Shit I Need to Review Flashcards
1
Q
What does a solid segmented circle on a sectional chart indicate?
A
Class B airspace
2
Q
What does a blue dashed line on a sectional chart indicate?
A
Class B airspace begins at the surface (instead of at 3,000 feet MSL)
3
Q
When flying in the airspace underlying Class B airspace, what is the maximum speed authorized?
A
200 knots
4
Q
What does a solid magenta line on a sectional chart indicate?
A
Class C airspace
5
Q
What is the basic VFR weather minimums in Class D airspace?
A
1,000-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility
6
Q
What does a magenta dashed line on a sectional chart indicate?
A
Class E airspace begins at the surface
7
Q
What are the vertical limits of a Class E airspace designated as a Federal Airway?
A
1,200 feet AGL to 17,999 feet MSL
8
Q
What is virtually all of the airspace east of the Rockies?
A
Floor of Class E at 1,200 feet AGL
9
Q
What is the minimum visibility for VFR operations during daylight hours in Class G airspace?
A
Minimum visibility of 3 statute miles
10
Q
What does the area outside of a blue shaded vignette on a sectional chart indicate?
A
Class G airspace
11
Q
How many miles of visibility are required below 10,000 feet MSL?
A
3 statute miles
12
Q
How many miles of visibility are required above 10,000 feet MSL?
A
5 statute miles
13
Q
What is the basic airspeed limit below 10,000 feet MSL?
A
250 knots
14
Q
If the outside air temperature at a given altitude is warmer than standard, how is the density altitude affected?
A
The density altitude would be higher than pressure altitude
15
Q
When is torque effect greatest?
A
Torque effect is greatest in low airspeed, high power, and high angle of attack
16
Q
What does the lower limit of the white arc represent?
A
Power-off stalling speed with wing flaps and landing gear in the landing configuration
17
Q
What does the white arc represent?
A
The full-flap operating range
18
Q
What does the top of the white arc represent?
A
The maxmum flaps-extended speed
19
Q
What does the red line airspeed represent?
A
The maximum speed at which the airplane can be operated in smooth air
20
Q
What is maneuvering speed?
A
The speed at which a single flight control can be moved, one time, to its full deflection without risk of damage to the aircraft
NOTE: Manuevering speed is not color coded on airspeed indicators (because it varies with weight)
21
Q
In what condition must an aircraft be placed in order to spin?
A
It must be stalled
22
Q
How do you read this?
A
Little hand = ten thousands
Fat hand = thousands
Long hand = hundreds
23
Q
- In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the west if:
A
A right turn is entered from a north heading
24
Q
Special VFR clearance authorizes the pilot of an aircraft to operate VFR while within Class D airspace when the visibility is:
A
At least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds
25
What is the normal radius of the procedural Outer Area of Class C airspace?
20 nautical miles
26
What are the lateral dimensions of Class D airspace based on?
The instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established
27
What does absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast indicate?
The ceiling is at least 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more
28
The pilot of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file an NTSB accident report within how many days?
10 days
29
Who may perform preventative maintenance on an aircraft and approve it for return to service?
Private or commercial pilot
30
What do the "runway hold position" markings on a taxiway indicate?
Identifies where aircraft hold short of the runway/an entrance to runway from a taxiway
31
How long is BasicMed course completion good for?
2 years on the last day of the month
32
What is VNO?
Maximum structural cruising speed
33
What causes an airplane to pitch nose down when power is reduced and controls are not adjusted?
The downwash on the elevators from the propeller slipstream is reduced and elevator effectiveness is reduced
34
What force makes an airplane turn?
The horizontal component of lift
35
If a flight is made from an area of low pressure into an area of high pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, what will the altimeter indicate?
Lower than the actual altitude above sea level
36
What is the control tower frequency indicated by on a sectional chart?
The frequency is indicated by "CT"
37
As standard operating practice, all inbound traffic to an airport without a control tower should continuously monitor the appropriate facility from what distance?
10 miles
38
FAA Advisory Circulars are issued with what subject numbers?
60 = Airmen
70 = Airspace
90 = Air Traffic Control and General Operations
39
When approaching taxiway holding lines from the side with the continuous lines, the pilot:
Should not cross the lines without ATC clearance
40
Know the shit in this picture
41
Low-level turbulence can occur and icing can become hazardous in which type of fog?
