Skeletal system--bone and joints Flashcards

1
Q

What are osteoblasts?

A

Bone forming cells that produce collagenous matrix scaffold

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2
Q

What are osteoclasts?

A

Bone resorption

• Large, multinucleated cells of monocyte-macrophage origin

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3
Q

What are osteocytes?

A

Osteoblasts incorporated into lacunae of mature bone

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4
Q

What are chondrocytes?

A

Cartilage forming cells found in lacunae of cartilage

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5
Q

What does PTH do?

A

Produced in the parathyroid gland in response to decreased blood calcium
• Induces osteoclast activity and renal resorption of calcium

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6
Q

What does vitamin D do?

A

Stimulates GI absorption of calcium and mineralization of bone

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7
Q

What does calcitonin do?

A

Produced by C-cells of thyroid gland in response to increased blood calcium
• Inhibits osteoclast activity with subsequent overall increase of bone formation

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8
Q

What is cortical bone?

A

Outer shell of bone

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9
Q

What is cancellous bone?

A

Bony trabeculae within cortical bone covering
• Intertrabecular space contains vascular structures, adipose tissue and blood element forming bone marrow (axial >appendicular)

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10
Q

What is lamellar bone?

A

Normal bone formed by concentric depostion of bone in parallel sheets

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11
Q

What is woven bone?

A

Disorganized new bone without concentric architecture

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12
Q

What are the flat bones?

A

skull, sternum, pelvis

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13
Q

Describe long bones

A

Growth plate: Occupies area between the epiphysis and the metaphysis and closes with full maturity
• Epiphysis: Region between growth plate and joint end of bone
• Metaphysis: Region on central shaft (diaphyseal) side of growth plate
• Diaphysis Central shaft of bone

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14
Q

How do we determine types of fractures?

A

Clinical classifications indicate underlying cause and severity of fracture

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15
Q

Describe the stages of healing

A

1) Organization of hematoma with influx of fibroblasts
2) Callus formation
• Deposition of bone & cartilage matrix within hematoma
• Begins by end of first week and usually completed by three weeks
3) Callus remodeling: Osteoblasts and osteoclasts work together to form strong bone architecture

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16
Q

What is the mechanism of infection for osteomyelitis?

A

Hematogenous: Most common source via spread through bloodstream
• Spread from adjacent soft tissue infection
• Trauma

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17
Q

organisms of osteomyelitis

A

Staphylococcus aureus: 80-90% of infections
Other pyogenic bacteria: Salmonella (esp. in sickle cell anemia), E. coli, etc.
-Tuberculosis and syphilis are rare causes

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18
Q

Complications of osteomyelitis

A

-Chronic osteomyelitis: Delayed diagnosis or inadequate antibiotic treatment
• Pathologic fractures
• Bacteremia/endocarditis

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19
Q

What is the pathogenesis of osteoporosis?

A

• Metabolic imbalance: Bone resorption > bone deposition
Determinants:
• Total bone mass
• Accumulation up to 20-30; then downhill
• African > caucasian; Male > female
• Aging related changes: Normal variable degree of bone loss
• Estrogen deficiency: Increased osteoclastic activity secondary to cytokines
• Genetic predisposition: Genetic variants of vitamin D receptor
• Physical activity: Immobilization (paralysis; may be localized); Inactivity
• Other hormonal influences: PTH (hyperparathyroidism); Excess steroid (Cushing?s, exogenous)

20
Q

What are histological characterizations of osteoporosis?

A

Less bone with thin cortical bone and bony trabeculae

• Normal mineralization and architecture of cortical and trabecular bone

21
Q

Complications of osteoporosis

A

Fractures – Weight bearing bones (i.e.spinal vertebrae) most prone to fracture

22
Q

Dental disease in osteoporosis/menopause

A

-Oral X-rays show significant jaw bone loss
• Possible association with increased tooth loss and attachment loss
• Dental implants – May be contraindicated; Long-term follow up
• Renal osteodystrophy, osteomalacia & Paget?s dis. also may cause complications
• Menopause also assoc. with gingivitis/periodontitis, caries, taste/saliva alts.

23
Q

Vit. D deficiency names for children vs. adults

A

Rickets (children) or Osteomalacia (adults)

24
Q

Causes of Vit. D deficiency

A

-Inadequate sunlight: Required for synthesis of vitamin D precursors
• Malabsorption: Fat soluble vitamins such as vitamin D
• Inadequate dietary intake of vitamin D
• Abnormal vitamin D activity: Loss due to chronic renal failure; End-organ resistance to vitamin D

