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Shit I Need to Review Flashcards

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Charter Pilot (Part 135) - Oral flashcards
1
Q

What does a solid segmented circle on a sectional chart indicate?

A

Class B airspace

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2
Q

What does a blue dashed line on a sectional chart indicate?

A

Class B airspace begins at the surface (instead of at 3,000 feet MSL)

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3
Q

When flying in the airspace underlying Class B airspace, what is the maximum speed authorized?

A

200 knots

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4
Q

What does a solid magenta line on a sectional chart indicate?

A

Class C airspace

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5
Q

What is the basic VFR weather minimums in Class D airspace?

A

1,000-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility

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6
Q

What does a magenta dashed line on a sectional chart indicate?

A

Class E airspace begins at the surface

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7
Q

What are the vertical limits of a Class E airspace designated as a Federal Airway?

A

1,200 feet AGL to 17,999 feet MSL

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8
Q

What is virtually all of the airspace east of the Rockies?

A

Floor of Class E at 1,200 feet AGL

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9
Q

What is the minimum visibility for VFR operations during daylight hours in Class G airspace?

A

Minimum visibility of 3 statute miles

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10
Q

What does the area outside of a blue shaded vignette on a sectional chart indicate?

A

Class G airspace

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11
Q

How many miles of visibility are required below 10,000 feet MSL?

A

3 statute miles

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12
Q

How many miles of visibility are required above 10,000 feet MSL?

A

5 statute miles

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13
Q

What is the basic airspeed limit below 10,000 feet MSL?

A

250 knots

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14
Q

If the outside air temperature at a given altitude is warmer than standard, how is the density altitude affected?

A

The density altitude would be higher than pressure altitude

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15
Q

When is torque effect greatest?

A

Torque effect is greatest in low airspeed, high power, and high angle of attack

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16
Q

What does the lower limit of the white arc represent?

A

Power-off stalling speed with wing flaps and landing gear in the landing configuration

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17
Q

What does the white arc represent?

A

The full-flap operating range

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18
Q

What does the top of the white arc represent?

A

The maxmum flaps-extended speed

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19
Q

What does the red line airspeed represent?

A

The maximum speed at which the airplane can be operated in smooth air

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20
Q

What is maneuvering speed?

A

The speed at which a single flight control can be moved, one time, to its full deflection without risk of damage to the aircraft

NOTE: Manuevering speed is not color coded on airspeed indicators (because it varies with weight)

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21
Q

In what condition must an aircraft be placed in order to spin?

A

It must be stalled

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22
Q

How do you read this?

A

Little hand = ten thousands

Fat hand = thousands

Long hand = hundreds

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23
Q
  • In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the west if:
A

A right turn is entered from a north heading

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24
Q

Special VFR clearance authorizes the pilot of an aircraft to operate VFR while within Class D airspace when the visibility is:

A

At least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds

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25
Q

What is the normal radius of the procedural Outer Area of Class C airspace?

A

20 nautical miles

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26
Q

What are the lateral dimensions of Class D airspace based on?

A

The instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established

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27
Q

What does absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast indicate?

A

The ceiling is at least 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more

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28
Q

The pilot of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file an NTSB accident report within how many days?

A

10 days

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29
Q

Who may perform preventative maintenance on an aircraft and approve it for return to service?

A

Private or commercial pilot

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30
Q

What do the “runway hold position” markings on a taxiway indicate?

A

Identifies where aircraft hold short of the runway/an entrance to runway from a taxiway

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31
Q

How long is BasicMed course completion good for?

A

2 years on the last day of the month

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32
Q

What is VNO?

A

Maximum structural cruising speed

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33
Q

What causes an airplane to pitch nose down when power is reduced and controls are not adjusted?

A

The downwash on the elevators from the propeller slipstream is reduced and elevator effectiveness is reduced

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34
Q

What force makes an airplane turn?

