIN RESISTANCE DIABETES
 There has been a large increase in insulin resistant diabetes in the aboriginal population that is associated with poorer health outcomes
 Some important causative factors behind this increase is the social disadvantage they face, the limited economic opportunity they have, the poor-quality diet they eat and rapid weight gain
 Insulin resistance results can commonly result in; Blindness, Renal disease and Cardiovascular mortality
 Insulin resistance diabetes has a number of important clinical presentations including;
1. Acanthosis Nigricans
- Is a pigmentation and thickening of the skin on the back of the neck, armpit and groin (skin folds)
- It is commonly associated with insulin resistance or diabetes (it is a cutaneous sign of underlying disease)
- Is often the first presentation of insulin resistance (does not necessarily mean they have diabetes)
- It is also associated with an increased risk of cancer

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120
Q

Aware of the possible different perceptions of causes of skin diseases by Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander People

A
  1. Genetic and Racial differences
    - Indigenous Australians are more likely to experience keloid scarring (excessive scarring) after trauma
    - Because of the darker pigmented / black skin, common skin conditions like atopic dermatitis (eczema) or psoriasis can be quite difficult to diagnose
  2. Geographic
    - Whether they live in Cities, rurally or in remote areas
  3. Socioeconomic
    - Indigenous Australians typically live in lower socioeconomic places meaning access to health care and living conditions are not ideal
  4. Language, education and hearing
    - English is often not their first language
    - Education levels are typically lower
    - Recurrent ear infections in children can often cause hearing deficits meaning people simple cannot hear what you are saying
  5. Social factors
    - A long history of conflict between our indigenous population and the rest of the community has led to distrust forming between Indigenous Australians and non-indigenous doctors, or figures of authority
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121
Q

Aware of the possible different perceptions of causes of skin diseases by Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander People

A
  1. Genetic and Racial differences
    - Indigenous Australians are more likely to experience keloid scarring (excessive scarring) after trauma
    - Because of the darker pigmented / black skin, common skin conditions like atopic dermatitis (eczema) or psoriasis can be quite difficult to diagnose
  2. Geographic
    - Whether they live in Cities, rurally or in remote areas
  3. Socioeconomic
    - Indigenous Australians typically live in lower socioeconomic places meaning access to health care and living conditions are not ideal
  4. Language, education and hearing
    - English is often not their first language
    - Education levels are typically lower
    - Recurrent ear infections in children can often cause hearing deficits meaning people simple cannot hear what you are saying
  5. Social factors
    - A long history of conflict between our indigenous population and the rest of the community has led to distrust forming between Indigenous Australians and non-indigenous doctors, or figures of authority
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122
Q

Identify the different variants of endogenous eczema.

A
  1. Atopic Dermatitis
  2. Seborrheic Dermatosis
  3. Asteatotic Dermatitis
  4. Discoid Dermatitis (also known as nummular dermatitis)
  5. Stasis Dermatitis (also known as gravitational dermatitis)
  6. Pompholyx (dyshidrotic dermatitis)
  7. Otitis Externae
    - Is a mixed form of endogenous and exogenous dermatitis
    - Is inflammation of the ear canal itself
    - Can be caused by endogenous causes (wet ear and bacteria) or seborrheic dermatitis or psoriasis etc.
    - Explored more in ENT lectures
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123
Q

Name the diseases that may occur in a patient with atopic eczema.

A

It is the most common form of dermatitis, and usually occurs in people who have what is known as an atopic tendency, which is a tendency to develop allergic diseases like allergic rhinitis (hay fever), asthma and obviously atopic dermatitis

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124
Q

Identify the immunological abnormalities found in atopic eczema.

A
  1. Immune dysregulation
    - 80% of patients have increased serum levels of IgE
    - It is important to note that the increased IgE is not the cause of the dermatitis, it is a response to the factors which are causing the dermatitis (treating IgE will not treat atopic dermatitis)
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125
Q

Recall the level of the prevalence of atopic eczema in the Australian population.

A

 Atopic dermatitis affects 15 – 20% of children, But only 1 – 2% of adults
 The typical age of onset is between 4 months and 2 years of age (can manifest in older people for the first time)

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126
Q

.

A

ATOPIC DERMATITIS
CAUSE: environmental factors or allergens – such as cold and dry weather, dampness, and more specific things such as house dust mites, pet fur, pollen and moulds.
- Severe itching
- A patchy, erythematous, poorly defined rash (usually in the popliteal and cubital fossa and face, but can happen anywhere on the skin)
- Xeroderma (dry skin)
- Excoriation
- Lichenification
- Crusting (scabbing) and weeping (loss of fluid through the surface of the skin) due to bacterial infection

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127
Q
A

SEBORRHEIC DERMATITIS – INFANTILE
 Usually starts in the first few weeks and continues until around 6 months of age
 It is thought to be due to overactive sebaceous glands in the skin of newborn babies as a result of the mothers’ hormones in the baby’s circulation. These glands release a greasy substance that makes old skin cells attach to the top of the scalp as they dry and fall off (known as cradle cap)
 Babies will present with an erythematous, non-itchy, well defined rash that is covered in greasy scale over the face, scalp, neck, axillae and nappy area
 1/3 of cases are self-limiting and resolve in weeks
 Whilst psoriasis and atopic dermatitis can present similarly, they tend to develop a more typical rash over months
 A super-infection by Staphylococcus Aureus and Candida albicans is common and will result in weeping and crusting

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128
Q

.

A

SEBORRHEIC DERMATITIS – ADULT
 Usually appears at any age after puberty
 It fluctuates in severity and can persist for years
 It is exacerbated by emotional and physical stress
 It is typically involves the scalp, within the eyebrows, on the edges of eyelids, inside and behind the ears and in the creases behind the nose. It also can involve the chest, flexures and the genital areas
 Adult seborrheic dermatitis presents as an erythematous, well defined, fine greasy scale that is well defined on the cheeks, nose and nasolabial folds
- Ille defined dry pink or skin coloured patches
- Yellowish or white bran-like scale
- Can spread to the entire scalp
 When it affects the skin folds of the armpits and groin

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129
Q
A

NUMMULAR DERMATITIS (DISCOID)
 The term nummular refers to small round discs, thus nummular dermatitis is characterised by lesions that are;
- Very itchy
- Round plaques
- Have a dry cracked surface
- A very well-defined edge
- They can be between 2mm and 7cm in diameters
- Patches are pink, red or brown
 Nummular dermatitis can affect any part of the body, but usually affect the lower leg
 Patches can persist for weeks and months
 Because these lesions are so itchy, Licehnification often occurs very rapidly

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130
Q
A

ASTEATOTIC DERMATITIS
 Is a very common type of dermatitis that is made worse in winter and by hot showers (remove your natural oils)
 It is characterised by a cracked or paving stone like appearance
 The most common site is the shins, but also occur on the upper limbs and trunk
 Mild cases often go unnoticed, but it can become extremely itchy which often makes it much worse
 Its distinctive diamond shaped plates of skin are separated by red bands
 Managed: moderate use of hot showers and corticosteroid ointment if needed

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131
Q
A

STASIS (GRAVITIONAL) DERMATITIS
 Is seen in patients with venous insufficiency, who are typically middle aged and older adults
 Patients often have varicose veins or Deep Venous Thrombosis (DVT)
 The specific clinical signs are outlined below;
- Dry, thick scale and brown hyperpigmentation (as a result of diapedesis of red blood cells into the dermis) on their lower legs and ankles
- Can be on one side as it is caused by venous insufficiency which can be unilateral
- Affected skin is red and scaly and may ooze, crust and crack
- Often associated with venous ulceration
- Affected legs can be swollen and with marked erythema, cellulitis and ‘woody’ oedema
- It is frequently very itchy

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132
Q
A

POMPHOLYX DERMATITIS
 Also known as Dyshidrotic dermatitis, is a type of dermatitis that affects the palms, sides of fingers and the soles of feet
 Presents as a vesicular bullous dermatitis
 The clinical presentation of pompholyx dermatitis is outlined below;
- The acute stage will present with tiny vesicles deep in the skin of the palms, fingers soles of feet or toes
- These vesicles are often very itchy or have a burning feeling
- These can be mild will only a small amount of peeling, or severe with big blisters and cracks
- The more chronic stages show more peeling, cracking or crusting
- The skin may heal in this time, and the blistering may start again
 Severe forms around the nail folds may cause nail dystrophy (irregular ridges and chronic

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133
Q

Identify the precipitating factors in atopic eczema.

A
  1. Family history
    - The most common are allergic rhinitis, asthma and atopic dermatitis
  2. Immune dysregulation
    - 80% of patients have increased serum levels of IgE
    - It is important to note that the increased IgE is not the cause of the dermatitis, it is a response to the factors which are causing the dermatitis (treating IgE will not treat atopic dermatitis)
  3. Abnormal epidermal barrier
    deficiency in the gene that programs the epidermal protein filaggrin
    - This results in an impaired skin barrier that holds water poorly and is more susceptible to irritants and allergens
  4. Susceptibility to infection
    - This is caused by a deficiency in a peptide known as defensin which is present in the epidermis
    - This results in a reduced immune response to infectious agents
  5. Environmental irritants
    - As a result of their impaired epidermal barrier, patients tolerate certain common environmental conditions and substances poorly
    - This includes things like soap, sand, woollen and synthetic fabrics and dust
    - Many cases are made worse in hot conditions
    - Most are improved in humid weather (as it helps hydrate the skin)
  6. Allergy
    - Although many patients have raised IgE to specific allergens, dermatitis is not considered to be an allergic disease
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134
Q

Nominate appropriate investigations for patients with atopic eczema.

A

IgE levels.
skin-prick testing.
patch testing.
skin biopsy.

plus either family history, symptoms in the flex areas.

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135
Q

How to use topical corticosteroids

A

TOPICAL CORTICOSTEROIDS
 As a general rule, the thicker the skin, the more potent the steroid that should be used;
- Face, eyelids, genital, flexures: Hydrocortisone 1% crème (mild)
- Trunk and limbs: Betamethasone valerate 0.02% crème (medium)
- Palms, soles, elbows, knees: Bethamethasone dipropinate 0.01% (potent)
- Thick nodules of lichenification: Bethamethasone dipropinate 0.05% (very potent) or Clobetasol propionate 0.05% (super potent)
 For severe cases, a potent topical steroid can be used for up to 2 weeks to achieve remission regardless of age (the potency can then be reduced)
 Children normally use mild, but at times you will need stronger (e.g. acute flare ups of dermatitis for a week)
 There are 3 types of steroid vehicles;
1. Creams
- Are water based and contain preservatives
- Patients love them as they are easy to spread and aren’t greasy
- Best used for acute dermatitis (moist)
2. Ointments
- Are oil based so very greasy
- Patients do not like them as they are harder to spread
3. Gels and Lotions
- Are alcohol based so may sting when they are applied
- Are commonly used for the scalp

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136
Q

Advise a patient about the risks and benefits of topical corticosteroids.

A

 Some of these side effects and risks include;
- Has the potential to mask infection (particularly tinea)
- Irritation and stinging on application
- Atrophy of skin lead to striae (stretch marks) brushing and visible veins
- Erythema and telangiectasias
- Peri-oral dermatitis (inflammatory rash around the mouth)
- Glaucoma

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137
Q

Recognise common concerns of parents of children with atopic eczema.

A
  1. it is important to first explain that whilst the prognosis is good (most cases resolve), the condition is not curable
  2. You should then discuss lifestyle modifications to avoid exacerbating factors such as;
    - Avoid wool and synthetics
    - Avoid soaps and shampoos
    - Avoid HOT baths
    - Avoid cold windy weather as it exacerbates the condition
  3. Understand the psychological issues
    - It is a very stressful condition requiring constant time-consuming effort
  • not transmissible
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138
Q

How to treat dermatitis

A

ATOPIC DERMATITIS – TREATMENT
1. it is important to first explain that whilst the prognosis is good (most cases resolve), the condition is not curable
2. You should then discuss lifestyle modifications to avoid exacerbating factors such as;
- Avoid wool and synthetics
- Avoid soaps and shampoos
- Avoid HOT baths
- Avoid cold windy weather as it exacerbates the condition
3. Patients should then be encouraged to use moisturises and bath additives
- Use emollients (any moisturiser) and bath oils (the greasier the better)
- E.g. 50% liquid paraffin and 50% white soft paraffin
- Patients should avoid perfumed emollients
- Warm daily bath helps remove scale and bacteria
4. A patient should be prescribed some topical anti-inflammatory agent
- Is the mainstay of treatment for atopic dermatitis
- Topical corticosteroids (TCS) are used most often however newer topical immunomodulators (TIMS) are also sometimes used but they are not as potent, efficient and are more expensive
5. Understand the use of anti-histamines
- Anti-histamines are used for allergic reactions
- Atopic dermatitis is not caused by the same reaction, meaning an anti-histamine will do anything (except sedate the child)
6. Wet dressings (soaked cotton balls under a dressing) over emollients should be used for acute flare ups to stop itching and nocturnal scratching
7. Discuss possible investigation and treatment of allergy (whilst it is not the cause of the disease, in very very rare cases it may be)
8. Understand the psychological issues
- It is a very stressful condition requiring constant time-consuming effort
- Many patients are fearful of treatment
 If after a swab and M/C/S you find an underlying infection, an appropriate antibiotic should be prescribed e.g. Cephalexin against Staph infection

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139
Q

what is the fingerprint unit

A

FINGERTIP UNIT
 One fingertip unit is enough to cover an area of skin twice the size of a flat adult hand with the fingers together
 The quantity of cream in a fingertip unit varies with age;
1. Adult Male: 1 fingertip unit provides 0.5g
2. Adult Female: 1 fingertip unit provides 0.4g
 The amount of cream that should be used varies with the body part;
- One hand: 1 fingertip unit
- One arm: 3 fingertip units
- One foot: 2 fingertip units
- One leg: 6 fingertip units
- Face and neck: 2.5 fingertip units
- Trunk, front and back: 14 fingertip units
- Entire body: about 40 units

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140
Q
A

CHRONIC PLAQUE PSORIASIS
 Is the most common form of psoriasis (90% of cases)
 It is a well-defined, raised, thick plaque with a salmon pink colour covered in a silvery white scale
 It is most common on the elbows, knees and lower back
 Woronoff’s ring and Auspitz sign (vascular bleeding under scale)
 It is persistent and resistant to treatment

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141
Q
A

Scalp psoriosis
 Is one or more scaly plaques in the scalp, most commonly on the back of the head (can affect multiple discrete sites)
 It can occur in isolation or with any other form of psoriasis
 It is characterised by thick silvery white scale on patches of very red skin
 It may extend slightly beyond the hairline but face is sparred
 Does not cause hair loss

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142
Q
A

GUTTATE PSORIASIS
 Is characterised by numerous and often widespread small red macules/papules that appear suddenly all over the body (which rapidly become scaly)

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143
Q
A

PALMOPLANTAR PSORIASIS
 Is psoriasis that presents on the palms of hands and the soles of feet
 It is usually difficult to recognise as lesions are poorly demarcated and barely erythematous (as the skin is so thick)
 It has characteristic scaling, redness and pustules (if you give them large doses of steroids and then suddenly stop them it causes these pustules)
 It is often associated with keratoderma (thickening of the skin)

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144
Q
A

GENITAL PSORIASIS
Is usually well demarcated (unlike dermatitis) but doesn’t typically have the scale.

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145
Q
A

FLEXURAL PSORIASIS (Inverse)
 Is characterised by smooth, well defined plaques that are deep red / salmon pink in colour within body folds
 Due to the moist nature of the skin fold it tends not to have silvery scale, but instead is shiny and smooth
 There may be a fissure in the depth of the skin crease
 Common areas include;
- Armpits
- Groin
- Under breasts
- Buttock cleft
- Umbilicus

146
Q
A

PUSTULAR PSORIASIS
 Is characterised by scaling, red pustules less than 1cm in size on the palms and soles of the feet (but can involve the whole body)
 Is very rare, but very serious
 It is often triggered by withdrawal of systemic steroids (never treat psoriasis with systemic steroids)

147
Q
A

NAIL PSORIASIS
1. Onycholysis
- Refers to when psoriatic nails become loose and separate from the nail bed
- In severe cases, the nail can crumble
2. Pitting
- is a sign of partial loss of cells from the surface of the nail plate
- It is due to psoriasis in the proximal nail matrix
3. Leukonychia
- Areas of white nail plate caused by parakeratosis in the body of the nail plate and is due to psoriasis of the mid-matrix
4. Oil drop / salmon patch
- Is a translucent yellow-red discolouration in the nail bed proximal to onycholysis
- It reflects inflammation and can be tender
5. Subungual hyperkeratosis
- Scaling under the nail due to excessive proliferation of keratinocytes in the nail bed and hyponychium
6. Ridges
- Due to intermittent inflammation which causes growth arrest followed by hyperproliferation in the proximal nail matrix
7. Psoriatic inflammation
- Causes nail plate crumbling
- Splinter haemorrhages
- Spotted lunula

148
Q
A

erythoderma psoriosis
 Is a very rare form of psoriasis that is characterised by skin that is universally and uniformly rede (with variable amounts of scaling)
 Usually precipitated by systemic steroid withdrawal
 Individuals often have a history of unstable psoriasis
 It is associated with malaise, shivering and skin feels hot
 Complications include thermoregulation (increased heat loss causing hypothermia) and haemodynamic (heart failure due to very high CO)

149
Q

I dentify psoriasis in paediatric patients.

