shoulder and upper extremities, Peds, hip and lower extremities, HPI/PE, spine, crossword 1 &2, rheumatology 1&2 Flashcards

1
Q

which size of vessel?

  • Polyarteritis nodosa
  • Behҫet syndrome
  • Kawasaki disease (pediatrics)
A

Medium vessel

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2
Q

Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip (DDH) tx:

A

Pavlik harness

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3
Q

Common laboratory finding indicating renal involvement in systemic lupus erythematosus

A

Proteinuria

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4
Q

____________ implies significant nerve root irritation when positive.

A

The Straight Leg Raise

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5
Q

stiffness decreases with exercise/ activity

A

Ankylosing spondylitis

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6
Q

Empty can test

A

supraspinatus strength

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7
Q

Ottawa Knee Rules

  • age 55 years or older
  • inability to weight bear 4 steps both immediately and in the emergency department
  • inability to flex the knee to 90 degrees
  • _______________
  • tenderness at the head of the fibula
A

isolated patellar tenderness

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8
Q

Thickening and tightening of the skin of the fingers into contractures in patients with CREST syndrome

A

Sclerodactyly

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9
Q

x ray show: onion skinning

A

ewing sarcoma

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10
Q

Most common radiographic finding in reactive arthritis*

A

fluffy periostitis

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11
Q

Ottawa Knee Rules

  • age 55 years or older
  • inability to weight bear 4 steps both immediately and in the emergency department
  • _______________
  • isolated patellar tenderness
  • tenderness at the head of the fibula
A

inability to flex the knee to 90 degrees

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12
Q

Four components of clubfoot?

A

rigid
ankle plantar flexion
inverted
complex apperance to latteral portion of the foot

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13
Q

Arthrocentesis: shows weakly positive; rhomboid-shaped

A

pseudogout

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14
Q

Direct blow or compression that is angulated

Bending force overcomes convex surface

A

Greenstick

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15
Q

Drying of the oral mucosa

A

xerostomia

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16
Q
  • NEW ONSET OF URINARY OR BOWEL
  • RETENTION/INCONTINENCE WITH SADDLE ANESTHESIA,
  • UNI/BILATERAL LEG RADIATION
  • DECREASED ANAL SPHINCTER
  • TONE ON RECTAL EXAM*
A

cauda equina syndrome

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17
Q

Scaphoid fractures complications

A

A vascular necrosis

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18
Q

Common concomitant condition in patients with polymyalgia rheumatica

A

temporal arteritis

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19
Q

when do you need to re-image a fracture ina kiddo?

A

10-14 d

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20
Q

presents with:

  • Extreme fatigue
  • Sleep disturbances
A

Fibromyalgia

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21
Q

Purplish erythematous and scaly lesions over the various joints of the fingers in patients with dermatomyositis

A

Gottron papules

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22
Q

Joint inflammation in response to preceding viral or bacterial infection elsewhere

A

Reactive Arthritis

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23
Q

(+) ADSON : loss of radial pulse with head rotate to affected side

A

Thoracic outlet syndrome

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24
Q

(+)(antibody) anti-jo1= (condition)________

A

inflammatory myopathy

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25
Q

a benign cartilage-capped bony spur arising on the external surface of a bone

A

osteochondroma

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26
Q

Ganglion cyst are most common on the

A

Wrist

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27
Q

Nursemaids Elbow

treatment:

A
  • Hyperpronation method

* supination/flexion method

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28
Q

Vasculitis of medium-sized arteries that causes ‘rosary sign’ with segmental aneurysms, but nothing involving the lungs

A

Polyarteritis nodosa

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29
Q

Progressive degeneration of cartilage surfaces, especially in weight-bearing joints*

A

osteoarthritis

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30
Q

autoimmune disorder that destroys the salivary and lacrimal glands

A

Sjögren Syndrome

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31
Q

Osgood-schlatter disease is d/t________

A

rupture of growth plate at the tibial tuberosity

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32
Q

PE will show flexing the infant’s hips and knees showing uneven knee heights (galeazzi test)

A

Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip (DDH)

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33
Q

Morning joint stiffness> 60 minutes after initiating movement, improves later in the day