Steam fog
42
Flight crewmembers are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during:
Takeoffs and landings
43
How do you find the true heading?
Add or subtract the wind correction angle from the true course (TC + or – WCA = TH)
44
How do you find the magnetic heading?
Add or subtract the variation from the true heading (TH + or – VAR = MH)
45
How do you find the compass heading?
Add or subtract the deviation from the magnetic heading (MH + or – DEV = CH)
46
When converting from the true course to magnetic heading, should a pilot add or subtract westerly variation and add or subtract left wind correction angle?
A pilot should add westerly variation (“west is best”) and subtract left wind correction angle (“left is less”)
47
When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, the “taxiway directional sign” indicates:
Designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection
48
Maybe know the shit in this picture too
49
The amount of excess load that can be imposed on the wing of an airplane depends upon what?
The speed of the airplane
50
As altitude increases, the indicated airspeed at which a given airplane stalls in a particular configuration will:
Remain the same regardless of altitude
51
In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the east if:
A left turn (toward the west) is entered from a north heading
52
There is no acceleration error if an aircraft is accelerated (or decelerated) while on what heading?
A north or south heading
53
What is the recommended communications procedure for landing at an airport during the hours when the tower is not in operation?
Monitor airport traffic and announce your position and intentions on the CTAF (Common Traffic Advisory Frequency)
54
Where can you find information concerning parachute jumping sites?
The Chart Supplement
55
The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence of what?
There is a temperature inversion with freezing rain at a higher altitude
Ice pellets are usually found in warm fronts when rain falls from air with a temperature above freezing (inversion) into air with a temperature below freezing. As it cools, the rain becomes freezing rain and then becomes ice pellets.
56
What happens when warm, moist air flows upslope?
It produces stratus type clouds (stable air forms stratus type clouds)
57
What feature is associated with a temperature inversion?
A stable layer of air
58
What is indicated when a current CONVECTIVE SIGMET forecasts thunderstorms?
Thunderstorms obscured by massive cloud layers
NOTE: CONVECTIVE SIGMET implies severe or greater turbulence
59
A third-class medical certificate is good for how many years?
If under the age of 40, it is good for 5 years on the last day of the month
If over the age of 40, it is good for 2 years on the last day of the month
60
At what altitude shall the altimeter be set to 29.92 when climbing to cruising flight level?
18,000 feet MSL
61
When does a Certificate of Aircraft Registration expire?
3 years after the date the certificate was issued
62
What are the special use transponder codes?
7500 = hijack code
7600 = lost communications
7700 = emergency
63
What is the difference between how VOR and VOR-DME are represented on a sectional chart?
VOR with no DME or TACAN capability is represented by a hexagon with a dot in the center
VOR-DME (distance measuring equipment) facility is represented a hexagon with a dot in the center and enclosed within a square
64
If a plane is purchased that has been operating with a dealership certificate of registration, how long is the registration good for after purchase?
It must be immediately registered by the new owner
65
When does P-factor (asymmetric propeller loading) cause the airplane to yaw to the left?
When at high angles of attack
The descending propeller blade on the right takes a bigger bite out of the air than the ascending propeller blade on the left (the asymmetric thrust causes the airplane to yaw to the left)
66
During an approach to a stall, an increased load factor will cause the airplane to:
Stall at a higher speed
67
What is a Military Operations Area (MOA)
Special use area where there are training activities involving acrobatic or abrupt flight maneuvers
68
What is in a Restricted Area?
Unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles
69
What is an alert area?
High volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity
70
An airport’s rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates:
That weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums
71
Basic radar service in the terminal radar program is best described as:
Safety alerts, traffic advisories, and limited vectoring to VFR aircraft
72
Detonation may occur at high-power settings when:
The fuel mixture ignites instantaneously instead of burning progressively and evenly
73
Except in Alaska, during what time period should lighted position lights be displayed on an aircraft?
Sunset to sunrise
74
No person may use an ATC transponder unless it has been tested and inspected within at least the preceding:
24 calendar months
75
What are the typical scales on the navigation plotter?
