Short Answer: 1-10 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the causes for widesperad vulnerabilites?

A

+ large number of vulnerabilities

+ end of life systems

+ lack of vendor support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Name 3 configuration issues.

A

+ default configuration

+ week configuration

+ misconfigurations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Name 3 reasons why it is difficult to defend against today’s attacks.

A

+ delay in security updates

+ increased speed of attacks

+ simplicity of attack tools

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Name 3 ideas about the nature of security.

A

+ security is a goal

+ security includes the necessary steps to protect from harm

+ security is a process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Name the successive layers that information secutiy is achieved.

A

+ products

+ people

+ procedures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Name 3 types of risk response techniques.

A

+ transfer risk

+ mitigate risk

+ avoid risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Name 4 security principles

A

+ obscurity

+ diversity

+ limiting

+ layering

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Name 3 traits that can be applied to malware.

A

+ circulation

+ infection

+ concealment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Name the types of malware.

A

+ worms

+ rootkits

+ adware

+ viruses

+ ransomware

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Name the types of mutations that viruses can undergo

A

+ betamorphic

+ oligimorphic

+ polymorphic

+ metamorphic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Define logic bomb.

A

+ used to delete data

+ computer code that is added to legitimate applications but lies dormant until a specific logical event triggers it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Name characteristics of a rootkit.

A

+ rootkit is able to hide its prescence and the prescence of other malware

+ rootkit accesses “lower layers” of the operating system

+ the risk of a rootkit is less today than previously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Name 3 facts about keylogger.

A

+ keylogger can be used to capture passwords, credit card number, or personal information

+ hardware keylogger are installed between the keylogger connector and computer keyboard USB port

+ software keylogger can be desigend to send captured information back to the attacker through the internet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Name the psychological approaches used by attackers in social engineering.

A

+ familiarity + urgency

+ scarcity + familiarity

+ intimidation + trust

+ consensus

+ impersonation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Name items that would be helpful to find when dumpster diving.

A

+ calendars

+ organizational charts

+ memos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Why is adware hated by people?

A

+ it displays objectionable content

+ it can intefer with a user’s productivity

+ it can cause a computer to crash or slow down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Explain how a hash algorithm works and how it is primarily used.

A

A hash alogrithm creates a unique “digital fingerprint” of a set of data. This process is called hasing. It produces a resulting fingerprint called a digest that represents the contents. It is primarily used for comparision purposes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Name the basic security protections for information using cryptography

A

+ authenticity

+ integrity

+ ciphertext

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which areas of a file can be used by stenography to hide date?

A

+ areas that contain content data itself

+ in teh file header fields that describe a file

+ in data that is used to describe the content or structure of the actual data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which characteristics are applicable to secure hash algorithm?

A

+ collisions happen often

+ a message cannot be produced from a predfined hash

+ the results of a hash function should not be reversed

+ hash should always be the same fixed size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Name 4 protections that can be used in protecting data.

A

+ diffusion

+ confusion

+integrity

+ chaos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Name the benefits htat a digital signature provides.

A

+ verify the sender

+ prove the integrity of the message

+ enforce non-repudiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Name 6 key exchanges/systems.

A

+ Diffe-Hellman-RSA (DHRSA)

+ Diffe-Hellman Ephemeral (DHE)

+ Diffe-Hellman (DH)

+ Elliptic-Curve Diffe-Helman (ECDH)

+ Public Key Exchange (PKE)

+ Perfect Forward Secrecy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Name 4 symmetric crypotographic algorithms.

A

+ data encryption standard

+ triple data encryption standard

+ advanced encryption standard

+ RCI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Name 4 asymmetric cryptographic algorithms.

A

+ SHA-2

+ ME-312

+ BTC-2

+ RSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

List the four stages of a certificate life cycle.

A

1) creation
2) suspension
3) revocation
4) expiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Name the methods used to strengthen a key.

A

+ randomness

+ cryptoperiod

+ length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Name 4 clock ciphers.

A

+ Electronic Code Block (ECB)

+ Galois/Counter (GCM)

+ Counter (CTR)

+ Cipher Block Chaining (CBC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Digital certificates can be used in which situations.

A

+ to encrypt channels to provide secure communication betweeen clients and servers

+ to verfiy the idtenty of clients and servers on the web

+ to encrypt messages for secure email communication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Name 4 trust models.

