Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Six Sigma > Six Sigma > Flashcards

Six Sigma Flashcards

1
Q

What does a Kano Diagram represent?

A

Customer Satisfaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the three elements of a Kano Diagram?

A
  1. Order Qualifiers 2. More is better 3. Delighters
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does SIPOC stand for?

A

Suppliers Inputs Process Outputs Customers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does DMAIC stand for?

A

Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve, Control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does DMADV stand for?

A

Define, Measure, Analyze, Design, Verify

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does COPQ?

A

Cost of Poor Quality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is CTQs?

A

Critical to Quality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is LSL?

A

Lower Specification Level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is USL?

A

Upper Specification Level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the definition of customer requirements?

A

The ares between the LSL and USL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does sigma mean?

A

Standard Deviation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does Mu mean?

A

The mean

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the sigma?

A

The average distance of data points away from the centre of the data.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Over time variations develop in a process. how many sigma variations are added as standard?

A

1.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Inputs are also known as?

A

x factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Outputs are also known as?

A

y factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Are inputs independent or dependent variables?

A

Independent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Are outputs independent or dependent variables?

A

Dependent (dependent upon inputs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the formula for expressing output dependency?

A

y=f(x1,x2,etc)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

In the formula y=f(x) what does y, f and x stand for?

A

y=output, f=function, x=inputs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the pareto rule?

A

80% of issues come from 20% of sources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the aim of the pareto rule?

A

To focus on the 20% which has the greatest impact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does CTCs stand for?

A

Critical to Customer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How is customer value defined

A

Value = benefit-cost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the four types of costs of poor quality?

A
  1. Internal Failure - Defects before the items have been sent to the customer.
  2. External Failure - Defects after the item has been sent to the customer.
  3. Prevention Costs - Activities taken to prevent and improve quality.
  4. Detection - Appraisal Costs - Detection of defects after they occur.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the sweet stop for Cost of Poor Quality

A

A balance between investment in Quality and number of Defects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Costs of poor quality can be hard or soft, name three of each category?

A

Hard =

a. Rework
b. Rejects/scrap
c. Increased inspection
Soft =

a. Damage to reputation.
b. Lost Sales.
c. Late deliveries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Give an example of a cost associated with Internal Failure?

A

Quality Department/Final Inspections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Give an example of a cost associated with External Failure?

A

Warrantys, Customer charge back cost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Give an example of a cost associated with Quality Prevention?

A

In-process error proofing devices, product redesign.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Give an example of a cost associated with Detection, Appraisal

A

Extra testing, Supplier audits.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Name some low cost quality improvement activities?

A

Employee engagement & ideas
Kaizen
Error Proof Design
Work standardisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What key metrics focus improvement efforts on reduction in variation?

A

Defects per unit (DPU)
Defects per million opportunities (DPMO)
Parts per million defective (PPM)
Rolled Throughput Yield (RTP)/First Pass Yield (FPY)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the formula for Defects per unit?

A

Total defects/sample size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the formula for Defects per million opportunities?

A

Total Defects/Total Defect opportunities x 1m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What DPMO does a six sigma process achieve?

A

3.4 DPMO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the formula for Parts per Million Defective?

A

Total defected units/total opportunities x 1m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the formula for First Time Yield?

A

Total Units Passed/Total United Tested

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the difference between first time yield and Rolled throughput yield (First Pass yield)?

A

First time yield is measured at the end of the process and shows total defects at the end of the process. Rolled throughput yield measures the percentage of time a unit passes each stage without failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is another name for First Pass Yield?

A

Rolled Throughput Yield

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the criteria required for estimating RTY?

A

Must be fewer than 10% defective items with more than 16 opportunities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the formula estimating RTY?

A

RTY= e-DPU e to the power of DPU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

In estimating RTY what is e calculated at?

A

=2.71828

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is Lean?

A

Lean is a philosophy - a set of principles, supported by a set of tools, designed to eliminate waste.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the three principles of Lean?

A
  1. Focus on adding value to the customer.
  2. Relentless pursuit of perfection through continuous improvement.
  3. Focus on the elimination of waste.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How are the lean philosophy activities defined?

A
  1. VA - Valued added (to the customer)
  2. NVA (but necessary)
  3. NVA.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How would a lean process be defined?

A

A lean process uses the minimum amount of time, material, people,space, energy needed to add value to product.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the 7 elements of waste?

A

TIM WOOD

Transport
Inventory
Motion
Waiting
Over production
Over processing
Defects
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What two elements of waste are not included in TIM WOOD?

A

Unused Talent, Poor Safety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is Gemba?

A

Go see at the scene, waste walk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What does 5s stand for?

A

Sort - Remove clutter
Set In Order - Store item correctly, set locations
Shine - Clean work area
Standardise - Set as the norm, enforcement
Sustain - Remain disciplined

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is a value stream map?

A

A value stream map is used for analysing current state vs designing future state, it includes C/T cycle time in each part of the process to identify waste opportunities.