A

rheumatoid arthritis

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34
Q

Overuse syndrome from excessive wrist FLEXION and repetitive gripping activities

A

Medial Epicondylitis

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35
Q

Finkelstein’s Test

A

DeQuervain’s Tenosynovitis

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36
Q
  • obesity kids
  • limp pain
  • immedicate managment: stop weight-bearing and refer immediately
A

slipped capital Femoral Epiphysis

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37
Q

Autoantibody associated with diffuse systemic sclerosis

A

Antitopoisomerase I

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38
Q

Infection of bone caused by a microogranism

A

Osteomyelitis

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39
Q

Most common primary malignant bone tumor in children

A

osteosarcoma

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40
Q

Boutonniere deformity and swan-neck deformity

A

rheumatoid arthritis

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41
Q

Anatomical snuffbox tenderness

A

Scaphoid fracture

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42
Q

Potential complications of fractures through growth plates?

A

growth could be inhibited

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43
Q
  • relapsing uveitis
  • recurring genital ulcers
  • recurring oral ulcers
A

Behçet Disease

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44
Q

Narrowed joint space, sclerosis and osteophyte formation

A

Osteoarthritis

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45
Q

Radiographic finding in pseudogout

A

chondrocalcinosis

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46
Q

Treatment for newborn clavicle fracture?

A

conservative treatment

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47
Q

AKA: eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis

A

Churg-Strauss Syndrome

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48
Q

Manifestation that is present in all patients with rheumatoid arthritis*

A

morning stiffness

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49
Q

symmetrical aching and stiffness about he shoulders, hip girdle, neck, torso

A

Polymyalgia rheumatica

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50
Q

Best diagnostic test for DDH?

A

ultrasound

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51
Q

BMD=

A

bone mineral density

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52
Q

ankylosing spondylitis, inflammatory bowel disease, psoriatic arthritis, polymyalgia rheumatica

spinal cause of LBP?

A

Inflammatory

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53
Q

“Sail Sign” =

A

Fat Pad Sign

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54
Q

softening and weakening of bones in infants and children

A

RICKETS

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55
Q

Autoimmune inflammation that targets the synovium –>joint pain, stiffness, erythema, swelling

A

Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis

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56
Q

Is idiopathic scoliosis painful?

A

no

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57
Q

Flexor tendon catches when it attempts to slide through sheath

A

Trigger finger

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58
Q

Classic facial dermatologic finding in patients with systemic lupus erythematosus

A

malar rash

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59
Q

Most common pediatric elbow fractures

A

Supracondylar humerus fractures

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60
Q

Roos test

A
  • Standing Abduct arm to 90°
  • Ext Rot shoulder
  • Open and Close hand for 3 minutes
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61
Q

spinal stenosis, patient EXTENSION leads to ______

A

increased pain

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62
Q

Heberden and Bouchard nodes

A

Osteoarthritis

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63
Q

Golfer’s, Baseball, or Suitcase Elbow

A

Medial Epicondylitis

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64
Q

What is an apophysis?

A

bony protuberance where muscle or tendon attach

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65
Q

Nondisplaced–> displaced anterior fat pad sign or (+) posterior fat pad sign*

A

Supracondylar humerus fractures

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66
Q

Polyarticular JIA: how many and which sized joints?

A
  • More than 5

* Small to medium joints (hands, feet, ankles, wrists)

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67
Q

a chronic systemic inflammatory disorder that primarily involves synovial joints

A

rheumatoid arthritis

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68
Q

MC frequently affected joint: first MTP joint MC

A

Gout

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69
Q

Nodes found at the PIP joints in osteoarthritis*

A

Bouchard

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70
Q

Lower limb evaluation for Achilles Tendon ruptures

A

Thompson’s Test

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71
Q

leads to contraction of MCP

A

Dupuytren Contracture

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72
Q

Malar butterfly rash and
renal disease common in
childhood ________

A

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

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73
Q

Most common intoeing in toddlers

*patellae straight with feet turned inwards

A

Internal Tibial Torsion

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74
Q

Toxicity associatd with administration of hydroxychloroquine

A

retinal toxicity

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75
Q

X ray show “scoop of ice cream slipping off an ice cream cone”

A

Slipped capital femoral Epiphysis “SCIFFY”

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76
Q

Rotator cuff muscles

A
SITS
supraspinatus
infraspinatus
teres major
subscapularis
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77
Q

(+) anti-centromere AB

A

systemic sclerosis

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78
Q

Conglomerations of urate crystals surrounded by giant cells in an inflammatory reaction in chronic gout

A

tophi

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79
Q

(+)(antibody) anti-dsDNA= (condition)________

A

*lupus

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80
Q

Three mechanical forces that may cause acute brachial plexus injury?