A

The horizontal component of lift

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35
Q

If a flight is made from an area of low pressure into an area of high pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, what will the altimeter indicate?

A

Lower than the actual altitude above sea level

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36
Q

What is the control tower frequency indicated by on a sectional chart?

A

The frequency is indicated by “CT”

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37
Q

As standard operating practice, all inbound traffic to an airport without a control tower should continuously monitor the appropriate facility from what distance?

A

10 miles

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38
Q

FAA Advisory Circulars are issued with what subject numbers?

A

60 = Airmen

70 = Airspace

90 = Air Traffic Control and General Operations

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39
Q

When approaching taxiway holding lines from the side with the continuous lines, the pilot:

A

Should not cross the lines without ATC clearance

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40
Q

Know the shit in this picture

A
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41
Q

Low-level turbulence can occur and icing can become hazardous in which type of fog?

A

Steam fog

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42
Q

Flight crewmembers are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during:

A

Takeoffs and landings

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43
Q

How do you find the true heading?

A

Add or subtract the wind correction angle from the true course (TC + or – WCA = TH)

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44
Q

How do you find the magnetic heading?

A

Add or subtract the variation from the true heading (TH + or – VAR = MH)

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45
Q

How do you find the compass heading?

A

Add or subtract the deviation from the magnetic heading (MH + or – DEV = CH)

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46
Q

When converting from the true course to magnetic heading, should a pilot add or subtract westerly variation and add or subtract left wind correction angle?

A

A pilot should add westerly variation (“west is best”) and subtract left wind correction angle (“left is less”)

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47
Q

When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, the “taxiway directional sign” indicates:

A

Designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection

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48
Q

Maybe know the shit in this picture too

A
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49
Q

The amount of excess load that can be imposed on the wing of an airplane depends upon what?

A

The speed of the airplane

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50
Q

As altitude increases, the indicated airspeed at which a given airplane stalls in a particular configuration will:

A

Remain the same regardless of altitude

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51
Q

In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the east if:

A

A left turn (toward the west) is entered from a north heading

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52
Q

There is no acceleration error if an aircraft is accelerated (or decelerated) while on what heading?

A

A north or south heading

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53
Q

What is the recommended communications procedure for landing at an airport during the hours when the tower is not in operation?

A

Monitor airport traffic and announce your position and intentions on the CTAF (Common Traffic Advisory Frequency)

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54
Q

Where can you find information concerning parachute jumping sites?

A

The Chart Supplement

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55
Q

The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence of what?

A

There is a temperature inversion with freezing rain at a higher altitude

Ice pellets are usually found in warm fronts when rain falls from air with a temperature above freezing (inversion) into air with a temperature below freezing. As it cools, the rain becomes freezing rain and then becomes ice pellets.

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56
Q

What happens when warm, moist air flows upslope?

A

It produces stratus type clouds (stable air forms stratus type clouds)

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57
Q

What feature is associated with a temperature inversion?

A

A stable layer of air

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58
Q

What is indicated when a current CONVECTIVE SIGMET forecasts thunderstorms?

A

Thunderstorms obscured by massive cloud layers

NOTE: CONVECTIVE SIGMET implies severe or greater turbulence

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59
Q

A third-class medical certificate is good for how many years?

A

If under the age of 40, it is good for 5 years on the last day of the month

If over the age of 40, it is good for 2 years on the last day of the month

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60
Q

At what altitude shall the altimeter be set to 29.92 when climbing to cruising flight level?

A

18,000 feet MSL

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61
Q

When does a Certificate of Aircraft Registration expire?

A

3 years after the date the certificate was issued

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62
Q

What are the special use transponder codes?

A

7500 = hijack code

7600 = lost communications

7700 = emergency

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63
Q

What is the difference between how VOR and VOR-DME are represented on a sectional chart?

A

VOR with no DME or TACAN capability is represented by a hexagon with a dot in the center

VOR-DME (distance measuring equipment) facility is represented a hexagon with a dot in the center and enclosed within a square

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64
Q

If a plane is purchased that has been operating with a dealership certificate of registration, how long is the registration good for after purchase?

A

It must be immediately registered by the new owner

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65
Q

When does P-factor (asymmetric propeller loading) cause the airplane to yaw to the left?

A

When at high angles of attack

The descending propeller blade on the right takes a bigger bite out of the air than the ascending propeller blade on the left (the asymmetric thrust causes the airplane to yaw to the left)

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66
Q

During an approach to a stall, an increased load factor will cause the airplane to:

A

Stall at a higher speed

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67
Q

What is a Military Operations Area (MOA)

A

Special use area where there are training activities involving acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers

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68
Q

What is in a Restricted Area?

A

Unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles

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69
Q

What is an alert area?

A

High volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity

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70
Q

An airport’s rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates:

A

That weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums

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71
Q

Basic radar service in the terminal radar program is best described as:

A

Safety alerts, traffic advisories, and limited vectoring to VFR aircraft

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72
Q

Detonation may occur at high-power settings when:

A

The fuel mixture ignites instantaneously instead of burning progressively and evenly

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73
Q

Except in Alaska, during what time period should lighted position lights be displayed on an aircraft?

A

Sunset to sunrise

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74
Q

No person may use an ATC transponder unless it has been tested and inspected within at least the preceding:

A

24 calendar months

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75
Q

What are the typical scales on the navigation plotter?

A

Sectional and WAC

76
Q

Which situation is reportable to the NTSB if your aircraft is equipped with ACAS Airborne Collision and Avoidance System?

A

Operating on an instrument flight plan while needing to comply with a resolution advisory to avert a substantial risk between aircraft

77
Q

What is VX?

A

The best-angle-of-climb speed which provides the greatest altitude gain over the shortest ground distance

78
Q

What is VY?

A

The best-rate-of-climb speed

79
Q

What is VA?

A

Maneuvering speed

80
Q

What is a pitot tube connected to?

A

The airpseed indicator

81
Q

What are static vents (or ports) connected to?

A

The airspeed indicator, altimeter, and vertical speed indicator

82
Q

On the magnetic compass as you roll into a turn to the right (standard rate or otherwise) from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere, the compass will:

A

Indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring

83
Q

An operable 4096-code transponder and Mode C encoding altimeter are required in:

A

Class B airspace and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport

84
Q

Excessively high engine temperatures, either in the air or on the ground, will:

A

Cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage

85
Q

What type of precipitation will be found in cumulus clouds?

A

Showery (rather than continuous)

86
Q

When do stratiform clouds form and what type of precipitation do they have?

A

They form in the presence of stable air and have continuous precipitation

87
Q

What is wind shear?

A

An abrupt change in the strength and/or direction of the wind over a short period of time or distance

88
Q

When does wind shear occur?

A

Occurs most often during thunderstorms and near low-level temperature inversions

Also occurs in frontal zones and in clear air turbulence

89
Q

Do lenticular clouds and stratocumulus clouds indicate the presence of turbulence or wind shear?

A

Turbulence

90
Q

How are Significant Weather Prognostic Charts best used by a pilot?

A

For determining areas to avoid (freezing levels and turbulence)

91
Q

With respect to the certification of airmen, which are categories of aircraft?

A

Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air

92
Q

What are classes of an airplane category?

A

Single-engine land and sea, multi-engine land and sea

93
Q

What determines the right-of-way hierarchy?

A

Maneuverability

Example: A glider has priority over aircraft refueling an aircraft

94
Q

How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division?

A

No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action

95
Q

What type of incident with a turbine aircraft requires immediate NTSB notification?

A

Failure of any internal turbine engine component that results in the escape or release of debris other than out the exhaust path

In-flight fires but not ground fires

96
Q

How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip?

A

Outward, upward, and around each tip

97
Q

In the Northern Hemisphere, the magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the south when:

A

The aircraft is decelerated while on a west heading (or east heading)

It will indicate a turn toward the north when the aircraft is accelerated on an east or west heading

98
Q

Which aileron positions should a pilot generally use when taxiing in strong quartering headwinds?

A

Aileron up on the side from which the wind is blowing (and elevator should be neutral)

99
Q

A First-Class Medical Certificate is good for how long?

A

Under the age of 40, it is good for 5 years at the end of the month

Over the age of 40, it is good for 2 years at the end of the month

100
Q

If an in-flight emergency requires immediate action, the pilot in command may:

A

Deviate from any rule of 14 CFR Part 91 to the extent required to meet that emergency

A written report only needs to be submitted upon request

101
Q

What does an alternating red and green light from a control tower indicate?

A

Exercise extreme caution

102
Q

What does a flashing red light at a control tower indicate?

A

Airport unsafe – do not land

103
Q

When solving a wind problem on the wind side of the flight computer, the first information to enter on the wind side is:

A

The wind

104
Q

Which incident involving propellers is reportable to the NTSB under Part 830?

A

Separation of a blade in flight

105
Q

What does the yellow demarcation bar marking indicate?

A

Runway with a displaced threshold that preces the runway

106
Q

What is the definition of load factor?

A

Additional weight carried by the wings divided by the weight of the aircraft

107
Q

What is absolute altitude?

A

The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface

108
Q

What minimum radio equipment is required to land and take off in Class C airspace?

A

Mode C transponder and two-way radio

Needed to establish and maintain communications with air traffic control (which is required in Class C)

109
Q

What should be the first action after starting an aircraft engine?

A

Adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine gauges

110
Q

FAA advisory circulars are available to all pilots and are obtained by:

A

Ordering those desired from the Government Printing Office

111
Q

To minimize the side loads placed on the landing gear during touchdown, what should the pilot do?

A

Keep the longitudinal axis of the aircraft parallel to the direction of its motion

112
Q

Would an increase in water vapor in the air would tend to make the air rise or fall and become more or less stable

A

It would tend to make the air rise and become less stable

113
Q

Preventative maintenance has been performed on an aircraft. What paperwork is required?

A

The signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records

114
Q

When does a Certificate of Aircraft Registration expire?

A

3 years after the date the certificate was issued (not on the last day of the month)

115
Q

What condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than true altitude?

A

Air temperature warmer than standard

116
Q

What will applying carburetor heat do?

A

It will decrease the density of the air going to the engine, so less weight of air with the same amount of fuel will enrich the fuel/air mixture

117
Q

When taxiing with strong quartering tailwinds, which aileron positions should be used?

A

Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing

Also, elevator should be down

118
Q

What types of fog depend upon wind in order to exist?

A

Advection fog and upslope fog

119
Q

What causes advection fog?

A

Advection fog is caused by warm air moving over a colder surface and it deepens as wind is increased up to about 15 knots

120
Q

What causes upslope fog?

A

Upslope fog is caused by air cooling as it is forced to rise up a slope (when the wind ceases the fog dissipates)

121
Q

What values are used for Winds Aloft Forecasts?

A

True direction, knots, and degrees C

122
Q

Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight?

A

The pilot in command (NOT the owner or operator)

123
Q

A pilot convicted of violating Federal or State laws involving the process, manufacture, transportation, distribution, or sale of narcotic drugs is grounds for:

A

Suspension or revocation of any certificate or rating, or authorization issued under 14 CFR Part 61

124
Q

What is the report required to be filed with the FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) for?

A

Motor vehicle action involving alcohol or drugs (NOT a conviction involving the process, manufacture, transportation, distribution, or sale of narcotic drugs)

125
Q

If the ground wire between the magneto and the ignition switch becomes disconnected, what will be the most noticeable result?