A

 Is seen typically in children 8 years of age, and is rarely ever a severe disease
 Children with psoriasis typically have a strong family history, and show;
- Can occur on the face (not often seen in adults)
- Napkin psoriasis
- Cradle cap and scalp scaling
- Nail pits
- Thin, pink and scaly plaques over the elbows and knees
- Persistent genital rashes
- Eyelid rashes
- Guttate psoriasis
- Perleche (dryness and scale at the corner of the mouth)
- Genital rashes
 It is important to note that psoriasis and dermatitis often co-exist in children as they are both extremely common conditions. The important difference is that dermatitis often improves with age, whereas psoriasis may not or may even worsen

150
Q

Clinical features of psoriosis

A
  1. Well defined plaques with a salmon pink base
  2. Adherent silvery scale located centrally (which is thick)
  3. Lesions affect the body symmetrically (bilaterally)
  4. Lesions typically occur on;
    - Elbows and knees
    - Lower back
    - Scalp
    - Doesn’t involve the face on adults but usually involves the face in children
  5. Inconstant itching
    - Not a major feature
    - Repetitive scratching may lead to Lichenification
    - In comparison dermatitis is very itchy (a useful differentiating feature)
  6. Abnormalities of the nails
    - Pitting: Small indents or depression on the nail surface
    - Onycholysis: loosening or separation of the fingernail or toenail from its nail bed
    - Ridges: tiny raised vertical ridges
  7. Positive Auspitz sign
    - Tiny pinpoint bleeds when the layer of psoriatic plaque is removed
  8. Other
    - Goes past the hair margin (unlike dermatitis)
    - Multiple lesions affecting both sides of the body
    - Psoriatic arthritis which cause peripheral polyarthropathy and peripheral enthesopathy
    - Peripheral enthesopathy: refers to a disorder involving the attachment of a tendon or ligament to a bone
151
Q

Identify the precipitating factors in psoriasis such as alcohol, smoking, stress and the association with metabolic syndrome and obesity

A

 Some of the aetiological or causative factors of psoriasis include;
1. Family history
- A positive family history is found in at least 30 – 70% of cases
2. Streptococcal infection
- Often precipitates psoriasis
- Particularly in children where it commonly causes guttae psoriasis (majority resolve after 3 – 4 months)
3. Trauma
- May localise psoriasis to certain places like scars and sites of chronic friction like the knees and elbows (known as the Koebner phenomenon)
4. Medications
- Beta blockers, hydroxychloroquine, Lithium and NSAIDs
- Withdrawal of prednisone
5. Excess alcohol consumption
- If they drink a lot their psoriasis will be made worse
6. Metabolic syndromes
- If you are obese, T2DM will make psoriasis worse
7. Stress
- Both emotional and physical have a role

152
Q

Appreciate the prevalence of psoriasis and psoriatic arthritis.

A

 Psoriasis typically affects people in a bimodal distribution affecting those between 15 – 25 and 50 – 60 years of age (although it can present for the first time at any age)
 It affects 2 – 3% of the population, but only about 1% know they have got it

153
Q

Describe the differential diagnosis of psoriasis

A
  1. Tinea
    - Usually asymmetrical
    - Patchy dry scale with central clearing
    - Made worse in warm weather
    - Fungal scrapping to differentiate
    - May involve the nails
  2. Folliculitis
    - Inflamed hair follicle (psoriasis can happen anywhere)
    - Tender red pustules that can be superficial or deep
    - Affects anywhere where hair is
    - Commonly confused with staph infections
  3. Discoid dermatitis
    - Plaques discoid dermatitis is usually very pruritic (psoriasis is usually not itchy at all)
    - Coin shaped and well defined for dermatitis, but do not have as clearly defined a border as psoriasis
    - Mainly on the trunks and limbs
    - Possible atopic history
  4. Skin cancers
    - Usually asymmetrical (no bilateral distribution)
    - Often associated with sun damage
    - No other signs of psoriasis
    - Change over time, they progress
    - No telangiectasias in psoriasis
  5. Seborrheic dermatitis
    - No plaques
    - Poorly defined border
    - Affects sebaceous rich areas of the body
    - Usually does not go beyond the hair lines (unlike scalp psoriasis)
    - Also seen in eyebrows, sternal chest area, back, axilla and groin
  6. Pityriasis Rosacea
    - May be confused with guttae psoriasis
    - Proceeded by a respiratory infection 6 – 12 weeks
    - Classic herald patch followed an oval patches with outer scale
    - Affects back, upper thigs, arms and neck
    - Is self-limiting
    - Has a fir tree distribution
  7. Intertrigo
    - Irritant dermatitis in moist skin folds
    - May be confused with flexural psoriasis, however has a less clearly defined border and is isolated to skin fold areas
    - Differentiation is achieved by skin scrapings for dermatophyte infection
  8. Secondary Syphilis
154
Q

List the treatment options for psoriasis

A
  1. Explanation of Chronicity
    - There is no cure, all we can do is lessen the symptoms
    - Any treatment will take at least 6 weeks to show any effect at all
  2. Modification of lifestyle (improve SNAP)
    - Avoid stress (as it commonly aggravates psoriasis)
    - Get regular exercise
    - Give up smoking
    - Limit alcohol intake
    - Avoid medication that worsens their condition
    - Reduce weight (will improve psoriasis and reduced cardiovascular risk)
  3. General Measures
    - Sunshine without burning
    - Baths (soaking in warm water with bath oil or tar solution can soften the psoriasis and lift the scale)
    - Emollients (should be regularly applied)
    - Keratolytic agents (may be useful to decrease the amount of scaling e.g. salicylic acid 2 – 10% in an emollient cream base and is used to take of the scale before treating with other topical agents)
    - Rest
  4. Investigations
    - Perform a swab to ensure they don’t have an underlying streptococcal infection
  5. Pharmacotherapy
    - Topical treatments (topical Corticosteroids, Tar Creams, Dithranol, Calcipotriol, Tazarotene) for mild or localised psoriasis
    - Oral systemic medications (Methotrexate, Acitretin, Cyclosporin) for severe cases
  6. Other
    - Ultraviolet treatment
    - PUVA
155
Q

Advise a patient about management and prognosis of psoriasis

A

 As many as 1 in 3 psoriasis patients also suffer from what is known as psoriatic arthritis, which is an erosive arthritis condition resulting in painful, stiff and swollen joints (particularly the sacroiliac joints and distal interphalangeal joints)
 We do not have a cure for psoriasis, it varies in intensity for the rest of your life

156
Q

most common type of skin flora

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis is the most common one found on the surface of the skin

157
Q
A

TINEA BARBAE
 Is an infection of the beard and moustache areas with a dermatophyte fungus
 It generally only affects adult men and is most commonly seen in agricultural settings in farmers who have direct contact with infected animals (it is rarely passed from one person to another)
 The clinical presentation of tinea barbae is as follows;
- Very inflamed with red lumpy areas
- Pustules and crusting forms around hairs (known as a kerion)
- It is not excessively painful or itchy
 Diagnosis is confirmed by microscopy and culture of skin scrapings and hair pulled out by the roots

158
Q
A

TINEA FACIEI
 Is an infection of face (not including the beard and moustache area) with a dermatophyte fungus
 It is very uncommon (and is often misdiagnosed)
 The clinical presentation is outlined below;
- It resembles ringworm
- Can be acute or chronic in its onset
- Tinea faciei has characteristic round red scaly patches (that are often less red and scaly in the middle or can even been healed in the middle)

159
Q
A

TINEA PEDIS
 Is an infection of the feet by a dermatophyte fungus
 It is the most common type of fungal infection as it is extremely common at swimming pools, in showers and in occlusive foot wear
 Tinea pedis has 3 common clinical features;
1. Soggy inter-digital scaling (particularly between the 4th and 5th toes)
2. A diffuse scaling of the soles

160
Q
A

TINEA UNGUIUM
 Tinea unguium becomes increasingly common with age (it is rarely seen in children)
 It can result in complete destruction of the nail, and is often caused by untreated tinea pedis or tinea manuum
 Tinea unguium may affect one or more toenails and / or fingernails. It most commonly involves the great toenail or little toenail
 In terms of its clinical presentation, tinea unguium can present in several different patterns;
1. Lateral onychomycosis: a white or yellow opaque streak at one side of the nail
2. Subungual hyperkeratosis: scaling occurs under the nail
3. Distal onycholysis: The end of the nail lifts up, and then the free edge typically crumbles
4. Superficial white onychomycosis: Flaky white patches and pits appear on the top of the nail plate
5. Proximal onychomycosis: yellow spots appear in the lunula (half-moon thingo)

161
Q
A

FUNGAL FOLLICULITIS
 Most common is follicular eruptions from Malassezia
 Clinical features:
- Pustular eruption
- Most often on the back
 Diagnosis via fungal M/C
- Bacterial culture is negative and thus doesn’t respond to antibiotics
 Management includes tropical antifungals but if ineffective oral fluconazole

162
Q
A

CUTANEOUS CANDIDIASIS
 Candida albicans and species are normal commensals of mouth, vaginal tract & lower GIT
 Predisposing factors include warm wet occlusive conditions, macerated skin, immunosuppression (diabetes, drugs, infancy, pregnancy) and fungal folliculitis
 Clinical features:
- Red macerated areas with glistering surface and scaling along an advancing border
- Satellite pustules beyond the main border are important
 Diagnosis is via fungal M/C
 Management includes topical treatment, get inflammation under control, use oral fluconazole if topical treatment failed and address predisposing factors

163
Q

Recognise the cutaneous changes that may occur in diabetic patients.

A
  1. Necrobiosis Lipoidica
    - Is fairly uncommon, only 3% of diabetics experience this
    - Usually appears on the front of their shins, ulcerates
    - These early plaques are violaceous in colour (violet), but atrophy to become brown-red or slightly yellow
  2. Diabetic Dermopathy
    - Occurs in 50% of Type 1 diabetics
    - Presents as multiple small brownish scars on skin (mostly the shin)
    - Requires no treatment
  3. Granuloma Annulare
    - Is a skin coloured, slightly pink annular lesion
    - It is very common
    - The cause of is unknown
    - It is only associated with diabetes if there are multiple lesions
  4. Candida infections
  5. Staphylococcal infection
  6. Vitiligo
    - Is acquired circumscribed depigmentation
    - It is caused by complete loss of melanocytes (skin is otherwise normal)
    - Is an autoimmune disease
    - It is hard to treat, areas of depigmentation are at increased risk of skin cancer (no protective melanocytes)
  7. Eruptive Xanthomas
    - Crops of yellow papules with erythematous base in poorly controlled T2D
  8. Neuropathic Foot ulcers
  9. Acrochordonas (skin tags)
    - Pedunculated outgrowths of normal skin on a narrow stalk
    - Sign of hyperinsulinemia
  10. Acanthosis Nigricans
    - Hyperpigmented, velvety thickening of the skin folds
164
Q

Recount the cutaneous signs of thyroid disease.

A

THYROID DISEASE
1. Hyperthyroidism (Graves’ Disease)
- Pretibial myxoedema (Diffuse nodular swelling of the front of the shins)
- Heat intolerance and therefore sweat a lot
- Facial flushing
- Palmer erythema
- Diffuse hair loss (fine and soft)
- Thyroid acropathy triad – clubbing, soft tissue swelling of hands and feet and periosteal reaction in long bones
2. Hypothyroidism (Hashimoto’s)
- Diffuse hair loss and the hair can be dry, course and brittle
- Dry yellow skin
- Itchy skin
- Puffiness of eyes, face and hands
- Loss of outer third of eyebrows (and all other body hair)
- Weight gain
- Brittle nails
- Cold sensitive

165
Q

 List the cutaneous changes that may occur in patients with cardiac disease.

A

CARDIAC DISEASE

  • Peripheral and central cyanosis
  • Erythema (due to compensatory polycythaemia)
  • Finger clubbing
  1. Splinter haemorrhages (in nail bed)
  2. Roth Spots (conjunctiva)
  3. Osler’s nodes (hands)
  4. Janeway lesions (palms)
  5. Septic Embolic
     These signs are very rare, and do not always indicate endocarditis
166
Q

 List the cutaneous changes that may occur in patients with hepatic disease.

A
  1. Pruritis
    - Is an uncomfortable irritating sensation that creates an urge to scratch
    - It is the most common of the cutaneous symptoms of the disease
    - It commonly affects the hands and feet, and is made worse at night
    - Due to cholestasis and it is difficult to deal with and difficult to treat
  2. Jaundice
    - Is characterised by a yellowish tinge
    - It initially occurs in the sclerae of the eye, and develops to cover the whole skin
    - Caused by the build-up of bilirubin
  3. Palmer and Facial Erythema
    - Most common on the thenar and hypothenar eminence
    - May occur on the face
  4. Spider Naevi
    - Is a type of telangiectasias (swollen blood vessels) found just beneath the skin surface that appear ass a central red spot, with reddish extensions that radiate outwards like a spider’s web
    - Commonly found on the upper body and trunk in cirrhosis of the liver
  5. Nails
    - Patients may have striated or white nails
    - These appear as half and half nails (pallor proximal nails and erythema distal half of the nails)
  6. Bruising
    - As a result of inability to produce clotting factors
  7. Feminization
    - The inability to metabolise oestrogen causes hair loss and gynecomastia in males
  8. Other
    - Photosensitivity
    - Skin erosion and mucosal changes (deficiencies in zinc)
    - Classic rashes of pellagra (lack of vitamin B)
167
Q

Recognise the skin changes that may be an indication of underlying malignancy at a basic level.

A
  1. Cancers
    - Easily seen if tumour invades the skin or undergoes metastasis
  2. Acanthosis Nigricans
    - Malignant causes include: Gastric cancer, Lesions present in mouth, tongue and lips, Abdominal malignancy
  3. Dermatomyositis
    - Is an acquired inflammatory muscle disease marked by muscle weakness and skin rash
  4. Generalised Pruritis
  5. Superficial Thrombophlebitis
    - Is an inflammatory condition of the veins because of a blood clot just below the surface of the skin
    indicates pancreatic cancer
  6. Erythroderma
    - Is a skin rash that covers more than 90% of the body
    - It rarely causes cancer, but is more likely to indicate poorly controlled psoriasis or dermatitis
  7. Sweets Syndrome
    - Is a sudden onset of painful oedematous, erythematous – blue plaques on the face, neck and limbs
    - It is associated with: Streptococcal Throat Infection, Haematological Malignancy and some Solid Neoplastic Tumours
  8. Pyoderma Gangrenosum
    - Is a painful ulcerative disease
    - It usually starts as a little papule and spreads to an enlarging ulcer
    - Needs a skin biopsy
168
Q

Recognise the skin signs of dermatomyositis.

A
  1. Dermatomyositis
    - Is an acquired inflammatory muscle disease marked by muscle weakness and skin rash
    - The cause is unknown, it is probably autoimmune
    - Over 30% of adults who have this condition have an underlying malignancy e.g. lung, breast, gastric, ovarian and uterine cancers
    - Patients will present with faint Lilac discolouration around the eyes (Heliotrope rash)
    - They will have malar erythema (similar to the butterfly rash)
    - They will have lilac, slightly atrophic papules over the knuckles
    - They will experience photosensitivity
    - Their nail cuticles will be ragged
    - They will have proximal myopathy (really weak, they will have trouble getting out of chairs etc.)
    - Dysphagia and weight loss
169
Q

Recognise the skin sings of systemic sclerosis.

A

 Is a connective tissue disorder characterised by the hardening of the skin (can be local or systemic)

170
Q

Demonstrate an understanding of the differential diagnosis of Hair loss.

A
  1. Alopecia Areata
  2. Alopecia Totalis
  3. Alopecia Universalis
  4. Androgenetic Alopecia
  5. Trichotillomania
  6. Telogen effluvium
  7. Anagen Effluvium
  8. Hirsutism
  9. Hypertrichosis
171
Q

Nominate the causes and appropriate investigation of a patient with diffuse alopecia.

