Sheet2-表格 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are evidence of sexual abuse in children?

A

genital/anal trauma, STDs, UTIs

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2
Q

What are the 5 components of the APGAR score at birth?

A
  • A= Apperance (color)
  • P= Pulse
  • G= Grimace (reflex irritability)
  • A= Activity (muscle tone)
  • R= Respiration
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3
Q

What are the 7 effects of long-term deprivation of a!ection?

A
  1. Weak
  2. Wordless
  3. Wanting (socially)
  4. Wary (lack trust)
  5. Weight loss
  6. anaclitic depression
  7. physical illness
    [Hint: 5 W’s and 2 more]
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4
Q

What are the development milestones at about 3 years old in preschool?

A
  • group play
  • rides tricycle
  • copies line or circle drawing
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5
Q

What are the development milestones at about 4 years old in preschool?

A
  • cooperative play
  • simple drawings (stick figure)
  • hops on 1 foot
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6
Q

What are the developmental milestones at about 12-14 months old in infancy?

A

NAME?

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7
Q

What are the developmental milestones at about 15 months old in infancy?

A
  • walking
  • few words
  • separation anxiety
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8
Q

What are the developmental milestones at about 3 months old in an infant?

A
  • holds head up
  • social smile
  • Moro reflex disappears
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9
Q

What are the developmental milestones at about 4-5 months old in an infant?

A
  • rolls on back

- sits when propped

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10
Q

What are the developmental milestones at about 7-9 months old in infancy?

A
  • stranger anxiety
  • sits alone
  • orients to voice
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11
Q

What are the developmental milestones during adolescence?

A
  • abstract reasoning (formal operations)

- formation of personality

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12
Q

What are the developmental milestones during the schoolage years (6-11y/o)?

A
  • development of conscience (superego)
  • same-sex friends
  • identification with same-sex parent
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13
Q

What are the Kubler-Ross dying stages?

A

Denial-Anger-Barganing-Grieving-Acceptance, don’t occur necessarily in this order [Hint: Death Arrives Brining Grave Adjustments]

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14
Q

What are the risks of low birth weight?

A

assoc. w/ gtr. Incidence of physical and emotional problems. Complications include:
- infections
- respiratory distress syndrome
- necrotizing entercolitis
- persistent fetal circulation

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15
Q

What can cause regression to younger behavior in children?

A

Stress:

  • physical illness
  • punishment
  • birth of new sibling
  • tiredness
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16
Q

What causes low birth weight?

A

prematurity or intrauterine growth retardation

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17
Q

What is anaclitic depression?

A

depression in an infant owing to continued separation from caregiver–can result in failure to thrive. Infant becomes withdrawn and unresponsive

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18
Q

What is grief?

A

normal bereavement characterized by shock, denial, guilt, and somatic symptoms, Typically lasts 6mo. to 1yr.

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19
Q

What is pathologic grief?

A

includes excessively intense or prolonged grief or grief that’s delayed, inhibited, or denied

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20
Q

What is the result of severe long-term deprivation of affection?

A

death

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21
Q

When can a child parallel play?

A

Toddler, 24-48 months old

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22
Q

When does a child achieve core gender identity?

A

Toddler, 24-36 months old

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23
Q

When does a child achieve object permanence?

A

Toddler, 12-24 months old

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24
Q

When does a child achieve rapprochement?

A

Toddler, 18-24 months old

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25
Q

When does a child become toilet trained?

A

Preschool, 30-36 months old

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26
Q

When is adolescence for boys and for girls?

A

Boys: 13 years old
Girls: 11 years old

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27
Q

Who is usually the abuser in physical abuse in children?

A

female primary caregiver

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28
Q

Who is usually the abuser in sexual abuse in children?

A

known to victim, usually male

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29
Q

Case-control studies are often?

A

Retrospective (case control)

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30
Q

Characteristics of a normal statistical distribution?

A

Gaussian = Bell Shaped (mean=median=mode )

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31
Q

Country with highest divorce rate

A

U.S.