A

+ bridge

+ hierarchical

+ distributed

+ third-party trust

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Name 4 facts about hierachical trust models.

A

+ designed for use on a small scale

+ root signals all digital certificate authorities with a signal key

+ it assigns a single hierarchy with one master CA

+ the master CA is called the root

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Name 4 common attacks used by hackers.

A

+ Man-In-Middel (MITM)

+ Man-In-The-Browswer (MITB)

+ Replay

+ ARP poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Name 3 actions that can be done in a SQL injection attack

A

+ erase a database table

+ display a list of customer telelphones numbers

+ discover the names of different fields in a table

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Name 3 types of DoS attacks.

A

+ SYN flood

+ DOVS amplication

+ smurf attack

35
Q

Name 3 characteristics that describe Replay attack

A

+ cannot be prevented by patching the web browser

+ is not considered to be a type of DoS attack

+ makes a copy of transmission for use at later time

+ does not replay attack over and over to food server

36
Q

Describe DNS poisoning.

A

+ doesnt flood a DNS server with requests until it can no longer respond

+ host tables do not slow it down

+ substitues DNS addres so that the computer is automatically redirected to another device

+ is not the same as ARP poisoning.

37
Q

Which standard network device is good for adding new technology for security purposes?

A

+ router

38
Q

Name 4 standard networking devices.

A

+ router

+ hub

+ virtual private network

+ SIEM device

39
Q

What is found in a firewall ACL rule?

A

+ source address

+ direction

+ protocol

40
Q

Which functions does Internet content filter perform?

A

+ URL filtering

+ Malware inspection

+ content inspection

41
Q

What does NAT stand for?

A

+ network address translation

42
Q

What security action can a flood guard do when a MAC flooding attack occurs?

A

+ ignore the new MAC addresses while allowing normal traffic from the single preaproved MAC address

+ record new MAC addresses up to a specific limit

+ block the port entirely

43
Q

What are 3 facts about demilitarized zone (DMZ) ?

A

+ it can be configured to have one or two firewalls

+ it typically includes an email or web server

+ provides an extra degree of security

44
Q

What is used in scheduling a load balancer?

A

+ data within the application message itself

+ affinity

+round robin

45
Q

Which configurations are all load balances inactive at some point?

A

+ active-passive

+ passive-active-passive

+ active-load-passive-load

46
Q

What can be used to hide information about the internal network?

A

+ NAT

+ subnetter

+ proxy server

47
Q

What is the basis for domain name resolution of names-to-IP addresses?

A

In order for domain name resolution of names-to-IP addresses to happen, a DNS server must be present to translate a domain name into an IP address.

48
Q

Explain how attacker can use priviliges escalation to gain access to a resources that are restricted?

A

Vertical privilege escalation requries the attacker to grant himself higher priviliges. This is typically achieved by performing kernel-level operations that allow the attacker to run unauthorized code.

Horizontal privilege escalation requires the attacker to use the same level of priviliges he already has been granted, but assume the identity of another user with similar priviliges. For example, someone gaining access to another person’s online banking account would constitute horizontal privilige escalation.

49
Q

Discuss at least two security advantages of a host running visualization?

A

One advantage of a host running virtualization is that security updates can be downloaded and run in a virtual machine to determine compatibility or the impact on other software or even hardware. This prevents administrators from having to roll back updatess, on a production machine, when issues arise from the updates.

A second advantage of a host running virtualization is that a snapshot of a state of a virtual machine can be saved for later use. If something happens that adversely affects a user’s physical computer, a backup can be used to restore a user’s virtual environment on another machine. This drastically decreases the down time a user may face when confronted with a technical issue.

50
Q

What TCP/IP protocols relate to security?

A

+ SNMP

+ HTTPS

+ FTP

51
Q

Name 3 facts about Domain Name Systems Extensions (DNSSEC).

A

+ it is fully supported in BIND9

+ it adds additional resource records

+ ti adds message header information

52
Q

Name 3 facts about SSL accelarator.

A

+ it can be separate hardward card that inserts into a web server

+ it can be a separate hardware module

+ it should reside between the user’s device and the web servers

53
Q

Name 3 source models for cloud computing.

A

+ Software as a Service (SaaS)

+ Platform as a Service (PaaS)

+ Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

54
Q

Which entries in a log file for firewall must be looked at?

