Simulated Exam Deck 1 Flashcards

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1
Q

Your investors invests in a mutual fund at an offering price slightly higher than the funds net asset value ( NAV). Your investor is likely purchasing what share class?
A. B shares
B. D shares
C. D shares
D. A shares

A

D. The investor is paying the sales charge up front , so they are most likely not buying class A shares. There are no D shares on the exam.

L.O 4b

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2
Q

Secondary market transactions would include all of the following except:
A. Sale of $10 million of corporate bond by a broker dealer acting as an underwriter.
B. Sale of $10 million of U. S Treasury bonds by a broker
C. Sale of 10 million of municipal bonds by a broker dealer acting as a market maker
D. Sale of 10 million of corporate stock by. Broker dealer acting as a market maker.

A

A. Market makers are broker dealer who sells out of their own account in the secondary market. Underwriters are broker dealers, who help issues bring their securities to the market in the primary market.

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3
Q

The Securities and Exchange ( SEC) require that notice of corporate actions be given for all of the following except:
A. The issuance of warrants to be attached to a bond offering
B. A reverse split on the issuers debt instruments.
C. Interest payments on the issuers debt instruments
D. Dividend on the issuers common stock

A

C. Payment of bond interest is an obligation and therefore not considered a special corporate action notice. Reverse splits and warrants are not regular happenings, and through some companies have paid have paid dividends regularly, those can be halted. Hence these events would be considered special corporate actions and therefore require notification to the marketplace.

LO 2.i

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4
Q

The Uniform Securities ACT (USA) provides a legal framework for the registration of?
A. Variable annuities at both state and federal levels
B. Securities at the state level
C. Foreign securities traded abroad
D. Mutual funds at the federal level

A

B. The USA provides a legal framework for the state registration of securities. It may be adopted by individual states and adapted to their needs.

LO 10.d

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5
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the primary market?
A. Price is determined by supply and demand
B. Issuer transactions occur in the primary market
C. The NYSE is an example of s primary market
D. It is regions the Securities ACT of 1934

A

B. The primary market is where securities are sold to the investing public through issuer transactions. It is regulated by the Securities ACT of 1933. The NYSE is an exchange of a secondary market where price is determined by supply and demand

LO 1.a

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6
Q

A broker - dealer firm has just rehypothecated a thousand shares of MMS stock. This means:
A. The firm withdrawn the stock from a bank and pledged it to the customer.
B. The customer withdraws the stock from the bank and pledges it directly to the firm
C. The customer pledge the stock to the firm, which has now pledged it to the bank.
D. A bank had pledge the stock to the firm, which now pledges it to the customer.

A

C. in a long margin account, customers put up at least half of the purchase price of securities, and the broker dealer firm borrows the remainder on the customers behalf from a bank. The customer pledges the securities to the broker dealer, which is known as hypothecating the securities. The broker dealer, then we hypothecate them to the bank as collateral for the margin loan.
LO 6g

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7
Q

Which of the following is not an exempt issuer?
A. City of Newark
B. County of Rural Township
C. First National Bank
D. National Bank Holding Company

A

D. corporations are non-exempt must register. Banks and savings and loan associations are exempt hypothesis but the bank holding companies are not. Municipal governments are exempt.

Lo 1.c

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8
Q

Which of the following option strategies has the most risk?
A. Long puts
B. Long calls
C. Short Calls
D. Short Puts

A

C. Short calls have unlimited loss potential

LO 5a

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9
Q

XYZ Corp pays. Quarterly dividend of $1. The common stock is currently valued at $ 160 per share. What is XYZ common stock’s dividend yield?
A. 2.5%
B. 5.0%
C. 1.0%
D. 7.5%

A

A. The formula for dividend yield( or current yield) is annual income \ current market value. In this example you need to multiply the dividend by four to find the annual number: 4 / 160= .025 (2.5%).

LO 8.a

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10
Q

Which of the following is a true statement regarding regarding warrants?
A. Warrants are short-term investments typically 30 to 45 days
B. Warrants are issued to existing shareholders on a basis of one right for one existing share.
C. Warrants are normally issued along with a bond offering as a unit
D. The warrant allows the holder to exercise and purchase the stock at a price lower than the market

A

C. A warrant grants the owner the right to purchase securities from the issuer at a specified price, normally higher than the current market price at the time the warrants are issued and at some time in the future. A warrant is usually a long - term , instrument, normally 5 years or more until expiration. Warrants are usually offered in connection with other security, such as debt instruments ( bonds) or preferred stock, to make those securities more attractive.

LO 2.g

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11
Q

Which of the following investments is managed by an investment advisor?
A. A unit investment trust
B. Face- amount certificate
C. Treasury Bill
D. Managed investment company

A

D. The managed investment company actively manages a securities portfolio to achieve a stated investment objective. UITs and FACs do not have actively managed portfolios. T-bills are not “managed “.
LO 4a

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12
Q

Regarding the decision to dissolve a LP before it’s scheduled predetermined dissolution date, it would need to be:
A. Made by the general partner with the largest capital contribution with no vote required
B. Voted by general partners only.
C. Ratified by the IRS because of the tax implications to dissolve earlier than planned.
D. Voted on by the limited partners holding a majority interest.

A

D. In instances where a decision to dissolve a limited partnership before its pre determined date is made, an affirmative vote to do so must be taken by the limited partners.

LO 5.F

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13
Q

If an investor purchases a mutual fund based solely on seeing the summary prospectus, the investor must:
A. Be given a full prospectus before the check is signed
B. Receive a paper copy of the full prospectus no later than confirmation of sale
C. Be able to access a full prospectus no later than confirmation of sale
D. Received a refund, because shares may only be sold on the basis of a full prospectus

A

C. A mutual fund investor may base a decision to purchase solely upon studying the summary prospectus. If so a full prospectus must be made available for delivery no later than the receipt of confirmation of sale. In the case, online delivery of the full prospectus is permissible.

LO 4e

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14
Q

Jim’s Tech Fund has a public offering price of $75.28 per share. Your customer invests $40,000 at this price. How many shares will they receive?
A. 531 with a refund of $26.48
B. 532 with an additional demand for $48.93
C. 531.350
D. The customer must choose to round up or round down

A

C. Mutual fund shares may be purchased either full or fractional shares. In this example 40,000/75.28= 531.350 share

LO 4.b

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15
Q

Your customer sells 100 shares of small Co., Inc., common stock at $50 per share. After 6 months they close the short position at $40 per share. Small Co. Does not pay a dividend. What is the total return?
A. 20%
B. 25%
C. 20%
D. 15%

A

B.The formula for calculating total return is ( income + gains or - losses)/cost basis . For this question ( $50 -10)/40 = 10/40 = .25 25 %

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16
Q

The US balance of payments deficit would decrease in all of the following scenarios except:
A. A decrease in imports of foreign goods to the United States
B. A decrease in dividend payments by US companies to foreign investors
C. A decrease in the purchases of U.S securities by foreign investors
D. An increase in exports of domestic goods from the United States

A

C. A deficit in the balance of payments occurs when more money is flowing out of the country than in. When foreign investors decrease their purchases of U. S securities, the flow of money coming into the United States decreases, this adds to the deficit rather than decreasing it.

LO 9f

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17
Q

Deposit is received in currency for amounts over $10,000 in a day would require the firm to report the transaction in how many days on what form?
A. SAR within 15 days
B. SAR within 30 days
C. CTR within 15 days
D. CTR within 30 days

A

C. The bank Secrecy Act requires firms to report on the CTR any currency received in the amount of more than $10,000 on a single day, within 15 days.

