Single Topic Flashcards

1
Q

Running a system in safe mode:

A. protects the system from viruses.
B. protects the system from data loss.
C. loads a minimum number of drivers.
D. prevents unauthorized access.

A

C. loads a minimum number of drivers.

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2
Q

Your backup plan calls for a full backup every Sunday. Every other day of the week, you need to back up only the changes since the last full backup. Which backup type should you use for Tuesday?

A. Daily
B. Normal
C. Copy
D. Differential

A

D. Differential

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3
Q

To protect a server in case of a blackout, you should use a/an:

A. Uninterruptible Power Supply.
B. Dedicated surge protector.
C. Power Supply Unit.
D. Redundant power supply.
E. Hot-swappable power supply.
F. Line conditioner.
A

A. Uninterruptible Power Supply.

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4
Q

Which tool would you use to retrieve detailed information about a significant occurrence in a computer system?

A. Event Viewer
B. System Information
C. System Monitor
D. Resource Monitor

A

A. Event Viewer

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5
Q

Which task is executed during the Power-On Self Test (POST)?

A. The amount of system RAM is detected.
B. The Master Boot Record is created.
C. The operating system is initialized.
D. Disk file systems are detected.

A

Correct Answer: A (The amount of system RAM is detected.)
The principal duties of the main BIOS during POST are as follows:
✑ verify CPU registers
✑ verify the integrity of the BIOS code itself
✑ verify some basic components like DMA, timer, interrupt controller
✑ find, size, and verify system main memory
✑ initialize BIOS
✑ pass control to other specialized BIOSes (if and when required)
✑ identify, organize, and select which devices are available for booting

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6
Q

You configure Volume Shadow Copy Service (VSS) to save previous versions of a shared folder. By default, the copies of shared folders are stored in:

A. A Network Attached Storage (NAS) device.
B. A Distributed File System (DFS) share.
C. A failover cluster.
D. A local volume.

A

Correct Answer: D ( A local volume )
Shadow Copy technology requires the file system to be NTFS to be able to create and store shadow copies. Shadow Copies can be created on local and external
(removable or network) volumes by any Windows component that uses this technology, such as when creating a scheduled Windows Backup or automatic
System Restore point.

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7
Q

By default, group policies are first applied to networked computers when the:

A. Computer is backed up.
B. Computer starts up.
C. User accesses a shared drive.
D. User runs gpresult.exe.

A

B. Computer starts up.

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8
Q

A domain controller that is designated to perform a set of specialized domain controller tasks is commonly referred to as a/an:

A. Windows Internet Name Service (WINS) server
B. Operations Master
C. Organizational Unit
D. Primary domain controller

A

Correct Answer: B (Operations Master)
Operations Master Roles -
The five operations master roles are assigned automatically when the first domain controller in a given domain is created.

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9
Q

You manage a company’s Active Directory. You need to delegate the control of a branch office to a set of administrators. Where would you place the users and computers that belong to the branch office?

A. In a distribution group
B. In an Organizational Unit
C. In the root of the domain
D. In the Built-in container

A

B. In an Organizational Unit

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10
Q

You need to assign permissions to access resources.
Which type of group should you use?

A. Workgroup
B. Security group
C. Organizational group
D. Distribution group

A

Correct Answer: B (Security group)

Security groups control access to the Workgrup server’s functionality.

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11
Q

You manage a Workgroup. You need to create a group for print administrators. Which type of group should you create?

A. Domain Local group
B. Local group
C. Global group
D. Universal group

A

Correct Answer: B (Local group)
Many organizations deploy Windows servers and workstations in workgroup configurations and for these organizations, local group policies can play a vital role in simplifying Windows system administration.
Read more at http://tech.sportstoday.us/windows_server/windows-server-2008-r2—planning-workgroup-and-standalone-local-group-policy- configuration.aspx#iV1QJMxpiO0FVQyk.99

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12
Q

DRAG DROP -
In which order are group policies applied?
(To answer, move the appropriate scopes from the list of scopes to the answer area and arrange them from first applied to last applied)
Select and Place:

A

Group Policy settings are processed in the following order:
1. Local Group Policy object Each computer has exactly one Group Policy object that is stored locally. This processes for both computer and user Group
Policy processing.
2. Site Any GPOs that have been linked to the site that the computer belongs to are processed next. Processing is in the order that is specified by the administrator, on the Linked Group Policy Objects tab for the site in Group Policy Management Console (GPMC). The GPO with the lowest link order is processed last, and therefore has the highest precedence.
3. Domain Processing of multiple domain-linked GPOs is in the order specified by the administrator, on the Linked Group Policy Objects tab for the domain in GPMC. The GPO with the lowest link order is processed last, and therefore has the highest precedence.
4. Organizational units GPOs that are linked to the organizational unit that is highest in the Active Directory hierarchy are processed first, then GPOs that are linked to its child organizational unit, and so on. Finally, the GPOs that are linked to the organizational unit that contains the user or computer are processed.
Reference: Order of processing settings
https://technet.microsoft.com/sv-se/library/cc778890%28v=ws.10%29.aspx

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13
Q

You need to create a group that includes users from different domains in a single forest. You also need to enable the group to access resources in any domain in the forest. Which type of group should you create?

A. Workgroup
B. Local group
C. Universal group
D. Global group
E. Domain Local group
A

Correct Answer: C (Universal group)
Universal Group:
* Group can include as members
Accounts from any domain within the forest in which this Universal Group resides
Global groups from any domain within the forest in which this Universal Group resides
Universal groups from any domain within the forest in which this Universal Group resides
* Group can be assigned permissions in

Any domain or forest -
*

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14
Q

You need to access resources located in another forest.
Which should you create?

A. Child domain
B. Distribution group
C. Trust
D. Organizational unit

A

D. Organizational unit

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15
Q

Users report that they are unable to print. You verify that the print spooler service is running. What should you do next?

A. Purge the service
B. Disable the service
C. Pause the service
D. Restart the service

A

D. Restart the service

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16
Q

You need to automate the installation of Windows Server 2008 on several servers. What should you use?

A. unattendinstall.exe
B. Microsoft Software Installer (MSI)
C. Windows Installer Service
D. Windows Deployment Services (WDS)

A

Correct Answer: D (Windows Deployment Services (WDS))
Windows Deployment Services is the updated and redesigned version of Remote Installation Services (RIS). Windows Deployment Services enables you to deploy Windows operating systems over the network, which means that you do not have to install each operating system directly from a CD or DVD.

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17
Q

Plug and Play is a/an:

A. Automatic device configuration system.
B. Automatic system update application.
C. Method used by developers to create applications.
D. Multimedia device.

A

A. Automatic device configuration system.

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18
Q

Which two components are required to configure a TCP/IP connection? (Choose two)

A. Subnet mask
B. DHCP address
C. Host address
D. Domain name

A

Correct Answer: AB(Subnet mask, DHCP address)

An IP address and a subnet mask.

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19
Q

Which file storage system can be used on a Windows Server?

A. NFS
B. NTFS
C. EXT3
D. FAT16

A

B. NTFS

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20
Q

You notice frequent writes to the page file. Which should you monitor to determine the cause?

A. CPU
B. RAM
C. Network
D. Hard disk

A

Correct Answer: B (RAM)

When the RAM is full the page file is used as virtual RAM.

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21
Q

You want to receive a notification when your server’s processor exceeds 80 percent utilization. You should create a:

A. Performance Alert.
B. Scheduled task.
C. Performance Log.
D. Performance counter.
E. System Event.
A

A. Performance Alert.

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22
Q

You need to monitor the performance of a server.
What should you create first?

A. Baseline
B. Counters
C. Page File
D. Alerts

A

Correct Answer: A (Baseline)

Later compare the performance to the baseline.

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23
Q

What is the minimum Windows Server version on which Hyper-V can be installed?

A. 2003 32-bit
B. 2003 64-bit
C. 2008 32-bit
D. 2008 64-bit

A

Correct Answer: D (2008 64-bit)
Hyper-V, formerly known as Windows Server Virtualization, is a native hypervisor that enables platform virtualization on x86-64 systems. A beta version of Hyper-
V was shipped with certain x86-64 editions of Windows Server 2008, and a finalized version (automatically updated through Windows Update) was released on
June 26, 2008.

