Sheet2-表格 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are evidence of sexual abuse in children?

A

genital/anal trauma, STDs, UTIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the 5 components of the APGAR score at birth?

A
  • A= Apperance (color)
  • P= Pulse
  • G= Grimace (reflex irritability)
  • A= Activity (muscle tone)
  • R= Respiration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the 7 effects of long-term deprivation of a!ection?

A
  1. Weak
  2. Wordless
  3. Wanting (socially)
  4. Wary (lack trust)
  5. Weight loss
  6. anaclitic depression
  7. physical illness
    [Hint: 5 W’s and 2 more]
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the development milestones at about 3 years old in preschool?

A
  • group play
  • rides tricycle
  • copies line or circle drawing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the development milestones at about 4 years old in preschool?

A
  • cooperative play
  • simple drawings (stick figure)
  • hops on 1 foot
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the developmental milestones at about 12-14 months old in infancy?

A

NAME?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the developmental milestones at about 15 months old in infancy?

A
  • walking
  • few words
  • separation anxiety
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the developmental milestones at about 3 months old in an infant?

A
  • holds head up
  • social smile
  • Moro reflex disappears
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the developmental milestones at about 4-5 months old in an infant?

A
  • rolls on back

- sits when propped

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the developmental milestones at about 7-9 months old in infancy?

A
  • stranger anxiety
  • sits alone
  • orients to voice
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the developmental milestones during adolescence?

A
  • abstract reasoning (formal operations)

- formation of personality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the developmental milestones during the schoolage years (6-11y/o)?

A
  • development of conscience (superego)
  • same-sex friends
  • identification with same-sex parent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the Kubler-Ross dying stages?

A

Denial-Anger-Barganing-Grieving-Acceptance, don’t occur necessarily in this order [Hint: Death Arrives Brining Grave Adjustments]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the risks of low birth weight?

A

assoc. w/ gtr. Incidence of physical and emotional problems. Complications include:
- infections
- respiratory distress syndrome
- necrotizing entercolitis
- persistent fetal circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What can cause regression to younger behavior in children?

A

Stress:

  • physical illness
  • punishment
  • birth of new sibling
  • tiredness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What causes low birth weight?

A

prematurity or intrauterine growth retardation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is anaclitic depression?

A

depression in an infant owing to continued separation from caregiver–can result in failure to thrive. Infant becomes withdrawn and unresponsive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is grief?

A

normal bereavement characterized by shock, denial, guilt, and somatic symptoms, Typically lasts 6mo. to 1yr.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is pathologic grief?

A

includes excessively intense or prolonged grief or grief that’s delayed, inhibited, or denied

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the result of severe long-term deprivation of affection?

A

death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

When can a child parallel play?

A

Toddler, 24-48 months old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When does a child achieve core gender identity?

A

Toddler, 24-36 months old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

When does a child achieve object permanence?

A

Toddler, 12-24 months old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When does a child achieve rapprochement?