LO 12.b

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18
Q

Your client , Janice Thomas, is an active trader and wants to invest in a managed equity portfolio that she can trade intraday. Which of the following should you recommend.
A. An exchange- traded note ( ETN)
B. A closed end fund
C. A mutual fund
D. An exchange traded fund (ETF)

A

B.A closed end fund is actively traded and most of them are equity funds. They trade on the exchanges like stocks. Mutual funds can be equity funds and can be actively managed, but they only trade once per day, they are not good for active training. ETFs are actively traded but are not actively managed. ETNs are debt securities not equities.

LO 7d

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19
Q

A married couple have equal 50% ownership interests in a tenants in common account (TIC) . If one party on the account dies , what happens to the shares in the account?
A. All the shares are distributed to the heirs named in the estate of the deceased party.
B. Ownership and distribution of all shares would be determined by the probate court
C. Half of the shares, or 50% , would belong to the remaining party and the balance would be distributed to the estate of the deceased party.
D. The deceased party’s interest is transferred to the remaining party

A

C. I’m a tenants in common (TIC ) account, securities owned by the decedent pass to the decedents estate- in this case 50% of the assets. The other 50% is retained by any remaining living parties to the account.

LO 6.a

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20
Q

Financial risk is most attributed to which of the following investments?
A. Municipal general obligation bonds
B. Value stock
C. US government bonds
D. Corporate bonds

A

D. Financial risk is the risk that an issuer would not be able to make principal and interest payments. This rules out government bonds and municipal general obligation bonds because they are backed by taxing power, and stocks don’t pay principal and interest.

LO 7a

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21
Q

The primary regulatory body for the securities industry would be which of the following?
A. Financial Industry Regulatory Authority ( FINRA)
B. Securities and exchange Commission ( SEC)
C. Federal Reserve Board
D. Municipal Securities Rule Board )MSRB)

A

B. Created under the Securities Exchange Act of 1935, the over riding or primary. Securities industry regulatory body is the SEC.

LO 10.a

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22
Q

JIM Growth Fund has net assets of $75 million and liabilities of $3 million. The fund had 1.2 million outstanding shares. What is the fund’s current Net Asset Value ( NAV) per share?
A. $62.50
B. $60.00
C. $61.50
D. $65.00

A

A.NAV is calculated by dividing the net assets of the fund by the number of outstanding shares. In this question the net assets are given; the liabilities are already in the figure. The math is 75 million/ 1.2 million = $62.5 per share.

LO 4c

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23
Q

(FINRA) The Financial Industry Regulatory Authority and other self regulatory organizations) (SRO)s place extreme importance of knowing your customer. That involves knowing both Financial and Non Financial consist. All of the following are non financial considerations except:
A. The number of children the client has
B. The salary paid to the client by her employer
C. The client’s attitude towards risk.
D. The clients age

A

B. Non financial considerations are those for which there is no monetary relationship. Clearly, the client’s salary is one of the most important financial considerations.

LO 7.d

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24
Q

A customer enters an order to buy 325 shares of Bryce Bridges INC., at 17 . Which of the following regarding these order instructions is true ?
A. The order can only be executed at 17,
B. The order can be executed at 17 or lower.
C. The order must be executed immediately
D. The order can be executed at 17 or higher

A

This is a buy limit order (at 17) and can only be executed to purchase XYZ or better. Because this is an instructions to buy , purchasing better than the limit would be lower than the limit. B.

LO 1.g

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25
Q

Which of the following regarding open end ( mutual fund) and closed end management investment company is true?
A. A closed - end company sets its own dividend ex- date, but an open end company ex date is set by self regulatory organizations ((SRO)
B. An open end company may sell fractional shares, but a closed end company may not.
C. The price of an open end company shares is shares is set by supply and demand, but not the price of close end shares.
D. Only the closed end company may issue additional shares without charging its charter.

A

B. Open - end shares are redeemable and may be purchase in specific dollar amounts. This results in fractional shares being sold. Closed end shares trade on the open market, and therefore traded in round lots of full shares only. The other choices reverse the characteristics of open and closed end companies.

LO 4.a

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26
Q

If a margin deposit is late, an extension request made by the broker dealer
A. Is not permitted to be made in any circumstance.
B. Is not required but, if made, will always be granted.
C. Is required to be made out but may not always be granted
D. Is not required but can be made, and may or may not be granted.

A

D. Extension request can be made by the broker dealer but are not mandatorily required. When made to the firms designated examining authority ( DEA), they may or may not be granted.

LO 6.g

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27
Q

The minimum initial requirement when purchasing 100 shares at $30 in a new account would be:
A. $750
B. $1500
C. $375
D. $2,000

A

D. The requirement is normally 50% but not less than $2000, unless the purchase price is less than $2000, then 100% of the purchase price will be required.

LO 6.g

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28
Q

An investor purchases a T - bill for $9,925 that will mature at $10,000 that will be received at maturity.
A. The premium above par and would be considered dividends received at maturity
B. The premium above par and will be considered the interest received at maturity
C. The discount to par and will be considered a capital gain at maturity.
D. The discount to par will be considered interest received at maturity

A

D.T-bills are purchased at a discount to par. I’m this case, it is bought at $9,925, which is a $75 discount to the $10,000 par value to be received at maturity. Debt interest pay interest nor dividends, and the $75 difference between what was paid and what will be received is considered the interest paid on the T-bill at maturity.

LO 3.e

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29
Q

How an account is registered determines
A. The sole individual allowed to access the account
B. Control of the investments in the account only
C. Ownership and control of the investment in the account.
D. Ownership of the account only

A

C. Accounts can be registered in the name of one or more persons, as well as legal entities such as corporations or partnerships. Account registration determines the ownership of the account and who wil have control of the investments in the account.

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30
Q

Your customer retired two years ago at age 70. He recently took a job with a retailer greeting customers. He would like to contribute to a retirement plan to accumulate additional money with the view to leave something to his grandchildren. You would most likely advise him to open:
A. An annuity
B. A traditional IRA
C. A Roth IRS
D. A mutual fund

A

C. The Roth IRA would require after- tax ( non - deductible) contributions but would allow earnings to accumulate tax deferred as in any retirement plan. Roth IRA distributions need not begin at age 72, and if holding period requirements are satisfied, all distributions are tax free.

LO 6.e

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31
Q

The windmill bond fund has a POP of $12.34 per share. Your customer invests $4000 at this price. How many shares will they receive?
A. 325 with an additional demand for $10.50
B. 324 with a refund of $1.85
C. 324.150
D. The customer must choose to round up or round down.

A

C. Mutual fund shares may be purchased in either full or fractional shares. In this example $4000/ $12.34 = 324.15 shares
LO 4.b

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32
Q

Which of the following sell transactions is not subject to the holding period restriction specified in SEC Rule 144?
A. Unregistered Stock acquired by a non affiliate under an investment letter
B. Unregistered stock required by a corporate affiliate in the stock options program
C. Stock acquired by a corporation affiliate in a private placement
D. Stock acquired on the NYSE by a corporate affiliate

A

D. The holding period rule applies only to unregistered stock, which may or may not be control stock. Unregistered stock results from either private placement or the exercise of a corporate stock option. Because this question asked which of the securities were subject to Rule 144 holding period, only stock acquired on the NYSE by a corporate affiliate is the correct answer. However the affiliated person is subject to volume restrictions.

LO 2.f

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33
Q

Which of the following investment companies had an actively managed portfolio?
A. Debt fixed investment trust ( UIT)
B. Face - amount- certificate company
C. Equity Fixed unit investment trust ( UIT)
D. Close - end company

A

D. The portfolios of both face amounts certificate companies and UITs are non managed. The closest they come to management is when these securities to make up the portfolio are selected. After that, the portfolio does not change. Closed- end companies have an investment advisor who actively manages the portfolio, buying and selling the securities.

Lo 4a

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34
Q

Which of the following characteristics are associated with FACs ( Face - Amount Certificates.
A. Variable returns
B. Set death benefit
C. In return for a future payment, the investor agrees to pay the issuer a set amount of money
D. No specific maturity date

A

C. A FAC is a contract between an investor and an issuer in which the issuer guarantees payment of stated ( face-amount) sum to the investor at some date in the future. In return for this future payment, the investor agrees to pay the issuer a set amount of money, either a lump sum or in periodic installments.

LO 4.a

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35
Q

Besty Bingham asks you what her current yield will be if she buys a 6% corporate bond at $1,200. The answer is
A. 5%
B. 2%
C. 6%
D. 3%

A

The formula for current yield is the stated rate ( coupon rate) dividend by the current market price. $60 dividend divided by $1,200 equals 5%.
LO 8.a

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36
Q

Upon termination a Form U5 must normally be filed within how many days?
A. 30 days
B. 45 days
C. 60 days
D. 15 days

A

A.Form U5 should be filed within 30 days of termination.

LO 12.a

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37
Q

All of the following are add with being a carrying firm except:
A. Bring a fully disclosed firm
B. Accepting customers securities
C. Accepting customer funds
D. Being Able to clear customer transactions

A

A. A carrying firm has the capability to do trade executions, clear and settle transactions , and take custody of customer funds and securities. A fully disclosed fund is one that introduces its customers business to another firm for the purpose of clearing and setting transactions.

Lo 1.e

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38
Q

A customer of a Financial Industry Regulatory Authority ( FINRA) member firm buys securities in margin. The customer is expected to pay a rate of interest on the margin loan based on which of the following?
A. The federal funds rate
B. The prime rate
C. The broker call loan rate
D. The discount rate

A

C.The broker call loan rate is the interest rate banks charge broker dealers on money they borrow to lend to margin account customers. Margin accounts permit customers to purchase eligible securities with out paying in full. Typically, an investor is required to deposit only 50% of the purchase price of eligible common stock with the balance being borrowed. The amount borrowed, as with any loan, is subject to interest payments.

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39
Q

Which of the following would be funded by general obligation ( GO) bonds.
A. A college dorm
B. Toll road
C. A new city hall
D. Public housing

A

C. City halls are funded by local taxes which is what backs GO bonds.

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40
Q

An investor buys 1 DWQ May 70 call at 2, giving the investor the right to buy 100 shares of DWQ at $70 per share. All the specifications of the transaction are set or standardized by the Options Clearing Corporation ( OCC) except
A. Expiration date in May
B. Premium of 2.
C. Exercise price of 70.
D. Contract size of 100 shares

A

B. The OCC sets standard exercise prices and expiration dates for all listed options, but the options premiums that buyers pay are determined by the market
Lo 5c

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41
Q

A customer purchased 100 shares of GHI common stock for $20 per share. After a year, they sell the shares for $23 per share. Over the past two years, GHI has paid $.25 quarterly dividend. What is the total return.
A. 25%
B. 10%
C. 20%
D. 15%

A

The formula for calculating total return is ( income + gains or - losses)/ cost basis. For this question ( $1+3)/20 = 4/20= .20 (20%)
Note that this position was held for only one year.
LO 8.c

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42
Q

A corporate stock is purchased on Friday , April 2, regular way. When will the trade settle?
A. Tuesday, April 6th
B. Wednesday, April 7th
C. Friday , April 3
D,’. Monday, April 5th

A

A. For corporate securities, regular way settlement is the trade date ( Friday April 2nd). Plus two business days; therefore, the trade will settle on Tuesday April 6th.

LO 1i.

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43
Q

A call option reaches its expiration date and goes un exercised. This means:
I. The buyer gains the premium paid
II. The buyer loses the premium paid
III. The writer gains the premium received
IV. The writer losses the premium received

A. II and III
B. II and IV
C. I and III
D. I and IV

A

A. Buyers of options pay the premiums for the contracts, and writers ( sellers) receive the prep. If the contract goes unexercised, the buyer loses the premium paid while the seller gets to keep it- a gain

Lo 5a

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44
Q

Discretion given to a registered representative to make transactions applies to all of the following except:
A. The number of shares or units for the transaction
B. Timing and price only
C. the security for the transaction
D. Whether to Buy or Sell

A

B. Discretion is defined as the authority to decide, what security, the number of shares or units, and white but or sell. Discretion does not apply to decisions regarding only the timing of an investment or the price at which is bought or sold.

LO 6.h

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45
Q

With money market securities, the risks are:
I. Lack of liquidity
II. A lower return than with longer- term instruments
III. Relative safety compared with other longer- term instruments
IV. The potential reinvestment of principal at different rates over short periods of time
A. I and IV
B. II and III
C. II and IV
D. I and III

A

B. Because of their short- term maturities, money market instruments are relatively liquid and safe compared with other debt securities. These are considered advantages. The risks how’re, would be lower returns ( a trade-off for the safety) and potentially having to reinvest one’s funds at a different rate each time the instrument matures( short intervals). In this light, not only is income minimal, but it will fluctuate with each new instrument purchased.

LO3.f

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46
Q

A stock currently has a market value of $75 per share. If a put option on the stock has an exercise price of $60, the put option is:
A. At break even
B. Out of the money
C. In the money
D. At the money

A

B. This put option has a zero intrinsic value and is therefore out of the money by the 15 points difference by which the market price exceeds the strike price. A put option has intrinsic value or is in the money when the current market price of the underlying asset is less than the exercise price( in this example, $60)
LO 5.a

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47
Q

To ensure that the information obtained from each new customer is accurate, firms must furnish to each customer a copy of the account record within how many days of opening an account?
A. 30
B. 45
C. 10
D. 20

A

A. A copy of the account record must be furnished to each customer within 30 days of opening the account.

LO 11.k

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48
Q

In 2011, RST Corp. had both common stock $100 par value 4% non cumulative preferred stock, outstanding. The preferred stock, like common stock, pays dividends on a quarterly basis. Because of financial difficulties, the company stopped paying dividends after 2011. After resolving its problems in 2015, the company resumed dividend payments in 2016. Before paying the first quarterly common stock dividend that year, the company would have to pay a quarterly dividend to the preferred stockholders of
A. $1
B. $4
C. $17
D. $20

A

A. In the case of a non cumulative preferred stock, skipped dividends are forever lost. So, when the company is able to pay a dividend, which is always the case, it must pay the current preferred dividend prior to paying common. The question states that dividends are paid quarterly. Therefore, the quarterly dividend on stock paying $4 annually would be $1- an amount that must be paid before before the quarterly common dividend can be paid.

LO 2.d

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49
Q

A municipal securities dealer has just made a contribution to the mayor’s reelection campaign. How long must the firm wait before it can enter competitive bids on proposed bond issues by the city?
A. Two Years
B. Can never underwrite a bond for the city again
C. Six months
D. No waiting period

A

D. If a potential bond issue it is up for competitive bids, any firm may participate in the bidding process, because the city will select the best arrangement available. If it is a negotiation bid ( non competitive), there is a two- year waiting period because a firm that has made a political contribution might have an unfair negotiation advantage over firms that have not.

LO 12.f

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50
Q

The rules to prevent pay to play regarding contributions made to political parties, candidates, and elected officials by firms involved in the underwriting or sales of municipal securities and are enforced by:
A. Securities and exchange Commission ( SEC)
B. Financial industry Regulatory authority
C. Federal Reserve Board( FRB)
D. Municipal Securities Rule Board ( MSRB)

A

B. Having no authority to enforce the rules it enacts, the MS RB relies on FINRA to enforce its municipal securities rules. This would include the enforcement to pay to play rules regarding political contributions.

L.O 12.F

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51
Q

Which of the following is not an example of a fixed - income security?
A. Common Stock
B. Preferred stock that has been historically paid dividends
C. A municipal bond that has historically made late interest payments
D. A money market instrument that has historically made timely interest payments

A

A. Securities that have an agreed rate of return, such as bonds, notes, money market instruments, and other debt instruments, are deemed fixed- income securities. Preferred stock acts in many ways like a bond, in that it had a fixed dividend rate, making it a fixed- income security. Common stock may or may not pay a dividend, depending on the board of directors. Common Stock is not deemed a fixed - income security.
L0 2.a

52
Q

Which of the following best describes the calculation for gains or losses for tax purposes?
A. Proceeds minus cost basis
B. Proceeds minus dividend, plus cost basis
C. Proceeds plus dividends, minus cost basis
D. Proceeds plus cost basis

A

Proceeds minus cost basis equals capital gains. The dividends are not part of the calculation for capital gains.

LO 8.b

53
Q

ABC currently has the following quotes:
Bid AsK Size
10.00. 10.50. 3x2
10.20. 10.45 4x3
10.25. 10.60. 3 x2
What is the inside quote of ABC?
A) 10.00 - 10.60 3 x 2
B) 10.20 - 10.45 4 x2
C) 10.25 - 10.50 3x 3
D) 10.25 - 10.45 4x3

A

The inside quote is the highest bid ( the highest price someone is willing to buy) paired with the lowest offer, or ask ( the lowest price someone is willing to sell) . In this case, the most someone was willing to pay was 10.25, and the lowest someone was will to sell was 10.45. D

LO 1.f

54
Q

An amended Form U5 must be filed and a copy sent to the for the former employee within how many days within the discovery of the inaccuracy.
A. 90
B.25
C.30
D.10

A

C. If a broker-dealer discovers that a filed Form U5 was inaccurate, an amended form must be filed and sent to the former employee within 30 days of the discovery of the inaccuracy.

LO 12.a

55
Q

When a bond is purchased at a premium, the current yield will be?

A)
the same as the nominal rate.
B)
lower than the coupon rate.
C)
higher than the stated rate.
D)
higher than the fixed rate.

A

The coupon rate, the stated rate, the fixed rate, and the nominal rate all mean the same thing. It is the amount the bond will pay each year. On a premium bond the coupon rate is always higher than the current yield. D

56
Q

Your customer is long one DFG July 35 call at two. You explain to the customer that in order to breakeven, DFG stock must be trading at

A)
35.
B)
37.
C)
33.
D)
0.

A

B. Breakeven (BE) for a call is calculated by adding the premium (two) to the strike price (35). In this case, a July 35 call purchased at 2 will be at BE when the stock is at 37.

LO 5.a

57
Q

Your customer has a large cash position and is interested in purchasing shares of Brick n’ Mortar Stores stock (ticker: BMS) if it drops to $20 a share. The stock is currently trading at $23 a share. They are curious to know if there is a way to use options to generate some extra income and buy the shares if the stock drops. You might suggest

A)
writing uncovered BMS calls that are currently out of the money.
B)
writing covered puts on BMS stock that are currently out of the money.
C)
buying out-of-the-money BMS calls.
D)
placing a buy-stop order below the market for BMS.

A

B. Writing the puts would generate premium income. If the stock declines in value and the option is exercised, the customer will buy the stock at a price lower than where the market is at this moment. The short calls would force him to sell the shares if exercised. Buying out-of-the-money calls costs money and the strike price would be higher than the market. The buy stop does not generate income.

LO 5.c

58
Q

In which of the following accounts would the use of margin always be prohibited?

Fiduciary accounts
B)
Individual retirement accounts
C)
Corporate accounts
D)
Partnership accounts

A

B. Of those listed, only qualified retirement accounts, such as IRAs, prohibit the use of margin. As long as the use of margin is not listed as being restricted, it is allowed in both corporate and partnership accounts, and as long as the use of margin is specifically listed as being allowed, a fiduciary account may do so.

LO 6.g

59
Q

When a broker-dealer pledges customer securities to a bank as collateral for a margin loan, the pledge is known as

A)
hypothecation.
B)
rehypothecation.
C)
credit agreement.
D)
loan consent.

A

B. By signing the margin agreement, a customer hypothecates (pledges) the securities to the broker-dealer who then rehypothecates (pledges) them to the bank as collateral for the margin loan.

60
Q

An investor has purchased Class A mutual fund shares. The net asset value (NAV) per share of the fund is the price the investor

A)
has paid for the shares when purchased.
B)
knows will be the cost per share when the order is entered.
C)
will receive upon redemption of the shares.
D)
will use as the cost basis in tax return filings once redeemed.

A

C. The NAV per share of a mutual fund is calculated by dividing the net assets of the fund by the number of shares outstanding. When purchasing Class A shares, NAV plus a sales charge is paid. When redeeming the shares, the investor simply receives NAV. Remember that for purchases and redemptions of mutual fund shares, the next calculated NAV per share is used, a practice known as forward pricing. Therefore, when purchasing or redeeming shares, because mutual funds use forward pricing, the investor can never be certain of the exact price that will be paid or received when entering the order.

LO 4.b

61
Q

A client calls a registered representative and states that she lives in New York City and is looking for a bond that would be triple tax free in New York. The registered representative tells the client that his firm has some bonds in inventory that are from the Albany New York School District that would be triple tax free for the client. Which of the following would be the registered representative’s best course of action?

A)
No suitability determination is required because the bonds will be tax free for the client and mark the trade solicited.
B)
Determine suitability prior to the trade and mark the trade unsolicited.
C)
Determine suitability prior to placing the trade and mark the trade solicited.
D)
No suitability determination is required because these bonds will be tax free for the client and mark the trade unsolicited.

A

C. For a trade to be unsolicited, the client would need to specifically identify the bonds he wanted to purchase; instead the registered representative is the one who recommended these bonds, making the trade solicited. Suitability must be determined on solicited trades.

62
Q

Which of the following is an example of an unsecured debt security?

Debenture
Preferred stock
Mortgage bond
Income bond
A)
I and III
B)
II and IV
C)
I and IV
D)
I and II

A

C. A debenture and income bonds are examples of unsecured debt instruments. Preferred stock is an equity security and a mortgage bond is secured (collateralized) by real estate.

63
Q

Your client, Harry Swenson, is very frugal. He feels like mutual funds have too many expenses and he doesn’t believe that over a long period the active management of investment advisors can outperform their respective benchmarks, but he likes the idea of a pooled investment in the stock market rather than picking individual stocks on his own. Which of the following types of investments should you recommend?

A)
An exchange-traded fund (ETF)
B)
An exchange-traded note (ETN)
C)
An open end fund
D)
A closed end fund

A

A. Both open end and close end funds have active management and have an investment advisor managing the portfolio that is paid a fee from the assets of the fund. ETNs are a debt investment, not an equity investment. ETFs meet all of Swenson’s criteria.

64
Q

You quote ABC stock to a customer 67 bid for 1,000 shares, 700 offered at 67.10. Which of the following is true?

A)
The quote’s inside spread is 0.10.
B)
67.10 is currently the highest price any buyer is willing to pay.
C)
67.00 is the ask price.
D)
67 is currently the lowest price any seller is willing to accept.

A

A. 67 bid for, offered at 67.10 is the quote. The spread is the difference between the bid and offer: 0.10. The bid (67) is the highest price any buyer is willing to pay, and the offer (67.10) is the lowest price any seller is willing to accept. The offer is also known as the ask price.

LO 1.f

65
Q

A 72-year-old customer has a $30,000 required minimum distribution (RMD) calculated to be taken from an IRA. If the customer is in the 20% income tax bracket and only withdraws $25,000 from the account, how much in taxes and penalties will be owed?

A)
$8,500
B)
$10,000
C)
$12,500
D)
$5,000

A

A. Failure to meet the required minimum distribution (RMD) results in a 50% penalty tax on the shortfall. In this case, taking only $25,000 when $30,000 should have been taken leaves $5,000 exposed to the 50% penalty tax. $5,000 × 50% equals $2,500. Note that the IRS will force the distribution of the RMD shortfall ($5,000). In addition to the penalty, the ordinary income tax on the amount withdrawn must also be paid (20% × $30,000 = $6,000). Total tax liability on this withdrawal equals $8,500 ($2,500 penalty tax plus $6,000 ordinary income tax).

66
Q

Your customer fails to invest sufficient new money as required under a letter of intent (LOI). What will happen as a result of this failure?

A)
As the contract is one-sided, there is no penalty for the customer’s failure.
B)
The customer may liquidate the escrowed shares with a penalty.
C)
The customer may cancel the whole transaction.
D)
The customer must deposit funds to cover the difference in the sales charges or lose the escrowed shares.

A

If a customer has not completed the investment within 13 months, they will be given the choice of sending a check for the difference in sales charges or cashing in escrowed shares to pay the difference. D

LO 4.b

67
Q

All else being equal, which of the following preferred would pay the highest dividend?

A)
Cumulative preferred
B)
Straight preferred
C)
Callable preferred
D)
Participating preferred

A

C.callable preferred is a benefit to the issuer—not the investor—so callable has to pay a higher dividend than the others because the other features are neutral or benefit the investor.

LO 2.d

68
Q

All of the following describe mutual funds except

A)
shares may be sold either on an exchange or over the counter (OTC).
B)
funds simplify tax calculations for investors by supplying Form 1099.
C)
various withdrawal plans may be offered for redemption of shares.
D)
the portfolio is professionally managed.

A

A. Mutual fund shares are redeemable securities. Hence, they do not trade in the secondary market either on exchanges or OTC. Instead, they may be purchased and redeemed only through the mutual fund company itself.

LO 4.a

69
Q

Nolan McCann owned 100 shares of LMN at $10 per share when the board of directors declared a 1:4 split. What will happen to the share price and the number of shares?

A)
The share price will go to $2.50 per share, and he will own 400 shares.
B)
The share price will go to $40, and he will own 25 shares.
C)
The share price will drop to $2.50, and he will own 400 shares.
D)
The share price will go to $40, and he will own 100 shares.

A

B.For reverse splits, the price goes up and the number of shares goes down.

LO 2.h

70
Q

Which of the following would be included in a mutual fund’s list of expenses?

Shareholder records and service
Investment advisor’s fee
Broker-dealer sales charges
Underwriter’s sales loads
A)
II and III
B)
III and IV
C)
I and II
D)
I and IV

A

C. Costs to maintain shareholder records, costs to provide services to shareholders, and the investment adviser’s fees are all expenses to the fund. The costs paid in the form of sales charges (loads) to an underwriter or broker-dealers selling mutual funds to the public may never be treated as an expense to the fund. They are expenses to the investor.

LO 4.b

71
Q

What is the penalty for not taking the required minimum distribution (RMD) for the year?

A)
10% of the amount that should have been taken
B)
50% of the annual contribution limit
C)
10% of the annual contribution limit
D)
50% of the amount short of what should have been taken

A

D. There is a 10% penalty for early withdrawal. The penalty for missing a RMD is 50% of the amount missed.

LO 6.e

72
Q

Corporate accounts may trade on margin

A)
only if it is not listed as being restricted from doing so in the corporate charter.
B)
only if it is specifically listed as being permitted to do so in the corporate charter.
C)
always.
D)
never.

A

A. As long as there are no restrictions against trading on margin in the corporate charter, corporate accounts may trade on margin.

LO 6.g

73
Q

An investor is convinced that CDT stock will soon decline in value for a number of reasons. Which investment strategy will allow the investor to take advantage of the anticipated decline in share value with the smallest cash investment?

A)
Sell the company’s stock short
B)
Purchase a call spread
C)
Purchase a put option
D)
Purchase a call option

A

C. Purchasing a put is a basic option strategy utilized when one is bearish on a stock. If the stock declines as anticipated, the investor could exercise the right to sell the stock at the strike price and then repurchase it at its lower current market price for a profit. The premium paid to buy the put costs less than the margin required if one were to sell the stock short. Purchasing a call or a call spread are bullish options strategies.

LO 5.a

74
Q

An investor is long 300 shares of MAS at 45. The stock has just undergone a 3:1 split. The investor’s new position is

A)
long 900 shares at 15.
B)
long 100 shares at 45.
C)
long 900 shares at 45.
D)
long 100 shares at 15.

A

A. The split is a forward split, which means the number of shares increases, while the price decreases. At 3:1, the number of shares goes up by a factor of 3 and the price goes down by a factor of one-third (i.e., to one-third of its previous value). The rule is that the total value of the position must remain unchanged before and after the adjustment. In this case, the original position’s value was 300 shares × $45, or $13,500. The new position is valued at 900 × $15, which is also $13,500.

LO 2.h

75
Q

Regarding primary offerings, which of the following is true?

A)
A corporation can have only one primary offering—the initial public offering (IPO).
B)
A corporation can have two primary offerings—the initial public offering (IPO) and an additional public offering (APO).
C)
There is no limit to the number of primary offerings a corporation can issue.
D)
After its initial public offering (IPO), a corporation can have only one more primary offering—its subsequent primary offering (SPO).

A

C. While a corporation can have only one IPO, there is no limit to the number of SPOs or APOs it can issue. IPOs, SPOs, and APOs are all primary offerings—those where the offering proceeds go to the issuer.

LO 1.a

76
Q

In order for a representative to have discretionary trading authority on a customer account, permission must be obtained in writing from which of the following?

The customer
The registered representative
The firm’s chief compliance officer
A principal of the firm
A)
I and II
B)
I and IV
C)
I and III
D)
II and IV

A

B. Authorization for discretionary trading must come from both the customer and the firm (represented by a principal). The representative’s authorization is not a requirement.

LO 6.h

77
Q

An investor has purchased bonds having a put feature attached. With this put feature, it is likely that these bonds were issued with

A)
a coupon that need not reflect the impact of the call feature.
B)
a higher coupon than similar bonds without the feature.
C)
a lower coupon than similar bonds without the feature.
D)
a coupon that will be called away by the issuer before maturity.

A

C. When bonds are issued with features that benefit the bondholder, such as a put feature, the issuer can generally pay a slightly lower coupon rate of interest. This is because the put feature compensates the holder in another way, aside from the coupon rate.

LO 3.a

78
Q

The City of Philadelphia issued $100 million in GO debt three years ago. The bonds were issued with a 20-year maturity and carry a 5% coupon. Your client, who purchased one of these bonds on the initial offering, calls you to get a current quote. You respond that the bonds are selling at a slight premium. This means that

A)
the yield to maturity is equal to the current yield.
B)
the yield to maturity is higher than the current yield.
C)
the current yield is higher than the nominal yield.
D)
the nominal yield is higher than the yield to maturity.

A

D. An inverse relationship exists between bond prices and yields. If the bond is now selling at a premium, the yield to maturity has dropped. The yields from highest to lowest for a premium bond would rank as follows: nominal or coupon yield, current yield, and yield to maturity.

LO 3.a

79
Q

Written customer complaints must be kept for how many years?

A)
Two years by the member firms
B)
Six years by the SEC
C)
Five years by the SEC
D)
Four years by the broker-dealer

A

D. Customer complaints is the only record that must be kept for four years.

LO 10.g

80
Q

An investor is long 1 May 35 call at 5. The 35 in this contract represents

A)
the strike price, the price the investor has paid for the contract.
B)
the strike price, the price the investor can purchase stock at.
C)
the premium, the price the investor can purchase stock at.
D)
the premium, the price the investor has paid for the contract.

A

B. For this contract, 35 is the strike price, which represents the price at which the investor has the right to purchase stock, and 5 represents the $500 premium paid for the contract.

LO 5.a

81
Q

DEF Growth Fund has total assets of $330 million and liabilities of $15 million. The fund has 10 million outstanding shares. What is the fund’s current net asset value (NAV) per share?

A)
$32.00
B)
$33.00
C)
$31.50
D)
$34.50

A

C. To find the net assets, you subtract the fund’s liabilities from the fund’s total assets. In this question 330 million – 15 million = 315 million. NAV is calculated by dividing the net assets of the fund by the number of outstanding shares. In this question 315 million / 10 million = $31.5 per share.

LO 4.c

82
Q

Narcissus, Inc., a social media company, has shares selling at $50. Your customer is bearish. He would like to sell the stock short, but not until it retreats at least 10% from its current price. In order to catch the drop he could

A)
enter a sell short at stop 45.
B)
enter a sell long at 50.
C)
enter a buy stop at 45.
D)
sell calls at strike price of 45.

A

A. The uncovered call does not help. If exercised he would have to buy the shares before he delivers them, leaving him flat (no position). The buy stop at 45 would trigger immediately and would become a market order to buy. As there is nothing that indicated he owns the shares now, the sell long would be rejected. The sell stop short at $45 would become a market order to sell the stock short when it trades at 45.

LO 1.g

83
Q

The maximum potential loss for an investor short a put option is

A)
the premium received.
B)
strike price minus the premium received.
C)
strike price plus the premium received.
D)
unlimited.

A

B.
Short puts are bullish. In wanting the stock price to rise, one’s risk is that the stock falls in price below the breakeven point. The maximum loss occurs if the stock falls to zero. Therefore, the maximum loss on a short put is equal to the breakeven (strike price minus premium for puts).

LO 5.a

84
Q

The Windmill Growth Fund has breakpoints at $10,000, $25,000, and $50,000. Your customer places an unsolicited purchase through you for $47,000. You place the trade as requested without question or comment. This action is

A)
a rules violation.
B)
unsolicited trade are not allowed in mutual funds.
C)
acceptable in all situations.
D)
acceptable because the transaction is unsolicited.

A

A. This trade, though unsolicited, would still require the representative to disclose the existence of the breakpoint. Unsolicited trades are allowed in mutual funds. The representative’s duty is to disclose the existence of the breakpoint, failure to do so is a breakpoint sale.

LO 4.d

85
Q

All of the following would require that updated account information be sent to the customer for confirmation within 30 days except

A)
36 months have passed since the account was opened.
B)
the account is a newly opened one.
C)
the customer informs the firm of a change in investment objectives.
D)
the account records system has been changed to a new format.

A

D. Updated account information must be sent to the customer with 30 days for confirmation upon the opening of the account, at least once every 36 months thereafter, and in the event of the customer notifying the firm of changes in any information shown or listed on the account form.

LO 11.k

86
Q

A customer called his registered representative to place a trade to buy 100 shares of ABC. The customer wants to put a limit on the order, but is unsure what would be an appropriate price. At the suggestion of the registered representative, the customer enters the order with a limit of $30. This trade was

A)
discretionary.
B)
not held.
C)
solicited.
D)
unsolicited.

A

D. The customer, independent of the registered representative, placed the order, making it unsolicited. While the rep did advise on what an appropriate limit price would be, the customer ultimately placed the order instructions with the limit, and would not be considered discretionary.

LO 6.h

87
Q

All of the following are advantages of owning a mutual fund except

A)
the fund may be purchased at any time during the trading day.
B)
mutual funds must offer reinvestment of dividends and capital gains at NAV (without a sales charge).
C)
an investor retains voting rights similar to those extended to common stockholders
D)
a professional investment adviser manages the portfolio for investors.

A

A. Unlike a stock, most mutual funds process all purchases and redemptions one time per day. The other points here are all advantages of investing in mutual funds.

LO 4.b

88
Q

A client buys stock on Monday, August 14, in a cash account. Under Regulation T, when is the client’s payment due?

A)
In four business days
B)
At or before the time of order placement
C)
The same day
D)
In two business days

A

A. Regular-way firm-to-firm settlement is two business days after the trade date (T+2). Under Regulation T, payment must be made two business days after the settlement date (S+2 or T+4).

LO 6.g

89
Q

Your customer holds a callable bond currently trading at $955. Which of the following is true?

A)
Current yield (CY) is lower than yield to maturity (YTM).
B)
Current yield (CY) is higher than yield to call (YTC).
C)
Yield to maturity (YTM) is higher than yield to call (YTC).
D)
Coupon (nominal) yield is higher than yield to maturity (YTM).

A

A. A bond trading at $955 is trading at a discount. For a callable bond trading at a discount, the yields in ascending order are as follows: coupon (nominal), CY, YTM, and YTC.

LO 3.a

90
Q

Systematic risk would include all of the following except

A)
interest rate risk.
B)
inflation risk.
C)
business risk.
D)
market risk.

A

C.
Nonsystematic risks are those associated with the issuer (like a bad business strategy). Systematic risks impact large portions of the market and are difficult to reduce by diversification.

LO 7.a

91
Q

A municipal advisor does which of the following activities?

A)
Advises municipalities on selling securities
B)
Advises institutions on buying municipal bonds
C)
Advises municipalities on buying securities
D)
Advises institutions on selling municipal bonds

A

A. A municipal advisor acts under contract with a municipality, providing advice on the structure and sale of the municipality’s securities. A municipal advisor may not switch from that role to the role of an underwriter on an issue the advisor has consulted on.

LO 1.a

92
Q

If a customer sold puts to open, which of the following transactions would be allowed if the options agreement was not returned signed within 15 days?

A)
Buy calls to close
B)
Buy puts to close
C)
Sell puts to open
D)
Sell calls to open

A

If the agreement is not returned signed in 15 days, only closing transactions to offset those positions already open would be allowed.B

93
Q

A customer has held an account with a broker-dealer for over one year. A registered representative associated with the firm recommends the purchase of an unlisted security trading at $3.50. What documentation, if any, is required prior to the trade?

A)
A suitability statement is needed, but not a disclosure statement.
B)
No documentation is required.
C)
A disclosure statement is required, but not a suitability statement.
D)
Both suitability and disclosure statements must be obtained.

A

C. Established customers are exempt from the suitability statement requirement but not from the disclosure requirements when penny stocks are being solicited. An established customer is someone who has held an account with the broker-dealer for at least one year (and has made a deposit of funds or securities); or has made at least three penny stock purchases of different issuers on different days.

LO 2.a

94
Q

A common stock shareholder’s residual right to corporate assets refers to which of the following?

A)
During the dissolution of corporate assets, common shareholders will be paid if any funds are left after preferred shareholders are paid but before debtholders are paid.
B)
During the dissolution of corporate assets, common shareholders will be paid if there are any funds left after debtholders and preferred shareholders are paid.
C)
During the dissolution of corporate assets, common shareholders will be paid first— before debtholders and preferred shareholders are paid.
D)
During the dissolution of corporate assets, common shareholders will be paid if any funds are left after debtholders are paid but before preferred shareholders are paid.

A

B. For common shareholders, having a residual right to corporate assets means that they will only be paid in the event of a corporate dissolution if there are any funds left after debtholders and preferred shareholders are paid.

LO 2.c

95
Q

A customer purchased 200 shares of ABC common stock for a total of $5,000. After one year, they sell the position for $5,400. ABC paid $0.50 per share in dividends over the year. What is the total return?

A)
15%
B)
20%
C)
10%
D)
25%

A

C. The formula for calculating total return is (income + gains or – losses) / cost basis. For this question ($100 + $400) / 5000 = 500 / 5000 = 0.10 (10%).

LO 8.c

96
Q

Your client, Bill Hearst, inherited several thousand shares of his grandfather’s auto parts manufacturer, National Autoparts. He sells a portion of the position in order to raise some cash to buy a new boat. Which of these is true?

This is a secondary market transaction.
This is a primary market transaction.
This is a long sale of the stock.
This is a short sale of the stock (he never purchased it).
A)
II and III
B)
I and III
C)
II and IV
D)
I and IV

A

B.
The issuer has no part of this transaction; it is considered a secondary market transaction. It does not matter that Bill did not buy the shares; it matters that he owned them. This is a long sale.

LO 1.g

97
Q

All of the following are criteria that suggest a variable annuity is suitable for the customer except

A)
the customer is funding the annuity by leveraging their primary residence.
B)
the customer is saving for retirement.
C)
the customer is comfortable with some level of market risk.
D)
the customer is funding the annuity with available cash.

A

A. Variable annuities are a retirement vehicle that should be funded with available cash not with funds from borrowing or the sale of a different investment. These investments have some degree of market risk.

LO 4.f

98
Q

Which of the following is part of the expense ratio of a mutual fund?

A)
Costs incurred by the board of directors
B)
Contingent sales charges
C)
Sales loads
D)
Deferred sales charges

A

A. Board of directors (BOD) costs are part of the expenses of a mutual fund and by extension are part of the expense ratio. The expense ratio does not include sales charges or loads.

LO 4.c

99
Q

Which of the following orders need not be immediately filled in their entirety?

Immediate or cancel (IOC)
Fill or kill (FOK)
Market at open
Buy stop limit
A)
II and IV
B)
I and IV
C)
I and III
D)
II and III

A

B. Immediate or cancel (IOC) orders allow partial execution, with the unexecuted portion of the order being canceled. Limit orders may be partially filled. A limit order may be filled in pieces until the end of the day (if a day order), or until cancelled (if GTC). Both FOK and market at open orders are expected to be filled immediately and in their entirety. If unable, a FOK order would be canceled (killed).

LO 1.g

100
Q

A customer asked you about DEF Corporation stock. After looking at the stock, you noted that it would fit their objectives and they should consider purchasing the stock for their portfolio. Which of the following is true regarding this interaction?

A)
This is not a recommendation.
B)
This is a recommendation.
C)
This is a discretionary trade.
D)
This is an unsolicited trade.

A

B.
A reasonable person would see this as a recommendation because the representative went beyond providing information and suggested a course of action.

LO 7.c

101
Q

Securities regulations that are called blue-sky laws refer to those at

A)
the federal level.
B)
both the state and the federal level.
C)
neither the state nor the federal level.
D)
the state level.

A

D. These are state laws that pertain to the issuance and trading of securities within that state. They are known as blue-sky laws because of a statement made by a Kansas Supreme Court justice who referred to “speculative schemes that have no more basis than so many feet of blue sky.”

LO 1.b

102
Q

A mutual fund company may offer noncash compensation to associates of broker-dealer firms in the form of attendance at a meeting or convention, provided that

A)
expenses of spouses or other guests of attendees are also met.
B)
the meeting is held for the purpose of entertainment only and not for business purpose.
C)
attendance is conditional upon agreement to a predetermined sales target.
D)
a record of compensation and meeting details is kept by the attendee member’s firm.

A

D. The firms whose associates attend the meeting must keep records of all noncash compensation and details of what went on at the meeting. Noncash compensation of this type will inevitably be at least indirectly business-related, but must not be conditional upon agreeing to meet some sales goal. Side trips and expenses of guests must be met by those in attendance, not the host of the meeting.

LO 12.f

103
Q

Regarding stock rights and stock warrants, which of the following is true?

Warrants are sometimes bundled with other securities.
Warrants have a short-term subscription length (expiry).
Rights are exercised to purchase shares at a discount.
Rights cannot be sold in the open market and are only exercised once received.
A)
I and IV
B)
II and III
C)
I and III
D)
II and IV

A

C. Rights are short term, given to existing shareholders, and allow the holder to purchase shares below current market value (not at a premium). By contrast, warrants are long term, can be bundled with other securities, and allow the owner to purchase shares at a price that is above the current market value at the time the warrants were issued.

LO 2.g

104
Q

A registered representative opens a new options account for a customer. In which order must the following actions take place?

Obtain approval from the branch manager
Obtain essential facts from the customer
Obtain a signed options agreement
Enter the initial order
A)
II, I, IV, III
B)
I, II, IV, III
C)
I, II, III, IV
D)
II, I, III, IV

A

A. The steps or order of events to open an options account would occur in the following order: obtain essential facts about the customer, give the customer an options disclosure document (ODD), have the manager approve the account, enter the initial order, and have the customer sign the options agreement within 15 calendar days.

LO 5.c

105
Q

All the following are cyclical industries except

A)
home appliances.
B)
automobiles.
C)
precious metals.
D)
heavy equipment.

A

C.
Cyclical industries are those that grow during expansions and shrink during declines. Automobiles, home appliances, and heavy equipment are all cyclical industries. Precious metals are the exact opposite—they grow during declines and contract during expansions in the business cycle, and are termed countercyclical.

LO 9.c

106
Q

All of the following terms and phrases apply to the buy side of the options contract except

A)
receives the premium.
B)
loses the premium if the contract expires.
C)
exercises the contract.
D)
has a right.

A

A. The buyer of the contract pays the premium and loses it if the contract expires. The seller receives the premium and keeps it if the contract expires. The buyer has a right to exercise the contract. It is the seller who has an obligation if the buyer decides to exercise.

LO 5.a

107
Q

When an index option is exercised, the writer will deliver to the buyer

A)
securities underlying the contract on the next business day.
B)
securities underlying the contract on the second business day.
C)
cash equal to the in-the-money amount the next business day.
D)
cash equal to the in-the-money amount on the second business day.

A

C. There is no underlying security to deliver with an index option. The writer of the contract pays the buyer of the contract the in-the-money amount the next business day. Note that a buyer would only exercise a contract if it was in the money.

LO 5.b

108
Q

A broker-dealer has a line of business restricted solely to the purchase and sale of securities with trade executions being handled by another member firm. Which of the following would best describe this type of firm?

A)
Prime/executing
B)
Clearing/carrying
C)
Market making
D)
Introducing/fully disclosed

A

D.
A fully disclosed introducing broker-dealer is what the word implies—it introduces its customers to a clearing firm. Clearing firms (often referred to as carrying firms) hold their customer’s funds and securities as well as those of their correspondent introducing firms. Essentially, the clearing firm acts as the introducing firm’s back office. Because the risk associated with holding customer funds and securities is not present, net capital requirements are much lower for introducing firms than they are for self-clearing or carrying broker-dealers.

LO 1.e

109
Q

Which of the following statements is correct concerning the pricing of American depositary receipts (ADRs)?

A)
ADR pricing is dollar-based and fluctuates throughout the day.
B)
ADR pricing is dollar-based using an end of day net asset value (NAV).
C)
ADR pricing is dollar-based using an end of day public offering price (POP).
D)
ADRs are priced in foreign currency.

A

A. Many ADRs are listed on exchanges such as the NYSE or Nasdaq. ADRs trade throughout the day and settle in the same manner as would the shares of a U.S.-based company. ADRs are priced in U.S. dollars.

LO 2.e

110
Q

Growth in a variable annuity is which of the following?

A)
Taxable in the year realized
B)
Tax deferred until withdrawn
C)
Tax exempt
D)
Tax free upon withdrawal

A

B. Growth in a variable annuity is tax deferred. No tax is due until the growth is withdrawn. Once withdrawn, the growth is taxed as investment income.

LO 4.f

111
Q

Which of the following records must be kept by a broker-dealer firm for three years?

A)
Trial balances
B)
Blotters
C)
Customer account records
D)
Form BD and amendments

A

A. Trial balances, usually run at the end of a reporting period to ensure that the firm’s credit and debit columns arrive at identical sums, must be kept for three years after the trial balance was run. Form BD and amendments are lifetime records, whereas blotters and customer account records are six-year records.

LO 10.g

112
Q

JIM Growth Fund has total assets of $75 million and liabilities of $3 million. The fund has 1.2 million outstanding shares. What is the fund’s current net asset value (NAV) per share?

A)
$62.50
B)
$65.00
C)
$60.00
D)
$61.50

A

C. To find the net assets, you subtract the fund’s liabilities from the fund’s total assets. In this question 75 million – 3 million = 72 million. NAV is calculated by dividing the net assets of the fund by the number of outstanding shares. In this question, 72 million / 1.2 million = $60 per share.

LO 4.c

113
Q

CDT Corporation has issued 4.5% callable preferred shares. If these shares are ever called in, stockholders should expect that the shares would be called in at

A)
par value or higher.
B)
current market value.
C)
par value or lower.
D)
par value.

A

A. In return for the call privilege, the corporation may pay a premium exceeding the stock’s par value at the time of the call. It’s reasonable that a shareholder would expect to receive at least par value or higher in the event of a call.

LO 2.d

114
Q

The broker loan rate charged by banks is also known as

A)
discount rate.
B)
prime rate.
C)
the call loan rate.
D)
federal funds rate.

A

The broker loan rate or call loan rate is the interest rate banks charge broker-dealers on money that broker-dealers borrow to lend to margin account customers. C

LO 9.i

115
Q

Of the following, reinvestment risk is most closely associated with

A)
call risk.
B)
market risk.
C)
inflation risk.
D)
capital risk.

A

A. When interest rates fall, callable securities are likely to be called. While the investor may receive the redemption proceeds sooner than anticipated, it is often difficult to reinvest while maintaining the same level of return due to the lower interest-rate environment. This is why reinvestment risk and call risk can be viewed as being closely associated with each other.

LO 7.a

116
Q

An investor purchased a corporate bond at 98⅝ and sold the bond at 101¾. How much money did he make or lose on this transaction?

A)
Loss of $31.25
B)
Loss of $3.125
C)
Profit of $3.125
D)
Profit of $31.25

A

D. The investor sold the bond for 3⅛points more than the purchase price (101¾ – 98-⅝ = 3⅛). One bond point equals $10; therefore, we know that 3 points is $30, and one-eighth of a point is $1.25. When we add those numbers together ($30 + $1.25), we have a profit of $31.25.

LO 3.a

117
Q

For the risk disclosures found in the margin agreement, all of the following would be accurate disclosures except

A)
firms can increase their in-house margin requirements without advance notice.
B)
customers are not entitled to an extension of time to meet a margin call.
C)
customers can lose more money than initially deposited.
D)
if a maintenance call is not met, the customer must direct which securities to sell.

A

D. If a maintenance call is not met it is the broker-dealer who determines which securities to sell, not the customer. The others are all accurate disclosures found in the margin agreement.

LO 6.g

118
Q

When the Federal Open Market Committee (FOMC) directs that Treasury securities be purchased in the open market, this will do which of the following?

A)
Have no impact on lending rates to consumers
B)
Tighten the money supply
C)
Increase interest rates on loans to consumers
D)
Lower interest rates on loans to consumers

A

D. When the FOMC directs that Treasury securities be purchased in the open market, this will loosen the money supply; securities come out of the economy and money goes in to the economy. More money available lowers interest rates to consumers.

LO 9.h

119
Q

The preliminary prospectus for an IPO indicates that the number of shares to be sold may be increased as much as 15% if market demand is sufficient. This is called

A)
a Green Shoe option.
B)
a flexible offering.
C)
an adjustment offering.
D)
a shelf offering.

A

A. This is a Green Shoe offering, based on a rule first used in the IPO for the Green Shoe Manufacturing Company (now known as Stride-Rite). A shelf offering occurs when the shares may be held and sold later under Rule 415. The other names are fictional.

LO 1.b

120
Q

Which of the following is true of closed end funds but not of open end funds?

A)
Have a fixed number of shares
B)
Can invest in a variety of securities
C)
Pay dividends when declared by the board of directors
D)
Can sell shares of common stock

A

A. Open end funds can issue an unlimited number of shares. Closed end funds have a fixed number of shares. The other three choices are true of both open and closed end funds.

LO 4.a

121
Q

When opening a new account with margin, all of the following documents are required except

A)
hypothecation agreement.
B)
account agreement.
C)
credit agreement.
D)
consent to loan agreement.

A

D. The consent to a loan agreement is not a regulatory requirement. Note this is a new account, so the regular account agreement is required in addition to the margin documents.

LO 6.g

122
Q

The price that will be paid for the shares if the option is exercised is

A)
the breakeven.
B)
the expiration price.
C)
the premium.
D)
the strike price.

A

D. This is the basic definition of strike price. The cost per share of the contract is the premium. The breakeven is the price point of the underlying security where an investor has neither a gain nor a loss. There is no expiration price; there is an expiration date.

123
Q

Your Client, Sven, has an extensive portfolio of stocks and bonds. Last year, he had an income of $36,000, of which $200 a month was from a part-time job and the rest from his portfolio. How much can he contribute to a ROTH IRA for the previous year?

A)
$2,400, which is not deductible from his ordinary income
B)
The indexed maximum, which is not deductible from his ordinary income
C)
The legal maximum, which is deductible from his ordinary income
D)
$2,400, which is deductible from his ordinary income

A

A. You may only contribute earned income to an IRA, not investment income. The most he may contribute is $2,400, based on his earned income from the part-time job. ROTH IRA contributions are not deductible.

LO 6.e

124
Q

Which regulator sets maintenance requirements for margin accounts?

A)
the FRB.
B)
the SEC.
C)
the OCC.
D)
FINRA.

A

D. Maintenance requirements are set by the governing SRO. FINRA is the best answer of this set. FRB sets the initial margin requirement along with the SRO minimum. The FRB does not set maintenance requirements.

LO 6.g

125
Q

All of the following are true of Roth IRAs except

A)
Contributions may be able to be made after 59½
B)
Contributions are made after tax
C)
Withdrawals are not required at age 72
D)
Contributions may be deductible depending on income limits

A

D. Contributions are not deductible. They are made with after-tax dollars and may continue past age 59½ if still working. Roths are not subject to RMDs.

LO 6.e

126
Q

When customers open margin accounts, when must they be provided with a risk disclosure document?

Before initially opening the account
Quarterly
Semiannually
Annually
A)
I and IV
B)
III and IV
C)
I only
D)
I and II

A

A. The risk disclosure document is required before opening the account and annually after opening the account.

LO 6.g