sie Flashcards

1
Q

Difference between general obligation (GO) bonds and Revenue Bonds

A

Type of issuer borrowing funds. GO bonnds are backed by the general revenue of the issuing municipality. Revenue bonds are supported by a specific revenue source.

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2
Q

T or F, Freely transferable interest is associated with an LP

A

False

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3
Q

True or False: 529 are municipal securities

A

True

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4
Q

Rules of Penny Stocks

A

Less than $5 and not a listed security

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5
Q

What are investment companies under investment act of 1940

A

1) Mutual funds/open end management co’s 2) Unit Investment Trusts (UIT) 3) Close end funds. (NOT hedge funds).

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6
Q

T or F: Fully disclosed firms can execute buy and sell orders for a customer

A

True

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7
Q

Tax status of a dividend paid to a US based american depositary receipt (ADR)

A

Dividends may be taxed by both foreign country and US

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8
Q

When securities are bought and sold, ownership changes hands:

A

On the settlement date of transaction

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9
Q

Private Placement

A

Issuing company sells securities to institutional investors (not primary placement)

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10
Q

Underwriters in a firm commitment

A

Act as principals

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11
Q

Tier 1 of Regulation A

A

Up to 20 mil in 12 month period

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12
Q

Selling long =

A

Selling to close

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13
Q

Can an officer of a bank with authority to purchase and sell securities on behalf of the banks purchase new issues

A

NO: He is considered a restricted person.

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14
Q

T or F: Private placements are exempt from securities act of 1933

A

True

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15
Q

What indicates shares of stock are held in electronic form?

A

Street name (not custodial name)

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16
Q

non listed and non nasdaq, a prospectus must be provided to all those who purchase as part of an apo for how many days after effective day?

A

40 days

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17
Q

Prime Brokerage:

A

Provides custody and clearing services, as well as margin loans (does NOT subcontract out services)

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18
Q

Tombstone Ad

A

Written advertisement that gives basic information. Not mandatory and does not offer to sell the securities.

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19
Q

Warrants vs. Callable Bonds

A

Warrants are options that give the holder the right to buy shares of stock at a set price within a period of time. Because they are options they can be bought and sold on in open market.

Callable bonds: Can be redeemed by issuer before they mature.

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20
Q

Participating (Investor owns 3% participating to 6%)

A

If a preferred stock is described as 3% preferred participating to 6%, the company pays its holders up to 3% in additional dividends in profitable years if the board of directors declares it.

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21
Q

Stock held in street name

A

A security is registered in the name of the broker rather than individual investor

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22
Q

FOK, GTC, AON

A

Fill or Kill: Executed immediately and to the full amount or cancelled.

Good til Cancel: Leaves order open until it can be fully fulfilled

All or None: Does not need to be executed immediately

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23
Q

Inside Quote

A

Undisplayed orders where inside bid is higher than display bid and inside ask is lower than display ask.

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24
Q

A broker-dealer maintaining and inventory in a certain common stock. When transacting business in DEF stock, the broker dealer acts in what capacity?

A

Market Maker

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25
Q

Exemptions to Securities Act of 1933

A

Government and Municipal (T bills/notes/bonds, STRIPS, TIPS Securities
Insurance Co Products
Bank Securities (not bank holding co’s)
Non-profit securities
Commercial paper
Railroad ETCs

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26
Q

Prospectus Delivery Day Requirements

A

Non-listed IPO: 90 days
Non-listed follow on offering: 40 days
IPO of security to be listed on nasdaq or NYSE: 25 days.
NYSE or Nasdaq follow on: No requirements.

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27
Q

Negotiable Securities

A

Securities are negotiable if they are bought and sold among investors who are “negotiating” pricing. (common stock)

Securities are redeemable if they are bough and sold directly with issuer (mutual funds, UITs)

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28
Q

How frequently do common shareholders have the right to receive an audited set of financial statements of the company’s performance

A

Annually

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29
Q

Who determines the ex-dividend date

A

FINRA (OTC) or Market Center such as NYSE for listed securities. One day prior to record date (because it takes stocks two days to settle (record)).