A

Neck-shoulder traction
Direct blow
Compression (due to contralateral hyperextension)

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81
Q

Overuse Injury of the lateral knee

A

iliotibial band syndrome

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82
Q

manifest as joint pain: commonly asymmetrical and/or monoarticular

A

Osteoarthritis

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83
Q

Most common joint affected by arthritis associated with Lyme disease*

A

knee

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84
Q

Ottawa Knee Rules

  • age 55 years or older
  • inability to weight bear 4 steps both immediately and in the emergency department
  • inability to flex the knee to 90 degrees
  • isolated patellar tenderness
  • _________________
A

tenderness at the head of the fibula

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85
Q

Spondylolysis and Spondylolisthesis

treatment

A

Restrict activity and Physical therapy

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86
Q

General term for inflammation of sciatic nerve

A

Sciatica

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87
Q

HIP, THIGH OR KNEE PAIN WITH LIMP*

A

SLIPPED CAPITAL FEMORAL EPIPHYSIS-“SCIFFY

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88
Q

positive Roos test indicates

A

thoracic outlet

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89
Q

Location of pain from diseased hip?

A

medial knee

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90
Q

Most specific* for non-accidental injury

A

Suspicious Fractures

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91
Q

syndactyly =

A

webbed toes

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92
Q

PIP node

A

Bouchard node

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93
Q

Apley scratch test

A

rotator cuff / adhesive capsulitis

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94
Q

Idiopathic inflammatory myopathy with associated skin manifestations

A

Dermatomyositis

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95
Q

Chemical composition of crystals in pseudogout*

A

calcium pyrophosphate

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96
Q

pt will be complaining of persistent, unexplained arthritis in one or more joints for more than 6 weeks in children younger than 16 yo

A

Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis

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97
Q
  • postural-flexible
  • congenital-progressive
  • scheuermann disease
A

Kyphosis

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98
Q

Autoantibody associated with CREST syndrome

A

Anticentromere

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99
Q
  • Partial disruption of joint

* altered but bones of the joint still remain in contact

A

Subluxation

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100
Q

Force along the axis

A

Longitudinal

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101
Q
  • terminal end of long bone

* Ultimately forms articular cartilage.

A

Epiphysis

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102
Q

caused by uric acid crystals

A

gout

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103
Q

scotty dog appearance on X-ray

A

spondylolysis

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104
Q
  • focal necrotizing vasculitis
  • necrotizing granulomas in the lung and upper airway
  • necrotizing glomelonephritis
A

Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis

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105
Q

BMD between 1 and 2.5 DS below the mean (T-score -1 to -2.5)

A

Osteopenia

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106
Q

Ottawa Knee Rules

  • age 55 years or older
  • ________________
  • inability to flex the knee to 90 degrees
  • isolated patellar tenderness
  • tenderness at the head of the fibula
A

inability to weight bear 4 steps both immediately and in the emergency department

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107
Q

bones involved in articulation no longer in contact

A

Dislocation

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108
Q

“Toddler’s fracture” is what type of fracture in which bone?

A

tibia

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109
Q

“pencil in a cup”

HLA-B27 positive

A

Psoriatic Arthritis

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110
Q

Blood test: that confirms JIA? associated with uveitis?

A

none , yes can be associated with uveitis

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111
Q
  • Most common foot deformity of infants, usually flexible
  • Convex lateral surface of foot
  • Possibly due to intrauterine position
A

Metatarsus Adductus

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112
Q

*complaining of low back pain and stiffness when walking that is relieved when leaning forward

A

spinal stenosis

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113
Q

_________is the most common non-sicca symptom in Sjögren Syndrome

A

Chronic fatigue

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114
Q

Autoantibody associated with drug-induced lupus

A

antinuclear

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115
Q

Rupture of ulnar collateral Ligament

A

Skier’s Thumb (Gamekeeper’s Thumb)

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116
Q

hx of fluoroquinolone use

PE: shows absent plantar flexion upon calf squeeze ( thompson test)

A

achiles tendon rupture

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117
Q

anterior slippage of a lumbar vertebra, usually occurring due to bilateral defects or fractures of the pars interarticularis

*MC location is L5-S1

A

Spondylolisthesis

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118
Q

PE: show arm abducted, externally rotated

A

anterior shoulder dislocation

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119
Q

Most common source of bone and joint infections?

A

blood

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120
Q

(+)(antibody) anti-smith= (condition)________

A

lupus

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121
Q

Defect or stress fracture of the pars interarticularis

*MC location is L5

A

Spondylolysis

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122
Q

Occult fractures are common ________

A

in kids

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123
Q

injury to skeletal muscle, followed by release of intracellular contents

A

Rhabdomyolysis

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124
Q

DIP node

A

Heberden’s node

125
Q

Tendonitis of the sheath and tendons of the first dorsal extensor compartment to the thumb

A

De Quervain Tenosynovitis (nursemaid’s wrist)

126
Q

BMD >2.5 SD below the mean for a healthy woman

A

Osteoporosis

127
Q

Antimalarial agent used in management of dermatomyositis and non-organ threatening systemic lupus erythematosus

A

Hydroxychloroquine

128
Q

Osgood Schlatter Disease

treatment?

A

rest/decreased activity

129
Q

macrotrauma d/t

A

acute injuries

130
Q

Rotation at what levels lead to intoeing?

A

femur, tebial and metatarsal

131
Q

Keratoderma blennnorrhagicum*

A

Reactive Arthritis

132
Q

Musculo-ligamentous strain, degenerative joint/disc disease, herniated lumbar disc, spondylolisthesis, spinal stenosis.

spinal cause of LBP?

A

Mechanical

133
Q

PAIN ALONG THE RADIAL ASPECT OF THE WRIST *

A

De Quervain Tenosynovitis

134
Q

RIGID inverted foot

A

clubfoot

135
Q

_____________fractures are the most common long bone fractures

A

Tibia

136
Q

Lateral Epicondylitis

AKA:

A

Tennis Elbow

137
Q

Benign cartilaginous tumor

A

CHONDROMAS

138
Q

(+) anti-SSA/Ro= (condition)________

A
  • lupus
  • sjogren’s syndrome
  • neonatal heart block
139
Q

Twisting force

A

Spiral

140
Q

Painless limping x weeks

A

Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease

141
Q

________is a degenerative disease, whereas rheumatoid arthritis is a _________

A
  • degenerative disease

* autoimmune disease

142
Q

Skier’s Thumb (Gamekeeper’s Thumb) caused by _____________

A

Forced abduction

143
Q
  • Shaft of long bone.

- Elongation occurs toward the epiphysis

A

Diahphsis

144
Q
  • Referred to the “growth plate”.

- Site of elongation of long bones.

A

Epiphyseal

145
Q
  • terminal end of long bone

- Ultimately forms articular cartilage.

A

Epiphysis

146
Q
  • A bone that ossifies within a tendon.
  • common at the first metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint (big toe) and the first metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint (thumb).
  • Some times referred to as a “mouse” or plural “mice”
A

Sesamoid

147
Q

NEXUS Cervical Spine Rule

Radiography is Unnecessary if pts satisfy ALL of the following low risk criteria:

  • No midline cervical tenderness
  • No focal neuro deficits
  • Normal alertness
  • No intoxication
  • ________________
A

No painful distracting injury

148
Q

Term used to describe xerostomia(dry mouth) and xerophthalmia(dry eyes)

A

sicca

149
Q

Ottawa Knee Rules

  • _______________
  • inability to weight bear 4 steps both immediately and in the emergency department
  • inability to flex the knee to 90 degrees
  • isolated patellar tenderness
  • tenderness at the head of the fibula
A

age 55 years or older

150
Q

distal radial fracture with dorsal angulation and impaction

A

colles fracture

151
Q

NEXUS Cervical Spine Rule

Radiography is Unnecessary if pts satisfy ALL of the following low risk criteria:

  • No midline cervical tenderness
  • No focal neuro deficits
  • ________________
  • No intoxication
  • No painful distracting injury
A

Normal alertness

152
Q

Hawkin’s impingement

A

rotator cuff disorder

153
Q

Pathognominic finding in anklyosing spondylitis*

A

bilateral sacroiliitis

154
Q

manifests as ulnar deviation

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis

155
Q

(+)(antibody) anti-centromere= (condition)________

A

CREST syndrome

156
Q

spinous process tenderness usually indicates?

A

spinal fracture or infection.

157
Q

Afebrile 4 y/o with limp after URI ; normal diagnostics?

A

reactive arthritis

158
Q

Normal developmental outgrowth of a bone which arises from a separate ossification center, and fuses to the bone later in development.

A

Apophysis

159
Q

XR: “hair on end” or “sun ray/burst”* appearance

A

Osteosarcoma

160
Q

(+)(antibody) anti-topoisomerase (Sci-70)= (condition)________

A

systemic sclerosis

161
Q

occurs in adults, after epiphyseal closure

A

OSTEOMALACIA

162
Q

microtrauma d/t

A

overuse

163
Q

Nodules over the distal palmar crease or proximal phalanx

A

Dupuytren Contracture

164
Q

Damaged (flattened femoral head)

A

Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease

165
Q

Injury to a muscle or tendon (soft tissue connecting MUSCLE to bone)

A

strain

166
Q

Danis-weber classification

Three Types:

  • Type A: fracture below the ankle joint
  • Type B: fracture at the level of the joint, with the tibiofibular ligaments usually intact
  • Type C: ___________
A

fracture above the joint level which tears the syndesmotic ligaments.

167
Q

Danis-weber classification

Three Types:

  • Type A:___________
  • Type B:fracture at the level of the joint, with the tibiofibular ligaments usually intact
  • Type C:fracture above the joint level which tears the syndesmotic ligaments.
A

fracture below the ankle joint

168
Q

Agent used in viscosupplementation therapy

A

hyaluronic acid

169
Q

Cellular necrosis due to interruption of blood supply

A

avascular necrosis

170
Q
  • Immediate burning pain and numbness radiating down one arm, resolves within minutes
  • May have weakness
A

Acute Brachial Plexus Injury

171
Q

What history supports accidental trauma?

A

non accidental, multiple stages of healing

172
Q
  • boy athlete 10-15 years old

* PE show tenderness over the tibial tubercle

A

osgood-schlatter Disease

173
Q

Force perpendicular to long axis

A

Transverse

174
Q

PE shows: a mass located medially and distal to the knee crease and more apparent with extension of the knee

A

Baker’s Cyst ( popliteal Synovial Cyst)

175
Q

Sprain or tear of the ulnar collateral ligament of the thumb—> instability of MCP joint

A

Game keeper’s Thumb

176
Q
  • New piece of bone, usually growing on another piece of bone
  • Benign tumor, slow growing
A

OSTEOMA

177
Q

Hip emergency in 10-15 y obese child?

A

slipped capital Femoral Epiphysis

178
Q
  • Rare, benign bone tumor

- Epiphysis of long bones (femur, humerus)

A

CHONDROBLASTOMA

179
Q

Hallmark finding in gout*

A

hyperuricemia

180
Q

The characteristics of patients who should undergo radiography after knee trauma according to the Pittsburgh Decision Rules are patients with these findings or history:

Blunt trauma or a fall as mechanism of injury plus either of the following:

*Age younger than 12 years or older than 50 years

*____________

A

Inability to walk four weight-bearing steps in the emergency department

181
Q

Forced hyperflexion of the DIP

*instability to extend the DIP

A

Mallet finger

182
Q

__________pelvis tilts downward on unaffected side (when DDH missed)

A

Trendelenburg sign =

183
Q

symmetrical aching and stiffness about the shoulders, hip girdle, neck, torso

A

Polymyalgia rheumatica

184
Q

Deformity of fingers in rheumatoid arthritis where the MCP and DIP joints are flexed and the PIP joints are hyperextended*

A

Swan Neck Contractures

185
Q

Active 7y/o with bilateral leg aching only at bedtime?

A

radial

186
Q

Torus (buckle): MOI

A

Compression due to axial loading (fall)

187
Q

PE shows flexing the infant’s hips and knees showing uneven knee heights (Galeazzi test)

A

Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip (DDH)

188
Q

multiple pieces fracture

A

comminuted

189
Q

Gamekeeper’s Thumb tx

A

Thumb spica

190
Q
  • joint pain: asymmetrical and/or monoarticular
  • pain relived w/ rest
  • onset: years
A

Osteoarthritis

191
Q

‘Can’t see, can’t pee, can’t climb a tree’*

A

reactive arthritis

192
Q

AKA: systemic sclerosis

A

scleroderma

193
Q

malignant bone lessions (3)

A
  • osteosarcoma
  • ewing’s sarcoma
  • Leukemic infiltrate
194
Q

Deformity of PIP joints in rheumatoid arthritis where the PIP is flexed and the DIP is hyperextended*

A

Boutonniere

195
Q

Drug of choice for initial management of fibromyalgia

A

amitriptyline

196
Q

Transverse fracture through the base of the 5th metatarsal

A

Jones fracture

197
Q
  • Narrowed joint space
  • sclerosis
  • osteophyte formation
A

Osteoarthritis

198
Q

HPI “red flags” for pathologic musculoskeletal pain?

A
  • wake up at night

* decreased range of motion, *ages 10-20

199
Q

Thompson’s Test

AKA:

A

Simmond’s Test

200
Q

Low back pain in a gymnast?

A

spondylysis

201
Q

Burning Pain is most common in the third intermetatarsal space

A

motor neuroma

202
Q

Most common bacteria causing childhood osteomyelitis and septic arthritis?

A

staph

203
Q

Most common primary malignant bone tumor in children

A

osteosarcoma

204
Q

early stages of osteoporosis

A

Osteopenia

205
Q

leads to an increased risk for non-Hodgkin lymphoma

A

Sjögren Syndrome

206
Q

Most common cause of death in patients with Sjogren syndrome

A

malignancy

207
Q

pneumoconiosis + RA

A

Caplan syndrome

208
Q

Dorsal/Posterior angulation MC FOOSH with wrist extension

A

Colle’s fracture

209
Q
  • Calcaneal apophysitis
  • Heel pain, limp in pre-pubertal child
  • PE: painful posterior calcaneus +/- tight heel cord modification (feel cushion, orthotic)
A

Foot-server disease

210
Q

pt with a history of ankle inversion

*most common injured the anteriir talofibular ligament (ATFL)

A

ankle sprain

211
Q

The characteristics of patients who should undergo radiography after knee trauma according to the ___________are patients with any one of these five findings:

  • age 55 years or older
  • inability to weight bear 4 steps both immediately and in the emergency department
  • inability to flex the knee to 90 degrees
  • isolated patellar tenderness
  • tenderness at the head of the fibula
A

Ottawa Knee Rules

212
Q

dactylitis (“sausage” digits)*

A

Psoriatic Arthritis

213
Q

Triad of seropositive rheumatoid arthritis, neutropenia, and splenomegaly*

A

Felty Syndrome

214
Q

NEXUS Cervical Spine Rule

Radiography is Unnecessary if pts satisfy ALL of the following low risk criteria:

  • ____________
  • No focal neuro deficits
  • Normal alertness
  • No intoxication
  • No painful distracting injury
A

No midline cervical tenderness

215
Q

_______largest sesamoid in the body

A

Patella

216
Q
  • conjunctivitis
  • joint pain
  • dysuria
A

Reactive Arthritis

217
Q

Bases of all metatarsals are dislocated laterally

A

Lisfranc Injury

218
Q

Classic finding is pain with direct pressure over the bursa!

A

Trochanteric Bursitis

219
Q

Hand fracture usually 4th or 5th metacarpal

A

Boxer fracture

220
Q

______is the MC affected by pseudogout

A

Knee

221
Q

Most ankle sprains are due to inversion during __________ with 85% involving the lateral ligaments.

A

plantar flexion

222
Q
  • Referred to the “growth plate”.

- Site of elongation of long bones.

A

Epiphyseal

223
Q

pyogenic or tuberculous osteomyelitis, epidural abscess.

spinal cause of LBP?

A

Infectious

224
Q

imaging: Mouse bites (punched out) erosions

A

Gout

225
Q

Severe sprains (dislocations) will present with ___________ due to joint disassociation

A

postural change

226
Q

__________ d/t Overuse syndrome from excessive wrist EXTENSION and repetitive gripping activities using thumb and first 2 fingers

A

Lateral Epicondylitis

227
Q

Narrowing of the spinal canal with impingement of the nerve roots. Seen >60 y.

A

Spinal stenosis

228
Q

trigonocephaly looks like a

A

triangle

229
Q

which size of vessel?

  • Takayasu arteritis
  • Temporal arteritis
A

Large vessel

230
Q

Danis-weber classification

Three Types:

  • Type A: fracture below the ankle joint
  • Type B: fracture at the level of the joint, with the tibiofibular ligaments usually intact
  • Type C: ___________
A

fracture above the joint level which tears the syndesmotic ligaments.

