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Meera's ODDR Qs > Short Qs > Flashcards

Short Qs Flashcards

1
Q

The major intermolecular cross link in periodontal ligament type I collagen is:

a) Hydroxylysinonorleucine
b) Lysinonorleucine
c) Hydroxylysine
d) Dihydroxylysinonorleucine
e) Allysine

A

d) Dihydroxylysinonorleucine

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2
Q

A number of interactions occur on contact of x-rays with matter. Which is the MOST useful effect
as regards radiographic contrast?

a) Rayleigh scattering
b) Photoelectric effect
c) Compton scattering
d) Ionisation
e) Pair production

A

b) Photoelectric effect

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3
Q

Which feature of the periodontium is thought to predispose it to inflammatory destruction?

a) It has collagen as its major matrix element
b) It has a poor blood supply
c) It has unusually large osteoclasts
d) It demonstrates an unusually high turnover rate
e) It is situated in a physically confined space.

A

d) It demonstrates an unusually high turnover rate

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4
Q

Sharpey’s fibres are found:

a) In the lamina propria
b) Only in the cribriform plate
c) Wholly within the periodontal ligament
d) Both in bone and cementum
e) Inserted in to the walls of capillaries

A

d) Both in bone and cementum

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5
Q

Local risk factors for periodontal diseases:

a) Should become evident when taking the history of the patient
b) Can cause gingivitis but not irreversible attachment loss and bone loss
c) Will always be eliminated following effective plaque control advice
d) Include subgingival calculus but not supragingival calculus
e) Include plaque retention factors such as root grooves

A

e) Include plaque retention factors such as root grooves

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6
Q

The following conditions predispose to periodontal diseases:

a) Anti-coagulant therapy e.g. warfarin
b) Poorly controlled Type 2 diabetes
c) Significant heart murmur requiring antibiotic cover
d) HIV-negative status
e) Severe asthma

A

b) Poorly controlled Type 2 diabetes

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7
Q

Which of these histological features is characteristic of osteoclasts?

a) They do not stain with haemotoxylin and eosin
b) They have very large amounts of rough endoplasmic reticulum
c) They are surrounded by a basal lamina
d) They are multinucleated
e) They have numerous intercellular contacts

A

d) They are multinucleated

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8
Q

The CORRECT order of the stages of processing radiographic film is:

a) Developing, washing, fixing, washing, drying
b) Fixation, washing, developing, washing, drying
c) Washing, developing, washing, fixation, drying
d) Washing, fixing, washing, developing, drying
e) Washing, developing, fixation, washing, drying

A

a) Developing, washing, fixing, washing, drying

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9
Q

What probe is used to assess the progression and extent of disease within the tissues of the oral cavity?

a) Briault’s
b) Community Periodontal Index of Treatment Needs (CPITN)
c) World Health Organisation (WHO)
d) Williams’
e) Florida

A

d) Williams’

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10
Q

Which of the following statements regarding Acute Necrotising Ulcerative Gingivitis (ANUG) is TRUE?

a) It is caused by gram-positive anaerobic bacteria
b) It is characterised by chronic onset
c) It affects non-smokers more than smokers
d) It is caused by acid fast bacilli
e) It is characterised by interproximal necrosis

A

e) It is characterised by interproximal necrosis

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11
Q

In order to limit the dose for a periapical radiograph:

a) Use a low-speed film
b) Use a lead apron
c) Use the optimal voltage (700kV)
d) Use the bisecting angle technique
e) Use a rectangular collimator

A

e) Use a rectangular collimator

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12
Q

If a patient has a BPE score of 2, what is the CORRECT course of treatment?

a) Nothing
b) Oral hygiene instruction (OHI)
c) OHI and scaling
d) OHI, scaling and correction of any iatrogenic factors
e) OHI, scaling and root planning

A

d) OHI, scaling and correction of any iatrogenic factors

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13
Q

The earliest clinical sign of chronic gingival inflammation is:

a) Erythema
b) Loss of stippling
c) Oedema
d) Bleeding on probing
e) Attachment loss