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30
Q

Hostile Takeover

A

Buyer goes directly to the target companies shareholders bypassing the board of directors or management.

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31
Q

Under what circumstances could a member firm holding stock in street name vote the shares as it sees fit?

A

If the customer does not return the signed proxy statement by the 10th day before the shareholders meeting, and if the matters to be voted on are of minor importance.

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32
Q

Rule 144

A

Rules regarding restricted, unregistered and control securities. Control persons are always subject to volume limitations.
For public company, securities must be held for 6 months. For private company, held for 1 year.

If selling party is an affiliate of a company, he cannot resell more than 1% of outstanding shares during any 3 month period. If stock is on exchange, only the GREATER of 1% or average trading volume of previous 4 weeks can be sold. OTC is 1%.

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33
Q

Arrears Dividend

A

Dividends that must be paid out to preferred stock before common stock.

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34
Q

Common Stock vs Treasury Bonds frequency of interest payments

A

Common stock - Quarterly
Corporate and Treasury Bonds - semiannually
STRIPS - Maturity

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35
Q

Tax reporting of GO Bond issued by guam

A

Ta free at all levels

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36
Q

T or F: Stips are a U.S. government agency debt security.

A

False

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37
Q

Bondholders should expect that interest payments would always be forthcoming for all of the follow except

A

Income Bonds

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38
Q

Adjustment Bonds

A

Bonds issued by companies coming out of bankruptcy

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39
Q

Another name for stated yield at time of security

A

Nominal yield

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40
Q

This type of debt maturity uses elements of both serial and term maturities

A

Balloon Maturity

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41
Q

Balloon Maturity

A

Portions of the total principal amount mature at staggard intervals and have a final payment significantly larger than previous ones (called the balloon). (Combination of serial and term)

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42
Q

Serial Bond

A

Bond that matures at staggard intervals before all segments have finally matured.

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43
Q

Term Bond

A

Bonds from single issuer that all matures on the same date.

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44
Q

Municipal GO bonds require:

A

Voter approval

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45
Q

Negotiable Jumbo CDs

A

Short term (less than 1 year) and value of at least $100,000 (often more than 1mil.)

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46
Q

Coupon payable on a bond may also be referred to as

A

Stated or Nominal yield

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47
Q

Coupon on Bond

A

Annual interest rate paid on a bond, expressed as a percentage of face value and paid from issue date to maturity. (same as stated or nominal yield)

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48
Q

Basis Yield is also known as

A

Yield to maturity

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49
Q

Your customer is a resident of Las Vegas, NV. What debt issues would generate interest taxable at the state level but not at the federal level?

A

Nevada city municipal water district revenue bond.

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50
Q

Income Bonds pay income when…

A

declared by board of directors

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51
Q

After tax yield calculation

A

Bond yield x (1-tax rate)

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52
Q

Issued without interest rate, but often at a discount to par value:

A

T-bills

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53
Q

If yield to maturity is higher than coupon rate, then it’s trading…

A

At a discount

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54
Q

Another term for a bonds basis

A

yield to maturity

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55
Q

What risk are bonds subject to

A

Business Risk

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56
Q

How many days can a letter of intent be backdated

A

90 days

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57
Q

This class of mutual funds are bought with no sales charge at time of purchase

A

Class B

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58
Q

Difference in trading between close end and open end funds

A

Close fund trade in market place based on supply and demand. Open end use only forward pricing and price once per day.

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59
Q

T or F: You can call attention to a specific section of a prospectus.

A

False

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60
Q

What is an investment company but not a management investment company

A

UIT

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61
Q

Mutual fund performance must be shown for how many prior years?

A

1, 5 and 10

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62
Q

Exchange Privilege

A

Fund sponsor allows investors to move funds from one fund to another within fund family

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63
Q

Custodial and IRA accounts must be opened as

A

Cash accounts

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64
Q

Reg T Initial Margin Requirements

A

Set by FRB (Fed Reserve Board). Borrowers can only borrow up to 50% of the purchase price. Investors must have minimum deposit of $2000 and maintain a maintenance requirement of 25% equity of securities in margin account.