A

ALOPECIA AREATA
 Is an autoimmune disease characterised by discrete, annular areas of hair loss anywhere on the body
 It is caused by inflammation of the anagen hair bulb which stops hair growth and starts the catagen phase of the hair cycle
 Is the most common hair disease presentation
 The hair will grow back in most cases, but people will typically have repeated episodes of hair loss
 It most commonly occurs on the scalp, eye brows and beard
 The clinical progression of the disease is outlined below;
- There is an initial sudden onset of hair loss
- Hair loss continues, the areas of hair loss are smooth and completely devoid of hair. Some areas may have scattered exclamation mark hairs (are hairs that are 2 – 3mm in length, broken or tapered with a club-shaped root)
- It may take months or years to regrow all the hair
- One patch can be falling out while another is regrowing
- Hair that does regrow is often white or grey and can be curly when it was previously straight

172
Q
A

HIRSUTISM
 Is the term used for increased male pattern hair growth in women
 It is a very common condition that is nearly always genetic in origin
 Some common hair growths include a moustache and beard, midline of chest or hair growth that is more thick on the limbs
 Obviously, what is considered normal is dependent on cultural and race factors

173
Q
A

BULLOUS PEMPHIGOID
 Is a rare autoimmune skin condition that causes large, fluid filled blisters
 It is caused by Ig antibodies targeting the basement membrane causing the separation of the epidermis and the dermis
 Patients present with the following clinical features;
- Nonspecific dermatitis or urticarial rash that may remain for months (prior to the bullae beginning)
- Bullae are filled, tense and pruritic
- Have no mucosal involvement
- Nilolsky sign is negative (a positive sign is when you pull skin and it tears away)
 Diagnosis is achieved by a skin biopsy and direct immunofluorescence
 Treatment involves a potent topical steroid or oral steroids

174
Q

CUSHING SYNDROME

A

 Is a condition that occurs as a result of exposure to chronic high levels of corticosteroids
 It is most commonly caused by excessive therapeutic doses of steroids by doctors, or by excess secretion from the adrenal glands (e.g. adrenal adenoma)
 The common skin signs include;
- Facial roundness (moon face)
- Red face
- Multiple striae (long scars)
- Fragile skin
- Telangiectasia (dilated small blood vessels)
- Excessive bruising
- Acne
- Excess facial and body hair
- Trunkle obesity (weight gain of midsection and thinning of arms)

175
Q

ADRENAL INSUFFICIENCY

A

ADRENAL INSUFFICIENCY
 Is hypocortisolism (the opposite of Cushing’s syndrome)
1. Addison’s disease
- Autoimmune disease that destroys the adrenal glands resulting in hypocortisolism
 All of them result in inadequate cortisol and mineralocorticoids
 The signs of Addison’s disease are typically non-specific and hard to pick up. Some of the more common features include;
- Hyperpigmentation (due to increase ACTH and MSH secretion) of the skin, buccal surfaces (known as hyperpigmented gingival patches), knees, elbows and genitals

176
Q

what is ALOPECIA TOTALIS

A

 Is characterised by complete loss of all the hair on a patient’s scalp
 Affects up to 5% of patients

177
Q

what is ALOPECIA UNIVERSALIS

A

 Is characterised by complete hair loss over the entire body
 Affects less than 1% of cases of alopecia

178
Q

what is ANDROGENETIC ALOPECIA

A

 Is a common form of hair loss in both men and women, that is characterised by permanent hair loss from the scalp causing baldness
 It occurs in 95% of men and 55% of females and occurs with advancing age
 The cause of androgenetic alopecia is not completely understood, but it is related to hormones and a person’s genetics
 It is a progressive miniaturization of thick pigmented hair to fine hypopigmented hair (as a result of a hypersensitivity of the hair follicle to normal levels of androgens

  1. Male Pattern Alopecia
    - Is characterised by a receding hairline
    - With or without loss on top and front of the head
  2. Female Pattern Alopecia
    - Is characterised by thinning on the vertex of the scalp
    - It is generally less severe than in males
179
Q

what is TRICHOTILLOMANIA

A

 Is a psychiatric disorder that is characterised by recurrent, irresistible urges to pull out body hair
 In other words it is a condition where patients compulsively pull out their hair
 It can vary in severity and causation depending on the patient
 In some patients it can be a stress relieving habit like nail biting, while in others it can signify depression or an impulse control disorder
 A characterising feature of trichotillomania is normal hair regrowth in the balding areas
 Differential diagnosis include Alopecia Areata and Tinea Capitis

180
Q

what is TELOGEN EFFLUVIUM

A

 Is a form of temporary hair loss that usually happens after a stress, a shock or traumatic event
 It occurs when a shock causes the anagen phase to stop early, pushing hair into the 3-month telogen phase. After the 3 months the hairs are released from the follicle causing hair loss
 In other words, It is caused by shedding of resting / telogen hair after some shock to the system

181
Q

Describe cutaneous reactions as an adverse effect of medication.

A

 Usually start within 6 weeks of commencing a new drug
 Can happen on the first dose
 Urticarial and anaphylactic reactions usually start very soon after exposure (within 1 week)
 Exanthematic rashes start after 2 – 3 weeks
 Drug rashes do not always resolve as soon as a drug is ceased
 DESS and TEN may start 2 to 3 weeks after administration
 It is also important to consider;
- Occasionally can take years for onset
- Rash can start after a drug is ceased
- Rashes do not always resolve when the drug is stopped
- Reactions can start in dose increments

182
Q

Describe the management of a Drug reaction

A

 Any widespread rash occurring within 2 3 weeks of commencing a new drug should be suspected of being due to the drug.
 When a patient is on multiple drugs, it is necessary to sort them into those that have been most recently commenced and are temporally \
 eosinophilia and raised LFT’s often accompany drug reactions. Skin biopsy may be helpful.
 tolerate a drug several times in the past without a reaction, it is also very unlikely
 Where a patient is on an essential drug it is possible to continue the drug despite the rash
 In most cases, ceasing the offending drug is all that is required

183
Q

Describe the four common forms of a Drug Reaction

A

The second most common drug reaction is Urticaria. These typically present within 24 – 36 hours of ingestion of the drug, and are commonly as a result of antibiotics, ACE inhibitors, aspirin and NSAIDs. (respond to histamine) There are 4 types of urticarial drug reactions;
1. Uncomplicated Urticaria
- Presents with wheals (raised, oedematous, erythematous round lesions that are evanescent or moving around constantly)
- Very itchy (because of histamine release)
- If it lasts for more than 6 weeks, it is chronic urticaria
2. Serum sickness
- Is a type of immunological reaction where a drug forms immune complexes
- Causes fevers, angio-oedema, lymphadenopathy, arthralgia
- Is a type 3 hypersensitivity response
3. Angio-oedema
4. Anaphylaxis
 The drugs that are most frequently implicated are;
- Antibiotics (Penicillins, Cephalosporins, Sulphonamide)
- Antiretrovirals
- NSAIDs
- Anti-epileptic drugs
- Allopurinol

184
Q

Describe erythema multiforme (EM).

A

ERYTHEMA MULTIFORME
 Is not usually life-threatening although it can be very severe
 It is not a systemic disease and affects only the skin and mucous membranes
 Erythema multiforme is characterised by target lesions that are raised, round papules with a darker dusky or blistered centre, surrounded by a pale oedematous ring with a red edge
 Lesions are relatively small (up to 3cm in diameter) and occur in crops
 The lesions do not migrate (distinguishing them from urticaria)
 They last 1 – 2 weeks before resolving
 There are 2 types; Erythema Multiforme Minor and Erythema Multiforme Major;
1. EM Minor
- is usually the result of infection with herpes simplex virus and occasionally drugs
- Occur mainly on the extremities with no mucosal involvement
- Only usually 1, 2 or 3 lesions
2. EM Major
- Is usually the result of infection with herpes simplex virus (HSV1 and 2) and Mycoplasma Pneumonia
- It involves mucosal surfaces and large areas of skin
- Can cause erosions and can ulcerate which can be severe and painful
 Whilst it can cause significant morbidity it is not life threatening

185
Q

Describe toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN) and Stevens Johnson Syndrome.

A

STEVENS JOHNSON SYNDROME and TOXIC EPIDERMAL NECROLYSIS
 These reactions are almost always drug related
 Both of these conditions occur by the same disease process, what differentiates them is the body surface involved
 Steven Johnson Syndrome (SJS): involves less than 10% epidermal detachment (trunk and face)
 Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis (TEN): involves more than 30% epidermal detachment (generalised)
 The clinical features of these syndromes are outlined below;
- 1 – 3 days of prodromal sore throat, fever, malaise and conjunctivitis that begins 14 – 21 days after the drug is commenced
- There is then blistering and skin loss in sheets (leaving painful raw areas)
- There is also erosion of mucosal surfaces (e.g. conjunctiva, oropharynx, oesophagus, urethra and vagina)
 In addition to the skin effects, these patients can experience multi-organ failure
 Common causative agents of these conditions include;
1. Co-trimazole
2. Lamotrigine
3. Carbamazepine
4. Phenytoin
5. Allopurinol
6. Piroxicam and Meloxicam (NSAIDs)
 If patients survive it, there are severe ocular complications (scarring of the eyes), pigment alterations, sicca syndrome, scaring to mucosal surfaces and vagina as well as scarring to oesophageal structure
 Management is by ceasing all drugs, fluid resuscitation and going to ICU / burns unit
 TENs has a mortality of 40% in patients over 40 years of age (under 40 is 5 – 10%)

186
Q

Describe DRESS

A

DRUG REACTION WITH EOSINOPHILIA AND SYSTEMIC SYMPTOMS
 DRESS syndrome is a very severe reaction to drugs like Anticonvulsants, Antibiotics, Allopurinol, Terbinafine, Antiretrovirals, Azathioprine, Dapsone
 Clinical features of DRESS syndrome include;
- Present 6-8 weeks after drug is ingested
- Fever, Internal organ involvement, malaise, facial oedema, eosinophilia, lymphadenopathy
- Generalised morbilliform rash that progresses to Erythroderma
 Management is with oral steroids as well as stopping the drug
 Symptoms last weeks, mortality due to hepatitis, colitis, myocarditis (organ involvement)

187
Q

Describe Staphylococcal Scolded Skin Syndrome

A

STAPHYLOCOCCAL SCALDED SKIN SYNDROME
 Is characterised by loss of large sheets of epidermis as a result of Staphylococcus Aureus toxins which has haematogenous spread
 Is potentially life threatening, and like Kawasaki disease it occurs in children under 6 years of age (lack of Ab protection and renal excretion)
 Clinical features include;
- Fever
- Macular erythema then superficial blistering
- Miserable and irritable due to skin pain
 Arises from a focal infection e.g. impetigo, bacterial conjunctivitis, staph pneumonia, septic arthritis and/or endocarditis
 Mucous membranes uninvolved and has radial fissuring around though
 Treatment is with early oral antibiotics, analgesia and wound dressing

188
Q

Difference between erythema multiforme and toxic epidermal necrolysis

A

 Recall that erythema multiforme is usually caused by infection and toxic epidermal necrolysis by drugs.

189
Q

Recognise the clinical signs of urticaria and four types.

A

 Is an itchy rash or skin eruption that is characterised by weals, flares and dermal oedema
 The weals present are erythematous, raised, annular lesions that change shape and size and move around the body which involves the dermis
 They can last anywhere between minutes to 24 hours (is very transient)
 Urticaria does not involve the epidermis so no scale, blistering or disruption of the skin surface
 Urticaria is typically very itchy
 Urticaria can be caused by a number of different factors including;
- Food allergens
- Insect toxins (e.g. bees)
- Inhaled substances (e.g. pollen and grasses)
- Medication
- Blood products
- Viral infections
- Physical urticaria (caused by cold, sweating, water, vibration and pressure)

190
Q

Describe the management of Anaphylaxis

A

 Management of anaphylaxis involves;
1. Initial management
- Airways, Breathing, Circulation
2. Remove causative factor
- Any suspect drug or diagnostic contrast agent should be ceased immediately
- Remove allergen from mouth
- Extract bee or wasp parts
3. Oxygen
- Administer oxygen 6 – 8 L/min
4. Adrenaline
- Administer adrenaline IMI (do not delay treatment, must be first line in anaphylaxis)
- This can be repeated at 5-minute intervals and may be given IV once an intravenous line has been inserted
- Adrenaline comes in 1:1000 ampoules containing 1mg of adrenaline in 1mL
- Small Patient: 0.25 mL, Average Patient: 0.5 mL, Large Patient: 0.75 mL
5. Resuscitation
- Intravenous fluid replacement if hypotensive
- Bronchodilators if in bronchospasm and anti-histamines
 It is important to remember that these anaphylactic reactions are bi-phasic, meaning they get better and then get worse again (usually occurs 4 – 6 hours after the initial attack)

191
Q

Describe Kawasaki Disease and its significance

A

KAWASAKI DISEASE
 Is a multisystem vasculitis that has cutaneous, mucosal and systemic manifestations
 It commonly affects children under 5 years of age
 20% of cases of Kawasaki disease can result in coronary artery lesions, which if untreated can lead to aneurysm, thrombosis, myocardial infarction and death
 The exact cause of Kawasaki disease is unknown, and there is no specific diagnostic test
 The diagnosis is instead made on the basis of the following 6 criteria;
1. Fever >40°C for 5 days or more
2. Strawberry tongue
3. Redness and oedema of the hands and feet (followed by desquamation after 10 to 15 days)
4. Polymorphic rash
5. Conjunctival injection
6. Red, dry, cracked lips and mouth with a strawberry tongue (defining feature)
7. Cervical lymphadenopathy (adenopathy)

192
Q

what is small vessel vasculitis

A

SMALL VESSEL VASCULITIS
 Is vasculitis in the small vessels of the body
 Cause Palpable purpura that are slightly raised and don’t blanch (when diascopy is performed as RBCs can’t move away)
 It commonly occurs in the dependent areas like the lower legs, back, buttocks and legs (dependent areas are where immune complexes are likely to settle due to gravity)
 Damage is caused by polymorphonuclear leukocytes
 Most cases of this form are unknown as it is not a severe disease, usually confined to the skin
 Some examples of small vessel vasculitis include;
1. Acute meningococcaemia
- Is spread by respiratory droplets containing Neisseria meningococcus
- Presents as septicaemia or meningitis
- Symptoms: fever, severe headache, photophobia, myalgia, neck stiffness, arthralgia
2. IgA mediated vasculitis
- Also known as Henoch-Schonlein purpura
- Most common in children, rarely seen in adults
- Presents as palpable purpura associated with arthritis, abdominal pain and nephritis
- Does not have high fevers like meningococcus disease
3. Acute haemorrhagic oedema
- Associated with small babies and toddlers
- It is probably viral in origin
- Typically presents as purpuric plaques and oedema that resolve spontaneously in 1 – 2 weeks
4. Urticarial Vasculitis
- Very rare

193
Q

what is vasculitis

A

VASCULITIS
 Is a skin reaction caused by inflammation of blood vessels (including small, medium and large veins and arteries)
 It typically presents as a purpuric or violaceus coloured rash; however the clinical appearance of the rash is determined by the size of the vessel involved;
- Superficial veins: tend to present with palpable purpura, ulcers and necrosis
- Deeper and larger vessels tend to produce nodules and plaques
- Large vessel vasculitis we are not going to see any skin signs at all
 If a patient has vasculitis, it is always assumed that they have some systemic illness until proven otherwise (the organs most commonly involved are the joints and kidneys, but any organ may be affected)
 Vasculitis is divided into a number of subgroups, the 4 most important are;
1. Small vessel vasculitis
2. Small and medium sized mixed vessel vasculitis
3. Medium sized vessel vasculitis
4. Large vessel vasculitis
 When examining a patient with vasculitis, examine for signs of systemic disease with hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, ocular involvement, CNS abnormalities and joint swelling

194
Q

ACNE VULGARIS

A

ACNE VULGARIS
 Is an inflammatory condition of the pilosebaceous follicle that predominately affects adolescents, and is worse in males
 The condition is characterised by a mixture of lesion types including Comedones, papules, pustules, nodules and cysts that occur in areas where there are large numbers of sebaceous glands, such as on the face, neck, upper chest and back
 Acne can result in scaring in severe cases
 Sebaceous glands are stimulated by androgens
 Cases of acne are categorised into 3 different types based on their severity;
1. Mild acne
- Open comedones (blackheads) and closed comedones (whiteheads)
- In early acne these non-inflammatory comedones may be the only lesions present
- Mild inflammatory papules (occasionally)
- Superficial pustules
2. Moderate acne
- Inflammatory in nature
- Incorporates deeper lesions, papules, large pustules and comedones
3. Severe acne
- Characterised by deep nodules, pustules, cysts and comedones
- Large cysts can be tender and painful
- Usually associated with significant scaring
 Treatment of acne treatment is around prevention of scarring

195
Q

PRE-PUBERTAL ACNE

A

 Can be a marker for development of serious acne during adolescence
 There are two general types of pre-pubertal acne;
1. Infantile acne
- Starts in their first year of life
- Is genetically determined, almost always occurs in males
- Is caused by exposure to maternal hormones in the utero which stimulates the testes to produce testosterone which stimulates the sebaceous glands
- Infantile acne is usually mild, and is mainly associated with comedones and popular lesions
- It is typically self-limiting and resolves by one year of age
2. Mid-childhood acne
- Seen in 5 – 7-year-old of both sex
- Is a mild condition
- It is important that you screen for conditions causing excessive androgen production e.g. congenital adrenal hyperplasia

196
Q

Acne pathogenesis

A
  • The process of acne pathogenesis is initiated by an increased production of sebum within the pilosebaceous follicle in response to androgens which act on receptors in the pilosebaceous glands (the number of receptors significantly increases during puberty)
  • Normally this sebum would be secreted, however because there is a blockage of the pilosebaceous unit by keratin, we get the formation of a comedone. Normally, keratocytes are shed into the hair follicle lumen and disposed of, comedone formation occurs when these keratinocytes are retained accumulating around the lumen blocking this release of sebum
  • At the same time, we also get an over growth of Propionibacterium acnes in the pilosebaceous unit as the formation of the comedone is conducive to their growth (the number of bacteria is not related to severity)
  • As a result of these factors we get rupture of the sebaceous unit
  • This rupture, in addition to the presence of T cells, neutrophils and inflammatory cytokines (in response to the bacterial infection) eventually leads to inflammation, forming the characteristic pustules, red papules, nodules and comedones of acne
  • The type of inflammatory response determines the type of clinical lesion seen. If there are more T cells, we get more inflamed deep nodules, if there are more neutrophils, we get more suppurative pustules formed
  • At the same time hormonal conditions continue to elevate androgen levels perpetuating the pathology
197
Q

ACNE – DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS

A

 The differential diagnosis of acne include;
1. Rosacea
- Usually seen in middle-aged patients
- No comedones
- Accompanied by flushing and telangiectasia
2. Folliculitis and boils
- No comedones
- Sudden onset of monomorphic pustules and deep nodules
- Not always on the face
3. Peri-oral dermatitis
- Type of corticosteroid induced rosacea
- Seen mainly around the mouth and sides of the nose
- Small papules and tiny pustules
- No comedones
4. Keratosis pilaris
- Seen on cheeks of young children
- Keratin plugs, asymptomatic and not usually inflammatory
5. Tinea
- Is only occasionally pustular
6. Tuberous sclerosis
- Firm fixed papules on the nose and central cheeks
- No comedones or pustules

198
Q

ACNE – MANAGEMENT

A
  1. Assess impact
    - Assess their lifestyle. Do they play sports, do they wear sunscreen (oil based), what is there working environment
    - Assess their support in terms of costs and family support (acne treatment can be expensive)
  2. Lifestyle modification (AVOID)
    - Avoid squeezing and picking (if you do this it can lead to cellulitis)
    - Avoid greasy sunscreens and emollients
    - Avoid over washing (as it irritates the skin)
    - Avoid hot spas and steam rooms
    - Avoid dairy products which aggravates acne
    - Avoid a high glycaemic diet
    - Avoid over sun exposure
    - Avoid exacerbating medications anabolic steroids, some OCPs, lithium & phenytoin
  3. Pharmacotherapy
    - Keratolytic
    - Topical antibiotics
    - Topical retinoids
    - Oral antibiotics
    - Hormonal treatment
    - Isotretinoin
199
Q

ACNE INVESTIGATIONS

A

 Investigations are typically not required for acne diagnosis
 Exceptions to this include;
- To rule out fungal and bacterial infection
- Monitor or workup for systemic treatment
- Investigation of androgen excess in women (POS: irregular periods, hirsutism, obesity, acanthosis nigricans. Screening test: serum testosterone)

200
Q

KERATOLYTICS use in acne

A

 Is a substance that reduces the overproduction of keratin (which blocks that pilosebaceous unit causing the widespread comedones)
 Side effects include; skin irritation, flushing and reddening of skin
 Examples of keratolytic agents used include;
1. Salicylic acid 2% in commercial washes and wipes
2. Prescription Salicylic acid 2-5% in ethanol or 70% with water

201
Q

KERATOLYTICS use in acne

A

 Is a substance that reduces the overproduction of keratin (which blocks that pilosebaceous unit causing the widespread comedones)
 Side effects include; skin irritation, flushing and reddening of skin
 Examples of keratolytic agents used include;
1. Salicylic acid 2% in commercial washes and wipes
2. Prescription Salicylic acid 2-5% in ethanol or 70% with water

202
Q

TOPICAL RETINOIDS used in acne

A

Is the most effective topical treatment for comedones as they target all 4 causes of acne (
they help unblock the pilosebaceous unit, they help decrease the hyperproliferation of the keratinocytes and they reduced the infective bacteria and they reduce inflammation)
1. Tretinoin 0.025 / 0.05 / 0.1% crème
2. Isotretinoin 0.05% crème
3. Isotretinoin 0.05% gel
4. Tazarotene 0.05% / 0.1% creme
5. Adapalene 0.1% crème (best tolerated but least effective)
 Side effects of topical retinoids include;
- Skin irritation
- Excessive use causes redness, swelling and peeling
- Photosensitivity
- Potentially teratogenic through systemic absorption

203
Q

MILD ACNE – TREATMENT

A

 One of the key components of mild acne is the comedones. These are treated with a topical retinoid by itself (adapalene, tretinoin, isotretinoin)
 If they have papulopustular form of mild acne, you should add either;
1. Topical antiseptic (Benzylperoxide)
- Use once a day (start out once a day and gradually increase the frequency) as it causes dryness
2. Topical antibiotics (clindamycin or erythromycin)
 Side effects of treatment includes skin irritation, excessive use results in redness, swelling, peeling and blistering

204
Q

MODERATE ACNE – TREATMENT

A

 One of the key components of moderate acne is the comedones. These are treated with a topical retinoid by itself (adapalene, tretinoin, isotretinoin)
 In addition to this therapy you should add;
1. Oral antibiotics
- Tetracycline (doxycycline or minocycline) erythromycin
- Tetracyclines can cause photosensitivity, antibiotic resistance, skin pigmentation, gastric upset and headaches
2. Anti-androgenic hormonal treatment in females
- Oral contraceptive pill
- Spironolactone or Cyproterone

205
Q

SEVERE ACNE – TREATMENT

A

 Severe acne is defined as acne which causing scarring or severe psychosocial problems, or moderate acne which has failed to respond in at least 3 months
 Treatment of severe acne is with Isotretinoin (by itself) `which is prescribed by the dermatologist
 Side effects of this treatment include;
- Skin, mucosal and eye dryness
- Photosensitivity
- Myalgia
- Arthralgia
- Headache
- Increase in serum lipids
- Lethargy
 This drug has a potent teratogenic effect, so special care must be taken in females of child bearing age

206
Q

4 types of Rosacea;

A
  1. Erythematotelangiectatic Rosacea
    - Frequent blushing and flushing
    - Temporary or persistent facial redness in central face
    - Telangiectasia on nose, cheeks and chin
  2. Papulopustular Rosacea
    - Papules and pustules
    - Sensitive skin (common to all rosacea)
  3. Swollen Rosacea
    - Lymphoedema (hot and swollen face)
    - Thickening and orange-peel like skin over the nose, cheeks, forehead and chin
    - Rhinophyma (enlarged bulbous nose more common in men)
  4. Ocular Rosacea
    - Red, sore gritty margins, conjunctivitis, episcleritis
    - Untreated may permanently damage the eyes
    - 50% of people with rosacea
    - 25% of people with eye disease have skin related rosacea
207
Q

 Aggravating factors of rosacea include;

A
  • Alcohol
  • Hot showers, saunas and baths
  • Hot tea and coffee
  • Spicy foods
  • Extremes of temperature
  • Sun exposure
  • Any skin care products that sting and burn
  • Topical corticosteroids
  • Stress and embarrassment
208
Q

 The clinical features that distinguish rosacea include;

A

 The clinical features that distinguish rosacea include;
1. Telangiectasia
2. Central facial erythema
3. Pustules
4. Papules

209
Q

ROSACEA – DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS

A

 The differential diagnosis of rosacea include;
1. Acne: Patients with acne have comedones (which rosacea do not) and is more seen in adolescents
2. Sun damage: Patients have telangiectasia, but none of the other features
3. Lupus Erythematosus: These patients have telangiectasia and erythema in a butterfly distribution, but do not have pustules or papules
4. Menopausal and emotional flushing: Have no pustules or papules
5. Seborrheic dermatitis: These patients have a rash that is scaly and erythematosus, is distributed on the central face but is not associated with telangiectasia and usually not pustules

210
Q

CORTICOSTEROID INDUCED ROSACEA (Peri-oral Dermatitis)

A

 Application of topical corticosteroid to the face results in a rosacea-like rash.
 It most commonly occurs after application of potent topical corticosteroids and is unusual after application of 1% hydrocortisone.
 The rash itself is similar to rosacea, consisting of patchy erythema, papules and pustules.
 The distribution is different to typical rosacea, being centred around the mouth, at the sides of the nose and on the chin. In children, tiny papules are also found around the eyes.
 This rash is very persistent and often unrecognised. It is partially suppressed by the topical corticosteroid but flares, often dramatically, when they are ceased.
 Corticosteroid induced rosacea is treated in the same way as ordinary rosacea with oral tetracycline, however treatment does not have to be prolonged and as long as topical corticosteroids are not used on the face again, a six-week course of treatment is usually sufficient to cure the rash

211
Q

Rosacea therapies

A

ROSACEA – CONSERVATIVE THERAPY
 Avoid aggravating factors particularly topical steroids
 Sun protection with oil free sunscreen
 Use mild soap free cleanser

ROSACEA – TOPICAL THERAPY
 For mild rosacea the following topical therapy is useful;
1. Metronidazaole 0.75% cream
2. Clindamycin 1% lotion or cream

ROSACEA – SYSTEMIC TREATMENT
 Is used for more severe cases, or where there has been an inadequate response to topical therapy
1. Doxycycline 50 – 100 mg/day
 These take at least 5 -12 weeks to exert their effect

ROSACEA – SURGERY
 Vascular laser is used for resistant erythema and telangiectasia
 CO2 laser or cold steel surgery to reduce the hypertrophy of rhinophyma

212
Q

Recognise the signs of actinic damage.

A

 Is a term used to describe the changes that occur to our skin as a result of Actinic damage / exposure to solar radiation
 The earliest signs of actinic changes is freckling (generally babies are born without freckles, and develop them around the age of 2 – 3)
 Actinic changes vary widely, and can range from facial wrinkling and freckles, to solar keratoses, and if not addressed can develop into skin cancers
 In fair people who have grown up in Australia, mild wrinkling and facial telangiectasia start to appear in the late teens and early twenties, as they age a number of different solar induced changes occur
 The typical progression of clinical features of patients with solar induced changes is stepped out below (from young to old);
1. Freckling
2. Facial wrinkling
3. Telangiectasia
4. Solar elastosis (yellow nodularity)
5. Solar comedones (comedones, which are skin coloured papules on the forehead and chin common in acne. Solar comedones is not associated with acne)
6. Solar keratoses
7. Solar lentigos (brown macules)
8. Cutaneous fragility and easy bruising
9. Guttae hypomelanosis (white patches)

213
Q

Recognise the signs of solar keratoses

A

 Is a rough scaly patch on the skin caused by years of sun exposure
 Solar keratosis basically lesions caused by abnormal skin cell development from exposure to ultraviolet radiation
 They are considered to be precancerous (most will not develop into cancer, some may)
 Solar keratosis presents as multiple flat or thickened, scaly or warty, skin coloured or reddened lesions that may develop into a cutaneous horn
 They are most commonly found on sights of repeated sun exposure like the backs of hands and face. On the face they most commonly affect the nose, cheeks, upper lip, temples and forehead
 Solar keratosis are especially common in fair-skinned persons and those who have worked outdoors for long periods without skin protection
 Solar keratosis on the lips is called actinic or solar cheilitis
 Do not necessarily need to treat unless they are annoying the patient

214
Q

Recognise the signs of excess sun exposure.

A

 A sunburn is an acute erythematous reaction to ultraviolet light that is usually induced by UVB radiation
 Clinical signs will typically show within 2- 6 hours of exposure, with maximum blistering typically occurring within 24 hours
 Patients will typically feel unwell with fever, nausea and vomiting
 The redness usually resolves over 4 – 7 days
 The high-risk times for UV radiation exposure are between 10:00am and 3:00pm

215
Q
A

BOWEN’S DISEASE
 Is a form of SCC that is confined to the epidermis, with no invasion into the dermis
 They are caused by excessive UV exposure, if there are multiple, they can also be caused by arsenic, radiation or a genetic disorder
 They typically present as a single, well defined, erythematous and scaly plaque in sun exposed areas (poorly defined borders, no thick adherent scale and no bilateral distribution like we see in psoriasis)
 Diagnosis is made histology, which shows dysplasia in all layers of the epidermis
 Treatment is by similar means to BCC
 10% will develop into SCC if untreated, they are a slow progressive disease
 Differential diagnosis include;
- Early invasive SCC
- Psoriasis
- Dermatitis
- Discoid Lupus Erythematosus
- Tinea Corpis
- Superficial BCC
- Seborrheic keratosis
- Actinic keratosis

216
Q
A

SQUAMOUS CELL CARCINOMA
 Is the second most common form of skin malignancy after BCC
 These can be invasive or non-invasive (Intra-epithelial squamous cell carcinoma)
 Unlike BCCs, these have the ability to metastasise. Factors which increase the risk of metastasis include;
- Immunocompromised patients
- SCC on the head and neck, lips, ears and scalp
- Large and/or poor tumour differentiation
 They most commonly occur in patients over 40 and with fair skin, in areas of high sun exposure
 The incidence of SCC is increasing 4 x faster than BCC due to increased life expectancy and immunosuppression
 The clinical presentation of Squamous Cell Carcinomas are highly variable. Some typical clinical features include;
- Any new, enlarging nodule that appears on sun damaged skin
- Firm papule which can be tender and can increase in size
- Crusted surface (that is adherent and difficult to remove)
- Rolled edge and ulceration may develop in an advanced lesion
- No pearly ends or telangiectasia
- Recurrent bleeding from a lesion
 Development of Squamous Cell Carcinoma can be caused by 3 different factors;
1. Sun damage
- The vast majority of SCCs are sun induced and develop from actinic damage
- Risk of developing SCCs correlates directly with increased cumulative, life time sun exposure
2. Viral transformation
- Some cases of SCC can be caused by HPV which causes viral transformation of warts
- Immunosuppressed patients are of increased risk of developing SCCs (especially from warts on chronically sun damaged skin)
3. Rare causes
- Radiation sites
- Chronic ulcers, badly burnt skin, cutaneous lupus
- Chronic Arsenic ingestion

217
Q
A

NODULAR BCC
 Is the most common type of Basal Cell Carcinoma
 It most commonly occurs on the face
 A nodular BCC has the following classic signs;
- Shiny or pearly rolled edge
- Blood vessels cross its surface (telangiectasia)
- Red / translucent papule or nodule
- Can have a central depression or ulcer
 BCC are slow growing (months or years before they cause any real damage)
 Differential diagnosis of nodular BCC include;
1. Dermal naevus
2. Keratoacanthoma
3. Pyogenic granuloma
4. Dermatofibroma

218
Q
A

 There are often multiple, and commonly occur on the trunk and shoulders
 A superficial BCC has the following classic signs;
- Flat pink macules / patches
- May have a fine scale
- Under magnification they may have a thin pearly rim around the edge
- Micro-erosions
- Bleed and ulcerate easily
 These are slow growing over months or years. They don’t tend to metastasis
 Differential diagnosis of superficial BCCs include;
1. Solar keratosis
2. Intraepidermal squamous cell carcinoma (IESCC)
3. Psoriasis
4. Mycosis fungoides
5. Dermatitis

219
Q
A

ULCERATIVE BCC
 Typically appear as ulcers that are translucent and pearly
 They can have a crust or rolled edge
 The crust usually separates with gentle pressure
 Differential diagnosis for Ulcerative BCCs include;
1. SCC stasis ulcer
2. Melanoma
3. Venous ulcer
4. Extra-genital primary chancre of syphilis

220
Q
A

MORPHOEIC BCC
 Are also known as sclerosing BCC (as they are sclerotic or scar-like)
 They are usually found in mid-facial sites
 They clinically present showing;
- Plaque of flat and indurated tissue
- Skin coloured, waxy scar like lesion
- Ill-defined borders
 These are prone to recur after treatment as they can infiltrate cutaneous nerves (perineural spread)
 Differential diagnosis for this type is a scar

221
Q
A

PIGMENTED BCC
 Present as papules, nodules or plaques with a foci of pigment
 They are a brown, blue or greyish lesion and have smooth glistening surface
 They are raised and firm
 May resemble melanoma
 Differential diagnosis of pigmented BCCs include;
1. Benign Naevus
2. Superficial spreading Melanoma
3. Nodular Melanoma
4. Seborrheic Keratosis

222
Q
A

RECURRENT BCC
 Is a BCC that has been previously treated but has re-emerged
 These occur after previous surgery or treatment
 They appear like scars, lumps or ulcers
 They often require aggressive surgical intervention e.g. Moh’s Surgery or radiotherapy

223
Q

BASAL CELL CARCINOMA – TREATMENT

A

 The treatment options that may be consider when dealing with BCCs include;
1. Excisional surgery
- Is the gold standard of BCCs
- Requires clearance margins of at least 4mm of normal skin for a low risk, and 6mm for a high risk
- Pathologist determines the margins
2. Liquid nitrogen cryotherapy
- For superficial BCCs not on the head or neck
3. Curettage and Cautery
- For small primary superficial, nodular BCCs on the trunk or limbs
- Does not give margins
- Requires no sutures
4. Topical Imiquimod
- Aldara cream
- Very useful for limited treatment of superficial BCCs
- Generally has minimal scarring
- Cure rate is only around 80%
- As there is no pathology confirming cure, there needs to be regular review to check for recurrence for at least 3 years
5. Photodynamic therapy
- Used for primary superficial BCCs
- Does not have great cure rates
- Involves taking a drug which sensitises the skin to a particular type of light. They then target the BCC with a wavelength of light which causes cells to release oxygen that kills nearby cells
6. Mohs Micrographic Surgery
- Involves taking sequential excisions, which are then frozen to check for clear margins there and then
- Is much more accurate at removing any type of skin cancer
- Takes a long time, and is at great expense
- Used for the special histological BCCs, and in difficult sites like periocular, nose and ears where margins can be difficult
7. Radiation treatment
- Is useful for special circumstances of recurrent BCCs and SCCs where the patients are too old or too frail, and surgery would produce much more deforming outcome then radiation
- Or area we are trying to excise is too big

224
Q

SCC – DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSIS

A

 Differential diagnosis for well to moderately differentiated SCCs include;
- Hypertrophic solar keratosis
- Hypertrophic Bowen’s Disease
- Irritated seborrheic keratosis
- Verrucae
- Keratotic BCQ
- Prurigo nodules
- Hypertrophic rash (discoid lupus or lichen planus)
- Keratoacanthoma
 Differential diagnosis for poorly differentiated SCC;
- Amelanotic melanoma
- Pyogenic granuloma
- Ulcerated BCC
- Cutaneous metastasis
- Cutaneous sarcomas (e.g. atypical fibroxanthoma)
 Poorly differentiated SCC usually present as rapidly growing fungating nodules and often do not produce scale. They may have crust

225
Q

SCC TREATMENT

A

 The best treatment for invasive squamous cell carcinoma is wide excision;
1. Low risk lesions: 4mm margins
2. High risk lesions: 6 – 10mm margins
 All specimens should be sent in formalin for histopathology examination
 Primary, locally advanced, recurrent or metastatic SCCs often require combination treatments (surgery and radiotherapy)
- When histopathology shows significant perineural or perivascular invasion, wide field follow up radiotherapy is indicated
 Radiotherapy may also be used for primary tumours where surgery is contraindicated
 Regular follow up is required to examine the scar, palpate the nodes and check for new lesions
 If lymph nodes are enlarged, they require a biopsy to check for metastasis

226
Q
A

KERATOACANTHOMA
 Is a well differentiated type of Squamous Cell Carcinoma which resolves spontaneously after three or so months
 Keratoacanthomas typically have a volcano shape with a central keratotic plug
 They usually start at a site of sun damaged skin, and appear initially as a small papule or boil
 These typically develop very quickly
 Because it is not always easy to differentiate a keratoacanthoma from a non-resolving SCC (on clinical or histological grounds) they should be treated the same as any other SCC

227
Q
A

SUPERFICIAL SPREADING MELANOMA
 Is the most common, accounts for 70% of all melanomas. Is a radial growth melanoma
 It occurs at a young age (median age of 40)
 Superficial spreading Melanoma typically present as a flat, pigmented, asymmetrically macule that is changing in size, shape or colour
 They occur on intermittently exposed areas of the body like the trunk and limbs
 Risk factors for this type include;
- Intermittent high sun exposure
- Previous melanoma
- Multiple severe sunburns
- Family history
- Fair complexion
- People with multiple moles or dysplastic naevus syndrome

228
Q
A

LENTIGOMALIGNA MELANOMA
 Account for 10 – 15% of melanomas in Australia, and most commonly affect the elderly (median age is 60 – 70 years old)
 Is a radial growth melanoma
 Requires a large total dose of sun (why it occurs in the elderly)
 Clinical features of this type include;
- Found in sun exposed areas like the head and neck
- Unevenly pigmented, asymmetric facial freckly that is changing in size, shape and colour
- Can remain non-invasive for years in its in-situ phase called lentigomaligna

229
Q
A

ACRALLENTIGINOUS MELANOMA
 Account for 3% of melanomas
 This type is not sun related (as there is the same incidence in light and dark skin races)
 This type typically affects the soles of the feet, palms of the hands, toes and fingers, as well as the nail apparatus
 If in the nails, it shows a lineal pigmentation pattern which does not clear
 On the palms or soles it resembles other radial growth phase melanomas

230
Q
A

NODULAR MELANOMAS
 Accounts for 15% of melanomas and is most common in older men
 Is a vertical growth phase melanoma meaning it metastasises very quickly
 Nodular melanomas exist between Superficial and Lentigo melanomas in terms of its relationship to intermittent verses cumulative sun exposure
 Incidence of this type is more strongly related to the presence of numerous moles at other sites on the body
 The clinical features of this type includes;
- Vertical growth phase melanoma
- Grows rapidly in depth
 There is only a small window of opportunity for detection prior to metastasis

231
Q

Growth phases of melanoma: the two types of melanoma and how they grow

A

RADIAL GROWTH PHASE MELANOMA
 These melanoma first grow horizontally over months and years before the vertical growth phase begins
 Once the vertical growth stage begins, they will grow more rapidly in depth and the potential for metastasis increases progressively
 Radial growth phase melanomas are characterised by flat, pigmented lesions that change over months in size, shape and colour
 There are 3 important Radial growth phase melanomas (85% of melanomas);
1. Superficial spreading melanoma
2. Lentigomaligna melanoma
3. Acrallentiginous melanoma
 Their appearance is summarized by the ABCDS of melanoma;
- Asymmetrical
- Border irregularity
- Colour variation
- Diameter large (greater than or equal to 6mm)
- Evolution (they change)
- Symptoms (itch or bleeding)
VERTICAL GROWTH PHASE MELANOMA
 Are characterised by small possibly amelanotic papules which progressively enlarge over weeks to months to form a symmetrical nodule
 Can be even in colour and symmetrical (means ABCDES cannot be used)
 The most important example are Nodular Melanomas (15% of melanomas)
 Nodular melanomas comprise the majority of invasive, high risky melanomas
 Features of these melanomas can be summarised by EFG;
- Elevation
- Firmness on palpitation
- Growth progressing for more than a month
 If unsure, and cannot exclude melanoma, excise the lesion

232
Q

BCC vs. SCC

A

 BCC has a pearly edge, SCC typically does not
 BCC has telangiectasia, SCC typically does not
 SCC metastasizes, BCC typically does not

233
Q
A

DYSPLASTIC NAEVI
 Present clinically and histological as intermediates between normal naevi and melanoma
 They form a spectrum that begins with normal naevi and finishes with severely dysplastic naevi that merge easily into early melanoma
 Clinically they show at least 3 of the following 5 features;
1. Ill-defined border
2. Uneven distribution of pigment
3. Irregular border
4. Diameter > 5mm
5. Erythema
 Histologically they show architectural atypia of melanocytes, but only carry a small risk of transformation to melanoma (1 in 1000) and therefore do not warrant excision unless they are suspicious for melanoma
 Only severely dysplastic naevi require excision
 Individuals with 5 dysplastic naevi are regarded as significantly elevated risk and people with 10 or more are at high risk

234
Q
A

COMMON ACQUIRED MELANOCYTIC NAEVI
 Also known as moles
 They are benign tumours of melanocytes and are completely normal
 The average number found on the skin of Australians is close to 100 (>2mm in diameter)
 An increased number of naevi is an important risk factor for the development of superficial spreading melanoma (the most common type)
 They are typically even in colour and shape, appear in childhood and evolve slowly
 New and changing moles are normal in childhood, teenage years and during pregnancy
 Classification of these common acquired melanocytic naevi is done according to the presence of epidermal and dermal components;
1. Junctional naevi (left)
- Have an epidermal component only
- Are generally flat and brown in colour
2. Intradermal naevi (right)
- Located in the dermis
- Are raised and not pigmented
3. Compound naevi (middle)
- Is a mixture of junctional and intradermal proliferation
- Are raised and brown to black in colour

235
Q
A

SPITZ NAEVI
 Are benign lesions, that are variants of intradermal naevus
 Can be difficult to differentiate clinically from a normal naevi
 They are usually found in the first 2 decades of life
 They have a rapid growth phase which may cause alarm, and they have a characteristic histopathology which resembles melanomas
 They are frequently red but can be brown to black

236
Q
A

CONGENITAL NAEVI
 Are present at the time of birth
 These naevi grow with the child. Generally they become proportionally smaller and less obvious with time, however sometimes they can become darker (especially at puberty), and develop a bumpy or hairy surface. Some fade, some disappear altogether
 They are classified as either;
1. Small (less than 1.5cm)
2. Medium (1.5 – 20cm)
3. Giant (over 20cm, are rare)
 These have a low malignant potential (giant have a 3% lifetime risk of melanoma) and are generally removed due to cosmetic reasons
 After puberty their malignant potential increases slightly

237
Q
A

HALO NAEVI
 Are benign naevi that tend to occur in children and adolescents
 Once the halo appears, it is uncommon for the naevus to regress
 It is considered an autoimmune process
 They present clinically as;
- Naevi surrounded by a de-pigmented halo of normal skin
- Does not increase in size
- The halo is symmetrical

238
Q
A

SOLAR LENTIGINES
 Is a benign patches of darkened skin from exposure to sun damage
 They are extremely common in middle aged to elderly, fair skinned people
 They are often found in association with sun damage
 The clinical features are as follows;
- Brown, well defined macule
- Occur on sun exposed skin
 Pathology shows an increase in benign melanocytes in the basal layer of epidermis
 These can be easily treated with cryotherapy, but patients should follow this up with sun protection or they tend to recur

239
Q
A

FRECKLES
 The fancy name is Ephelides
 They are small, pale brown macules on the face and other sun exposed areas
 Red headed infidels almost always have numerous freckles on sun exposed skin
 Freckles are normal in fair skinned people and appear for the first time in childhood
 The clinical features include;
- Small, pale brown macules
- Occur on the face or other sun exposed areas
- They darken on sun-exposure and lighten if the skin is sun protected
 Babies are born without freckles, they usually appear for the first time around 2 – 3 years of age
 Freckles are caused by an increase in melanin in the epidermis (biopsy shows no abnormality)

240
Q
A

BLUE NAEVI
 Are benign naevi occurring entirely in the dermis. They contain collections of benign dermal melanocytes (hence the blue colour)
 Clinically they appear as very dark blue-black papules with a smooth regular surface and ovoid shape (poorly defined border as they are deep)
 The majority of these lesions are harmless and can be left alone
 Very rarely, they undergo malignant changes (When this happens, normal ABCDES rules of melanoma still applies)
 They tend to appear from puberty onwards

241
Q
A

SEBORRHEIC KERATOSES
 Are very common benign lesions that occur commonly after the age of 40
 They are often referred to as old age warts because they look very similar to common warts
 Clinically they present as;
- Slightly raised, skin coloured or light brown macules/plaques
- They gradually thicken and take on a rough warty surface
- They slowly darken and can turn black
- They stick on to the skin like barnacles
 Can appear on both covered and uncovered parts of the body
 Do not require treatment on medical grounds
 Some patients may wish to have them removed for cosmetic reasons (which is easily achieved with cryotherapy or light curettage and cautery)

242
Q
A

SKIN TAGS
 Are harmless lesions also known as acrochrocordons
 They are very common in middle aged patients
 They tend to be more numerous in obese patients and in those with T2DM
 The clinical features include;
- Pedunculated and have a narrow pedicle
- Skin colour to brown
- Commonly occur in the axilla and groin and on the neck
 They are easily removed with a simple snip excision

243
Q
A

DERMATOFIBROMAS
 Is a harmless and common lesion found in adults and children
 There can be multiple of them
 They are often confused with pigmented naevi, but rarely with melanoma as they are symmetrical and usually only one colour is evident
 Clinical features include;
- Skin colour to light brown firm papule
- Asymptomatic
- When the skin either side is squeezed, the lesion tends to invaginate slightly (pinch test which is a very characteristic feature)

244
Q
A

SEBACEOUS CYSTS
 Are common benign lesions commonly seen in adults (rarely in children)
 They are smooth raised dome shaped lesions in the dermis of the skin, that are tethered to the epidermis
 There is usually a central punctum from which it may express sebaceous material
 They are most commonly found on the head, neck and upper trunk (also can be found on the scrotum or labia majora)
 They can become infected which cause them to become tender and inflamed, causing them to rapidly increase in size
 If a patient wishes to have them removed, they have to be removed surgically as if they are drained, they simply recur

245
Q
A

SEBACEOUS HYPERPLASIA
 Is common in middle aged adults
 They clinically present with multiple small, yellow umbilicated papules across the face (usually the forehead)
 Close inspection shows a central hair follicle surrounded by yellowish lobules
 Patients with this condition frequently have oily skin types

246
Q
A

CAMPBELL de MORGAN SPOTS
 Also known as Cherry angioma
 Are commonly seen in patients over 40 years of age
 They typically present as;
- Bright, asymptomatic red papules (rarely bleed)
- Can be numerous
- Most commonly occur on the back
- They can be red, blue, purple, or black (the deeper they are the darker they are)
 Other angiomas in adults include;
- Spider angioma (spider naevus on the left)
- Venous lake (middle)
- Cherry angioma (right)

247
Q

Understand basic anatomy and function of the eye and associated Nerves and supporting structure.

A

THE OPTIC PATHWAY
 The visual pathway is made up of the following anatomical structures;
1. Retina
- Is made up of a neural layer and pigmented layer
2. Optic nerve (cranial nerve 2)
- Convey visual sensory information from the retina to the central nervous system
- Enter the orbit through the optic canal
3. Optic chiasm
- All fibres from nasal halves of the retina cross to opposite side and join fibres from opposite temporal retina to form optic tracts (partial decussation)
4. Optic tract
- Takes fibres from the optic chiasm into the lateral geniculate body
5. Lateral geniculate body (synapse)
- Receive fibres from the optic tract which synapse with its own axons and continue to the occipital cortex (known as optic radiations or geniculocalcarine tract)
6. Cortex
- Primary visual cortex (synapse) in the occipital cortex
- Association visual cortex

248
Q

Take a focused ophthalmology history.