A

The engine cannot be shut down by turning the switch to the OFF position

126
Q

What represents a VORTAC station on a sectional chart?

A

A single dot inside a hexagon with tabs on three of the sides

127
Q

When are wingtip vortices are created?

A

Only when an aircraft is developing lift

128
Q

When does greatest wingtip vortex strength occur?

A

When the wing is at the highest angle of attack at the wingtips (when the airplane is heavy, slow, and flaps up/clean)

129
Q

Pilots flying over a national wildlife refuge are requested to fly no lower than:

A

2,000 feet AGL

130
Q

When operating under VFR below 18,000 feet MSL, unless otherwise authorized, what transponder code should be selected?

A

1200

131
Q

If a pilot suspects that the engine (with a fixed-pitch propeller) is detonating during climb-out after takeoff, the initial corrective action to take would be to:

A

Lower the nose slightly to increase airspeed

High power settings and low RPM will tend to make an engine detonate, so increasing the airspeed will also increase the engine RPM

You can also richen the mixture or reduce the power as corrective actions

132
Q

What do runway numbers indicate?

A

The runway direction to the nearest 10 degrees of magnetic direction

133
Q

What clouds have the greatest turbulence?

A

Cumulonimbus clouds (aka thunderstorm clouds)

134
Q

What is the only cloud type forecast in TAF reports?

A

Cumulonimbus (Other clouds types are reported in METAR reports)

135
Q

How often must transponders be inspected?

A

Every 24 calendar months (on the last day of the month)

136
Q

What does the Air Data Computer or ADC do?

A

It combines information received by temperature and pitot-static sensors

The data is accurately depicted for altitude and indicated airspeed

137
Q

What flight characteristic would cause greater difficulty in recovering from a stalled condition?

A

Loading an airplane in such a manner that the CG is located aft of the aft CG limit

138
Q

What is the width of a Federal Airway from either side of the centerline?

A

4 nautical miles

139
Q

What conditions result in the formation of frost?

A

The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below the dewpoint of the adjacent air and the dewpoint is below freezing

Frost forms when moisture sublimates (goes directly from the gaseous state to the solid state)

140
Q

What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm?

A

Continuous updraft

141
Q

An operable 4096-code transponder with an encoding altimeter is required in which airspace?

A

Class A, Class B (and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport), and Class C

142
Q

Does a forced landing due to engine failure require an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?

A

No

143
Q

Does landing gear damage, due to a hard landing require an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?

A

No

144
Q

Does flight control system malfunction or failure require an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?

A

Yes

145
Q

ATC advises, “traffic 12 o’clock.” This advisory is relative to your:

A

Ground track

146
Q

In regard to Class C airspace, when are you required to have Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) Out capability?

A

When operating above Class C up to 10,000 MSL and when operating within the lateral boundaries of Class C airspace

NOTE: Flying under the shelf of Class C is outside the lateral boundaries

147
Q

What is the angle of bank after which the load factor notably increases?

A

45 degrees

148
Q

What does the area within the fuzzy side of a magenta vignette on a sectional chart indicate?

A

Floor of Class E airspace begins at 700 feet AGL

149
Q

What does a turn coordinator provide an indication of?

A

Movement of the aircraft about the yaw and roll axes

150
Q

Prior to entering an Airport Advisory Area, what should a pilot do?

A

Contact the local FSS for airport and traffic advisories

151
Q

When can possible mountain wave turbulence be anticipated?

A

When winds of 40 knots or greater blow across a mountain ridge, and the air is stable

152
Q

A pilot can expect a wind-shear zone in a temperature inversion whenever the windspeed at 2,000 to 4,000 feet above the surface is at least:

A

25 knots

153
Q

Where may an aircraft’s operating limitations be found?

A

In the current, FAA-approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof

154
Q

How can a military airport be identified at night?

A

Dual peaked (two quick) white flashes between green flashes

155
Q

How can a civilian airport be identified at night?

A

Alternate green and white flashes

156
Q

What is indicated by a black square with yellow lettering at an airport?

A

Taxiway location sign

“Black square, you’re there”

157
Q

What is indicated by a yellow square with black lettering at an airport?

A

Approaching that taxiway

158
Q

Where are official specifications of aircraft, propeller, and engines found?

A

In the FAA-approved AFM/POH

159
Q

What determines longitudinal stability of an airplane?

A

The location of the CG with respect to the center of lift

160
Q

How often are flight reviews required for recreational and private pilots?

A

Every 2 years by the end of the month

161
Q

What does a flashing green light signal from a control tower indicate?

A

Clears a pilot to taxi

162
Q

What is VFE?

A

Maximum flaps extended speed

163
Q

What does the lower limit of the grren arc respresent?

A

Power-off stalling speed in a specified configuration

164
Q

What is the minimum number of GPS satellites that are observable by a user anywhere on earth?

A

5

165
Q

How should a VFR flight plan be closed at the completion of the flight at a controlled airport?

A

The pilot must close the flight plan with the nearest FSS outlet or other FAA facility upon landing

166
Q

What does RAB# indicate on an Aviation Routine Weather Report (METAR)?

A

Rain began # minutes after the hour

167
Q

What does BR indicate on an Aviation Routine Weather Report (METAR)?

A

Mist

168
Q

What does PRESRR indicate on an Aviation Routine Weather Report (METAR)?

A

Pressure rising rapidly

169
Q

AIRMETs are advisories of significant weather phenomena but of lower intensities than SIGMETs and are intended for dissemination to whom?

A

All pilots

170
Q

Who has the final authority as to the operation of an aircraft?

A

Pilot in command

171
Q

In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, what else do regulations specifically require the pilot in command to do?

A

Determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft’s takeoff and landing distance data

172
Q

What does the outbound destination sign identify?

A

Identifies direction to take-off runways

173
Q

What does the yello arc represent?

A

The caution range for operation of the airplane

174
Q

Why does high humidity decrease aircraft performance?

A

The presence of water vapor displaces some of the air molecules in the atmosphere causing the air to be less dense

(Decreased density of air causes decreased performance of the aircraft)

175
Q

On a sectional chart, what indicates that fuel is available at an airport ?

A

Four tick marks around the airport symbol

176
Q

Where is the “Available Landing Distance” (ALD) data published for an airport that utilizes Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO)?

A

Chart Supplement

177
Q

What is one weather phenomenon that will always occur when flying across a front?

A

A change in the wind direction

178
Q

To determine the freezing level and areas of probable icing aloft, what should the pilot refer to?

A

Inflight Aviation Weather Advisories

179
Q

What are Inflight Aviation Weather Advisories?

A

This the collective title for AIRMETs, SIGMETs, and Convective SIGMETs

They are forecasts for enroute aircraft of potentially hazardous weather

180
Q

What do AIRMETs (AIRman’s METeorological Information) show?

A

AIRMETs give you freezing levels and areas of probably moderate icing

181
Q

What do SIGMETs (Significant Meteorological Information) show?

A

A SIGMET will tell you about expected severe icing not associated with thunderstorms

182
Q

Unless otherwise authorized, the maximum indicated airspeed at which aircraft may be flown when at or below 2,500 feet AGL and within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of Class C airspace is what?

A

200 knots

183
Q

How do you determine the appropriate cruising altitude for a VFR flight based on magnetic course?

A

Between 0-179 degrees = odd thousands plus 500 feet

Between 180-359 degrees = even thousands plus 500 feet

184
Q

What regulation allows a private pilot to perform preventative maintenance?

A

14 CFR Part 43.7

185
Q

What must a pilot do to use an MEL (Minimum Equipment List)?

A

A pilot must make a written request and receive written approval from the local FDSO (Flight Standards District Offices)

Private Pilot's License (1 decks)

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