A

Toddler, 18-24 months old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
When does a child become toilet trained?
Preschool, 30-36 months old
26
When is adolescence for boys and for girls?
Boys: 13 years old Girls: 11 years old
27
Who is usually the abuser in physical abuse in children?
female primary caregiver
28
Who is usually the abuser in sexual abuse in children?
known to victim, usually male
29
Case-control studies are often?
Retrospective (case control)
30
Characteristics of a normal statistical distribution?
Gaussian = Bell Shaped (mean=median=mode )
31
Country with highest divorce rate
U.S.
32
Define a bimodal distribution
Peaks on either side of the median
33
Define a Meta-analysis
Pooling data from several studies to achieve greater statistical power
34
Define a negative skew
Asymmetry with the tail on the left | mean<mode
35
Define a positive skew
Asymmetry with the tail on the right | mean>median>mode
36
Define Accuracy
The trueness of test measurements
37
Define Alternate Hypothesis
Hypothesis that there is some difference
38
Define Coeffcient of Determination
r^2 (Correlation coefficient squared)
39
Define Correlation coeffcient (r )
Always between -1 and 1. Absolute value indicates the strength of correlation.
40
Define Negative Predictive Value
Number of true negatives / number that tested neg. for disease
41
Define Positive Predictive Value
"Number of true positives / number that tested pos. for disease or the prob. Of having a condition, given a pos. test"
42
Define Precision
"The consistency of a test (reliability), absence of random error"
43
Define Primary Disease Prevention
"Prevent occurrence, e.g., vaccination"
44
Define Relative Risk
Disease risk in exposed group / disease risk in unexposed group; a/a+b / c/c+d
45
Define Reliability
Reproducibility of a test; repeat measurements are the same
46
Define Secondary Disease Prevention
"Early detection of disease, e.g., Pap smear"
47
Define SEM
Standard Error of the Mean; standard deviation / square root of n (sample size)
48
Define sensitivity
Number of true positives / all people with disease
49
Define specificity
Number of true negatives / number of all people w/o the disease
50
Define Tertiary Disease Prevention
"Reduce disability form disease, e.g. insulin for diabetics"
51
Define the Power of a study
Probability of rejecting a null hypothesis when it is false
52
Define Validity
Whether a test truly measures what it purports to measure; the appropriateness of a test
53
Do divorcees remarry frequently?
Yes
54
How do disease prevalence and positive predictive value relate?
Higher prevalence = Higher Positive Predictive Value
55
How do prevalence and incidence relate to disease length?
P>I for chronic diseases; P=I for acute diseases
56
How do SEM and Standard Deviation relate?
SD > SEM; as n increases, | SEM decreases
57
How do you measure the 'power' of a study or the probability that the study will see a difference if one exists?
1-beta
58
How does alpha relate to the Type I error?
"It is the probability of making a Type I error, is equal to p (p is usually < 0.05)"
59
How does beta relate to the Type II error?
Beta is the probability of making a Type II error
60
How many people >65
35,000,000 (approx. 13%)
61
"If the 95% confidence interval for OR of RR includes 1, what does this mean?"
That the study is inconclusive
62
In what age group will the greatest population increase be seen in?
Those >85
63
Increasing sample size will affect the Power of a study how?
By increasing the Power
64
Is divorce related to industrialization?
No
65
Is HIV positivity a reportable disease?
No
66
Marriages at high risk
Teenage marriages, Mixed religions, Low socio-economic status
67
Memory aid for Medicare/Medicaid
MedicarE=Elderly; | MedicaiD=Destitute
68
Preventive services needed for Alcoholism
Influenza, pneumococcal immunizations; TB test
69
Preventive services needed for Diabetes
Eye, foot exams; Urine test
70
Preventive services needed for Drug Abuse
HIV, TB tests; hepatitis immunization
71
Preventive services needed for High-risk sexual behavior
HIV, Hep B, syphilis, gonorrhea, chlamydia tests
72
"Preventive services needed for Homeless, Refugee, or Immigrant"
TB test
73
Preventive services needed for Obesity
Blood glucose test
74
Random error yields poor?
Precision
75
Relative Risk is used for what kind of study?
Cohort
76
Systematic error yields poor?
Accuracy
77
U.S. population in 2000
300,000,000
78
"Unlike specificity and sensitivity, what are | predictive values dependent on?"
Prevalence of disease in the population
79
What are risk factors for suicide?
White, male, alone, prior attempts, presence and lethality of plan, medical illness, alcohol or drug use, on 3 or more prescription meds.
80
What are the leading causes of death in AGE 1-14?
Injuries, cancer, congenital anomalies, homicide, heart disease
81
What are the leading causes of death in AGE 15-24?
Injuries, homicide, suicide, cancer, heart disease
82
What are the leading causes of death in AGE 25-64?
Cancer, heart disease, injuries, stroke, suicide
83
What are the leading causes of death in AGE 65+?
Heart disease, cancer, stroke, COPD, pneumonia
84
What are the leading causes of death in INFANTS?
Congenital anomalies, SIDS, short gestation, respiratory distress syndrome, maternal complications during pregnancy
85
What are the most common surgeries?
Dilation and curettage, hysterectomy, tonsillectomy, sterilization, hernia repair, oophorectomy, cesarean section, cholecystectomy
86
What are the reportable diseases?
AIDS, chickenpox, gonorrhea, hepatitis A and B, measles, mumps, rubella, salmonella, shigella, syphilis, and tuberculosis
87
What does a t-test check?
The difference between two means (Mr. T is mean)
88
What does an ANOVA analyze?
Variance of 3 or more variables (Analysis of Variance)
89
What does SAD PERSONS represent?
Sex (male), Age, Depression, Previous attempt, Ethanol, Rational thought, Sickness, Organized plan, No spouse, Social support lacking
90
What factors influence the Power of a study?
1) The total # of endpoints experienced by a population; | 2) Difference in compliance between treatment groups
91
What is a case-control study?
Observational study. Sample chosen based on presence or absence of disease. Info collected about risk factors.
92
What is a Clinical trial?
Experimental study. Compares benefit of 2 or more treatments.
93
What is a Cohort study?
Observational study. Sample chosen based on presence or absence of Risk Factors. Subjects followed over time for disease development. (Framingham study)
94
What is a memory key for suicide risk factors?
SAD PERSONS
95
What is a Null Hypothesis?
"Hypothesis of no difference, e.g., no assoc. between disease and risk factor"
96
What is a pitfall of Meta-analysis?
Cannot overcome limitations of individual studies or bias in study selection
97
What is a Type I error (alpha)?
Stating that an effect of difference exists when one really does not
98
What is a Type II error (beta)
Stating that there is not an effect or difference when actually there is
99
What is an Odds Ratio used for?
Approximates relative risk when prevalence is not too high; OR = ad/bc
100
What is Chi-Square test used for?
To check differences between 2 or more percentages or proportions of categorical outcomes
101
What is desirable for confirmatory tests?
High specificity
102
What is desirable for screening tests?
High sensitivity is desirable for a screening test
103
What is incidence?
Number of new cases in a population per unit time
104
What is Medicaid?
Fed. And State assistance for those on welfare or who are indigent
105
What is Medicare Part A?
Hospital related
106
What is Medicare Part B?
Supplemental
107
What is Medicare?
Fed. Program for the Elderly
108
What is prevalence?
Total number of cases in a population at a given time (incidence x disease duration)
109
What is the False Negative Ratio?
1-sensitivity
110
What is the False Positive Ratio?
1-specificity
111
What is the highest quality study?
Clinical Trial
112
What is the p value?
The probability of making a Type I error.
113
What percent of medical costs will those >35 incur?
30%
114
What type of studies are Odds Ratios used for?
Retrospective (case control)
115
When do divorces peak?
During the 2nd to 3rd year.
116
Which sex has the most surgeries?
Females
117
Are intelligence tests objective or projective tests?
Objective
118
Define acting out.
Unacceptable feelings and thoughts are expressed through actions
119
Define altruism.
Guilty feelings alleviated by unsolicited generosity toward others
120
Define classical conditioning.
Learning in which a natural response is elicited by a conditioned stimulus that previously was presented in conjunction with an unconditioned stimulus
121
Define denial.
Avoidance of awareness of some painful reality
122
Define displacement.
Process whereby avoided ideas and feelings are transferred to some neutral person or object
123
Define dissociation.
"Temporary, drastic change in personality, memory, consciousness, or motor behavior to avoid emotional stress"
124
Define ego defenses.
automatic and unconscious reactions to phychological stress
125
Define fixation.
Partially remaining at a more childish level of development
126
Define humor.
Appreciating the amusing nature of an anxiety-provoking or adverse situation
127
Define identification.
Modeling behavior after another person
128
Define isolation.
Separation of feelings from ideas and events
129
Define operant conditioning.
Learning in which a particular action is elicited because it produces a reward
130
Define projection.
An unacceptable internal impulse that is attributed to an external source
131
Define rationalization.
"Proclaiming logical reasons for actions actually performed for other reasons, usually to avoid self-blame"
132
Define reaction formation.
Process whereby a warded-off idea or feeling is replaced by an (unconsciously derived) emphasis on its opposite
133
Define regression.
Turning back the maturational clock and going | back to earlier modes of dealing with the world
134
Define repression.
Involuntary withholding of an idea or feeling from conscious awareness.
135
Define sublimation.
Process whereby one replaces an unacceptable wish with a course of action that is similar to the wish but does not conflict with one's value system.
136
Define suppression.
Voluntary (unlike other defenses) withholding of an idea of feeling from conscious awareness
137
Give an example of classical conditioning.
Pavlov's dogs (ringing of a bell provoked salivation in dogs)
138
Give an example of continuous reinforcement | schedule.
A person gets upset when a vending machine doesn't work
139
Give an example of negative reinforcement of opperative conditioining.
a mouse presses a button to avoid shock (do not confuse with punishment)
140
Give an example of positive reinforcement of opperative conditioning.
a mouse presses a button to get food
141
Give an example of preconscious topography.
remembering your phone number
142
Give an example of variable ratio reinforcement schedules.
A person continuing to play a slot machine at a casino
143
Is IQ testing more highly correlated with genetics or school achievement?
School achievement
144
Name 4 characteristics of psychoanalysis.
"-costly-lengthy-intensive-places great demands on the patient"
145
What are Freud's three structures of the mind
"-Id-Superego-Ego"
146
What are the four factors in hopelessness?
- Sense of Impotence (powerlessness) - Sense of Guilt - Sense of Anger - Sense of loss/Deprivation leading to depression (Mnemonic IGAD!)
147
What are the immature ego defenses? (12)
Acting out, Disassociation, Denial, Displacement, Fixation, Identification, Isolation, Projection, Rationalization, Reaction formation, Regression, Repression
148
What are the MATURE ego defenses? (4)
- Sublimation - Altruism - Suppression - Humor (Mneumonic: Mature women wear a SASH)
149
What are the two most famous forms of intelligence testing?
Stanford-Binet and Wechsler
150
What are two factors with which IQ scores are | correlated?
Genetics and school achievement
151
What is an example of acting out?
Temper tantrums
152
What is an example of altruism?
Mafia boss makes large donation to charity
153
What is an example of denial.
A common reaction in newly diagnosed AIDS and cancer patients
154
What is an example of displacement?
Mother yells at child because she is angry at her husband
155
What is an example of dissociation?
Extreme forms can result in multiple personalities (dissociative identity disorder).
156
What is an example of fixation?
Men fixating on sports games
157
What is an example of humor?
Nervous medical student jokes about the boards
158
What is an example of identification?
Abused child becomes an abuser
159
What is an example of isolation?
Describing murder in graphic detail with no emotional response
160
What is an example of projection?
A man who wants another woman thinks his wife is cheating on him
161
What is an example of rationalization?
Saying the job was not important anyway, after getting fired
162
What is an example of reaction formation?
A patient with libidinous thoughts enters a monastery
163
What is an example of regression?
Seen in children under stress (eg., bedwetting) and in patients on dialysis (eg., crying)
164
What is an example of sublimation?
Aggressive impulses used to succeed in business ventures
165
What is an example of suppression?
Choosing not to think about the USMLE until the week of the exam
166
What is negative reinforcement?
the removal of an aversive stimulus so as to increase behavior
167
What is positive reinforcement?
the desired reward which produces an action
168
What is the basic mechanism underlying all ego defenses?
Repression
169
What is the central goal of Freudian psychoanalysis?
To make the patient aware of what is hidden in his/her unconscious
170
What is the IQ criteria for diagnosis of mental | retardation?
IQ lower than 70 (or 2 standard deviations below the mean)
171
What is the topographical term used in psychoanalysis to describe what you are not aware of?
Unconscious
172
What is the topographical term used in psychoanalysis used to describe what you are able to make conscious with e!ort?
Preconscious
173
What is the topographical term used in psychoanalysis used to describe what you are aware of?
Conscious
174
What number is defined as the mean for standard IQ testing?
100 (with a standard deviation of 15)
175
What term first described by Freud is used to refer to repressed sexual feelings of a child for the opposite-sex parent, accompanied by rivalry with same-sex parent?
Oedipus complex
176
What term is used to describe the form of insight therapy developed by Freud which is often used for changing chronic personality problems?
Psychoanalysis
177
What thought structures is the Ego responsible for?
Bridge and mediator between the unconscious mind and the world (Think-Deals with conflict)
178
What thought structures is the Id responsible for? (3 things)
- Primal urges - sex - agression (Think-'I want it')
179
What thought structures is the Superego responsible for? (2 things)
- Moral values - conscience (Think-'You know you can't have it')
180
What type of behavior requires a continuous | reinforcement schedule?
behavior which shows the most rapid extinction when not rewarded
181
What type of behavior requires a variable ratio | reinforcement schedule?
behavior which shows the slowest extinction when not rewarded
182
Which is the conditioned (learned) stimulus in Pavlov's experiment?
ringing bell
183
Which is the natural response in Pavlov's experiment?
salivation
184
Which is the unconditioned stimulus in Pavlov's experiment?
food