A

e) Attachment loss

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14
Q

Intensifying screens for extra-oral radiographs:

a) Turn electrons into light
b) Are coated with rare-earth elements like Radon
c) Cause a fuzzier image than intra-oral radiographs
d) Reduce scatter
e) Increase translucence

A

c) Cause a fuzzier image than intra-oral radiographs

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15
Q

X-ray radiation:

a) Is absorbed by the tissues
b) Scatters
c) Passes through the patient
d) Imparts some or all of its energy to any material through which it passes
e) Is completely reflected back off the patient

A

d) Imparts some or all of its energy to any material through which it passes

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16
Q

Which of the following is NOT a pre-disposing factor in the aetiology of NUG?

a) Stress
b) Immune suppression (HIV)
c) Cavitational coronal caries
d) Poor diet and mal-nutrition
e) Pre-existing gingivitis, poor oral hygiene, and previous history of NUG

A

c) Cavitational coronal caries

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17
Q

The optimal film speed for intra-oral radiography is:

a) B
b) C
c) D
d) E
e) F

A

e) F

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18
Q

What unusual feature does the junctional epithelium possess?

a. It has a keratinised layer on both sides
b. It has a basal lamina on both sides
c. It has a non-ectodermal origin
d. It attaches to enamel via sharpey’s fibres
e. It does not have a basal lamina

A

b. It has a basal lamina on both sides

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19
Q

Local risk factors for periodontal diseases

a. Should become evident when taking the history of the patient
b. Can cause gingivitis but not irreversible attachment loss and bone loss
c. Will always be eliminated following effective plaque control advice
d. Include subgingival calculus but not supragingival calculus
e. Include plaque retention factors such as root grooves

A

e. Include plaque retention factors such as root grooves

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20
Q

Which of the following statements is false, regarding the strategies that are employed to prevent occupational exposure to blood and saliva contaminants in the dental surgery?

a. Universal level of cross infection control
b. Careful surgery design
c. Utility of barrier protection
d. Replacing cytotoxic waste (sharps) bins when totally full
e. Safe working practices

A

d. Replacing cytotoxic waste (sharps) bins when totally full

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21
Q

Which one of the following is NOT a risk factor for oral cancer?

a. Smoking
b. Alcohol
c. Previous trauma to the site
d. Social deprivation
e. Betel nut chewing

A

c. Previous trauma to the site

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22
Q

Which one of the following is NOT a physical cause of non-carious tooth surface loss?

a. Fracture
b. Attrition
c. Abrasion
d. Vomiting
e. Iatrogenic

A

d. Vomiting

23
Q

Which type of collagen makes up the periodontal ligament (PDL)?

a. I
b. II
c. III
d. IV
e. V

A

a. I

24
Q

What pressure should be used when probing?

a. 5g
b. 25g
c. 75g
d. 150g
e. 500g

A

b. 25g

25
Q

Interleukins (ILs) are very important in the host cell response. Which one of the following interleukins is NOT derived from T-cells?

a. Il-1
b. Il-2
c. IL-3
d. IL-4
e. IL-5

A

a. Il-1

26
Q

Two tests used to detect the presence of HIV infections are:

a. Agglutination and neutralization reactions.
b. Compliment fixation and immunoflorescence tests.
c. ELIZA and Western Blotting.
d. Haemagglutination and Coamb’s Test.
e. Indirect haemagglutination and Western Blotting

A

c. ELIZA and Western Blotting.

27
Q

As humoral immunity plays a huge part in periodontal disease, which immunoglobin is found in the greatest quantity in human serum?

a. IgA
b. IgD
c. IgE
d. IgG
e. IgM

A

d. IgG

28
Q

Which types of micro-organism are found in supragingival plaque?