25
What is the pathology of vit. D deficiencies?
- Decreased bone causes deformities and/or fractures | • Decreased mineralization
26
What is the cause (pathogenesis) of Osteitis Fibrosa Cystica?
Hyperparathyroidism • Parathyroid adenomas most common cause; Parathyroid hyperplasia • Induction of osteoclastic and fibroblastic activity leads to increased resorption of mineral from bone
27
What is the pathology of Osteitis Fibrosa Cystica?
Irregular, moth-eaten trabecular bone | • ?Brown tumor? – Repeated hemorrhage due to micro-fracture with subsequent fibrosis and macrophage infiltration
28
What is the epidemiology of Paget's disease?
Older age: Approximately 3% of population over 50 y.o. affected in U.S. • Cause unknown: Potential viral etiology • Monostotic (localized) form is less common; Polyostotic form approx. 90%
29
What are the three stages of Paget's disease?
1) Irregular osteoclastic resorption 2) Osteoblastic reformation 3) Osteosclerosis: Late thickening of bone due to net osteoblastic activity
30
What is the Pathology of Paget's disease?
* Haphazard bone architecture: Normal concentric lamellar pattern absent * Highly vascularized bone
31
What are the unique characteristics of neoplastic bone disease?
Type of neoplasm often affect specific bones or age groups: Differential diagnostic considerations greatly affected by these parameters • Characteristic radiologic features: May be more informative than histology
32
What are two types of non-neoplastic mass forming diseases?
1) Fibrous dysplasia • Slow replacement of bone by fibroblasts, collagen and irregular bony trabeculae • Monostotic form more common than polyostotic form 2) Aneurysmal bone cyst: Characteristic radiographic appearance; Histology concerning for malignancy
33
What type of benign bone tumor is an osteoma (benign bone tumor)?
* Exophytic lesions that usually affect skull and facial bones * Usually don?t need treatment * Gardner?s syndrome: Osteomas, GI polyps and soft tissue tumors
34
What are endochondromas (benign bone tumor)?
Exophytic lesions with prominent cartilaginous caps • Occur on metaphyseal portions of long bones with predilection for bones of hand • Rarely may progress to malignancy
35
What type of malignant potential do Giant Cell Tumors of the bone have?
unknown
36
What is giant cell tumor of the bone? Who does it affect?
Middle aged patients (20 - 40 y.o.) • Occur in epiphyses of long bones of legs and arms •
37
What is the histology of giant cell tumor of the bone?
* Numerous multinucleated giant cells mixed with small uninucleate cells * Small cells thought to be neoplastic cells * 90% benign/10% malignant * No histologic or other features that allow differentiation of benign from malignant tumors * Development of metastases only sure indicator of malignancy
38
What type of cancer is osteosarcoma?
Affects adolescents and young adults, 10-25 y.o. mostly with involvement of metaphyses of appendiceal bones (femur, humerus, etc.) • Histology characterized presence of osteoid and malignant, anaplastic osteoblasts • Treat with surgery, chemo- and radio-therapy; 60% 5 year survival
39
What is chondrosarcoma?
``` Older patients (>35 y.o.) with predilection for involvement of central skeleton • Histology characterized by presence of multiple chondrocytes in lacunae with variable degree of atypia • Survival dependent on degree of differentiation ```
40
What is Ewing's Sarcoma and whom does it affect?
Younger age group: Rare after 30 and peak incidence in second decade • Male > female (2:1) • Histology: sheets of uniform small blue cells with syncytial appearance and separated by fibrous septae Cytogenetics: • Translocation 11;22 present in nearly 100% of tumors • PCR assay can be used to establish diagnosis or screen for residual disease Treatment via surgery, chemo- and radio-therapy Prognosis ranges from 45–70% 5 year survival
41
What is the pathology of osteoarthritis?
Pathogenesis • Trauma (wear and tear) and congenital abnormalities are primary influences • Other factors may contribute to small degree – Genetics, osteoporosis Clinical Features • Pauci- or oligo-articular • Large joints (hip, knee) and back are primarily affected • Worse after use (i.e. late in the day) Pathologic features • Cartilage degeneration (loss, fibrillation) with little inflammation • Bone spurs and osteophytes without ankylosis and subchondral cyst formation
42
Discuss Rh. Arthritis
Pathogenesis • Autoimmune – Complex lymphocyte and immune complex mediated • Extra-articular disease including rheumatoid nodules, lung disease, etc. • Rheumatoid factor – Serum marker of disease Clinical Features • Multi-articular and usually bilateral/symmetric • Small joints initially (i.e. hand) but may progress to large joints • Worse after inactivity (i.e. in the morning) Pathologic Features • Cartilage destruction with inflammation and pannus form./granulation tissue • Bony and fibrous ankylosis (unlike osteoarthritis)
43
Discuss infectious arthritis--an inflammatory arthropathy
Clinical/Pathogenesis • Hematogenous (sepsis) or traumatic/direct spread from soft tissue • Pyogenic bacteria (Staph., Strep., Hemophilus, GNRs) or TB • Pathology – Large numbers of neutrophils in the synovial fluid
44
Discuss gout/crystal arthropathies (inflammatory arthropathies)
Clinical/Pathogenesis • Hyperuricemia (renal dis., overproduction) leads to deposits in joints • Big toe (classic site) and others (knee, etc) can be involved • Other crystal arthropathies also occur (pseudogout – Ca pyrophosphate) • Pathology – Crystals (& neutrophils) with specific polarization characteristics in synovial fluid and gouty tophi (deposits in soft tissues)
45
What is an osteochondroma?
Exophytic lesions with prominent cartilaginous caps Occur on metaphyseal portions of long bones with predilection for AROUND THE KNEWW Rarely may progress to malignancy
46
What is enchondroma?
Benign cartilage tumor arising in medullary cavity of bone | Metaphyseal lesion of tubular bones, especially of hands and feet