53
Q

With a normal distribution, at one standard deviation from the mean we would find:

A

The mode
A point of inflection
The median
A local maximum

54
Q

Which of the following are true about RTY (select all that apply)

A

RTY includes losses from rework
RTY can be estimated from the number of defects per unit, if the number of defects is low
RTY is the sum of the yields at each step in the process
RTY is also known as first pass yield
RTY is the probability that that a process will complete all required steps without any failures

55
Q

A Kanban control system primarily reduces which type of waste:

A 
Overproduction
Transport / Conveyance
Over-processing
Waiting
Defects
56
Q

In the value stream map shown on the ‘Test Question Resources (SSBB): DEFINE’ page, under ‘Image 1, what percentage of the lead time is value added?

A 
100%
98 . 2%
36 . 1%
1 . 8%
0%
Can’t tell
57
Q

What is the English translation of the Japanese word “muda”?

A 
The process of standardisation
A schedule of local, team-based improvement events
Mistake-proofing
Sigma
Waste
58
Q

Quality is defined by?

A

Design Engineering, through the design specification
The customer
Conformance to ISO9001
The end-of-line inspection standards
Consistently achieving the product claims made in the sales brochure

59
Q

Lean Six-Sigma financial savings come primarily from..?

A

Reducing the waste associated with process variation
Increased sales through higher quality products
Labour savings through increased productivity
Improved financial analysis

60
Q

The following are examples of customers for a project (select all that apply).

A 
A regulatory agency
The local community
A competitor
The Shipping Department
The company’s electricity supplier
61
Q

Which of the following are examples of internal customers (select all that apply)?

A 
Despatch
A regulatory agency
The Health and Safety Department
The end user for our product
Senior Management
62
Q

Choose an answer to complete the sentence: In an organisation, the ___________ Champion would typically select projects to ensure that the CI programme aligns with business strategy.

A

Project
Product
Programme
Business

63
Q

A Six Sigma process… (select all that apply):

A

Is not subject to 1 . 5-sigma drift over time
Usually requires process redesign to achieve
Has two ranges, each of 3 standard deviations
Has a long-term expected performance of 3.4 defects per million opportunities
Is usually prohibitively expensive, and therefore only worth pursuing in safety-critical industries
Has 6 standard deviations between the mean output and the closest specification limit

64
Q

The difference between CTCs and CTQs is…?

A

The level of criticality
“Must-haves” versus “nice-to-haves”
What’s required by our customers versus what’s important in our processes
There is no difference
One is the benefit seen by the customer, the other is the cos

65
Q

Value is defined as?

A 
Benefit minus cost for the customer
Benefit minus cost for any given stakeholder
The quality performance of the process
Customer satisfaction
Sales price minus cost
66
Q

True or False: Voice of the Business describes where value is being diminished, where meeting customer requirements is causing pain.

A

True

False

67
Q

Choose an answer to complete the sentence: A Six Sigma project improves process performance by finding and controlling the ______________ (or input) variables.

A

independent
dependent
defined
most important

68
Q

Six Sigma is based on the premise that poor quality is caused by?

A 
Poor workplace organisation
Waste
Variation
Lack of management support
People
69
Q

True or false: The process shown on the ‘Test Question Resources (SSBB): DEFINE’ page, under ‘Image 2, is running at a 4-sigma level, because 4 standard deviations will fit between the specification limits

A

True

False

70
Q

Which of the following are measures of variation in a process (select all that apply)?

A 
Mean
Sigma
Variance
Standard deviation
Interquartile range
71
Q

A process has a long-term first pass yield of 99.4%. What sigma level is it operating at?

A

9
4
6
3

72
Q

When selecting an area of the business to focus on for improvement projects, the Quality Champion is most likely to use..?

A 
A box plot
A Pareto chart
A normal distribution
An SPC chart
All of the above
73
Q

True or False: A tool for mapping the high-level process and defining the scope is known as a ‘SIPOC’.

A

True

False

74
Q

A project team in a large company is given the task of “halving the warranty bill for all products”. This is an example of:

A 
A well-defined project scope
Boil the ocean
Micro-focused
Solution in mind
Multiple focuses
75
Q

Which of the following are preventative costs of poor quality (select all that apply)?

A 
Warranty
Containment
Product redesign
Supplier certification
Inspection
76
Q

A Service Manager wants to focus his efforts on warranty improvement. Based on the image shown on the ‘Test Question Resources (SSBB): DEFINE’ page, under ‘Image 3’, which products should a project focus on, in order to address at least 50% of the warranty costs?

A 
Product A
Product D
Products A & D
Products A, B and D
All products
77
Q

True or False: In Lean philosophy, the 7 wastes are Transport (conveyance), Inventory, Motion, Waiting, Defects (correction), over-processing and overproduction

A

True

False

78
Q

Uploading and downloading information is an example of which waste?

A

Time
Production
Processing
Transport (or conveyance)

79
Q

Which of the following are classified as hard (rather than soft) costs (select all that apply)?

A 
Warranty
Late deliveries
Rework
Excess inventory
Lost sales
80
Q

The Y measure for a process is the…?