A- Gram-positive, Gram-negative, Fermentative organisms
B- Aerobic, Gram-negative, Anaerobic bacteria
C- Gram-positive, Aerobic bacteria, Proteolytic bacteria
D- Gram-positive, Aerobic bacteria, Fermentative bacteria
E- Proteolytic bacteria, Gram-negative, Anaerobic bacteria

A

D- Gram-positive, Aerobic bacteria, Fermentative bacteria

29
Q

If a patient has a BPE score of 2, what is the correct course of treatment?

a. Nothing
b. Oral hygiene instruction (OHI)
c. OHI and scaling
d. OHI, scaling and correction of any iatrogenic factors
e. OHI, scaling and root planning

A

d. OHI, scaling and correction of any iatrogenic factors

30
Q

Root planning is:

a. Removal of material Alba and stains from root surface
b. Removal of soft tissue wall of the periodontal pocket
c. Removal of calculus and plaque from root surface
d. Removal of food debris from tooth surface
e. Removal of diseased cementum along with other root deposits

A

e. Removal of diseased cementum along with other root deposits

31
Q

In order to limit the dose for a periapical radiograph:

a. Use a low-speed film
b. Use a lead apron
c. Use the optimal voltage (700kV)
d. Use the bisecting angle technique
e. Use a rectangular collimator

A

e. Use a rectangular collimator

32
Q

Which of the following is the MOST commonly associated pathology with wisdom teeth?

a. Pericoronitis
b. Mesioangular impaction
c. Distoangular impaction
d. Horizontal impaction
e. Cystic change

A

a. Pericoronitis

33
Q

A secretary piece is attached to IgA:

a. In plasma cells.
b. In epithelial cells.
c. By enzyme in mucous secretion.
d. By T-cells.
e. By macrophages.

A

b. In epithelial cells

34
Q

Which of the following statements is least related to Chlorhexidine (0.2%)?

a. It is useful in reducing plaque formation.
b. It can cause staining of the teeth.
c. There is increased formation of calculi.
d. Alteration in taste perception is also observed.
e. It is not effective in gingivitis.

A

e. It is not effective in gingivitis.

35
Q

The amount of gingival crevicular fluid (GCF) is:

a. Decreased when inflammation is present.
b. Increase by trauma from occlusion.
c. Decreased by mastication of coarse foods and smoking.
d. Decreased by ovulation and hormonal contraceptives.
e. Increased by tooth brushing and gingival massage.

A

e. Increased by tooth brushing and gingival massage.

36
Q

When looking at the notes of a patient, you see annotation for a Basic Periodontal Examination
(BPE). What does a score of 3 mean on this particular index?

a) Gingival bleeding, no overhangs or calculus, pockets > 3.5mm
b) Pockets with colour-coded area, 4.5-6.5mm
c) Colour-coded area disappears, pockets > 5.5mm
d) Pockets within colour-coded area, 3.5-5.5mm
e) Colour-coded area disappears, pockets >5.5mm

A

d) Pockets within colour-coded area, 3.5-5.5mm

37
Q

What is the optimal shape for a collimator?

a) Round
b) Rectangular
c) Square
d) Hexagonal
e) Circular

A

b) Rectangular

38
Q

Which one of the following is associated with abnormal collagen formation leading to periodontal
disease?

a) Type 1 diabetes mellitus
b) Papillon-Lefevre syndrome
c) Hypophosphatasia
d) Type 2 diabetes mellitus
e) Hyperphosphatasia

A

b) Papillon-Lefevre syndrome

39
Q

Which one of the following does NOT support the ALARP principle?

a) Minimising errors
b) Slow-speed film
c) Aluminium filter
d) Timer
e) Collimator

A

b) Slow-speed film

40
Q

Which of the following components enhances the binding of antigen antibody complex to macrophages:

a) C1.
b) C3a.
c) C3b.
d) C8.
e) Cb6,7 complex.

A

c) C3b.

41
Q

Which one of these statements about processing radiographs is TRUE?

a) The developer is an acidic solution
b) The developer needs changing daily
c) Fixation is the process by which silver halide crystals are removed to reveal the white areas on the film
d) The lower the temperature of the developer solution, the faster the film will be developed
e) If the film is not left in the developer long enough then the radiograph will be too dark

A

c) Fixation is the process by which silver halide crystals are removed to reveal the white areas on the film

42
Q

For which teeth/surfaces would you use a Gracey no.1 or no.2 curette when scaling?

a) All teeth
b) All surfaces of anterior teeth
c) Mesial surfaces of anterior teeth
d) All surfaces of posterior teeth
e) Mesial surfaces of posterior teeth

A

b) All surfaces of anterior teeth

43
Q

When looking at the notes of a patient, you notice that one of the sextants in the BPE has an X.
What does this mean?

a) A furcation lesion is present
b) The dentist was unable to decide what score to give the sextant
c) Only two teeth were present in the sextant
d) Only one tooth or no teeth were present in the sextant
e) Teeth in the sextant are marked for extraction

A

d) Only one tooth or no teeth were present in the sextant

44
Q

What type of filter is used in X-ray machines?

a) Tungsten
b) Tin
c) Copper
d) Molybdenum
e) Aluminium

A

e) Aluminium

45
Q

Which part of the X-ray machine performs the following function: ‘it removes the peripheral X-rays, therefore minimising the dose to the patient’?

a) Collimator
b) Filter
c) Imagine intensifier
d) Generator
e) Ion chamber

A

a) Collimator

46
Q

Necrotising ulcerative periodontitis:

a) Is associated with deep periodontal pockets.
b) Is associated with a crater like depression at the tip of interdental papilla and vesicle formation.
c) Is associated with a crater like interdental bony depression.
d) Is not responsive to any therapy.
e) Leads to gingival recession because of faulty tooth brushing.

A

b) Is associated with a crater like depression at the tip of interdental papilla and vesicle formation.

47
Q

In order to limit the dose for a periapical radiograph:

a) Use a low-speed film
b) Use a lead apron
c) Use the optimal voltage (700kV)
d) Use the bisecting angle technique
e) Use a rectangular collimator

A

e) Use a rectangular collimator

48
Q

If a patient has a BPE score of 2, what is the correct course of treatment?

a) Nothing
b) Oral hygiene instruction (OHI)
c) OHI and scaling
If a patient has a BPE score of 2, what is the correct course of treatment?
d) OHI, scaling and correction of any iatrogenic factors
e) OHI, scaling and root planning

A

d) OHI, scaling and correction of any iatrogenic factors

49
Q

A number of interactions occur on contact of x-rays with matter. Which is the MOST useful effect as regards radiographic contrast?

a) Rayleigh scattering
b) Photoelectric effect
c) Compton scattering
d) Ionisation
e) Pair production

A

b) Photoelectric effect

50
Q

Which feature of the periodontium is thought to predispose it to inflammatory destruction?

a) It has collagen as its major matrix element
b) It has a poor blood supply
c) It has unusually large osteoclasts
d) It demonstrates an unusually high turnover rate
e) It is situated in a physically confined space.

A

d) It demonstrates an unusually high turnover rate

51
Q

The earliest clinical sign of chronic gingival inflammation is:

a) Erythema
b) Loss of stippling
c) Oedema
d) Bleeding on probing
e) Attachment loss

A

e) Attachment loss

52
Q

Furcation involvement is measured by:

a) WHO probe
b) CPITN probe
c) Naber’s probe
d) Michigan “O” probe
e) Periodontal explorer

A

c) Naber’s probe

53
Q

forcibly embedded tooth brush bristle may be retained in the gingivae and cause:

a) Gingival recession
b) Periodontal pocket
c) Attachment loss
d) Bone loss
e) Gingival abscess

A

e) Gingival abscess

54
Q

Which types of micro-organism are found in subgingival plaque?

a) Gram-positive, Gram-negative, Fermentative organisms
b) Aerobic, Gram-negative,
Anaerobic bacteria
c) Gram-positive, Aerobic bacteria, Proteolytic bacteria
d) Gram-positive, Aerobic bacteria, Fermentative bacteria
e) Proteolytic bacteria, Gram-negative, Anaerobic bacteria

A

e) Proteolytic bacteria, Gram-negative, Anaerobic bacteria

Meera's ODDR Qs (2 decks)

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