231
Q

____________caused by Massive central herniation compresses several nerve roots of the cauda equina

A

Cauda Equina Syndrome

232
Q

accelerated rate of bone remodeling

A

Paget Disease of Bone

233
Q

Idiopathic inflammatory condition causing synovitis, bursitis, and tenosynovitis pain/stiffness of the proximal joints (shoulder, hip, neck)

A

Polymyalgia Rheumatica

234
Q

2nd most common malignant bone tumor in children

A

ewing sarcoma

235
Q

Danis-weber classification

Three Types:

  • Type A: fracture below the ankle joint
  • Type B: ____________
  • Type C: fracture above the joint level which tears the syndesmotic ligaments.
A

fracture at the level of the joint, with the tibiofibular ligaments usually intact

236
Q

Scaphoid “Snuff Box” Injury MOI:

A

Generally a “FOSH” mechanism of injury

237
Q

with a Jones fracture there is an increased risk___________

A

MALUNION

238
Q

Diffuse pain in 11 out of 18 trigger points**>3 months+

A

Fibromyalgia

239
Q

Typically the first manifestation to present in patients with limited systemic sclerosis

A

Raynaud phenomenon

240
Q

Chemical composition of crystals in pseudogout

A

calcium pyrophosphate

241
Q

(+)(antibody) anti-histone= (condition)________

A
  • lupus

* drug-induced lupus

242
Q

RA+ splenomegaly + decreased WBC/repeated infections*

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis

243
Q

Diagnosis is made by COBB angle greater than or equal to 10 degrees

A

Scoliosis

244
Q

Arthrocentesis: shows negatively birefringent needle-shaped urate crystals*

A

Gout

245
Q

pt complaining of a mass in wrist, sometimes painful

A

ganglion cyst

246
Q

Associated with rheumatoid arthritis or osteoarthritis of hip

A

Iliopsoas Bursitis

247
Q

(+) Schirmer test

A

Sjögren Syndrome

248
Q

Inhibited growth of medial aspect of proximal tibial growth plate
*early walkers, obese, African American

A

Blount Disease

249
Q

Condition associated with chronic diffuse pain, cognitive difficulties, sleep disruption, and profound fatigue

A

fibromyalgia

250
Q

NEXUS Cervical Spine Rule

Radiography is Unnecessary if pts satisfy ALL of the following low risk criteria:

  • No midline cervical tenderness
  • No focal neuro deficits
  • Normal alertness
  • _______________
  • No painful distracting injury
A

No intoxication

251
Q

Hip disease in a limping 6y boy?

A

LCP

252
Q

Collection of blood (hematoma) under toe or finger nail caused from blunt trauma

A

Subungual Hematoma

253
Q

1st line treatment for pseudogout acute attack

A

intraarticular steroids 1st line

254
Q

Key radiographic finding in patients with osteoarthritis

A

Joint Space Narrowing

255
Q

Inflammation of the insertion point of tendons to bone

A

Enthesitis

256
Q

Common causative organism in reactive arthritis

A

chlamydia Trachomatis

257
Q

Chemical that makes up the crystals in gout

A

Monosodium Urate

258
Q

Selective non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agent; causes less dyspepsia and ulcers than non-selective agents

A

celecoxib

259
Q

Nodes found at the PIP joints in osteoarthritis

A

Bouchard

260
Q

Manifestation that is present in all patients with rheumatoid arthritis

A

morning stiffness

261
Q

Most common radiographic finding in reactive arthritis

A

fluffy periostitis

262
Q

Medication used in the treatment of arthritis associated with Borellia burgdorferi infection

A

doxycycline

263
Q

Alternative medication for use in gout when patients cannot tolerate NSAIDs

A

colchicine

264
Q

Presence of nodules and possible cavitations within the chest in patients with rheumatoid arthritis

A

caplan syndrome

265
Q

‘Sausage fingers’

A

dactylitis

266
Q

Excessive overhead throwing can cause proximal humeral _______*

A

epiphysitis

267
Q

PE: the affected arm held close to the body in a flexed and pronated position

A

Nursemaids Elbow

268
Q

(1) joint pain, (2) fever, (3) malar “butterfly rash”

A

SLE

systemic luous erythematosus

269
Q
  • Vasculitis that affects LARGE arteries with granulomatous and fibrotic changes of vessels, causing narrowing and ischemia*
A

Takayasu arteritis

270
Q

Antiarrhythmic agent commonly associated with drug-induced lupus

A

Procainamide

271
Q

Usually congenital and due to sternocleidomastoid fibrosis (rarely vertebral anomaly)

A

Neck - Torticollis

272
Q

which size of vessel?

  • Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA)
  • Eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis
A

Small vessel

273
Q
  • Usually from blunt trauma in which the subsurface soft tissues are injured-micro capillaries rupture causing a bruise.
  • may result in a hematoma
A

Contusion

274
Q

Dorsal dislocated mid foot

A

Lisfranc injury

275
Q

Inflammation of the first metatarsophalangeal joint in acute gout

A

podagra

276
Q

Neer’s impingement sign

A

rotator cuff disorder

277
Q

Transient (“toxic”) synovitis of the hip

A

Reactive Arthritis

278
Q
  • Tibial traction apophysitis

- Adolescent with knee pain during and after activity

A

Osgood Schlatter Disease

279
Q

radial head wedges into the stretched annular ligament

A

Nursemaid’s elbow

280
Q

Term used to describe the painful sterile oral and genital ulcerations associated with Behcet disease

A

pathergy

281
Q

Radiographic description of the vertebral column in patients with ankylosing spondylitis

A

bamboo spine

282
Q

Reproducable pain with shaking hands, lifting or gripping with hand

A

Lateral Epicondylitis

283
Q

legg-calve-perthes imaging

A

AP and frog

284
Q

Rheumatologic condition associated with anti-La and anti-Ro autoantibodies

A

Sjogren syndrome

285
Q

Septic Arthritis diagnosis is made by

A

arthrocentesis

286
Q

Guidelines as to when sports activities can be safely resumed.

_____________injury

  • Ligament stretch or minor tear
  • Return to play in 1 – 10 days
A

Type I Injury

287
Q

Guidelines as to when sports activities can be safely resumed.

_____________injury

  • Partial ligament tear
  • Return to play 2 – 4 weeks
A

Type II Injury

288
Q

Guidelines as to when sports activities can be safely resumed.

_____________injury
Complete ligament tear
Return to play in 5 – 8 weeks (Orthopedic call)

A

Type III Injury

289
Q
  • bones are abnormally dense and prone to breakage

- uncommon hereditary disease, infantile form often fatal

A

Osteopetrosis (Albers-Schönberg)

290
Q
  • Relatively benign, can become aggressive and malignant
  • Males
  • 2nd-3rd decades of life
  • Diaphysis of long bones
A

OSTEOBLASTOMA

291
Q
  • death of bone tissue due to lack of blood supply

- ischemic pathophysiology

A

osteonecrosis (AVN)

292
Q

may manifest as as swan-neck contractures

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis

293
Q

most specific test for RA

A

(+) anti-cycylic citrullinated peptide antibodies

294
Q

increased ESR, (+)HLA-27

A

Ankylosing Spondylitis

295
Q

what stage of gout?

Asymptomatic hyperuricemia

A

stage I

296
Q

what stage of gout?

  • Acute gouty arthritis
  • Most often affects the big toe at the first MTP joint (podagra)
A

stage II

297
Q

what stage of gout?
Intercritical gout
Asymptomatic period after initial attack

A

stage III

298
Q

what stage of gout?
Chronic tophaceous gout
-tophi

A

stage IV

299
Q

Discoid rash

A

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

300
Q

jaccoud arthrophy and arthralgias

A

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

301
Q

libman-scaks endocarditis

A

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

302
Q

MC pulmonary finding associated with Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

A

Pleuritis

303
Q

Autoimmune disorder that attacks exocrine glands

A

Sjögren Syndrome

304
Q

Lymphocyte infiltration and destruction of lacrimal and salivary glands

A

Sjögren Syndrome

305
Q

the limited symptoms of scleroderma are referred to as _______

A

CREST

306
Q

what does CREST stand for

A
  • calcinosis
  • raynaud’s phenomenon
  • esophageal dysmotility
  • sclerodactyly
  • telangiectasis
307
Q

triggers of Raynaud Phenomenon

A

cold temperatures, stress

308
Q

PULMONARY involvement is the most common cause of death from__________

A

systemic sclerosis

309
Q
  • symmetric proximal weakness

- heliotrope rash

A

dermatomyositis