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65
Q

T or F: A customer has to sign a consent to loan form to open a margin account

A

False

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66
Q

How can margin calls be met

A

Cash for 100% of the call. Or fully paid marginable securities for 200% of the call because securities are only marginable to 50% of their value.

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67
Q

When does a FINRA maintenance call occur

A

If equity drops below 25% or $2,500

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68
Q

This account bills a single fee annually for a group of services that might include asset allocation, portfolio management, and executions

A

Wrap Account

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69
Q

Which regulator sets maintenance requirements for margin accounts

A

FINRA

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70
Q

Who benefits most from defined contribution plans?

A

Younger employees

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71
Q

True or False: For Roth IRAs, distributions are required after reaching 73

A

False, they are not required

72
Q

What is the penalty for not taking the required minimum distribution (RMD) for the year?

A

25% of the amount missed

73
Q

A client buys stock on Monday, Aug 14 in a cash account. Under regulation T, when is the client’s payment due?

A

4 business days. Regular way firm-to-firm settlement is two business days after the trade date (T+2). Under Reg T, payment must be made two business days after the settlement date (S+2 or T+4)

74
Q

Regarding purchases on margin, what is the difference between warrants and rights

A

Warrants can be purchased on margin, but rights cannot.

75
Q

How many adult can act as custodian for an UTMA account

A

UTMA’s can have only 1 custodian, and 1 minor.

76
Q

DBA can also be a

A

Sole proprietorship

77
Q

True or False: To open a partnership account, you do not need a new account form signed by all partners

A

True: A new account form needs to be signed only by partners authorized to trade, not all partners.

78
Q

How many companies are in the DJIA (Dow Jones Industrial Average)

A

30 companies

79
Q

Which of the following theories postulates that market forces should be allowed to freely determine the price of goods with minimal government intervention?

A

Supply side theory

80
Q

Leading Indicators

A

Money supply
Building permits (housing starts)
Initial unemployment claims
Average work week in manufacturing
New orders for consumer goods
Machine tool orders
Changes in inventories of durable goods
Changes in sensitive materials prices
Stock prices as measured by S&P
Changes in borrowing

81
Q

Coincident Indicators

A

Number of hours worked (proxy for personal income)
Employment levels (rate of unemployment)
Nonagricultural employment
personal income
Industrial production
Manufacturing and trade sales
GDP

82
Q

Lagging Indicators

A

Corporate profits
Average duration of unemployment
Labor cost per unit of output (manufacturing)
Ratio of inventories to sales
Commercial and industrial loans outstanding
Ratio of consumer installment credit to personal income

83
Q

Contraction

A

Rising numbers of bankruptcies and bond defaults
higher consumer debt
falling stock prices
rising inventories
decreasing GDP

84
Q

Trough

A

High unemployment
Flat GDP
Low inflation
Low, but not decreasing, consumer demand

85
Q

Expansion

A

Increased consumer demand for goods and services
Increases in industrial production
rising stock prices
rising property values
increasing GDP

86
Q

Peak

A

Very low unemployment
Slowdown in inflation
slowing of GDP growth
Steady consumer demand

87
Q

Federal Reserve member banks that need to borrow money can borrow from:

A

Fed reserve bank at the discount rate. Or Fed reserve member banks at the Federal Funds rate

88
Q

Economic headlines state that the consumer prices are rising while unemployment remains high. The economy is experiencing

A

Stagflation

89
Q

Of the standard Fed Reserve tools, which is considered the most powerful and used infrequently?

A

Reserve Rate

90
Q

To calculate earnings per share, you would need information from

A

both balance and income statement. EPS is earning available to the common shareholder (from income statement) divided by the number of outstanding shares (net worth section of balance sheet)

91
Q

Most volatile interest rate in the US economy

A

Fed Funds rate.

91
Q

Tools available to the FRB include:

A

open-market operations, setting the discoutn rate, setting reserve requirements

91
Q

M2 measures

A

M1, Retail CDs and Money Markets

92
Q

Debt Ratio

A

Measure of a companies LONG TERM debt as a percent of net worth.

92
Q

Demand (Keynesian theory)

A

Stimulate the economy by lowering taxes and increasing government spending.

93
Q

M1 is a measure of

A

Cash, cash equivelats and DDAs

94
Q

What records must be kept for six years?

A

Customer Statements and Customer new account forms

95
Q

What regulatory authority relies exclusively upon other examining authorities to enforce its rules?

96
Q

What must be kept for the life of the firm?

A

Stock Certificate Book

97
Q

How many years must FOCUS reports, U4 forms and order tickets be kept for?

98
Q

OTC and Exchange listed stocks must be protected and a member of:

A

SIPC (Securities Investor Protection Corporation)

SIPC was passed in 1970 to protext persons with brokerage accounts from loss due to failure of their broker-dealer

99
Q

How many years must you keep records of: A list of the offices where registered reps conduct business; Compensation records for registered reps; The firm’s compliance manual’s.

100
Q

True or False: Government security BD’s are required to become SIPC members

101
Q

Which regulatory body oversees trading in the OTC market?

102
Q

How many years must you keep records of trade blotters

103
Q

Which agency is not a division of the treasury department with some level of oversight for the securities industry?

A

FINRA - Not a government agency.

104
Q

MSRB does not have authority over:

A

Municipalities / Municipal Governments

105
Q

Where does a BD first appeal go?

A

NAC National Adjudicatory Council

106
Q

Under the Uniform Securities ACt of 1956, who is responsible for enforcement of state securities regulations?

A

The Administrator

107
Q

What agency collects and disseminates intelligence on financial transactions?

108
Q

How long must partnership meeting minutes be kept for?

A

Life of partnership

109
Q

How much insurance does SPIC cover?

A

500,000k with no more than 250k in cash.

110
Q

A money market fund is a type of:

111
Q

Rules to prevent pay to play contrinbutions to political parties by firms invovled in the. underwriting or sales of municipal securities are enforced by

A

FINRA

MSRB has no authority to enforce the rules it enacts. It relies on FINRA.

112
Q

How long must a firm that just made a contribution to a mayor’s reelection campaign wait before it can enter bids on proposed bond issues by the city?

A

If competitive bids, any firm may participate because city will select best arrangement available.

If it is a negotiated bid, there is a two-year waiting period.

113
Q

When a registered person leaves the securities business, FINRA retains jurisdiction over that person for how long?

114
Q

How many days and from whom must a firm obtain a new employees Form U5

A

60 days and from the employee or Central Registration Depository (CRD)

115
Q

Customer complaints must be handled by

A

A principal of the firm

116
Q

True or False: Form U4 does not require education history

117
Q

A Municipal Finance Professional (MFP) is:

A

An employee of a FINRA member engaged in municipal security representative activities such as underwriting and trading.

118
Q

How long is SIE and Rep exams valid after leaving member firm?

A

Rep exams: 2 years
SIE: 4 years

119
Q

LGIP

A

Local Government Investment Pool. Securities established by states to provide other government entities such as cities, towns, school districts or state agencies with a short-term investment vehicle to invest funds.

120
Q

Closed-End Fund

A

Managed equity portfolio that’s traded intraday.

121
Q

What are the two types of Section 529 plans?

A

Savings plan and prepaid tuition plan
(ESA’s are NOT 529 plans)

122
Q

Growth in a variable annuity tax rules

A

Tax deferred until withdrawn.

123
Q

Income level differences between 529 and ESA plans

A

Contribution to an ESA are phased out at high income levels. 529 plans have no income limitations.

124
Q

A member firm filled a customer’s sell order and did not charge a commission. The firm acted in what capacity?

125
Q

Blue Sky Laws

A

State-level anti fraud Security Regulations and enforced buy SEC. Most follow model Uniform Securities Act of 1956.

126
Q

Fee limitations of no-load mutual funds

A

up to 25 basis points.

127
Q

When a BD charges a commission on a securities transaction, it has acted as:

A

An agent (not principal or dealer),

128
Q

Treasury Stocks

A

Issued stock that has been reacquired by the corporation. (NOT authorized stock that has not been issued and is held in treasury)

129
Q

True or False: Contributions to 529 savings plans are often deductible from state taxes

130
Q

Reg T

A

Governs cash accounts and the amount of credit that BDs can extend to investors for the purchase of securities.