A

+ suspicious outbound connections

IP address that are being rejected and dropped

55
Q

Which type of hypervision runs on underlying operating system?

A

+ Type II

+ Type III

+ Type IV

56
Q

Name 4 models for computing in enterprises environment.

A

+ virtual service

+ off-premises

+ on-premises

+ hosted services

57
Q

Name 3 concerns of virtualized environments.

A

+ virtual machines must be protected from teh outside world and from other virtual machines on the same physical computer

+ physical security appliances are not always designed to protect virtual systems

+ live migration can immediately move from one virtualized server to another hypervisor

58
Q

Which email protocols are secure?

A

+ S/MIME

+ TLS

59
Q

Name 4 bluetooth attacks.

A

+ bluesnarfing

+ bluecreeping

+ bluejacking

+ bluestealing

60
Q

Which tech is found in wireless router?

A

+ router

+ Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP)

+ firewall

61
Q

What are 3 risks associated with a wireless router that is not secured?

A

+ data can be stolen from one filder that is being the shared

+ financial info can be stolen if its sent over WLAN

+ malware can be injected into computer connected to WLAN

62
Q

What does WPS mean?

A

+ WiFi protected setup

63
Q

Name 4 types of access points.

A

+ captive portal

+ web based portal

+ rouge portal

+ authenicated portal

64
Q

Name 3 options to protect wireless peripherals.

A

+ update/replace vulernable device

+ switch to move fu lly tested bluetooth model

+ substitute a wired device

65
Q

Name 3 limitations of turning off SSID broadcast from an AP?

A

+ frequency band

+ channel selection

+ channel width

66
Q

Name 3 types of AP probes.

A

+ wireless device probe

+ AP probe

+ dedicated probe

67
Q

Name 3 reasons why supply chain infections are considedred especially dangerous.

A

+ malware planted in the ROM firmware of device makes it hard to clean device

+ users gets infected devices at the point of purchase with no knowledge

+ impossible to watch every step in the supply chain

68
Q

Name 3 motion detection methods.

A

+ magnetism

+ moisture

+ infrared

69
Q

Name 4 types of residential locks.

A

+ encrypted key lock

+ keyed entry lock

+ privacy lock

+ passage lock

70
Q

Name 3 typical OS security configurations.

A

+ employing least functionality

+ disability default accounts/password

+ disabling unnecessary ports and services

71
Q

Name 3 characteristics of alarmed carrier PDS.

A

+ uses continuous monitoring

+ eliminate need to seal connetions

72
Q

Name 3 memory vulnerabilities.

A

+ DLL injection

+ pointer deference

+ buffer overthrow

73
Q

Name stages of code development.

A

1) development
2) testing
3) staging
4) production

74
Q

Name 4 models of design.

A

+ waterfall

+ rigid

+ agile

+ secure

75
Q

Name 4 types of testing.

A

+ stress testing

+ static analysis

+ dynamic analyzer

+ runtime testing

76
Q

Describe how content management is used.

A

Content management is used to support the creation and subsequent edting and modifciation of digital content by multiple employees. It can included tracking ediiting history, version control, indexing, and searching. It can also provide app security support. This includeds application whitelisting and geofencing.

77
Q

Name the type of USB connections you will find on a laptop.

A

+ mini

+ micro

+ standard

78
Q

Name types of enterprise development deployjment models.

A

+ BYOD (Bring Your Own Device)

+ CYOD (Chose Your Own Device)

+ COPE (Corporate Owned Personally Enabled)

+ corporate owned

79
Q

Name 3 reasons why Android doesn’t push alot of updates for its its operating system.

A

+ prevent OEM to differentiate between differnt models of phones with Android

+ Android has lots of modified versions and updates may cause them to fail

+ prevent users from keeping one phone forever

80
Q

Name 3 reasons why mobile phones are at risk on public networks.

A

+ public networks are beyond control of employee’s organization control

+ replay attacks occur on public networks

+ MITM attacks are possible on public networks

81
Q

Name 3 security features for lost/stolen mobile devices.

A

+ remote lockout

+ alarm

+ thief picture

82
Q

Name 4 types of paswords for mobile devices

A

+ password

+ pin

+ fingerprint

+ connecting dots

83
Q

Name 3 benefits of CYOD.

A

+ less oversight

+ increased employee performance

+ management flexibilty