Short Answer 3 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q
  1. Explain what is meant by 160(2)(b)
A

This covers cases where nothing is done when there is a legal duty to act, and failure to discharge a legal duty, in particular a duty of care. If death results from any such omission the defendant may be convicted of manslaughter, provided there was sufficient fault, or murder if the defendant had the requisite mens rea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. Willfully Frightening definition
A

“Wilfully frightening” is regarded as “intending to frighten, or at least be reckless as to this”. Adams on Criminal Law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. R v Horry
A

R v Horry [1952] NZLR 111, 123

Death should be provable by such circumstances as render it morally certain and leave no ground for reasonable doubt – that the circumstantial evidence
should be so cogent and compelling as to convince a jury that upon no rational hypothesis other than murder can the facts be accounted for.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. R v Harney
A

R v Harney [1987] 2 NZLR 576 (CA)

“[Recklessness involves] foresight of dangerous consequences that could well happen, together with an intention to continue the course of conduct regardless of the risk.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. Explain voluntary manslaughter
A

Mitigating circumstances, such as a suicide pact, reduce what would otherwise be murder to manslaughter, even though the defendant may have intended to kill or cause grievous bodily harm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. Explain the difference between voluntary and involuntary manslaughter
A

Voluntary Manslaughter covers were there is an intention to kill or cause grievous bodily harm.

In voluntary Manslaughter covers an unlawful killing in which the death is caused by an unlawful act or gross negligence.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. What are duties of a parent / guardian under section 152
A

152 Duty of parent or guardian to provide necessaries and protect from injury

(1) Every one who is a parent, or is a person in place of a parent, who has actual care or charge of a child under the age of 18 years is under a legal duty—
(a) to provide that child with necessaries; and
(b) to take reasonable steps to protect that child from injury.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. Complete the sentencing for the section of abandoning a child. (They ask for the age of the child and the penalty)
A

154 Abandoning child under 6

Every one is liable to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 7 years who unlawfully abandons or exposes any child under the age of 6 years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. Explain the defences for children under 10 and children 10-13.
A

When a child is under 10 years they shall not be convicted of an offence by reason of any act done or omitted by him.

When a child is between 10 and under 14 years they shall not be convicted of an offence by reason of any act done or omitted by him, unless he knew either that the act or omission was wrong or that it was contrary to law.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. Section 23(2) - Insanity, complete the sentence..
A

No person shall be convicted of an offence by reason of an act done or omitted by him when labouring under natural imbecility or disease of the mind to such an extent as to render him incapable—

(a) Of understanding the nature and quality of the act or omission; or
(b) Of knowing that the act or omission was morally wrong, having regard to the commonly accepted standards of right and wrong.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. Mcnaughtons rules - Complete the last three lines
A

The M’Naghten’s rules (or test) is frequently used to establish whether or not a defendant is insane.

It is based on the person’s ability to think rationally, so that if a person is insane they were acting under such a defect of reason from a disease of the mind that they did not know:

  • the nature and quality of their actions, or
  • that what they were doing was wrong.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. R v Cottle
A

R v Cottle [1958] NZLR 999 (CA)

As to degree of proof, it is sufficient if the plea is established to the satisfaction of the jury on a preponderance of probabilities without necessarily excluding all reasonable doubt.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. Explain the courts ruling of R v Lipman
A

When automatism that is brought about by a voluntary intake of alcohol or drugs the courts have indicated that convincing evidence is necessary to support defence and, and only in very rare cases will it be enough for a person to say that they did not know or cannot remember what happened, or that they had a blackout.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. Explain what a strict liability offence is and give an example.
A

‘Strict Liability’ offence means that no mens rea needs be proved by the prosecution, for example ‘Driving with excess breath alcohol’ because intent need not be proved.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. What 3 points must be satisfied before a defence of compulsion can be used?
A
  1. Compelled to commit the offence by someone at the scene who had threatened them that they would otherwise be killed or caused grievous bodily harm.
  2. The defendant must have genuinely believed the threats.
  3. The defendant must not be a party to any association or conspiracy involved in carrying out the threats.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. Explain entrapment
A

Entrapment occurs when an agent of an enforcement body deliberately causes a person to commit an offence, so that person can be prosecuted. It must be fair. If unfair it will be used in a successful defence.

17
Q
  1. That last 3 bullet points on the degree of force section under self defence.
A

The degree of force permitted is tested initially under the following subjective criteria:

  • What are the circumstances that the defendant genuinely believes exist?
  • Do you accept that the defendant genuinely believes those facts?
  • Is the force used reasonable in the circumstances believed to exist?
18
Q
  1. Murder is defined by Section 167. Give 3 circumstances where culpable homicide is murder.
A

culpable homicide is murder if:

(a) If he means to cause grievous bodily injury for the purpose of facilitating the commission of any of the offence.
(b) If he administers any stupefying or overpowering thing for any of the purposes aforesaid, and death ensues from the effects thereof:
(c) If he by any means wilfully stops the breath of any person for any of the purposes aforesaid, and death ensues from such stopping of breath.