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32
Q

Define a bimodal distribution

A

Peaks on either side of the median

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33
Q

Define a Meta-analysis

A

Pooling data from several studies to achieve greater statistical power

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34
Q

Define a negative skew

A

Asymmetry with the tail on the left

mean<mode

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35
Q

Define a positive skew

A

Asymmetry with the tail on the right

mean>median>mode

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36
Q

Define Accuracy

A

The trueness of test measurements

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37
Q

Define Alternate Hypothesis

A

Hypothesis that there is some difference

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38
Q

Define Coeffcient of Determination

A

r^2 (Correlation coefficient squared)

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39
Q

Define Correlation coeffcient (r )

A

Always between -1 and 1. Absolute value indicates the strength of correlation.

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40
Q

Define Negative Predictive Value

A

Number of true negatives / number that tested neg. for disease

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41
Q

Define Positive Predictive Value

A

“Number of true positives / number that tested pos. for disease or the prob. Of
having a condition, given a pos. test”

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42
Q

Define Precision

A

“The consistency of a test (reliability), absence of random error”

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43
Q

Define Primary Disease Prevention

A

“Prevent occurrence, e.g., vaccination”

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44
Q

Define Relative Risk

A

Disease risk in exposed group / disease risk in unexposed group; a/a+b / c/c+d

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45
Q

Define Reliability

A

Reproducibility of a test; repeat measurements are the same

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46
Q

Define Secondary Disease Prevention

A

“Early detection of disease, e.g., Pap smear”

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47
Q

Define SEM

A

Standard Error of the Mean; standard deviation / square root of n (sample size)

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48
Q

Define sensitivity

A

Number of true positives / all people with disease

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49
Q

Define specificity

A

Number of true negatives / number of all people w/o the disease

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50
Q

Define Tertiary Disease Prevention

A

“Reduce disability form disease, e.g. insulin for diabetics”

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51
Q

Define the Power of a study

A

Probability of rejecting a null hypothesis when it is false

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52
Q

Define Validity

A

Whether a test truly measures what it purports to measure; the appropriateness of a test

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53
Q

Do divorcees remarry frequently?

A

Yes

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54
Q

How do disease prevalence and positive predictive value relate?

A

Higher prevalence = Higher Positive Predictive Value

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55
Q

How do prevalence and incidence relate to disease length?

A

P>I for chronic diseases; P=I for acute diseases

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56
Q

How do SEM and Standard Deviation relate?

A

SD > SEM; as n increases,

SEM decreases

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57
Q

How do you measure the ‘power’ of a study or the probability that the study will see a difference if one exists?

A

1-beta

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58
Q

How does alpha relate to the Type I error?

A

“It is the probability of making a Type I error, is equal to p (p is usually < 0.05)”

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59
Q

How does beta relate to the Type II error?

A

Beta is the probability of making a Type II error

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60
Q

How many people >65

A

35,000,000 (approx. 13%)

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61
Q

“If the 95% confidence interval for OR of RR includes 1, what does this mean?”

A

That the study is inconclusive

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62
Q

In what age group will the greatest population increase be seen in?

A

Those >85

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63
Q

Increasing sample size will affect the Power of a study how?

A

By increasing the Power

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64
Q

Is divorce related to industrialization?

A

No

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65
Q

Is HIV positivity a reportable disease?

A

No

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66
Q

Marriages at high risk

A

Teenage marriages, Mixed religions, Low socio-economic status

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67
Q

Memory aid for Medicare/Medicaid

A

MedicarE=Elderly;

MedicaiD=Destitute

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68
Q

Preventive services needed for Alcoholism

A

Influenza, pneumococcal immunizations; TB test

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69
Q

Preventive services needed for Diabetes

A

Eye, foot exams; Urine test

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70
Q

Preventive services needed for Drug Abuse

A

HIV, TB tests; hepatitis immunization

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71
Q

Preventive services needed for High-risk sexual behavior

A

HIV, Hep B, syphilis, gonorrhea, chlamydia tests

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72
Q

“Preventive services needed for Homeless, Refugee, or Immigrant”

A

TB test

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73
Q

Preventive services needed for Obesity

A

Blood glucose test

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74
Q

Random error yields poor?

A

Precision

75
Q

Relative Risk is used for what kind of study?

A

Cohort

76
Q

Systematic error yields poor?

A

Accuracy

77
Q

U.S. population in 2000

A

300,000,000

78
Q

“Unlike specificity and sensitivity, what are

predictive values dependent on?”

A

Prevalence of disease in the population

79
Q

What are risk factors for suicide?

A

White, male, alone, prior attempts, presence and lethality of plan, medical illness, alcohol or drug use, on 3 or more prescription meds.

80
Q

What are the leading causes of death in AGE 1-14?

A

Injuries, cancer, congenital anomalies, homicide, heart disease

81
Q

What are the leading causes of death in AGE 15-24?

A

Injuries, homicide, suicide, cancer, heart disease

82
Q

What are the leading causes of death in AGE 25-64?

A

Cancer, heart disease, injuries, stroke, suicide

83
Q

What are the leading causes of death in AGE 65+?

A

Heart disease, cancer, stroke, COPD, pneumonia

84
Q

What are the leading causes of death in INFANTS?

A

Congenital anomalies, SIDS, short gestation, respiratory distress syndrome, maternal complications during pregnancy

85
Q

What are the most common surgeries?

A

Dilation and curettage, hysterectomy, tonsillectomy, sterilization, hernia repair, oophorectomy, cesarean
section, cholecystectomy

86
Q

What are the reportable diseases?

A

AIDS, chickenpox, gonorrhea, hepatitis A and B, measles, mumps, rubella, salmonella, shigella, syphilis, and tuberculosis

87
Q

What does a t-test check?

A

The difference between two means (Mr. T is mean)

88
Q

What does an ANOVA analyze?

A

Variance of 3 or more variables (Analysis of Variance)

89
Q

What does SAD PERSONS represent?

A

Sex (male), Age, Depression, Previous attempt, Ethanol, Rational thought, Sickness, Organized plan, No spouse, Social support lacking

90
Q

What factors influence the Power of a study?

A

1) The total # of endpoints experienced by a population;

2) Difference in compliance between treatment groups

91
Q

What is a case-control study?

A

Observational study. Sample chosen based on presence or absence of disease. Info collected about risk factors.

92
Q

What is a Clinical trial?

A

Experimental study. Compares benefit of 2 or more treatments.

93
Q

What is a Cohort study?

A

Observational study. Sample chosen based on presence or absence of Risk Factors. Subjects followed over time for disease development. (Framingham study)

94
Q

What is a memory key for suicide risk factors?

A

SAD PERSONS

95
Q

What is a Null Hypothesis?

A

“Hypothesis of no difference, e.g., no assoc. between disease and risk factor”

96
Q

What is a pitfall of Meta-analysis?

A

Cannot overcome limitations of individual studies or bias in study selection

97
Q

What is a Type I error (alpha)?

A

Stating that an effect of difference exists when one really does not

98
Q

What is a Type II error (beta)

A

Stating that there is not an effect or difference when actually there is

99
Q

What is an Odds Ratio used for?

A

Approximates relative risk when prevalence is not too high; OR = ad/bc

100
Q

What is Chi-Square test used for?

A

To check differences between 2 or more percentages or proportions of categorical
outcomes

101
Q

What is desirable for confirmatory tests?

A

High specificity

102
Q

What is desirable for screening tests?

A

High sensitivity is desirable for a screening test

103
Q

What is incidence?

A

Number of new cases in a population per unit time

104
Q

What is Medicaid?

A

Fed. And State assistance for those on welfare or who are indigent

105
Q

What is Medicare Part A?

A

Hospital related

106
Q

What is Medicare Part B?

A

Supplemental

107
Q

What is Medicare?

A

Fed. Program for the Elderly

108
Q

What is prevalence?

A

Total number of cases in a population at a given time (incidence x disease duration)

109
Q

What is the False Negative Ratio?

A

1-sensitivity

110
Q

What is the False Positive Ratio?

A

1-specificity

111
Q

What is the highest quality study?

A

Clinical Trial

112
Q

What is the p value?

A

The probability of making a Type I error.

113
Q

What percent of medical costs will those >35 incur?

A

30%

114
Q

What type of studies are Odds Ratios used for?

A

Retrospective (case control)

115
Q

When do divorces peak?

A

During the 2nd to 3rd year.

116
Q

Which sex has the most surgeries?

A

Females

117
Q

Are intelligence tests objective or projective tests?

A

Objective

118
Q

Define acting out.

A

Unacceptable feelings and thoughts are expressed through actions

119
Q

Define altruism.

A

Guilty feelings alleviated by unsolicited generosity toward others

120
Q

Define classical conditioning.

A

Learning in which a natural response is elicited by a conditioned stimulus that previously was presented in conjunction with an unconditioned stimulus

121
Q

Define denial.

A

Avoidance of awareness of some painful reality

122
Q

Define displacement.

A

Process whereby avoided ideas and feelings are transferred to some neutral person or object

123
Q

Define dissociation.

A

“Temporary, drastic change in personality, memory, consciousness, or motor behavior to avoid emotional
stress”

124
Q

Define ego defenses.

A

automatic and unconscious reactions to phychological stress

125
Q

Define fixation.

A

Partially remaining at a more childish level of development

126
Q

Define humor.

A

Appreciating the amusing nature of an anxiety-provoking or adverse situation

127
Q

Define identification.

A

Modeling behavior after another person

128
Q

Define isolation.

A

Separation of feelings from ideas and events

129
Q

Define operant conditioning.

A

Learning in which a particular action is elicited because it produces a reward

130
Q

Define projection.

A

An unacceptable internal impulse that is attributed to an external source

131
Q

Define rationalization.

A

“Proclaiming logical reasons for actions actually performed for other reasons, usually to avoid self-blame”

132
Q

Define reaction formation.

A

Process whereby a warded-off idea or feeling is replaced by an (unconsciously derived) emphasis on its opposite

133
Q

Define regression.

A

Turning back the maturational clock and going

back to earlier modes of dealing with the world

134
Q

Define repression.

A

Involuntary withholding of an idea or feeling from conscious awareness.

135
Q

Define sublimation.

A

Process whereby one replaces an unacceptable wish with a course of action that is similar to the wish but does not conflict with one’s value system.

136
Q

Define suppression.

A

Voluntary (unlike other defenses) withholding of an idea of feeling from conscious awareness

137
Q

Give an example of classical conditioning.

A

Pavlov’s dogs (ringing of a bell provoked salivation in dogs)

138
Q

Give an example of continuous reinforcement

schedule.

A

A person gets upset when a vending machine doesn’t work

139
Q

Give an example of negative reinforcement of opperative conditioining.

A

a mouse presses a button to avoid shock (do not confuse with punishment)

140
Q

Give an example of positive reinforcement of opperative conditioning.

A

a mouse presses a button to get food

141
Q

Give an example of preconscious topography.

A

remembering your phone number

142
Q

Give an example of variable ratio reinforcement schedules.

A

A person continuing to play a slot machine at a casino

143
Q

Is IQ testing more highly correlated with genetics or school achievement?

A

School achievement

144
Q

Name 4 characteristics of psychoanalysis.

A

“-costly-lengthy-intensive-places great demands on the patient”

145
Q

What are Freud’s three structures of the mind

A

“-Id-Superego-Ego”

146
Q

What are the four factors in hopelessness?

A
  • Sense of Impotence (powerlessness)
  • Sense of Guilt
  • Sense of Anger
  • Sense of loss/Deprivation leading to depression
    (Mnemonic IGAD!)
147
Q

What are the immature ego defenses? (12)

A

Acting out, Disassociation, Denial, Displacement, Fixation, Identification, Isolation, Projection, Rationalization, Reaction formation, Regression, Repression

148
Q

What are the MATURE ego defenses? (4)

A
  • Sublimation
  • Altruism
  • Suppression
  • Humor
    (Mneumonic: Mature women wear a SASH)
149
Q

What are the two most famous forms of intelligence testing?

A

Stanford-Binet and Wechsler

150
Q

What are two factors with which IQ scores are

correlated?

A

Genetics and school achievement

151
Q

What is an example of acting out?

A

Temper tantrums

152
Q

What is an example of altruism?

A

Mafia boss makes large donation to charity

153
Q

What is an example of denial.

A

A common reaction in newly diagnosed AIDS and cancer patients

154
Q

What is an example of displacement?

A

Mother yells at child because she is angry at her husband

155
Q

What is an example of dissociation?

A

Extreme forms can result in multiple personalities (dissociative identity
disorder).

156
Q

What is an example of fixation?

A

Men fixating on sports games

157
Q

What is an example of humor?

A

Nervous medical student jokes about the boards

158
Q

What is an example of identification?

A

Abused child becomes an abuser

159
Q

What is an example of isolation?

A

Describing murder in graphic detail with no emotional response

160
Q

What is an example of projection?

A

A man who wants another woman thinks his wife is cheating on him

161
Q

What is an example of rationalization?

A

Saying the job was not important anyway, after getting fired

162
Q

What is an example of reaction formation?

A

A patient with libidinous thoughts enters a monastery

163
Q

What is an example of regression?

A

Seen in children under stress (eg., bedwetting) and in patients on dialysis (eg., crying)

164
Q

What is an example of sublimation?

A

Aggressive impulses used to succeed in business ventures

165
Q

What is an example of suppression?

A

Choosing not to think about the USMLE until the week of the exam

166
Q

What is negative reinforcement?

A

the removal of an aversive stimulus so as to increase behavior

167
Q

What is positive reinforcement?

A

the desired reward which produces an action

168
Q

What is the basic mechanism underlying all ego defenses?

A

Repression

169
Q

What is the central goal of Freudian psychoanalysis?

A

To make the patient aware of what is hidden in his/her unconscious

170
Q

What is the IQ criteria for diagnosis of mental

retardation?

A

IQ lower than 70 (or 2 standard deviations below the mean)

171
Q

What is the topographical term used in psychoanalysis to describe what you are not
aware of?

A

Unconscious

172
Q

What is the topographical term used in psychoanalysis used to describe what you are able to make conscious with
e!ort?

A

Preconscious

173
Q

What is the topographical term used in psychoanalysis used to describe what you are aware of?

A

Conscious

174
Q

What number is defined as the mean for standard IQ testing?

A

100 (with a standard deviation of 15)

175
Q

What term first described by Freud is used to refer to repressed sexual feelings of a child for the opposite-sex parent, accompanied by rivalry with same-sex parent?

A

Oedipus complex

176
Q

What term is used to describe the form of insight therapy developed by Freud which is often used for changing chronic personality problems?

A

Psychoanalysis

177
Q

What thought structures is the Ego responsible for?

A

Bridge and mediator between the unconscious mind and the world (Think-Deals with conflict)

178
Q

What thought structures is the Id responsible for? (3 things)

A
  • Primal urges
  • sex
  • agression
    (Think-‘I want it’)
179
Q

What thought structures is the Superego responsible for? (2 things)

A
  • Moral values
  • conscience
    (Think-‘You know you can’t have it’)
180
Q

What type of behavior requires a continuous

reinforcement schedule?

A

behavior which shows the most rapid extinction when not rewarded

181
Q

What type of behavior requires a variable ratio

reinforcement schedule?

A

behavior which shows the slowest extinction when not rewarded

182
Q

Which is the conditioned (learned) stimulus in Pavlov’s experiment?

A

ringing bell

183
Q

Which is the natural response in Pavlov’s experiment?

A

salivation

184
Q

Which is the unconditioned stimulus in Pavlov’s experiment?

A

food