A

Control variable
Dependent variable
Independent variable
Attribute variable

81
Q

What is Takt Time?

A

Baton, Pulse or Beat Time

82
Q

Name 5 types of process maps?

A

Linear, Swim Lane, SIPOC, Value Stream Map, Spaghetti Map

83
Q

What does RFT stand for?

A

Right First Time

84
Q

What does a spaghetti map show?

A

Movement of product, people, equipment.

85
Q

What are the rules of input?

A

Must be specifically linked to the primary or secondary metric.

86
Q

RUMBA is the rule of inputs, what does it stand for?

A

Reasonable, Understandable, Measurable, Believable, Achievable.

87
Q

What are the three input classifications?

A

Controllable, Procedural, Uncontrollable (Noise)

88
Q

What is the aim of a cause and effect diagram?

A

The aim is to generate a list of Xs

89
Q

What are two types of Cause and Effect Diagrams?

A

Fishbone and 5whys

90
Q

What is the purpose of the X-Y matrix?

A

To determine the significance of each x-y relationship

91
Q

What weighting is given to the primary metric in the X-Y matrix?

A

10

92
Q

What does FMEA stand for?

A

Failure Modes Effects Analysis

93
Q

What is the purpose of the FMEA?

A

To analyse the ways in which a process can fail.

94
Q

What does RPN stand for?

A

Risk Priority Number

95
Q

How is the RPN calculated?

A

Severity x Occurrence x Detection

96
Q

What is meant by qualitative data?

A

Subjective data, used to classify or judge

97
Q

What is meant by quantitative data?

A

Data with numbers, used to measure.

98
Q

What types of quantitative data are there?

A

Discrete, continuous.

99
Q

What types of qualitative data are there?

A

attribute, nominal, ordinal

100
Q

What is the difference between nominal/ordinal data?

A

Nominal has no logic order in the data, Ordinal does

101
Q

What is the difference between discrete and continuous data?

A

Discrete - count (non divisible) , Continous = measure, finer and finer detail.

102
Q

What is the mean?

A

Average, pivot point on a graph

103
Q

What is the median?

A

The middle value when data arranged in order

104
Q

What is the mode?

A

The most common value

105
Q

What is the spread on a data set?

A

The range

106
Q

What is the interquartile range?

A

The range between the 25th and 75th percentile

107
Q

What is the standard deviation?

A

The average distance of the data points from the mean.

108
Q

What happens to the variance with greater spread?

A

Greater variance

109
Q

What is the minimum sample size for statistical relevance?

A

30

110
Q

What chart would be used to check for normal distribution of a data set?

A

Histogram

111
Q

What does it mean if a p value was less than 0.05?

A

Statistical difference exists in the data set.

112
Q

What is a dot plot graph and how is it used?

A

Plots dots on a graph to indicate shape of sample and shows unusual data points.

113
Q

What is brushing and what is it used for?

A

Shows each individual data point on a scale, indicates shape of sample and shows unusual data points.

114
Q

What is a box plot graph?

A

The box on the visualization contains the interquartile range, middle 50% with the whiskers containing the upper and lover 25% of the data set.

115
Q

What is a Time series plot?

A

Shows the values over time on an x axis.

116
Q

What is the use of a scatter-plot?

A

Shows the relationship between two variables.

117
Q

What is measurement systems analysis?

A

measurement of true value + error from operator, equipment or method to show the measured value.

118
Q

What is the purpose of Measurement systems analysis?

A

The determine how accurate and precise our method of measurement is.

119
Q

What are the causes of measurement error?

A

Poor Training, Poor Sampling, Poor procedures, inaccurate, insufficient or non calibrated measuring devices and awkward or time consuming measurements.

120
Q

What is the difference between accuracy and precision?

A

Accuracy is how close the measured values are to the true values. Precision is the variation seen between the repeated measurements of the same thing.

121
Q

What is accuracy bias?

A

The distance between the true value and the measured value.

122
Q

What is accuracy linearity?

A

The accuracy of the measurement across data values.

123
Q

What is accuracy resolution?

A

The ability of the measurement to give the detail required.

124
Q

What is accuracy stability?

A

the accuracy of the measurement method over time.

125
Q

What is the minimum number of runs/parts, operators and measurements required in a measurement systems analysis for continuous data?

A

Runs/Parts =10
Operators = 3
Measurements = 2 per par, per operator.

126
Q

Gauge r&r is the percentage of variation that comes from the measurement, what is the acceptable percentage of variation?

A

30%, Ideally 10%

127
Q

What is the minimum number of runs/parts, operators and measurements required in a measurement systems analysis for quantitative data?

A

Runs/Parts =30
Operators = 3
Measurements = 2 per par, per operator.

128
Q

What is the definition of reproduciblility?

A

% of parts/sample where the appraisers agree with each other, give the same answer.

129
Q

What is the kappa score?

A

The kappa statistics tell us how much better the measurement system is than random chance.

Six Sigma (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions