Skills for Working in Practice Flashcards

1
Q

what is meant by trait leadership?

A

assumes there are a set of traits an individual possessed which make them suited to be a leader. (can included physical, personality, social skills)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is meant by style leadership?

A

the behaviours leaders adopt in doing leadership.

Styles or behaviours used may depend on the needs of followers in certain situations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is meant by situational leadership?

A

adapted approach to leadership depending on the situation it is involved in.
The situation may be determined for example by the people involved or the nature of an event or circumstances.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is meant by transformational leadership?

A

based on the relationship between leaders and followers.
transformational leadership appeals to hearts and minds though reference to values, purposes, insights and vision - and perhaps to the fundamental, moral and ethical ‘why’ questions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is meant by charismatic leadership?

A

takes ideas from trait leadership theory and transformational leadership.
leaders may demonstrate extraordinary qualities to rouse and inspire their followers to do ‘great things’.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is meant by Servant leadership?

A

leaders act firstly to ‘serve’ their people and organisation, putting their own needs and ‘power’ ambitions aside. Key characteristics of servant leadership include: developing people, modelling integrity and authenticity, altruistic calling, wisdom, trust, transforming influence, stewardship. There is also an ethical and moral aspect to this approach and the focus on a higher purpose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are they key points to have come out of the Francis Report 2013?

A

all areas of healthcare, dentistry included, the quality of patient care, especially patient safety, must be placed above all other aims.
-Patient safety problems exist throughout the NHS
-NHS staff are not to blame
- Incorrect priorities do damage
- Warning signals abounded and were not heeded
- Responsibility is diffused and therefore not clearly owned
- Improvement requires a system of support
- Fear is toxic to both safety and
improvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What report showed that leadership is an essential and integral aspect of effective clinical practice?

A

The Francis Report 2013

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

why is the Francis Report 2013 so important to the dental team?

A

identifies the importance to:

  • Recognize with clarity and courage the need for wide systemic change.
  • Abandon blame as a tool and trust the goodwill and good intentions of the staff.
  • Reassert the primacy of working with patients and carers to achieve healthcare goals.
  • Use quantitative targets with caution. Such goals do have an important role en route to progress, but should never displace the primary goal of better care.
  • Recognize that transparency is essential and expect and insist on it.
  • Ensure that responsibility for functions related to safety and improvement are vested clearly and simply.
  • Give the people of the NHS career-long help to learn, master and apply modern methods for quality control, quality improvement and quality planning.
  • Make sure pride and joy in work, not fear, infuse the NHS.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are the CQC 4 key lines of enquiry?

A
  • Safe
  • Caring
  • Well-led
  • Responsive
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are they key aspects of safety the CQC look at?

A
  • care and treatment of patients
  • sharps
  • safeguarding
  • whistleblowing
  • medical emergencies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are they key signs of Sepsis in an adult?

A
  • Slurred speech
  • Extreme shivering or muscle pain
  • Passing no urine in a day
  • Severe breathlessness
  • High heart rate and high or low body temperature
  • Skin mottled or discoloured
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are they key signs of Sepsis in an child?

A
  • Skin looks mottles, bluish or pale
  • Very lethargic or difficult to wake
  • Abnormally cold to the touch
  • Breathing very fast
  • Rash that does not fade when pressed
  • Seizure or convulsions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what would the CQC look for in a clinical notes review?

A
Consent
Radiographs
Smoking & alcohol 
Evidence of DBOH
Rationale for treatment
Options discussed
POIG
NICE recall
NICE guidance on prophylaxis antibiotics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what Act Stipulates that a registrant’s fitness to practice may be regarded as impaired by reason of a caution or conviction in the United Kingdom for a criminal offence?

A

Dentists Act 1984 Section (2)(d)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What did the Montgomery v Lanarkshire 2015 case teach us?

A

Ensure that all proposed care and treatment for the consent process is tailored to the individual needs of the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are they key points to consider to get informed and valid consent?