Sectional and WAC
76
Which situation is reportable to the NTSB if your aircraft is equipped with ACAS Airborne Collision and Avoidance System?
Operating on an instrument flight plan while needing to comply with a resolution advisory to avert a substantial risk between aircraft
77
What is VX?
The best-angle-of-climb speed which provides the greatest altitude gain over the shortest ground distance
78
What is VY?
The best-rate-of-climb speed
79
What is VA?
Maneuvering speed
80
What is a pitot tube connected to?
The airpseed indicator
81
What are static vents (or ports) connected to?
The airspeed indicator, altimeter, and vertical speed indicator
82
On the magnetic compass as you roll into a turn to the right (standard rate or otherwise) from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere, the compass will:
Indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring
83
An operable 4096-code transponder and Mode C encoding altimeter are required in:
Class B airspace and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport
84
Excessively high engine temperatures, either in the air or on the ground, will:
Cause loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage
85
What type of precipitation will be found in cumulus clouds?
Showery (rather than continuous)
86
When do stratiform clouds form and what type of precipitation do they have?
They form in the presence of stable air and have continuous precipitation
87
What is wind shear?
An abrupt change in the strength and/or direction of the wind over a short period of time or distance
88
When does wind shear occur?
Occurs most often during thunderstorms and near low-level temperature inversions
Also occurs in frontal zones and in clear air turbulence
89
Do lenticular clouds and stratocumulus clouds indicate the presence of turbulence or wind shear?
Turbulence
90
How are Significant Weather Prognostic Charts best used by a pilot?
For determining areas to avoid (freezing levels and turbulence)
91
With respect to the certification of airmen, which are categories of aircraft?
Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, lighter-than-air
92
What are classes of an airplane category?
Single-engine land and sea, multi-engine land and sea
93
What determines the right-of-way hierarchy?
Maneuverability
Example: A glider has priority over aircraft refueling an aircraft
94
How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division?
No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action
95
What type of incident with a turbine aircraft requires immediate NTSB notification?
Failure of any internal turbine engine component that results in the escape or release of debris other than out the exhaust path
In-flight fires but not ground fires
96
How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip?
Outward, upward, and around each tip
97
In the Northern Hemisphere, the magnetic compass will normally indicate a turn toward the south when:
The aircraft is decelerated while on a west heading (or east heading)
It will indicate a turn toward the north when the aircraft is accelerated on an east or west heading
98
Which aileron positions should a pilot generally use when taxiing in strong quartering headwinds?
Aileron up on the side from which the wind is blowing (and elevator should be neutral)
99
A First-Class Medical Certificate is good for how long?
Under the age of 40, it is good for 5 years at the end of the month
Over the age of 40, it is good for 2 years at the end of the month
100
If an in-flight emergency requires immediate action, the pilot in command may:
Deviate from any rule of 14 CFR Part 91 to the extent required to meet that emergency
A written report only needs to be submitted upon request
101
What does an alternating red and green light from a control tower indicate?
Exercise extreme caution
102
What does a flashing red light at a control tower indicate?
Airport unsafe – do not land
103
When solving a wind problem on the wind side of the flight computer, the first information to enter on the wind side is:
The wind
104
Which incident involving propellers is reportable to the NTSB under Part 830?
Separation of a blade in flight
105
What does the yellow demarcation bar marking indicate?
Runway with a displaced threshold that preces the runway
106
What is the definition of load factor?
Additional weight carried by the wings divided by the weight of the aircraft
107
What is absolute altitude?
The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface
108
What minimum radio equipment is required to land and take off in Class C airspace?
Mode C transponder and two-way radio
Needed to establish and maintain communications with air traffic control (which is required in Class C)
109
What should be the first action after starting an aircraft engine?
Adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine gauges
110
FAA advisory circulars are available to all pilots and are obtained by:
Ordering those desired from the Government Printing Office
111
To minimize the side loads placed on the landing gear during touchdown, what should the pilot do?
Keep the longitudinal axis of the aircraft parallel to the direction of its motion
112
Would an increase in water vapor in the air would tend to make the air rise or fall and become more or less stable
It would tend to make the air rise and become less stable
113
Preventative maintenance has been performed on an aircraft. What paperwork is required?
The signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records
114
When does a Certificate of Aircraft Registration expire?
3 years after the date the certificate was issued (not on the last day of the month)
115
What condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than true altitude?
Air temperature warmer than standard
116
What will applying carburetor heat do?
It will decrease the density of the air going to the engine, so less weight of air with the same amount of fuel will enrich the fuel/air mixture
117
When taxiing with strong quartering tailwinds, which aileron positions should be used?
Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing
Also, elevator should be down
118
What types of fog depend upon wind in order to exist?
Advection fog and upslope fog
119
What causes advection fog?
Advection fog is caused by warm air moving over a colder surface and it deepens as wind is increased up to about 15 knots
120
What causes upslope fog?
Upslope fog is caused by air cooling as it is forced to rise up a slope (when the wind ceases the fog dissipates)
121
What values are used for Winds Aloft Forecasts?
True direction, knots, and degrees C
122
Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight?
The pilot in command (NOT the owner or operator)
123
A pilot convicted of violating Federal or State laws involving the process, manufacture, transportation, distribution, or sale of narcotic drugs is grounds for:
Suspension or revocation of any certificate or rating, or authorization issued under 14 CFR Part 61
124
What is the report required to be filed with the FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) for?
Motor vehicle action involving alcohol or drugs (NOT a conviction involving the process, manufacture, transportation, distribution, or sale of narcotic drugs)
125
If the ground wire between the magneto and the ignition switch becomes disconnected, what will be the most noticeable result?
The engine cannot be shut down by turning the switch to the OFF position
126
What represents a VORTAC station on a sectional chart?
A single dot inside a hexagon with tabs on three of the sides
127
When are wingtip vortices are created?
Only when an aircraft is developing lift
128
When does greatest wingtip vortex strength occur?
When the wing is at the highest angle of attack at the wingtips (when the airplane is heavy, slow, and flaps up/clean)
129
Pilots flying over a national wildlife refuge are requested to fly no lower than:
2,000 feet AGL
130
When operating under VFR below 18,000 feet MSL, unless otherwise authorized, what transponder code should be selected?
1200
131
If a pilot suspects that the engine (with a fixed-pitch propeller) is detonating during climb-out after takeoff, the initial corrective action to take would be to:
Lower the nose slightly to increase airspeed
High power settings and low RPM will tend to make an engine detonate, so increasing the airspeed will also increase the engine RPM
You can also richen the mixture or reduce the power as corrective actions
132
What do runway numbers indicate?
The runway direction to the nearest 10 degrees of magnetic direction
133
What clouds have the greatest turbulence?
Cumulonimbus clouds (aka thunderstorm clouds)
134
What is the only cloud type forecast in TAF reports?
Cumulonimbus (Other clouds types are reported in METAR reports)
135
How often must transponders be inspected?
Every 24 calendar months (on the last day of the month)
136
What does the Air Data Computer or ADC do?
It combines information received by temperature and pitot-static sensors
The data is accurately depicted for altitude and indicated airspeed
137
What flight characteristic would cause greater difficulty in recovering from a stalled condition?
Loading an airplane in such a manner that the CG is located aft of the aft CG limit
138
What is the width of a Federal Airway from either side of the centerline?
4 nautical miles
139
What conditions result in the formation of frost?
The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below the dewpoint of the adjacent air and the dewpoint is below freezing
Frost forms when moisture sublimates (goes directly from the gaseous state to the solid state)
140
What feature is normally associated with the cumulus stage of a thunderstorm?
Continuous updraft
141
An operable 4096-code transponder with an encoding altimeter is required in which airspace?
Class A, Class B (and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport), and Class C
142
Does a forced landing due to engine failure require an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?
No
143
Does landing gear damage, due to a hard landing require an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?
No
144
Does flight control system malfunction or failure require an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?
Yes
145
ATC advises, “traffic 12 o’clock.” This advisory is relative to your:
Ground track
146
In regard to Class C airspace, when are you required to have Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) Out capability?
When operating above Class C up to 10,000 MSL and when operating within the lateral boundaries of Class C airspace
NOTE: Flying under the shelf of Class C is outside the lateral boundaries
147
What is the angle of bank after which the load factor notably increases?
45 degrees
148
What does the area within the fuzzy side of a magenta vignette on a sectional chart indicate?