A

VISUAL HISTORY
 A good visual history will provide you with 80% of the information you require for diagnosis
 As with any other disorder, a visual history will follow:
1. Describe (vision, sensation, appearance)
2. Duration (onset and time course – exacerbating, relieving and associated factors)
3. General health
4. Family / Social history
5. Frequency
6. Onset
7. Location
8. Associated Relieving
 In ophthalmology, there are really only 3 types of symptoms;
- Abnormal vision
- Abnormal sensation (discomfort)
- Altered appearance

249
Q

Hyperopia

A

(far sightedness)
 Also known as far sightedness
 In hyperopia, the image is focused behind the retina
 Could be for one of two reasons;
- Eyeball is too short
- Lens is too weak
 In other words, objects are focused behind the retina
 Near objects are blurry while distant objects are clear (because of accommodation)
 Correction: convex lens (as they converge light rays)

250
Q

Myopia

A

(Short sightedness)
 Also known as near sightedness
 In myopia, the image is focused in front of the retina
 Could be for one of two reasons;
- Eyeball is too long
- Lens is too strong
 In other words, objects are focused in front of the retina
 Near objects are clear while distant objects are blurry
 Correction: concave lens (as they diverge light rays)

251
Q

Astigmatism

A

(cornea curvature defect)
 Is caused by a defect in the curvature of the cornea itself
 In other words, the lens is no longer perfect curvature, and instead has unequal curvatures
 This means that after refraction light can never be focussed on a single point, causing blurry and distorted images
 Correction: Cylindrical lens (nowadays they use laser surgery to physically restore the uniformed curvature)

252
Q

Accommodation

A

ACCOMMODATION
 Is a reflex of the eye that allows us to focus on objects that are near, and objects that are far
 This is achieved by the ability of the eye to change the refractive power of the lens
 We are able to increase the refractive power of the lens by making the lens thicker, or we can decrease the refractive power of the lens by making it thinner
- For objects that are far away the lens curvature is decreased
- For closer objects the lens curvature is increased
 By changing the curvature of the lens, we ensure that the image we are looking at is refracted / focused onto the retina
 Thus, for objects that are far away and objects that are close by, we need to bend the light differently. By changing the curvature of the lens, we make the lens thicker, altering the refractive index and therefore the amount the light bends to ensure the object is projected onto the retina
 The actual mechanics behind this change of curvature is facilitated by ciliary muscles that attach to the lens via suspensory ligaments
 When the ciliary muscles contract, the tension on the suspensory ligaments is released (opposite of what you’d think), and because the lens has elastic properties it becomes more curved (goes back to its resting state)
 When the ciliary muscles relax, the tension on the suspensory ligaments pulls the lens flatter
 If someone’s eyes lose the ability of accommodation, it is a pathological condition known as presbyopia

253
Q
A

LESIONS IN OPTIC PATHWAY
 If a patient incurs damage to the above described visual pathway, it will usually result in some sort of visual deficit
 As is outlined above, the visual pathway consists of 3 main nerve pathways; the optic nerve, optic chiasm, optic tract and the geniculocalcarine tract
 If anyone of these pathways is affected by a lesion, the following will happen;
1. Optic nerve
- A lesion here will cause blindness in the ipsilateral eye
- This is because all sensory information coming from that eye is lost
2. Optic chiasm
- A lesion here will cause bitemporal hemianopia
- Bitemporal (both temporal visual fields) hemianopia (loss of vision in half the visual field)
- Loss of temporal field in both eyes
- Common in pituitary adenoma
3. Optic tract
- A lesion here will cause homonymous hemianopia
- Homonymous men’s vision loss on the same visual field in both eyes
- This is loss of the same opposite visual field in both eyes (e.g. nasal in left and right eye)
4. Higher order neurons
- The further back you go, the more visual sparing you get (due to magnification of nerve fibres)

254
Q

rods vs cones and how they work

A

 The actual process of seeing is known as phototransduction, which is the process of converting light energy into electrical impulses that can be interpreted by the visual centres in our brain
 This process of conversion is achieved by photoreceptors in our retina. There are 2 types;
1. Rods
- Register black and white
- Are located peripherally black and white
2. Cones
- Register colour
- Are located centrally
 After this has occurred, the information is propagated along the various nerve fibres for neural processing. This involves;
- Retinotopic mapping (each area of retina is mapped to a specific area of the brain)
- Convergence of information (occurs at every neurological level)
- Implication of significant information
 Neural processing occurs in both a parallel and sequential way

255
Q

Types of reduced vision

A

REDUCED VISION
 It is important to note that reduced vision is not just a general inability to see, but rather has a number of important components. A patient with abnormal vision may have;
1. Central loss of vision (form)
- Is the loss of the ability to see things in the distance, close by or both
- Usually by damage anterior to the chiasm if peripheral vision is retained
2. Peripheral loss of vision (space)
- Is partial or total loss bilaterally
- Patients are frequently unaware
3. Impaired night vision
4. Impaired colour vision
- 8% of males
- 0.5% of females
 The onset of reduced vision can be sudden or gradual. If its sudden it implies a vascular loss

256
Q

Floaters

A

FLOATERS
 Are tiny specks that appear in a person’s field of vision
 There are 4 common causes of floaters;
1. Haemorrhage
2. Inflammation
3. Vitreous degeneration
- Vitreous is the gel that occupies the centre of the eye
- As you age this reduces triggering the retina which thinks its seeing light
4. Muscae volitantes
 It is important to decipher whether its one eye, or both eyes
 Floaters are more noticeable in the day time (move with vision)

257
Q

Flashers

A

FLASHES
 Are caused by an irritative stimulation of the retinal or visual pathway (retina thinks its seeing light as above)
 If it is unilateral there will be an issue with the retina, if it is bilateral it is usually due to a migraine or basilar artery insufficiency (If one eye it must be something to do with the eye, if it is both eyes it’s probably a brain issue)
 More common in the night time

258
Q

Halos

A

HALOES
 Are rainbow coloured rings around lights
 Can be a sign of;
1. Corneal oedema (from recent laser surgery or increase intraocular pressure)
2. Diffraction due to incorrect myopic correction

259
Q

Metamorphopsia and Micropsia

A

METAMORPHOPSIA / MICROPSIA
 Metamorphopsia is a visual defect that causes linear objects (like lines on a grid) to look curvy or rounded (Amsler Grid is used to test)
 Micropsia is a condition of the eyes in which objects appear smaller than normal
 Both of these are caused by retinal oedema (e.g. from Macular degeneration)

260
Q

Causes of diplopia and monocular

A

DIPLOPIA
 Is double vision
 There are 2 different types of diplopia;
1. Binocular: Is double vision in both eyes when axes of both eyes are not directed at the same object (Doesn’t go away when you close one eye)
- Muscle issues e.g. myasthenia gravis
- Nerve damage to cranial nerve 3 (e.g. posterior communicating artery aneurysm)
- Nerve damage to cranial nerve 6 (e.g. head injury leading to Intracranial pressure)
- Microvascular damage e.g. stroke or tumour
2. Monocular: Is double vision in one eye from abnormal surface of the cornea. (goes away when you close one of their eyes)
- Less opacity e.g. cataracts
- Microvascular damage e.g. stroke or tumour

261
Q

Abnormal sensation of the eye
Foreign body sensation

A

FOREIGN BODY SENSATION
 Is when a person has an abnormal sensation in their eye from a foreign body
 This is confirmed by administering local anaesthetic and seeing if it relieves the abnormal sensation. If it does there is a foreign body sensation
 Some common causes of foreign body sensations include;
1. Trichiasis entropion (misalignment of eyelashes)
2. Conjunctivitis dry eyes

262
Q

Abnormal sensation of the eye
Photophobia

A

PHOTOPHOBIA
 Is pain with light
 Two possible eye related causes of photophobia include;
1. Iritis
2. Keratitis
 Photophobia is relieved with Cycloplegic agents

263
Q

Abnormal sensation of the eye
Severe deep pain

A

SEVERE DEEP PAIN
 Is severe deep pain
 Typically only caused by 2 main conditions;
1. Acute angle closure glaucoma
- Associated with halos around lights
2. Zoster
- Is associated with a rash

264
Q

Abnormal sensation of the eye
Asthenia

A

ASTHENOPIA
 Is eye strain that occurs after intensive use of eyes
 It is due to either;
1. Inadequate corrected refractive error
2. Heterophoria (not pointing straight ahead at rest)

265
Q

Abnormal sensation of the eye
Watery eyes

A

WATER EYES / DISCHARGE
 Is fairly self-explanatory
 Can be caused by;
1. Overproduction (ocular irritation)
2. Faulty drainage (blocked nasolacrimal duct)
3. Instability (dry eyes because the tears aren’t staying on the eyes)

266
Q

Altered appearance causes
i. Proptosis

A
  • Is bulging of the eyes out of the sockets in one or both eyes
  • Common in orbital infections, trauma or if there is a mass
267
Q

Altered appearance causes
ii. Ptosis

A
  • Dropping or falling of the upper eyelid
  • Cranial nerve 3 lesions, levator abnormalities, local lid abnormalities like infections
268
Q

Altered appearance causes
v. Strabismus

A

Strabismus is the condition where the eyes are not properly aligned. Other common names include ‘lazy’, ‘crossed’ or ‘turned’ eyes, and ‘squint’. One or both eyes may turn either inward (esotropia), outward (exotropia), upward (hypertropia) or downward (hypotropia).

269
Q
A
270
Q
A

ACUTE OTITIS MEDIA
 Is a painful type of ear infection that occurs when the middle ear becomes inflamed and infected
 It is a common problem in early childhood, 2/3 children have at least one episode by age 3, and 90% have at least one episode by school entry (peak age prevalence is 6 – 18 months)
 A patient with Acute Otitis Media will typically present with;
- Fever
- Ear pain (which presents as irritability in pre-verbal children)
- Vomiting
- Lethargy
- +/- Anorexia
 The following characteristic signs will be apparent in an examination of a case with of Acute Otitis Media;
- Usual middle ear landmarks are not well seen (e.g. handle of malleus, incus and light reflex)
- The tympanic membrane is dull and opaque, and may be bulging
- There can also be dilated blood vessels
- Associated signs of URTI (e.g. coryza, red tonsillopharynx, cough etc.)
- Pneumatic otoscopy will show reduced tympanic membrane mobility

271
Q

How to manage acute otitis media

A

ACUTE OTITIS MEDIA – MANAGEMENT
 Most cases of Acute Otitis Media resolve spontaneously
 Antibiotics provide a small reduction in pain beyond 24 hours in only about 5% of children treated. The modest benefit must be weighed against the potential harms related to antibiotic use, both for the individual patient (adverse effects) and at the population level (development of resistance)
 Pain is often the main symptom, so adequate analgesia is very important
- Paracetamol 20 – 30 mg/kg, 2/3 times per day if pain is significant
- Short term topical 2% lignocaine drops applied to the tympanic membrane has also been shown to be effective for severe acute ear pain
 Decongestants, antihistamines and corticosteroids have not been shown to be effective in the treatment of Acute Otitis Media

272
Q

OTITIS MEDIA WITH EFFUSION

A

 Symptoms usually involve hearing loss or aural fullness and does not typically involve pain or fever
 This eustachian tube dysfunction is caused by a failure of the clearance mechanisms which include ciliary dysfunction, mucosal oedema, hyper viscosity of the effusion and an unfavourable pressure gradient. Some predisposing factors of this dysfunction include;
 Otitis media with effusion is the leading cause of hearing loss in children.
- Conductive hearing loss is caused by the build up of fluid in the middle ear which reduces the ability of the ossicles to mechanically transmit sound waves
- Sensorineural hearing loss is caused by increased exposure to prostaglandins and leukotrienes (metabolites of arachidonic acid) causes temporary and sometimes permanent sensorineural hearing loss

Otitis Media with Effusion (OME) “glue ear”

TM is retracted with prominence of the handle of the malleus, which is also drawn in/more horizontal
TM may be bulging or have an air-fluid level behind the TM
Yellow/amber appearance is consistent with fluid
Light reflex on otoscopic examination

273
Q

What is conductive hearing loss

A

CONDUCTIVE HEARING LOSS
 Is hearing loss caused by some obstruction to the normal sound wave conduction pathway (through the external auditory canal, onto the tympanic membrane, through the ossicles and into the cochlear)
 The 4 most common causes are;
1. Obstruction Of the External Auditory Canal
- The externally auditory canal is 2.5cm long, is rarely straight, is made up of 1/3 cartilage and 2/3 osseous and has a number of sebaceous and ceruminous glands
- Virtually any condition imaginable
- E.g. wax build up, foreign body, otitis externa, trauma
2. Tympanic Membrane Perforation
3. Middle Ear Pathology
- Which are caused by eustachian tube dysfunction
- E.g. TM damage, damage to ossicles, effusion, masses
- E.g. inability of the tiny hairs inside the ear to remove fluid and infection, poor squeezing function within the eustachian tube, narrow eustachian tube, swollen nasal secretions causing blockage, tumours)
4. Ossicular Pathology

274
Q

What is sensorineural hearing loss

A

SENSORINEURAL HEARING LOSS
 Is hearing loss caused by damage of the inner ear or the nerve from the ear to the brain
 Some causes of sensorineural hearing loss include;
1. Familial / Congenital
2. Trauma (surgery)
3. Toxins (drugs)
4. Radiation
5. Infection (e.g. Meningitis, Zoster, CMV etc.)
 If you get someone coming in with dramatic, painless, sudden hearing loss that causes imbalance and or numbness, it requires immediate treatment (usually due to viral infection)

275
Q

what is the webbers test

A

WEBBERS TEST
 Is a quick screening test for hearing
 It is able to detect unilateral conductive and unilateral sensorineural hearing loss
 How to actually perform this test is outlined below;
- A vibrating tuning 512 Hz tuning fork is placed in the middle of the forehead
- The patient is asked to report in which ear the sound is heard loudest
- In a normal patient, the sound is heard equally loud in both ears (no lateralization)
- In a patient with a unilateral conductive hearing loss, they would hear the tuning fork loudest in the affected ear
- In a patient with a unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, they would hear the sound louder in the unaffected ear
 We don’t know how the Webber’s test works
 It is important to note that a patient with symmetrical hearing loss will hear the sound equally as well, meaning this test can only be used to assess asymmetrical hearing losses

276
Q

What is the rinnes test

A

RINNE’S TEST
 Is a quick screening test for hearing that compliments the Weber’s test
 How to actually perform this test is outlined below;
- Is performed by placing a vibrating 512 Hz tuning fork against the patient’s mastoid bone and asking the patient to tell you when the sound is no longer heard
- Once they signal this, quickly move the vibrating fork 1 – 2cm from the auditory canal and ask if they are able to hear the tuning fork
- In a normal patient, the air conduction should be greater then the bone conduction so the patient should be able to hear the tuning fork after they can hear it held against the mastoid
- If they are not able to hear the tuning fork after the mastoid test, it means there bone conduction is greater than their air conduction, indicating a conductive hearing loss
- In sensorineural hearing loss, both the bone and air conduction of sound will be equally diminished, meaning that they will be able to hear the air conduction after they can hear it held against the mastoid (as is with normal patients). Patients with sensorineural loss will indicate the sound has stopped much earlier
 The Rinne’s test is useful when used in conjunction with the Webber’s Test to confirm a diagnosis;
- Sensorineural hearing loss is confirmed if the Rinne test shows normal, and the weber test lateralises to a particular ear, then there is sensorineural hearing loss in the opposite ear
- Conductive hearing loss is confirmed in the weaker ear if bone conduction is greater than air conduction and the weber test lateralizes to that side
- Combined hearing loss is likely if the weber test lateralizes to the stronger ear and bone conduction is greater than air conduction in the weaker ear
 If Air Conduction is better than Bone Conduction it is normal
 If Air Conduction is worse than Bone Conduction it is conductive hearing loss
 Doesn’t start to become affective until your hearing is at around 30 dB

277
Q

What is otitis media, diagnosis and management

A

 Is an extremely inflammatory condition of the external auditory canal and the auricle itself
 Patients with otitis externa will commonly present with;
- Ear pain
- Conductive hearing loss
- Redness, swelling, scaling and thickening of the canal skin lining
- Otalgia (discomfort)
- Itch
- Deafness and otorrhoea (discharge)
- Swollen and occluded canal
- Feeling of fullness or pressure in the ear

OTITIS EXTERNA – EXAMINATION
 Patients will show the following signs if they have otitis externa;
- The Targus and pinna are very tender when moved
- Moist and oedematous ear canal that is filled with serous or purulent debris
- Lots of cerumen (ear wax)
OTITIS EXTERNA – MANAGEMENT
 Treatment of otitis externa should involve;
1. Analgesia
2. Ear toilet
3. Ear drops (antimicrobial/steroids first then antifungal if not effective)
4. General
- Keep ear dry
- Soft wax earplugs should be used when showering
- No swimming

OTITIS EXTERNA – EAR TOILET
 Ear toilet is the process of clearing the ear
 If a perforation of the TM is unlikely (there is no discharge) the ear can be irrigated with saline to remove the debris
 Ear drops can be used (combination of antimicrobial / steroid ear drops);
1. Sofradex (don’t use if fungal)
2. Otodex
3. Kenacomb
4. (combination of antimicrobial/steroid ear drops e.g. Sofradex, Otodex, Kenacomb)

278
Q

Snellen eye chart

A

Procedure
• Ensure good natural light or illumination on the chart.
• Explain the procedure to the patient.
• Wash and dry the occluder and pinhole. If no plain occluder is available, ask the patient to wash
his/her hands as they will use a hand to cover one eye at a time.
• Test each eye separately – the ‘bad’ eye first.
• Position the patient, sitting or standing, at 6 metres from the chart.
• Ask the patient to wear any current distance spectacles, to cover one eye with his/her hand (or
with a plain occluder), and to start reading from the top of the chart.
• The smallest line he/she can read (the VA) will be expressed as a fraction, e.g., 6/18 or 6/24
(usually written on the chart). The upper number refers to the distance the chart is from the
patient (6 metres) and the lower number is the distance in metres at which a person with no
impairment should be able to see the chart.
• In the patient’s documentation, record the VA for each eye, stating whether it is with or without
correction (spectacles), for example:

279
Q

Pin hole test

A

A quick and easy way to determine whether refraction is the culprit, short of testing different lenses, is
with the pinhole test. Punch a small hole in a paper card, and have your patient reread the eyechart
while looking through this pinhole. This can improve vision by several dioptres. It works because the
paper blocks most of the misaligned rays that cause visual blur and allows the central rays to focus on
the retina. If your patient shows no improvement with pin holing, start thinking about other visual
impediments like cataracts or other media opacities.

280
Q

The Swinging Light Test (includes Pupil Light reflex and the consensual light reflex)

A

The ‘swinging light test’ is used to detect a relative afferent pupil defect (RAPD): a means of detecting
differences between the two eyes in how they respond to a light shone in one eye at a time. The test
can be very useful for detecting unilateral or asymmetrical disease of the retina or optic nerve (but only
optic nerve disease that occurs in front of the optic chiasm).
The physiological basis of the RAPD test is that, in healthy eyes, the reaction of the pupils in the right
and left eyes are linked. In other words, a bright light shone into one eye leads to an equal constriction
of both pupils. When the light source is taken away, the pupils of both eyes enlarge equally. This is
called the consensual light reflex.
To understand how the pupils react to light, it is important to understand the light reflex pathway
(Figure (Figure1).1). This pathway has two parts.
1. The afferent part of the pathway (red) refers to the nerve impulse/message sent from the pupil
to the brain along the optic nerve when a light is shone in that eye.
2. The efferent part of the pathway (blue) is the impulse/message that is sent from the mid-brain
back to both pupils via the ciliary ganglion and the third cranial nerve (the oculomotor nerve),
causing both pupils to constrict, even though only one eye is being stimulated by the light.

Steps
• Use a bright torch which can be focussed to give a narrow, even beam of light. Perform the test
in a semi-darkened room. If the room is too dark it will be difficult to observe the pupil
responses, particularly in heavily pigmented eyes.
• Ask the patient to look at a distant object, and to keep looking at it. Use a Snellen chart, or a
picture. This is to prevent the near-pupil response (a constriction in pupil size when moving
focus from a distant to a near object). While performing the test, take care not to get in the way
of the fixation target.
• Move the whole torch deliberately from side to side so that the beam of light is directed directly
into each eye. Do not swing the beam from side to side around a central axis (e.g., by holding it
in front of the person’s nose) as this can also stimulate the near response.
• Keep the light source at the same distance from each eye to ensure that the light stimulus is
equally bright in both.
• Keep the beam of light steadily on the first eye for at least 3 seconds. This allows the pupil size
to stabilise. Note whether the pupil of the eye being illuminated reacts briskly and constricts
fully to the light. Also note what happens to the pupil of the other eye: does it also constrict
briskly?
• Move the light quickly to shine in the other eye. Again, hold the light steady for 3 seconds. Note
whether the pupil being illuminated stays the same size, or whether it gets bigger. Note also
what happens to the other eye.
• As there is a lot to look at, repeat the test, observing what happens to the pupils of both eyes
when one and then the other eye is illuminated.

281
Q

Confrontational visual field eye tests

A

Visual fields: The normal visual field for each eye extends out from the patient in all directions,
with an area of overlap directly in front. Field cuts refer to specific regions where the patient has
lost their ability to see. This occurs when the transmitted visual impulse is interrupted at some
point in its path from the retina to the visual cortex in the back of the brain. You would, in
general, only include a visual field assessment if the patient complained of loss of sight; in
particular “blind spots” or “holes” in their vision. Visual fields can be crudely assessed as follows:
1. The examiner should be nose to nose with the patient, separated by approximately 8 to
12 inches.
2. Each eye is checked separately. The examiner closes one eye, and the patient closes the
one opposite. The open eyes should then be staring directly at one another.
3. The examiner should move their hand out towards the periphery of his/her visual field
on the side where the eyes are open. The finger should be equidistant from both
persons.
4. The examiner should then move the wiggling finger in towards them, along an imaginary
line drawn between the two persons. The patient and examiner should detect the finger
at the same time.
5. The finger is then moved out to the diagonal corners of the field and moved inwards
from each of these directions. Testing is then done starting at a point in front of the
closed eyes. The wiggling finger is moved towards the open eyes.
6. The other eye is then tested.

282
Q

Question 1 Name 3 non-infectious skin diseases which we see more commonly in A&TI communities? Mark 11/2

A

Acanthosis nigricans, SLE and pityriasis vesicular

283
Q

Question 2 How does the Aboriginal understanding of disease and treatment differ from Western Model? Mark 3

A

They utilise bush medicines and treat their won. They have a spiritual understanding of health and believe that if you do wrong, you will get sick. They have different social expectations In their groups.

284
Q

Question 3 Name four clinical presentations you may see of Insulin Resistance. Mark 2

A

Acanthosis nigricans, skin tags (papillomatosis) , ulcers which are vascular in origin and pruritis.

285
Q

Question 4. What treatments could you give for pyoderma to A&TI in remote community if they were not allergic to penicillin? Mark 4

A

It can be treated with oral antibiotics, IM injections of antibiotics and topical methods
- Oral phenoxymethylpenicillin 4t day for 10 days
- IM benzathine penicillin (unable to come back)
- Topical: not typically used as been to remove crush before hand which is time consuming.

286
Q

Question 6. What treatment would you recommend for pyoderma if they were allergic to penicillin? Mark 2

A
  • Oral antibiotic roxithromycin once a day for 10 days.
287
Q

Question 7. What clinical features would you expect to see I an indigenous person with SLE?

A
  • Butterfly rash on patients cheeks, nose and forehead.
  • Hypopigmentation and scarring
  • Erythema on the edge of the hyperpigmented lesion
  • Often lower lip involvement.
  • Aggravated by sunlight.
288
Q

Question 10. How would you treat head lice with insecticides? Mark 4

A
  • Malathion and permethrin are crème preparations that you apply to the scalp. You still need to wet comb the lice out after they sit on the scalp for 8 hours.
289
Q

How procedures would you put in place to help contain scabies? Mark 4

A
  • Infected children should be kept home from school, everyone in the house is treated, wash everything in greater than 50 degrees, vacuum carpets.
290
Q

What would be your first line treatment for scabies

A
  • Scabicide/ permethrin 5% crème which is applied from the neck down and left for 8 hours and repeated in a weeks time- after washing hands, should re-apply.
291
Q

What would be your second line treatment for scabies

A
  • Benzyl benzoates 25% because it is more irritating. Leave on for 24 hours and repeat in a week.
292
Q

How does Granuloma annulare (GA) present?

A

Granuloma annulare usually presents as an annular plaque with a raised, red edge and a paler centre.
The backs of the hands and dorsal aspects of the feet are the most common sites. The skin surface is
never scaly or eroded and lesions are not symptomatic.
Granuloma annulare can sometimes appear as a flat, red macule or a subcutaneous nodule. Lesions can
be few or very numerous.
There is a rare papular form which is most closely associated with diabetes

293
Q

How does Necrobiosis Lipoidica (NLD) present?

A

NLD begins with red papules and nodules, with the centre becoming brownish-yellow with
telangiectasia and eventually atrophy of the epidermis and dermis, leading to indolent slow-healing
ulcers.
The classic location is the lower leg, particularly the shin. However, NLD may occur on any part of the
body including the scalp.

294
Q

How do Eruptive Xanthomas present and with what illnesses are they associated
with?

A

In patients with poorly controlled diabetes, high levels of triglycerides or familial hyperlipidaemia and
occasional inflammatory or neoplastic conditions may result in the appearance of numerous small
xanthomas. These present as red-orange papules, usually occurring on the lower back and buttocks.

295
Q

What classical signs will you find with Hyperthyroidism (Graves’ disease)?

A
  1. Pretibial myxoedema (It is characterised by either diffuse or nodular swelling of the front of the
    shins).
  2. exophthalmos.
  3. Diffuse hair loss
    4 Heat intolerance and sweatiness
    5 Facial flushing
    6 Palmar erythema
    7 Itch
296
Q

What classical signs will you find with Hypothyroidism?

A
  1. Dry, yellowish skin
  2. Diffuse hair loss
  3. Itch
  4. Puffiness of eyelids, hands and face
  5. Absence of sweating
  6. Loss of body hair
  7. Loss of the outer third of the eyebrows
  8. Brittle nails
  9. Cold sensitivity associated with livedo*
  10. Bruising and purpura
297
Q

What is the cause of Cushing’s syndrome?

A

Cushing’s syndrome results from excess glucocorticoid due either to an endocrinopathy with
hypersecretion or to therapeutic use of high dose oral corticosteroids.

298
Q

What is the classical rash seen in Discoid Lupus?

A

The characteristic lesion of chronic cutaneous (discoid) lupus erythematosus is a well-defined red scaly
plaque. The rash most commonly occurs on the sun-exposed areas of the face, neck, scalp, hands and
forearms and can appear suddenly or insidiously. Lesions may occur inside the mouth.
Once established the lesions may show hyperpigmentation or hypopigmentation, and atrophic scarring,
which on the scalp will produce alopecia.

299
Q

What is the classical presentation of Vitiligo?

A

Disfiguring condition where colour is lost from the skin. It is usually patchy but in rare cases can be
widespread.
Pigment loss in vitiligo is complete, so the skin is white and sunburns easily. The edge of the lesion in
vitiligo is always sharp and well defined.

300
Q

What is the classical lesion which indicates urticaria and why is the epidermis
“unaffected”?

A

The classical lesion is a wheal which indicates dermal oedema. Urticaria does not involve the epidermis
so no scale, blistering or disruption of skin surface occurs.

301
Q

When does acute urticaria called chronic urticaria?

A

After 6 weeks

302
Q

What is the management of acute urticaria? Are steroids of use?

A
  1. Withdraw the cause if found
  2. Anti-Histamine (H1)
    a. Less Sedating e.g. Loratadine
    b. Sedating e.g. promethazine
  3. If response to anti-histamines 1 is poor use a H2 Anti- histamine e.g. Ranitidine
    Steroids are not used to treat acute urticaria
303
Q

What is angio-oedema?

A

Angio-oedema is a subset of urticaria involving deeper tissues which presents with areas of skin
coloured swelling

304
Q

What is your first line treatment for anaphylaxis?

A

Initial management should involve ABC:
• Airway
• Breathing
• Circulation
Any suspect drug or diagnostic contrast agent should be ceased immediately.
Remove allergen from patient’s mouth.
Extract bee or wasp parts.
Administer oxygen 6-8 L/minute.
Administer adrenaline IMI. Adrenaline may be repeated at 5 minute intervals and may be given IV once
an intravenous line has been inserted.

305
Q

What is the most common cause of Stevens Johnson Syndrome? Give an example. What
are its features?

A

Almost always drug related.
Common Agents
1. Co-trimazole
2. Lamotrigine
3. Carbamazepine
4. Phenytoin
5. Allopurinol
6. Piroxicam and Meloxicam (NSAID
Clinical features
 1-3 days of prodromal sore throat, fever, malaise and conjunctivitis
 Usually begin 14-21 days after drug commenced
 After prodrome there is skin blistering and skin loss in sheets leaving painful raw areas
 Erosions of mucosal surfaces including conjunctiva, oropharynx, esophagus, urethra and vagina
 SJS tends to be on the trunk and face, TENS is generalised

306
Q

What is the causes and variants of Erythema Multiforme?

A

EM Minor is usually the result of infection with herpes simplex virus and occasionally drugs
EM Major is usually the result of infection with herpes simplex virus and Mycoplasma Pneumonia

307
Q

What are the clinical features of Erythema Multiforme?

A

The classic lesion of EM is a “target lesion” which is typically a raised, round papule with a darker
dusky or blistered centre, surrounded by a pale oedematous ring with a red edge. Lesions are
relatively small, up to 3cm in diameter and occur in crops.
The lesion is fixed and does not migrate. This is what distinguishes it from urticaria, with which it is
commonly confused.
Lesions last approximately 1-2 weeks before resolving.
EM Minor lesions usually few in number and limited to the skin, mainly on the extremities.
EM major is a form of EM where mucosal surfaces as well as large areas of skin are involved.
EM major the erosions on mucosal surfaces may be severe and painful.

308
Q

What does of the size of the vessel in Vasculitis determine? Provide an example of each.

A

The size of the vessels involved determines the clinical appearance of the rash.
1. Superficial vessels tend to present with “palpable purpura”, ulcers and necrosis e.g. Acute
Meningococcemia
2. Deeper and larger vessels produce nodules and plaques. E.g. Polyarteritis Nodosa

309
Q

What six principal symptoms of Kawasaki Disease?

A
  1. Fever >38ºC for 5 days or more.
  2. Redness and oedema of the hands and feet. This is followed by desquamation after 10 t o15
    days.
  3. Polymorphic rash. Many patterns are described including urticarial plaques, morbilliform or
    maculopapular exanthemata, targetoid lesions, pustules or a desquamative nappy rash.
  4. Conjunctival injection.
  5. Red, dry, cracked lips and mouth.
  6. Cervical adenopathy.
310
Q

What is the difference between Endogenous and exogenous dermatitis?

A

The main exogenous eczema is contact dermatitis, either irritant or allergic. Endogenous forms of eczema include atopic dermatitis, seborrhoeic dermatitis, pompholyx, varicose eczema, xerotic eczema and discoid eczema. Pruritus leads to chronic scratching and the epidermis becomes hyperkeratotic and lichenified.

311
Q

What are the two medical conditions related to Atopic Dermatitis and what is the incidence
of Atopic Dermatitis?

A

Food Allergies.
Asthma and Allergic Rhinitis.
Allergic Contact Dermatitis.

312
Q

Name the aetiological factors in atopic dermatitis

A
  1. Family history
    - A family history of atopy is found in 70% of cases
    - The most common are allergic rhinitis, asthma and atopic dermatitis
  2. Immune dysregulation
    - 80% of patients have increased serum levels of IgE
    - It is important to note that the increased IgE is not the cause of the dermatitis, it is a response to the factors which are causing the dermatitis (treating IgE will not treat atopic dermatitis)
  3. Abnormal epidermal barrier
    - Up to 50% of patients with atopic dermatitis have some sort of deficiency in the gene that programs the epidermal protein filaggrin
    - This results in an impaired skin barrier that holds water poorly and is more susceptible to irritants and allergens (allergens can get into the body)
  4. Susceptibility to infection
    - This is caused by a deficiency in a peptide known as defensin which is present in the epidermis
    - This results in a reduced immune response to infectious agents
  5. Environmental irritants
    - As a result of their impaired epidermal barrier, patients tolerate certain common environmental conditions and substances poorly
    - This includes things like soap, sand, woollen and synthetic fabrics and dust
    - Many cases are made worse in hot conditions
    - Most are improved in humid weather (as it helps hydrate the skin)
  6. Allergy
    - Although many patients have raised IgE to specific allergens, dermatitis is not considered to be an allergic disease
313
Q

Is Dermatitis an allergic disease?

A

 Atopic dermatitis is not caused by an allergy, it is caused by a genetic predisposition due to their defective epidermal barrier which allows irritants through (causing a reaction that has some, but not all components of an allergic response)

314
Q

What is the histological hall mark of dermatitis?

A

DERMATITIS – HISTOLOGICAL PROGRESSION
 The sequence of histological events that occur in typical dermatitis is outlined below;
1. Vesiculation (spongiosis)
- Formation of vesicles in the dermis of the skin
2. Weeping
- Occurs when the formed vesicles burst releasing their contents
3. Crusting
- The products released from the vesicles crust form a hard-outer layer
4. Chronic Lichenification
- Lichenification is caused by repeated and scratching and rubbing which eventually causes dry leathery skin with increased skin markings

315
Q

How do the most forms of Dermatitis present clinically?

A

The common clinical features of all age groups and in fact most types of dermatitis includes;
- Severe itching that wakes the patient several times a night
- A patchy, erythematous, poorly defined rash (usually in the popliteal and cubital fossa and face, but can happen anywhere on the skin)
- Xeroderma (dry skin)
- Excoriation (loss of the surface of skin from itching and scratching)
- Lichenification (thickening of the skin with accentuated skin lines from itching and scratching)
- Crusting (scabbing) and weeping (loss of fluid through the surface of the skin) due to bacterial infection

316
Q

What are the clinical features of atopic dermatitis?

A

Dry, cracked skin.
Itchiness (pruritus)
Rash on swollen skin that varies in color depending on your skin color.
Small, raised bumps, on brown or Black skin.
Oozing and crusting.
Thickened skin.
Darkening of the skin around the eyes.
Raw, sensitive skin from scratching.

317
Q

How does Psoriasis differ from Seborrhoeic
Dermatitis in the scalp? Marks 4

A
  1. Psoriasis tends to be less pruritic
  2. Psoriasis tends to be more
    marginated
  3. Psoriasis may extend past the hair
    margin
  4. Seborrhoeic Dermatitis is more
    diffuse and less well defined margin
    but psoriasis of the scalp may be
    poorly defined.
318
Q

How does Seborrhoeic Dermatitis differ from Psoriasis elsewhere on the body? Marks 4

A
  1. Seborrhoeic Dermatitis is a red, scaly
    or exudative eruption of the scalp,
    ears, face and eyebrows and
    nasolabial folds
  2. Seborrhoeic Dermatitis
    produces dry, scaly petaloid (annular)
    lesions on the pre-sternal and
    interscapular areas
  3. Seborrhoeic Dermatitis has
    poorly demarcated borders with some
    scale compared to plaque psoriasis with
    well demarcated margin and adherent
    scale in plaque psoriasis
  4. Seborrhoeic Dermatitis may have a
    Blepharitis
319
Q

It is often very difficult to differentiate Seborrhoeic
Dermatitis and Psoriasis in the axilla and the groin.
What would help you differentiate the two? Mark
2

A
  1. History e.g. age group, family
    history
  2. Evidence of the disease elsewhere
    on the body
  3. Psoriasis is more likely to have to
    have a well defined border.
  4. Psoriasis is possible on the glans
    penis but less likely for Seborrhoeic
    dermatitis
320
Q

What happens to the scale of psoriasis and
Seborrhoeic dermatitis in skin folds? Mark 1

A

In the flexors either disease
process looses the scale because
of the opposing skin surfaces

321
Q

Has Psoriasis a genetic component to incidence?
Why is this important? Mark 2

A

• Yes there is a strongly familial
component. 30 to 70% of those
with psoriasis have a positive
family history.
• It aides in the diagnosis of
psoriasis
• It also allows counselling to
parents about the risks of
psoriasis in children.

322
Q

What are the different features you may see with people
with nail involvement with psoriasis? Mark 4

A
  1. Psoriasis can enhance the speed of nail
    growth and thickness of the nail plate.
  2. Pitting is a sign of partial loss of cells
    from the surface of the nail plate. It is
    due to psoriasis in the proximal nail
    matrix.
  3. Leukonychia (areas of white on the nail
    plate) is due to parakeratosis within the
    body of the nail plate and is due to
    psoriasis in the mid-matrix.
  4. Onycholysis describes the separation of
    the nail plate from the underlying nail
    bed and hyponychium. The affected
    distal nail plate appears white or yellow.
  5. Oil drop or salmon patch is a translucent
    yellow-red discolouration in the nail bed
    proximal to onycholysis. It reflects
    inflammation and can be tender.
  6. Subungual hyperkeratosis is scaling
    under the nail due to excessive
    proliferation of keratinocytes in the nail
    bed and hyponychium.
  7. Transverse lines and ridges are due to
    intermittent inflammation, causing
    growth arrest followed by
    hyperproliferation in the proximal nail
    matrix. The lines and ridges move out
    distally as the nail grows.
  8. Psoriatic inflammation can also lead to
    nail plate crumbling, splinter
    haemorrhage, and a spotted lunula.
323
Q

What factors can exacerbate Psoriasis? Marks 9

A
  1. Streptococcal tonsillitis and
    other infections
  2. Injuries such as cuts, abrasions,
    sunburn - koebnerised psoriasis
  3. Sun exposure in 10% (sun
    exposure is more often
    beneficial)
  4. Obesity
  5. Smoking
  6. Excessive alcohol
  7. Stressful event
  8. Medications such as lithium,
    beta-blockers, antimalarials,
    NSAID and others
  9. Stopping oral steroids or strong
    topical corticosteroids.
324
Q

What is the incidence of Psoriasis? Mark 1

A

• At least three percent of the
population is affected by
psoriasis. Many patients with
mild psoriasis do not recognise
that they have it and therefore
the prevalence of this condition
may be underestimated.

325
Q

What is the classical presentation of chronic
plaque psoriasis and what is its percentage of
psoriasis? Mark 3

A

The classical presentation of psoriasis is Chronic Plaque Psoriasis and you will see scaly, red, well-defined plaques on the elbows, knees and other parts of the skin. Psoriasis has many clinical variants. It can vary from a ‘trivial’ nuisance to a disabling condition that affects the whole skin and is associated with significant systemic symptoms is scaly, red, well-defined plaques on the elbows, knees and other parts of the skin
• Chronic Plaque Psoriasis makes up
90% of psoriasis variants.

326
Q

Question 10
What common side effect of psoriasis is seen in
one third of suffers and how does it present?
Mark 8

A

• As many as one in three psoriasis patients
suffer from psoriatic arthritis. The most
common patterns are peripheral
polyarthropathy and peripheral
enthesopathy. It is usually rheumatoid-factor
negative and symptoms are usually worst at
rest.
• There are 5 main patterns of joint
involvement:
1. Distal arthritis
2. Asymmetric oligoarthritis (60%)
3. Symmetric polyarthritis
4. Spondylarthritis (axial involvement)
5. Arthritis multilane (5%).
Large and small joints may be affected.
• Distal interphalangeal involvement is a
hallmark of psoriatic arthritis and can be
difficult to distinguish from osteoarthritis.
• Symptoms include joint pain, swelling and
stiffness.
• Specific problems include difficulties with
using the hands, standing for long periods
and walking.
• Psoriatic arthritis may result in severe
damage to the joints and can be as severe as
rheumatoid arthritis.

327
Q

Question 11
What is the differential diagnosis of Psoriasis?
Summarise the differences.
Mark 10

A
  1. Tinea.
    Dermatophyte infection of skin, nails, palms
    and soles may closely mimic psoriasis. It is
    usually easy to make the differentiation with
    a fungal scraping.
  2. Discoid eczema:
    The plaques or patches of discoid eczema are
    intensely itchy, distributed on the trunk and
    limbs and are not associated with other
    features of psoriasis.
  3. Seborrhoeic dermatitis:
    This does not present with plaques and other
    features of psoriasis are absent however it
    may be difficult to tell scalp/ear psoriasis
    from Seborrhoeic dermatitis
    4.Skin Cancer:
    Superficial basal cell carcinoma and
    squamous cell carcinoma in situ (Bowen’s
    Disease) are usually asymmetrical and are
    most often found in association with sun
    damage
  4. Intertrigo:
    (An irritant dermatitis occurring in moist
    areas) may be confused with flexural
    psoriasis.
328
Q

Does Acne have a genetic component?

A

It is familial and is genetically determined. Acne is more severe in males, but more persistent in
females in whom acne can continue until menopause.

329
Q

How would you classify acne severity?

A

• Mild acne presents as superficial pustules, papules and minor comedones on the face and
upper trunk.
• Moderate acne is inflammatory and incorporates deeper lesions, large pustules and
comedones.
• Severe (or nodulocystic) acne consists of deep nodules, pustules, cysts and large comedones
and is usually associated with significant scarring. This scarring can be either hypertrophic
(raised scars, cheloids) or atrophic (depressed scars).

330
Q

What is the aetiology of acne?

A

• Increased production of sebum stimulated by the effect of androgen.
• Blockage of the pilosebaceous unit by increased keratin at the opening of the duct.
• Overgrowth of bacteria, particularly Priopionibacterium acnes.
• Inflammation
These factors result in blockage of the pilosebaceous unit leading to closed and open comedones
(blackheads) and rupture of the duct leading to inflammation (pustules, red papules and nodules).

331
Q

What is the DDx of acne?

A

• Acne rosacea (usually seen in middle age, no comedones, accompanied by flushing and
telangiectasia).
• Folliculitis and boils (no comedones, sudden onset of monomorphic pustules, not always
confined to face).
• Peri-orificial dermatitis (a type of corticosteroid induced rosacea, seen mainly around the
mouth and sides of the nose, mainly small papules, no comedones, very tiny pustules).
• Keratosis pilaris on the cheeks of young children. (Keratin plugs, not usually inflammatory,
asymptomatic).
• Tinea (very occasionally Tinea can be pustular and nodular).
• Tuberous sclerosis (firm, fixed papules, no comedones or pustules).

332
Q

What life style medications may help treat acne?

A

• Use of medications that can exacerbate acne (anabolic steroids, some oral contraceptive
pills, oral corticosteroids, lithium, phenytoin)
• Greasy sunscreens and moisturisers (replace with oil-free products).
• Hot spas and steam rooms.
• Hot, humid working environments.
• Avoid over-exposure to sun and solariums.
• Squeezing or picking lesions which may increase scarring and makes the acne look worse
than it is.
• Avoid over-washing which may irritate skin (patient often believe that acne is due to poor
hygiene)

333
Q

How do keratolytics work? Give an example.

A

Keratolytics are substances that reduce the overproduction of keratin that blocks the pilosebaceous
unit, causing comedones.
A typical prescription would be: Salicylic acid 2-5% in ethanol 70% with water to 100%

334
Q

What are common side effects of topical retinoids? What acne features are they used for?

A

Common side effects are irritation and dryness.
Topical retinoids available are:
1. Tretinoin 0.25% cream
2. Isotretinoin 0.05% gel
3. Tazarotene cream 0.05% and 0.1%
4. Adapalene cream or get 0.1%
They are used on their own for comedones only, but if acne is papulopustular as well as comedonal
they are added to an antiseptic or antibiotic.

335
Q

What alternative treatment do females have for acne?

A

Female patients an extra option of the use of anti-androgen medication.
Those used include:
1. Combined oral contraceptives containing anti-androgenic progestagens (cyproterone
acetate, desogestrel, drosperenoneor gestodene)
2. Spironolactone 50-100mg/day used with a low dose combined oral contraceptive pill.
3. Cyproterone acetate 10-25mg/day on the first 10 active pill days of a course of the
combined oral contraceptive pill.

336
Q

What are the indications of oral isotretinoin ?

A

• Nodulocystic acne
• Severe acne which has not responded to conservative treatment.
• Scarring acne
• Acne which, though not necessarily severe, is causing significant psychological distress.

337
Q

What are the common side effects of Isotretinoin?

A

• Skin, mucosal and eye dryness
• Photosensitivity
• Epistaxis
• Myalgia, arthralgia and sport intolerance
• Headaches
• Increase in serum lipids
• Lethargy

338
Q

What is our biggest concern with oral isotretinoin?

A

The drug is a potent teratogen and should not be given to pregnant women. A pregnancy test should
be done immediately prior to starting treatment. Female patients should concurrently take the oral
contraceptive pill and this should start one month before isotretinoin.

339
Q

What drug should not be given with Isotretinion?

A

Tetracyclines. The combination can result in benign intracranial hypertension.

340
Q
A

A poorly defined approximately 10
macule with variable red-brown
pigmentation and poorly defined
borders on the back. There is a 4
mm pigmented areas of tan
coloured macule with poorly
defined margins at 11-12o’clock.
There appears to be a further area
of ill-defined tan pigmentation at
2o’clock in the photo. The inferior
area has ill defined pink to red
macule with poorly defined border
and areas of whitening in the center

341
Q

What photo receptors detect which light types?

A

Rods- peripheral black and white
Cones- central colour

342
Q

If you have a sudden loss of vision what is a likely cause?

A

Vascular event.

343
Q

Floaters are caused by what four causes

A

• Hemorrhage
• Inflammation
• Vitreous degeneration
• Muscae volitantes- spots before the eyes due to cells and cell fragments in the vitreous
body and lens

344
Q

What are the causes of flashers?
Due to an irritative stimulations of retinal or visual pathway

A

• Unilateral (retinal)
• Bilateral (migraine, basilar artery insufficiency)

345
Q

What are halos and what causes them?
They are rainbow coloured rings around lights.

A

• Diffraction due to incorrect myopic correction
• Corneal oedema e.g. recent laser surgery or possible increase Intraocular pressure?

346
Q

What is Metamorphopsia and micropsia? What are the causes?

A

• Metamorphopsia is a visual defect that causes linear objects, such as lines on a grid, to
look curvy or rounded
• Micropsia is a condition of the eyes in which objects appear smaller than normal.
• They are caused by retinal oedema. A cause could be Macular degeneration.

347
Q

What are the causes of binocular and monocular diplopia?

A
  1. Binocular is when axes of both eyes are not directed to the same object
    Muscle e.g. myasthenia gravis
    Nerve damage e.g. III cranial nerve injury- PCA aneurysm
    E.g. VI cranial nerve injury – intra-cranial pressure increased
  2. Monocular- lens opacity e.g. cataracts
  3. Microvascular causes e.g. stroke, tumour
348
Q

What are two possible eye related causes of photophobia and what relieves it.

A

Iritis
b. Keratitis
Relieved by cycloplegic agents.
A third cause of severe deep pain is glaucoma or due to herpes zoster.

349
Q

What does the Snellen letters represent?

A

Height and width are 5 minutes of arc.

350
Q

What does the confrontational visual field test measure and what does it assume? What is the
use of a red marker?

A

It is a crude test which compares the examiners visual fields to the patients and assumes that
the examiners fields are normal. The red marker refines the tests.

351
Q

What is Horner’s Syndrome? What are some possible causes?

A

Horner’s Syndrome is a rare condition characterized by miosis (constriction of the pupil), ptosis
(drooping of the upper eyelid), and anhidrosis (absence of sweating of the face). It is caused by
damage to the sympathetic nerves of the face.
Causes
• Birth trauma to the neck and shoulder.
• A stroke in the brainstem.
• Injury, blood clot, or dissection of the carotid artery.
• Trauma or surgery involving the neck, upper spinal cord, or chest.
• A tumour in the brainstem, hypothalamus, upper spinal cord, neck, eye, abdomen, or chest
cavity - particularly a neuroblastoma or a tumour of the upper part of the lung (Pancoast
tumour). Neuroblastoma is one of the most common causes of Horner’s syndrome in children.
• Migraines or cluster headaches.
• Diseases that cause damage to the protective covering that surrounds nerve fibres
(demyelinating diseases).
• Development of a fluid-filled cavity or cyst within the spinal cord (syringomyelia).
• Arnold-Chiari malformation.
• Inflammation or growths that affect the lymph nodes of the neck.

352
Q

What are the functions of the extra-ocular muscles?

A

Medial rectus adduction
Lateral rectus abduction
Inferior rectus depression
Superior rectus elevation
Superior oblique depression in adduction
Excyclotorsion
Inferior oblique elevation in adduction
Incyclotorsion

353
Q

What is the order from the tympanic membrane to the inner ear (oval window) of the
ossicles?

A
  1. Malleus
  2. Incus
  3. Stapes
354
Q

What nerve runs near the incus?

A

Facial Nerve

355
Q

What are the 4 common causes of otitis media?

A
  1. viral (25%)
  2. Streptococcus pneumoniae (35%)
  3. non-typable strains of Haemophilus influenzae (25%)
  4. Moraxella catarrhalis (15%).
356
Q

What are 4 complications of otitis media?

A
  1. Perforation of the TM results in purulent otorrhoea, and usually relief of pain.
  2. Febrile convulsions are commonly related to AOM.
  3. Suppurative complications such as mastoiditis, suppurative labyrinthitis or intracranial infection
    (meningitis, extradural or subdural abscess, brain abscess) are very uncommon in our
    population.
  4. Other potential complications include facial nerve palsy, lateral sinus thrombosis, and benign
    intracranial hypertension.
  5. Effusion
357
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of otitis media with effusion?

A

Characterized by a non-purulent effusion of the middle ear that may be either mucoid or serous.
Symptoms usually involve hearing loss or aural fullness but typically do not involve pain or fever.
In children, hearing loss is generally mild and is often detected only with an audiogram. Serous otitis
media is a specific type of otitis media with effusion caused by transudate formation as a result of a
rapid decrease in middle ear pressure relative to the atmospheric pressure. The fluid in this case is
watery and clear

358
Q

What is the Pathophysiology of acute otitis media?

A

• Eustachian tube dysfunction is nearly universal in otitis media with effusion.
• Once the acute inflammation and bacterial infection have resolved, a failure of the middle ear
clearance mechanism allows middle ear effusion to persist.
• Many factors have been implicated in the failure of the clearance mechanism,
o ciliary dysfunction;
o mucosal oedema;
o hyper viscosity of the effusion;
o possibly, an unfavourable pressure gradient

359
Q

What are 4 causes of perforated tympanic membrane?

A
  1. Direct injury to the ear - for example, a punch to the ear, poking objects into the ear
  2. A sudden loud noise - for example, from a nearby explosion. The shock waves and sudden sound
    waves can tear (perforate) the eardrum. This is often the most severe type of perforation and
    can lead to severe hearing loss and ringing in the ears (tinnitus).
  3. Barotrauma. This occurs when you suddenly have a change in air pressure. For example, when
    descending in an aircraft.
  4. Grommets.
360
Q

What time will a perforated tympanic membrane heal?

A

A perforated eardrum will usually heal by itself within 6-8 weeks.

361
Q

What are the limitations of Weber test?

A
  1. There is diagnostic utility only in asymmetric hearing losses.
  2. It can detect unilateral conductive hearing loss and unilateral sensorineural hearing loss.
  3. It cannot confirm normal hearing because it does not measure sound sensitivity in a quantitative
    manner
362
Q
A

urticaria