A

1.Make full notes to document the consent process, do not rely solely on a consent form

2 Discuss reasonable alternatives –where appropriate , these include the options of having no treatment at all

3 Ensure adequate time is set aside – this is easier said than done , a meaningful consent process based around a real dialogue requires more time

4 Focus on the individual patient .Is it clear that you have taken steps to understand concerns and wider circumstances – is there reference to medical conditions , psychological state , family circumstances?

5 Engage in a 2 way dialogue- record both sides of the conversation

6.Do not focus on percentages – Post Montgomery , the scientific magnitude of risk is only a factor and should not determine what risks are discussed

7Consider the risks of intervening events not just catastrophic outcomes – this may include distressing, painful or dangerous intervening events

8 Think carefully before relying on the therapeutic exception /patient autonomy

9Patient understanding – is it clear that the patient fully understood the advice given ?

  1. Leafleting is not enough – bombarding a patient with information does not discharge the duty of consent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What must healthcare professionals do as their professional duty of candour?

A
  • tell the patient (or, where appropriate, the patient’s advocate, carer or family) when something has gone wrong;
  • apologise to the patient (or, where appropriate, the patient’s advocate, carer or family);
  • offer an appropriate remedy or support to put matters right (if possible); and
  • explain fully to the patient (or, where appropriate, the patient’s advocate, carer or
    family) the short and long term effects of what has happened.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what does meant by direct access?

A

Dental hygienists and dental therapists can carry out their full scope of practice except toothwhitening without needing a prescription from a dentist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is a Patient group directive?

A

A PGD is a written instruction which allows listed healthcare professionals to sell, supply or administer named medicines in an identified clinical situation without the need for a written, patient-specific pre scription from an approved prescriber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what can ortho therapists do?

A

Reversible orthodontic procedures under supervision…

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what can oath therapists not do?

A
modify prescribed arch wires
give local analgesia
remove sub-gingival deposits 
re-cement crowns
place temporary dressings 
diagnose disease
treatment plan
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what additional skills can an orthodontic therapist get?

A

• applying fluoride varnish to the prescription of a dentist
• repairing the acrylic component part of orthodontic appliances
• measuring and recording plaque indices
• removing sutures after the wound has
been checked by a dentist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what can dental hygienists not do?

A
  • restore teeth
  • carry out pulp treatments
  • adjust unrestored surfaces
  • extract teeth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what additional skills can a dental hygienist get?

A

• tooth whitening to the prescription of a dentist
• administering inhalation sedation
• removing sutures after the wound has
been checked by a dentist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what additional skills can a dental therapist get?

A

• carrying out tooth whitening to the prescription of a dentist
• administering inhalation sedation
• removing sutures after the wound has
been checked by a dentist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what can dental therapists not do?

A
Lab work 
extractions 
RCT 
Crown prep 
bridge prep 
adjust dentures 
describe POM
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What model in a DCP uses all members of the team?

A

skill-mix model

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what percentage of treatments did evans 2007 say dental therapists undertake?

A

43%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what are the obstacles dental therapists have in GDP?

A
  • Only the dentist can open a course of NHS treatment.
  • Perception that it is not economically viable to employ dental therapists.
  • Lack of understanding about abilities, skills and training
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How many UDAs are received for a band 1?

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How many UDas for band 3?

A

12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

HOw many UDAs for band 2?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is included in NHS band 1 treatment?

A

clinical examination, radiographs, scaling and polishing, preventive dental work, such as oral health advice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How many UDAs for band 1 emergency?

A

1.2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is included in NHS band 2 treatment?

A

simple treatment, for example fillings, including root canal therapy, extractions, surgical procedures and denture additions Periodontal therapy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is included in NHS band 1 emergency treatment?

A

treatment including examination, radiographs, dressings, recementing crowns, up to two extractions, one filling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is included in NHS band 3 treatment?

A

complex treatment, which includes a laboratory element, such as bridgework, crowns, and dentures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what are the basic records required to be self employed?

A
  • A record of fee invoices to the practice/practices
  • A record of all business purchases and expenses
  • Invoices or evidence of payment for all business purchases and expenses
  • Details of any amounts you personally pay into or take from the business
  • Copies of business bank statements
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the purpose of a clinical audit?

A

to find out if healthcare is being provided in line with the standards and lets care providers and patients know where their service is doing well and where there could be improvements.
The aim is to allow quality improvements to take place where it is most helpful and will improve outcomes for patients.

41
Q

How is a clinical audit carried out?

A
  • Ask a question
  • Look at the current protocol
  • Observe if it is being carried out correctly (to protocol)
  • data analysis
  • share findings
  • Re-audit.
42
Q

Who must be training in a dental surgery to deal with medical emergencies?

A

all registrants with the GDC must be trained in dealing with ME, including resuscitation, and the possess unto date evidence of capability.

43
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:

Orthodontic therapists can modify prescribed arch wires.

A

FALSE

44
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:

Orthodontic therapists cannot give LA

A

TRUE

45
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:

Orthodontic therapists can remove sub-gingival deposits

A

FALSE

46
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:

Orthodontic therapists can re-cement crown

A

FALSE

47
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:

Orthodontic therapists cannot place temp dressings

A

TRUE

48
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:

Orthodontic therapists cannot diagnosis disease

A

TRUE

49
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:

Orthodontic therapists can treatment plan

A

FALSE.

50
Q

what additional skills can an orthodontic therapist undertake?

A

• applying fluoride varnish to the prescription of a dentist
• repairing the acrylic component part of orthodontic appliances
• measuring and recording plaque indices • removing sutures after the wound has
been checked by a dentist

51
Q

what additional skills can a dental hygienist do?

A

• tooth whitening to the prescription of a dentist
• administering inhalation sedation
• removing sutures after the wound has
been checked by a dentist

52
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:

Dental Hygienists can restore teeth

A

FALSE

53
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:

Dental Hygienists cannot carry out pulp treatments

A

TRUE

54
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:

Dental Hygienists cannot adjust unrestored surfaces

A

TRUE

55
Q

what additional skills can a dental therapist undertake?

A

• carrying out tooth whitening to the prescription of a dentist
• administering inhalation sedation
• removing sutures after the wound has
been checked by a dentist

56
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:

Dental Therapists can change the number of surfaces to be restored or the material to be used for a restoration

A

TRUE

57
Q

How many hours CPD does a dentist need to complete over 5 years?

A

100

58
Q

How many hours CPD does a dental therapist need to complete over 5 years?

A

75

59
Q

How many hours CPD does a dental hygienist need to complete over 5 years?

A

75

60
Q

How many hours CPD does a orthodontic therapist need to complete over 5 years

A

75

61
Q

How many hours CPD does a clinical dental technician need to complete over 5 years

A

75

62
Q

How many hours CPD does a dental nurse need to complete over 5 years

A

50

63
Q

How many hours CPD does a dental technician need to complete over 5 years

A

50

64
Q

what does the GDC consider as development outcome A?

A

Effective communication with patients, the dental team and others across dentistry, including when obtaining consent, dealing with complaints, and raising concerns when patients are at risk;

65
Q

what does the GDC consider as development outcome B?

A

Effectivemanagementofselfandeffective management of others or effective work with others in the dental team, in the interests of patients; providing constructive leadership where appropriate;

66
Q

what does the GDC consider as development outcome C?

A

Maintenance and development of knowledge and skill within your field of practice;

67
Q

what does the GDC consider as development outcome D?

A

Maintenanceofskills,behavioursand attitudes which maintain patient confidence in you and the dental profession and put patients’ interests first.

68
Q

When does each GDC year start?

A

1st August

69
Q

What are the GDC required topics for CPD?

A
  • Medical emergencies
  • disinfection and decor
  • radiography
70
Q

What are the GDC recommended topics for CPD?

A
  • legal and ethical issues
  • complaints handling
  • oral cancer
  • safeguarding.
71
Q

What is the only exception to Dental hygienists and dental therapists can carry out their full scope of practice without prescription and without the patient having to see a dentist first?