Floor of Class E airspace begins at 700 feet AGL
149
What does a turn coordinator provide an indication of?
Movement of the aircraft about the yaw and roll axes
150
Prior to entering an Airport Advisory Area, what should a pilot do?
Contact the local FSS for airport and traffic advisories
151
When can possible mountain wave turbulence be anticipated?
When winds of 40 knots or greater blow across a mountain ridge, and the air is stable
152
A pilot can expect a wind-shear zone in a temperature inversion whenever the windspeed at 2,000 to 4,000 feet above the surface is at least:
25 knots
153
Where may an aircraft’s operating limitations be found?
In the current, FAA-approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof
154
How can a military airport be identified at night?
Dual peaked (two quick) white flashes between green flashes
155
How can a civilian airport be identified at night?
Alternate green and white flashes
156
What is indicated by a black square with yellow lettering at an airport?
Taxiway location sign
“Black square, you’re there”
157
What is indicated by a yellow square with black lettering at an airport?
Approaching that taxiway
158
Where are official specifications of aircraft, propeller, and engines found?
In the FAA-approved AFM/POH
159
What determines longitudinal stability of an airplane?
The location of the CG with respect to the center of lift
160
How often are flight reviews required for recreational and private pilots?
Every 2 years by the end of the month
161
What does a flashing green light signal from a control tower indicate?
Clears a pilot to taxi
162
What is VFE?
Maximum flaps extended speed
163
What does the lower limit of the grren arc respresent?
Power-off stalling speed in a specified configuration
164
What is the minimum number of GPS satellites that are observable by a user anywhere on earth?
5
165
How should a VFR flight plan be closed at the completion of the flight at a controlled airport?
The pilot must close the flight plan with the nearest FSS outlet or other FAA facility upon landing
166
What does RAB# indicate on an Aviation Routine Weather Report (METAR)?
Rain began # minutes after the hour
167
What does BR indicate on an Aviation Routine Weather Report (METAR)?
Mist
168
What does PRESRR indicate on an Aviation Routine Weather Report (METAR)?
Pressure rising rapidly
169
AIRMETs are advisories of significant weather phenomena but of lower intensities than SIGMETs and are intended for dissemination to whom?
All pilots
170
Who has the final authority as to the operation of an aircraft?
Pilot in command
171
In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, what else do regulations specifically require the pilot in command to do?
Determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft’s takeoff and landing distance data
172
What does the outbound destination sign identify?
Identifies direction to take-off runways
173
What does the yello arc represent?
The caution range for operation of the airplane
174
Why does high humidity decrease aircraft performance?
The presence of water vapor displaces some of the air molecules in the atmosphere causing the air to be less dense
(Decreased density of air causes decreased performance of the aircraft)
175
On a sectional chart, what indicates that fuel is available at an airport ?
Four tick marks around the airport symbol
176
Where is the “Available Landing Distance” (ALD) data published for an airport that utilizes Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO)?
Chart Supplement
177
What is one weather phenomenon that will always occur when flying across a front?
A change in the wind direction
178
To determine the freezing level and areas of probable icing aloft, what should the pilot refer to?
Inflight Aviation Weather Advisories
179
What are Inflight Aviation Weather Advisories?
This the collective title for AIRMETs, SIGMETs, and Convective SIGMETs
They are forecasts for enroute aircraft of potentially hazardous weather
180
What do AIRMETs (AIRman's METeorological Information) show?
AIRMETs give you freezing levels and areas of probably moderate icing
181
What do SIGMETs (Significant Meteorological Information) show?
A SIGMET will tell you about expected severe icing not associated with thunderstorms
182
Unless otherwise authorized, the maximum indicated airspeed at which aircraft may be flown when at or below 2,500 feet AGL and within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of Class C airspace is what?
200 knots
183
How do you determine the appropriate cruising altitude for a VFR flight based on magnetic course?
Between 0-179 degrees = odd thousands plus 500 feet
Between 180-359 degrees = even thousands plus 500 feet
184
What regulation allows a private pilot to perform preventative maintenance?
14 CFR Part 43.7
185
What must a pilot do to use an MEL (Minimum Equipment List)?
A pilot must make a written request and receive written approval from the local FDSO (Flight Standards District Offices)