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24
Q

What is the default port for HTTPS?

A. 21
B. 80
C. 135
D. 443

A

Correct Answer: D (443)

43, TCP, Hypertext Transfer Protocol over TLS/SSL (HTTPS)

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25
Q

To enable enhanced keyboard and mouse functions for a Hyper-V virtual machine, you need to install:

A. Hyper-V Integration Components.
B. Keyboard and mouse drivers.
C. Microsoft Updates.
D. Hyper-V Server.

A

Correct Answer: A (Hyper-V Integration Components)
To get a virtual machine (VM) to work properly, it’s critical to install the Hyper-V integration components. These integration components install agents into a VM that enable a host to successfully back up a VM, recognize when it has gone down, copy and paste data into and out of a VM, and synchronize its clock to the host. These components are important to processing a VM’s workload: In effect, their installation reconfigures an operating system to make it “aware” that it has been virtualized, resulting in an “enlightened” OS.

26
Q

You need to make a share hidden. Which symbol should you append to the share name?

A. _
B. !
C. @
D. #
E. $
A

Correct Answer: E ($)
The “$” appended to the end of the share name means that it is a hidden share. Windows will not list such shares among those it defines in typical queries by remote clients to obtain the list of shares. One needs to know the name of an administrative share in order to access it. Not every hidden share is administrative share; in other words, ordinary hidden shares may be created at user’s discretion.

27
Q

Which type of license is required to connect remotely to an application?

A. Windows Server External Connector License
B. Remote Desktop Services Client Access License
C. System Center Operations Manager Client Management License
D. Remote Server Application License

A

Correct Answer: B (Remote Desktop Services Client Access License)
Remote Desktop Services Client Access License is used to access applications on a Windows server.

28
Q

Which technology is designed to host calendars, contacts, and e-mail on the server?

A. Microsoft Host Integration Server
B. Microsoft Expression Studio
C. Microsoft SQL Server
D. Microsoft Exchange Server

A

D. Microsoft Exchange Server

29
Q

Which is used to verify that a secure Web site is legitimate?

A. Active Directory
B. Enterprise trust
C. Private key
D. Digital certificate

A

D. Digital certificate

30
Q

One advantage of application virtualization is:

A. Fewer operating system updates.
B. Improved collaboration.
C. Reduced network traffic.
D. Reduced client administrative overhead.

A

Correct Answer: D (Reduced client administrative overhead)
Virtualization is not just for the Fortune 500 anymore. SMBs are rapidly adopting virtualization and achieving significant benefits in a number of areas. Specifically,
SMBs are seeing improvements in:
Time spent on routine IT administrative tasks

✑ Backup and data protection
✑ Application availability
✑ Ability to respond to changing business needs
✑ Business continuity preparedness
✑ Company profitability and growth rate
31
Q

Which type of folder permissions takes precedence?

A. Explicit Deny permissions
B. Explicit Allow permissions
C. Inherited Deny permissions
D. Inherited Allow permissions

A

Correct Answer: A (Explicit Deny permissions)
Here are some rules for resolving permissions conflicts:
“Deny” permissions generally take precedence over “allow” permissions.
Permissions applied directly to an object (explicit permissions) take precedence over permissions inherited from a parent (for example from a group).
Permissions inherited from near relatives take precedence over permissions inherited from distant predecessors. So permissions inherited from the object’s parent folder take precedence over permissions inherited from the object’s “grandparent” folder, and so on.
Permissions from different user groups that are at the same level (in terms of being directly-set or inherited, and in terms of being “deny” or “allow”) are cumulative. So if a user is a member of two groups, one of which has an “allow” permission of “Read” and the other has an “allow” of “Write”, the user will have both read and write permission–depending on the other rules above, of course.

32
Q

You need to manage your server remotely as if you were seated in front of it.

Which tool should you use?
A. Remote Desktop Client
B. Remote Desktop Session Host
C. Remote Desktop Gateway
D. Remote Server Administration Tools
A

Correct Answer: D (Remote Server Administration Tools)
Example: Remote Server Administration Tools for Windows 8.1 enables IT administrators to manage roles and features that are installed on computers that are running Windows Server 2012 or Windows Server 2012 R2 from a remote computer that is running Windows 8.1 Pro or Windows 8.1 Enterprise.

33
Q

What is required to create a volume mount point?

A. A dynamic disk
B. RAID 1 implementation
C. An NTFS file system volume or partition
D. Extended volumes

A

Correct Answer: C (An NTFS file system volume or partition)

A volume mount point can be placed in any empty folder of the host NTFS volume.

34
Q

Distributed File System (DFS) is used to:

A. Delegate permissions to a global distribution group.
B. Implement parity.
C. Group shared folders from different servers.
D. Configure spanned and extended volumes.

A

Correct Answer: C (Group shared folders from different servers)
Distributed File System (DFS) is a set of client and server services that allow an organization using Microsoft Windows servers to organize many distributed SMB file shares into a distributed file system. DFS provides location transparency and redundancy to improve data availability in the face of failure or heavy load by allowing shares in multiple different locations to be logically grouped under one folder, or DFS root.

35
Q

Which RAID level can consist of two disks and provides redundancy?

A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 10

A

B. RAID 1

36
Q

An external storage unit that is self-contained and provides shared file-level access is referred to as:

A. Small Computer System Interface (SCSI).
B. Storage Area Network (SAN).
C. Network Attached Storage (NAS).
D. Direct Attached Storage (DAS).

A

Correct Answer: C (Network Attached Storage (NAS))
Network-attached storage (NAS) is file-level computer data storage connected to a computer network providing data access to a heterogeneous group of clients.
NAS not only operates as a file server, but is specialized for this task either by its hardware, software, or configuration of those elements. NAS is often manufactured as a computer appliance a specialized computer built from the ground up for storing and serving files rather than simply a general purpose computer being used for the role.

37
Q

Which RAID level mirrors a set of disks and then stripes across the disks?

A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 10

A

Correct Answer: D (RAID 10)

A RAID 1+0, sometimes called RAID 1&0 or RAID 10. RAID 10 is a stripe of mirrors.

38
Q

Disk mirroring occurs when data is:

A. Duplicated on the same disk.
B. Backed up by using parity.
C. Duplicated on separate disks.
D. Split between disks.

A

C. Duplicated on separate disks

39
Q

One advantage of a SAN is that it:

A. Can be located either inside or outside the server.
B. Provides USB and Firewire connectivity.
C. Consolidates storage space for servers.
D. Encrypts all files.

A

Correct Answer: C (Consolidates storage space for servers)

A storage area network (SAN) is a dedicated network that provides access to consolidated, block level data storage.

40
Q

The system partition on a Windows Server must always be installed to a:

A. Dynamic disk.
B. Simple volume.
C. NTFS volume.
D. FAT32 volume.

A

C. NTFS volume

41
Q

The purpose of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library is to provide a:

A. Set of standards for networking protocols.
B. Set of best practices for managing IT services.
C. Downloadable library of hardware drivers.
D. Technical library of Windows infrastructure services.

A

Correct Answer: B (Set of best practices for managing IT services)
The Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) is a set of practices for IT service management (ITSM) that focuses on aligning IT services with the needs of business.

42
Q

To change the boot device order of a computer, you should use:

A. Device Manager.
B. Disk Management.
C. BIOS settings.
D. Computer Policy.

A

Correct Answer: C (BIOS settings)
Example: Change the Boot Order in BIOS
Turn on or restart your computer and watch for a message during the POST about a particular key, usually Del or F2, that you’ll need to press to …enter SETUP.
Press this key as soon as you see the message.
Etc

43
Q

Which two locations can a Windows Server be backed up to? (Choose two)

A. Network router
B. Local drive
C. Local DFS root share
D. Remote share folder

A

B. Local drive

D. Remote share folder

44
Q

You need to control which Microsoft Office updates are automatically deployed to client computers. Which tool should you use?

A. Microsoft Office SharePoint Services (MOSS)
B. Windows Server Update Services (WSUS)
C. Windows Update
D. Microsoft Office Update

A

Correct Answer: B (Windows Server Update Services (WSUS))
Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) enables information technology administrators to deploy the latest Microsoft product updates to computers that are running the Windows operating system. By using WSUS, administrators can fully manage the distribution of updates that are released through Microsoft Update to computers in their network.

45
Q

Which two are Windows Server Cluster types? (Choose two)

A. Shared storage
B. Failover
C. Network Load Balancing (NLB)
D. Shared services

A

Correct Answer: BC (Failover, Network Load Balancing (NLB))
The difference between NLB and Windows Failover Cluster.
✑ An NLB array allows load to be spread amongst all the participating machines.
✑ A failover cluster provides high availability and redundancy, but doesn’t spread the load. Only one server is live at any time, but the clustered application(s) can be moved to the other server very quickly.

46
Q

Which is an advantage of 64-bit operating systems over 32-bit operating systems?

A. Larger amounts of accessible RAM
B. More device drivers
C. More compatible applications
D. Cheaper hardware

A

Correct Answer: A (Larger amounts of accessible RAM)

Can access a larger address space.

47
Q

A record of specific aspects of system performance over time is referred to as a/an:

A. Threshold
B. Log
C. Event
D. Alert

A

Correct Answer: B (Log)
Working with Performance Logs -
Applies To: Windows 7, Windows Server 2008 R2, Windows Server 2012, Windows Vista
You can view log files or log data provided by a database in Performance Monitor to see a visual representation of performance data collected by Data Collector
Sets.

48
Q

Which technology is designed to help teams collaborate?

A. Microsoft SharePoint Server
B. Microsoft System Center Operations Manager
C. Microsoft Forefront Identity Manager
D. Microsoft BizTalk Server

A

Correct Answer: A (Microsoft SharePoint Server)

✑ Organizations use SharePoint to create websites. You can use it as a secure place to store, organize, share, and access information from almost any device.
All you need is a web browser, such as Internet Explorer, Chrome, or Firefox.
✑ * SharePoint Workspace A desktop program that you can use to take SharePoint site content offline and collaborate on the content with others while you are disconnected from the network. While you and other team members are offline, you can make changes to SharePoint content that will eventually synchronize back to the SharePoint site.
Incorrect Answers:
B: System Center 2012 Operations Manager provides infrastructure monitoring that is flexible and cost-effective, helps ensure the predictable performance and availability of vital applications, and offers comprehensive monitoring for your datacenter and cloud, both private and public.
C: Microsoft Forefront Identity Manager 2010 R2 delivers self-service identity management for users, automates lifecycle management across heterogeneous platforms for administrators, and provides a rich policy framework for enforcing corporate security policies.
D: Microsoft BizTalk Server (or simply “BizTalk”) enables companies to automate business processes, through the use of adapters which are tailored to communicate with different software systems used in an enterprise.

49
Q

Which file extension indicates a Hyper-V virtual disk file?

A. . xml
B. . vhd
C. ,vud
D. . vsd

A

Correct Answer: B (. vhd)

✑ VHD (Virtual Hard Disk) is a file format which represents a virtual hard disk drive (HDD). It may contain what is found on a physical HDD, such as disk partitions and a file system, which in turn can contain files and folders. It is typically used as the hard disk of a virtual machine.
✑ Virtual Hard Disk format was initially used only by Microsoft Virtual PC (and Microsoft Virtual Server). Later however, Microsoft used the VHD format in Hyper-
V, the hypervisor-based virtualization technology of Windows Server 2008.

50
Q

You need to centralize management of network printers. You also need to enable users to choose a printer based on location. What should you do?

A. Create multiple print servers
B. Publish the printers in Active Directory
C. Set up Web printing
D. Create a printer pool

A

Correct Answer: B (Publish the printers in Active Directory)

Publishing your shared printers in Active Directory can make locating printers across a network more efficient for your users.

51
Q

What must you install in order to host a Web site on a Windows Server?

A. Active Directory Sites and Services
B. Windows Internet Naming Service (WINS)
C. Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN)
D. Internet Information Server (IIS)

A

D. Internet Information Server (IIS)

52
Q

Which technology uses digital certificates for secure communications over the Internet?

A. Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN)
B. Internet Service Manager (ISM)
C. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
D. File Transfer Protocol (FTP)

A

C. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)

53
Q

What is required for a computer to print to either a local or a network printer?

A. 500 GB of free hard disk space
B. Printer Device Drivers
C. 1 GB of RAM
D. Administration tools

A

B. Printer Device Drivers

54
Q

You need to limit what a service can access. You should change the service’s:

A. Dependencies
B. Status
C. Startup type
D. Logon options

A

Correct Answer: D (Logon options)

Logon options include:
✑ Log on as: No change
Use this setting to keep the service’s logon credentials as previously configured.
✑ Log on as: Local System account
Use this setting to change the service’s logon credentials to the Local System account.
✑ Log on as: This account
Use this setting to change the service’s logon credentials to a specific local or domain user. This account and Password settings become available once you click this option.

55
Q

Services that are required to enable another service to run are referred to as service:

A. Roots
B. Prerequisites
C. Dependencies
D. Parents
E. Hosts
A

Correct Answer: C (Dependencies)

Some services have dependency services that do not start until their dependency services start first.

56
Q

Which two specifications are included in Microsoft’s hardware requirements for Windows Server? (Choose two)

A. USB ports
B. RAM
C. Processor speed
D. Disk I/O

A

Correct Answer: BC (RAM, Processor speed)

Example:
System Requirements for Windows Server 2012 Essentials
✑ CPU socket
1.4 GHz (64-bit processor) or faster for single core
1.3 GHz (64-bit processor) or faster for multi-core
✑ Memory (RAM)
2 GB
✑ Hard disk
160 GB hard disk with a 60 GB system partition

57
Q

You need to see what effect the applied group policies are having on an individual user or computer. What should you use?

A. Local Users and Groups
B. Resultant Set of Policy
C. Local Security Policy
D. Effective Permissions

A

Correct Answer: D (Effective Permissions)

If you would like to find out what permissions a user or group has on an object, you can use the Effective Permissions tool. It calculates the permissions that are granted to the specified user or group. The calculation takes the permissions in effect from group membership into account, as well as any permissions inherited from the parent object. It looks up all domain and local groups in which the user or group is a member.

58
Q

What is the default location for a new user account in Active Directory?

A. The Users Organizational Unit
B. The Accounts container
C. The Accounts Organizational Unit
D. The Users container

A

Correct Answer: D (The Users container)

In a default installation of an Active Directory domain, user accounts, computer accounts, and groups are put in CN=objectclass containers instead of being put in a more desirable organizational unit class container. Similarly, user accounts, computer accounts, and groups that were created by using earlier-version APIs are put in the CN=Users and CN=computers containers.

59
Q

Which provides centralized management of users and computers?

A. Active Directory
B. Windows Internet Name Service (WINS)
C. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
D. Remote Access

A

Correct Answer: A (Active Directory)

Active Directory (AD) is a directory service implemented by Microsoft for Windows domain networks. It is included in most Windows Server operating systems.
An AD domain controller authenticates and authorizes all users and computers in a Windows domain type networkassigning and enforcing security policies for all computers and installing or updating software.
60
Q

You need to apply a Windows Server 2008 group policy. You also need to prevent policies that are applied at lower levels from affecting this new policy. What should you do?

A. Set the policy to Loopback
B. Set the permission to Full Control
C. Select the Enforced policy link setting
D. Select the Enabled policy link setting

A

Correct Answer: C (Select the Enforced policy link setting)

Example:
To enforce a Group Policy object link
1. In the Group Policy Management Console (GPMC) console tree, double-click the forest containing the domain, site, or organizational unit (OU) containing the link you want to enforce, and then do one of the following:
✑ To enforce a GPO link at the domain level, double-click Domains , and then double-click the domain containing the GPO link.
✑ To enforce a GPO link at the OU level, double-click Domains , double-click the domain containing the OU, and then double-click the OU containing the GPO link.
✑ To enforce a GPO link at the site level, double-click Sites , and double-click the site containing the GPO link.
2. Right-click the GPO link, and then click Enforced to enable or disable enforcing the link. A check mark next to Enforced indicates that the link is enforced.