A

When the patient is having tooth whitening,

72
Q

What does the GDC recommend regarding new graduates and direct access?

A

Dental hygienists and therapists must be confident that they have the skills and competences to treat patients direct. A period of practice working to a dentist’s prescription is a good way to assess this.

73
Q

Can orthodontic therapists carry out a IOTN (Index of orthodontic treatment need) before seeing a dentist first?

A

YES - but rest of their work needs to be carried out to the prescription f a dentist.

74
Q

When can clinical dental technicians see patients directly without the prescription of a dentist?

A

for the provision and maintenance of full dentures only

75
Q

who can give oral health advice directly to patients?

A

all dental professionals.

76
Q

Who is taking the overall responsibility for the patient’s care in the direct access model?

A

It depends who is treating the patient. If the patient is only seeing a dental care professional, then that registrant would be responsible. If the patient is under the care of the dental team, including a dentist who is prescribing the treatment, then the dentist would have overall responsibility.

77
Q

Who is responsible for patient consent?

A

Consent must be obtained from the patient for all treatment undertaken and for any referral to other members of the dental team. Therefore every dental professional is responsible for obtaining the patient’s consent when they are in their care.

78
Q

what is the purpose of an RPA (Radiation Protection Adviser)?

A
The employer must consult an RPA about observance of the regulations, and in particular
controlled areas
plans for installations
equipment calibration
testing engineering controls
79
Q

What is the purpose of a RPS (Radiation Protection Supervisor)?

A
Appoint in writing
Supervises the radiation work
Must
understand the regulations
command sufficient authority
understand the necessary precautions
know what to do in an emergency
80
Q

Who do you report and radiographic incident to? (usually due to equipment failure)

A

Heath and Safety Executive.

81
Q

why ALARP?

A
Reduces the necessity for retakes
Minimises radiation exposure to patient
Minimise costs
Minimise inconvenience
Saves time
82
Q

Radiograph image quality 1 means:

A

no errors of preparation, exposure, positioning, processing or handling

83
Q

Radiograph image quality 2 means:

A

some errors but which do not detract from the diagnostic utility of the radiograph

84
Q

Radiograph image quality 3 means:

A

errors which render the radiograph diagnostically unacceptable

85
Q

If an xray is too pale what would have caused it?

A

underexposed

underprocessed

86
Q

If an xray is too dark what would have caused it?

A

overexposed

overprocessed

87
Q

If an xray has low contrast what would have caused it?

A
Overdevelopment
Underdevelopment
Fixer contamination
Inadequate fixation
Fixer exhaustion
88
Q

what should be included in the radiation protection file?

A
Local rules
Employer’s Procedures 
Audits
Maintenance Records
Staff – responsibilities and training
89
Q

why must you give justification to taking X-rays?

A

Justification requires that the patients receives a NET BENEFIT from the exposure

90
Q

What reasons are there for taking dental X-rays?

A
Developing dentition
 Dental caries diagnosis
 Periodontal assessment
Endodontics
 Implantology
91
Q

what is meant by cervical burnout on radiographs?

A

Radiolucent band around the necks of teeth
Due to the x-rays overpenetrating or burning out
the thinner tooth edge
Cervical root edge intact albeit dark
Usually inner edge is more diffuse and rounded
than caries

92
Q

what is known as the mach effect on radiographs?

A

Visual illusion
When uniformly dark area meets uniformly light area ie dentine and enamel, the dark shade appears even darker and light shade lighter

93
Q

how often do BW need to be taken for high risk child?

A

6 monthly bitewings until no new or active lesions or patient changes into different risk category

94
Q

how often do BW need to be taken for moderate risk child?

A

annually BW

95
Q

how often do BW need to be taken for low risk child?

A

12-18monthly bitewings in primary dentition, 2 year intervals in permanent dentition

96
Q

how often do BW need to be taken for high risk adult?

A

6 monthly

97
Q

how often do BW need to be taken for moderate risk adult?

A

annually

98
Q

how often do BW need to be taken for low risk adult?

A

2 yearly