Investors can borrow no more than 50% of the purchase price while the remaining balance must be paid in cash.

If an investor buys and sells the same securities before paying for them, there is a 90 day freeze. (Freeriding)

131
Q

In the event of a stock split, who is responsible for maintaining a record of the shareholders eligible to receive the additional shares?

A

Transfer agent (not issuer or custodian)

132
Q

Redemptive value of an open-end investment company’s shares is based on:

A

NAV computed after the order is received.

133
Q

Primary purpose of syndicate desk

A

Build an order book and allocate the stock.

134
Q

How often must statements be sent to an inactive account holding securities?

135
Q

What asset is traded according to its average life rather than their stated maturity dates?

A

Asset-backed securities

136
Q

True or False: Fixed annuities are exempt from registration

137
Q

True or False: Treasury mutual funds are exempt from reistration

138
Q

All puts are in the money when:

A

The market price is below the strike price.

139
Q

Principal designations are retained for how long?

140
Q

Any sale of securities outside an associated persons or employing members firms regular business is considered a:

A

Private securities transaction

141
Q

Which class of shares have 12b -1 fees?

142
Q

Maximum gain for any short option is”

A

The premium

143
Q

Bonds that trade flat, without interest, unless declared by BOD, are considered:

A

Income Bonds

144
Q

Who is responsible for the desired returns of a defined contribution plan?

A

The employee. The employee determines how the funds are invested, thus responsible for returns.

145
Q

Treasury STRIPS, receipts, bills, bonds and nots all:

A

Mature at par value

146
Q

A firm charging a customer a set amount to execute a transaction is acting as:

147
Q

T or F: A broker-dealer may extend credit under regulation T for closed end funds

148
Q

When are IPOs and other new issues eligible for margin purchase under reg T?

149
Q

The decision to dissolve an LP before predetermined date is made by vote by

A

Participating LPs

150
Q

Hypothecation

A

A customer pledging securities as collateral to a BD

151
Q

Rehypothecation

A

A BD pledging customer securities to a bank as collateral

152
Q

T or F: Mutual funds expense rations include sales loads and charges?

153
Q

When the SEC clears securities for sale to the public, this date is known as:

A

The effective date

154
Q

For all bonds trading at a premium, the YTC is always:

A

The lowest of all possible yields

155
Q

What interest rate is considered the barometer of short term interest rates

A

Fed Funds rate (bank to bank overnight loans)

156
Q

Between closed and open end mutual funds, which only issues common stock?

A

Open. Closed may issue common, preferred and bonds.

157
Q

Betsy Bingham asks you what her current yield will be if she buys a 6% corporate bond at $1,200. The answer is

A

5% . Current yield is stated rate/current market price. 60/1200

158
Q

Are reinvested dividends from mutual funds taxed immediately or deferred until withdrawal?

A

Immediate.

159
Q

Is a pension plan a defined benefit or defined contribution plan

A

defined benefit

160
Q

Profit sharing, 401k and money purchase plans are types of defined _________ plans

A

Contribution

161
Q

Before borrowing or lending from a customer, what is an exception to the written notice and approval rules?

A

If they are an immediate family member of the representative.

162
Q

How many classes of securities can open end investment companies issue?

A

Only 1 redeemable for common stock

163
Q

Is 12b-1 funds part of the sales charge when shares are purchased or expense ration of the fund?

A

Expense ratio of fund

164
Q

What does the MSCI-EAFE Index track?

A

Foreign equities

165
Q

Interest from GNMA certs are taxable at what level(s)?

A

Both state and federal (principal is not taxed)

166
Q

ETNs are debt securities backed by:

A

The issuer

167
Q

What is the tax status of income from municipal bonds?

A

Income is tax free, while capital gains is taxable.

167
Q

Fully disclosed broker dealer is also know as

A

Introducing BD

168
Q

Contingent deferred sales charge is common with what class of shares?

168
Q

A party wishes to solicit proxy to vote a shareholders stock must register with?

168
Q

Updates to U4 form must be made within

169
Q

If BD charges a commission, it’s acting as an: