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Daniels Test > Sgt Test > Flashcards

Sgt Test Flashcards

1
Q

What two components consist of the Critical incident review process (CIRP)

A

1) UoFRB use of force review board

2) TRB tactical review board

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2
Q

UoFRB reviews the tactics and decision making relative only to _____ of _____ ______

A

Use of Deadly force

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3
Q

What is FIT’s primary role

A

Deadly force investigations, criminal side of OIS’s

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4
Q

What Is OIO’s core mission

A

significantly reduce unnecessary deadly force incidents

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5
Q

whos role is in-depth Administrative investigations of OIS’s and use of deadly force as it relates to policy and decision making.

A

CIRT investigators

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6
Q

What are the four steps to Tactical de-escalation

A

1) Slow down the situation
2) create distance
3) deploying additional resources
4) Supervision of the incident

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7
Q

What is the goal of Verbal De-escalation

A

Communication skills to create empathy and understanding, gain voluntary compliance

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8
Q

any officer observing another officer using force beyond what is objectively reasonable shall safely intercede to prevent excessive force, and shall report these actions to a supervisor

A

DUTY to intervene

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9
Q

What factors should be considered when deploying the rifle

A

Distance
available cover
tactical situation
terminal ballistic capabilities, limitations
be aware of number of rifles already deployed
discretion when deploying and displaying

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10
Q

what steps should be taken when deploying the rifle

A

1) announce over the radio, receive and acknowledgment
2) use two man team when possible
3) advise dispatch of deployment location, and if accompanied by a observer

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11
Q

intentional use of more than one ECD simultaneously on the same subject is prohibited

A

True

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12
Q

once the subject has been exposed to _____ ______ the ECD shall be deemed ineffective.

A

three cycles

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13
Q

ECD recertification will consist of ______ hours ______

A

four

annually

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14
Q

Who presents to the UoFRB and TRB

A

CIRT

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15
Q

What are the four findings of UoFRB

A

1) Tactics/decision making
2) Administrative disapproval
3) Policy/training failure
4) Administrative approval

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16
Q

What criteria is needed for a STAR protocol

A

credible info of an armed person

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17
Q

who is responsible for reviewing the use of force policy annually

A

OIO

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18
Q

UMLV will conduct a “deficiency audit report” quarterly and send directly to _______

A

BTC Bureau training coordinator

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19
Q

recertification of CIT will be done in a ____ ____ course every two years

A

six hour

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20
Q

officer will receive a minimum of _____ ______ de-escalation training per year.

A

four hours

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21
Q

The Sheriff will give a press conference on all OIS’s with in ______ hours

A

72

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22
Q

In a MACTAC event what coordinated force will respond

A

Federal state and local resources

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23
Q

Mactac squads can be further broken down into ______ teams and _______ teams

A

Strike 4-5 men

buddy 2 men

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24
Q

Officer’s assigned to “In the box” squads who DO NOT arrive at the rally point _____ _____ attempt to catch up. they will be reassigned to the _______________

A

WILL NOT

Stay at home squad

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25
Q

who should assumes initial command of a MACTAC incident

A

Sergeant or lieutenant

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26
Q

What are The five missions of MACTAC

A

1) Assault- first responders on scene moving to neutralize the threat to save lives.

2) Rescue
3) Containment
4) Force Protection
5) Reconnaissance

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27
Q

What area commands will Not respond out of their area during a MACTAC response

A

CCAC
Airport
Resident Officers

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28
Q

During a MACTAC incident all non-uniform personnel will report to _______________ to obtain equipment and clothing and await assignment

A

Their Area Commands

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29
Q

The three different MACTAC radio broadcast notifications

A

Notification
Alert- respond to rally point
Activation- respond to rally point, respond to threat

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30
Q

If communication is lost withing an area command all units will respond to the ____ ______ ________ for accountability

A

area command station

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31
Q

During a MACTAC event, situation reports should be sent whenever there is a change to the incident, additional info is obtained and when units _____ the ______

A

engage the suspect

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32
Q

Department Policy states protected class are Race, color, religion, sex, national origin, age, genetic information, disability, workers comp, family medical leave, military service, sexual orientation, gender identity, and political affiliation.

A

True

Political affiliation is not protected by Federal or state law, but is by the DEPT.

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33
Q

Complaints of harassment, discrimination or sexual harassment will be dealt with promptly, thoroughly, ________ and ________

A

impartially and equitably

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34
Q

The unit where Harassment, discrimination or sexual harassment has occurred will act immediately to stop it, prevent its recurrence and to _______ its effects and to ___________ those responsible

A

Remedy

Discipline

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35
Q

EDS will provide mandatory _________ training for all supervisors.

A

Biennial

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36
Q

Once started Conflict resolution is __________ for involved parties

A

Mandatory

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37
Q

Mediation is a ________ dispute resolution

A

Voluntary

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38
Q

A Supervisor will take immediate action to limit the work contact between to member where complaint of harassment has occurred and report all complaints of harassment and or discrimination to _______ whether witnessed or reported

A

EDS

employee diversity section

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39
Q

All complaints of harassment and discrimination will be documented on a SOC and sent to _______, all other types of complaints will go to ______

A

EDS
employee diversity section

IAB

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40
Q

Harassment and discrimination will be investigated according to the ________ ________ standard

A

Reasonable standard.

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41
Q

Supervisors will during the _____ ______ of each year discuss agency values, oath of office, code of ethics, and conduct I care training developed by professional standards division.

A

First quarter

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42
Q

Supervisors will review on a ______ basis the EIIP dashboard, and take actions to assist employees if needed.

A

Monthly

43
Q

Burden of proof for internal investigations is _______ and _______ , meaning substantially more likely than not to have occurred.

A

clear and convincing

44
Q

Federal mandate burden of proof for EDS investigation is __________ of ________ , meaning sufficient to cause the fair and impartial mind to one side of the issue.

A

preponderance of evidence

45
Q

Failure to cooperate with IAB investigations wether subject or witness Officer will be considered ________ and will be subject to discipline up to termination

A

Insubordination

46
Q

An interview by IAB with a department employee is an official document

A

True

47
Q

IAB will be immediately notified of any incident or complaint alleging a major violation, alcohol or drug abuse or __________ ___ by an employee

A

Criminal acts

48
Q

Citizen complaints that do not rise to misconduct will be document by supervisor a in Blue team as a ______ ________, and then forwarded to IAB.

A

Citizen contact

49
Q

The decision to apply supervisory intervention rests with the employees

A

Bureau/Area commander

50
Q

Exonerated and unfounded complaint are included as performance indicators in the EIIP

A

True

51
Q

According to the EIIP Primary indicators related to domestic disturbance, moral turpitude, indebtedness, and/or garnishment, ______/_____ or ______ issues will be addressed with a threshold of one incident with mandatory intervention.

A

alcohol/drugs

criminal issues

52
Q

EIIP by the supervisor is the key component and will review employees dashboard at least ______ and address all red flags within a _____ _____ period, but will meet with employee “face to face” within one week.

A

Monthly

two week

53
Q

Any citizen reporting a criminal violation of a dept. member will be referred to the employees area lieutenant, A watch commander or the bureau commander or the ______ _______ (whichever is appropriate to the chain of command

A

investigative unit responsible for the criminal violation.

54
Q

Immediate supervisor will immediately notify the watch commander, area lieutenant, next level supervisor if an incident is in progress or just occurred regarding any dept. employee or other law enforcement agency individual is being ________, ______, or _______ in a crime report

A

charged
identified
suspect

55
Q

Patrol units will be dispatched on 421 calls which:

A 
suspicious in nature
related to unknown trouble
injuries from criminal activity or traffic accident 
result of gunshot
or if medical requests
56
Q

5/107.03 sick or injured persons.
if the injured person is suffering from a potential life threatening injury or substantial head trauma what report will be done

A

ICR

and photos will be taken

57
Q

Patrol officers will NOT begin the crime report or MFR on any suspicious deaths or Homicide, Unless

A

instructed to by the detective.

58
Q

On all deaths related to suicides or overdoses (not natural) who will be requested to the scene

A

ID or CSA

59
Q

Homicide section Lieutenant will be contacted on any death of media interest or LVMPD employee or family member unless death is ____ ________

A

not suspicious

60
Q

Who will impound the firearm used in a suicide or accidental shooting as evidence ______, all other firearms will be impounded by ____ _______ not by LVMPD employees.

A

CSA

Deputy Coroner or public administrator

61
Q

Homicide lieutenant will be notified on all child related deaths and will respond to child deaths resulting from what (4) incidents

A

Non accidental

An intentional act

Injuries and or death from blunt force trauma/abusive head trauma/ and “shaken” baby

Medical neglect

62
Q

FIT section Lieutenant will be notified of all __ ______ _____ involving Police/correction, inmate housed at CCDC, north valley detention center or medical facility.

A

In custody deaths

63
Q

Officer must respond with in seven days to confirm AOST, or reschedule with permission from _____ ____

A

Bureau/area commander

64
Q

On a STAR protocol supervisor will contact ______ to get a complete work up on the subject, when necessary

A

ANSEC

65
Q

All prescription medication taken by an Officer will be reported to who

A

Health Detail

66
Q

If a supervisor believes a dept. member is under the influence of any controlled substance, prescription drugs, over the counter or any other substance that impairs their ability to perform, ____ ____ will be notified immediately

A

IAB

67
Q

If a test returns positive for non illicit drugs the bureau commander my return the member to modified duty after consultation with _____ _______. Positive test for illicit drugs member will be admin leave pending IAB investigation.

A

Risk management

68
Q

Supervisor will subject to alcohol and drug testing if involved in OIS to include accidental discharge, and if involved in an at fault accident causing death or substantial bodily harm while driving a _____ _____

A

Department vehicle

69
Q

The fourth amendment protects an expectation of privacy that must be both ______ and ______

A

Reasonable and

Legitimate

70
Q

Fourth amendment does not apply to the following (7)

A
  • Open view
  • person has no standing (no reasonable expectation of privacy
  • Trash search outside of curtilage
  • Detention facility
  • Abandoned property
  • Search by private citizen not acting as an agent of government.
  • Searches at airports in secured areas for weapons
71
Q

Common exceptions to getting a search warrant (6)

A
  • Search incident to arrest
  • Inventory
  • Consent
  • Plain view
  • Exigent circumstances to include hot pursuit
  • Vehicle search warrant exceptions
72
Q

Curtilage: areas near a residence where the resident has reasonable expectation of privacy. 4 coniderations

A

1 proximity

2 whether the area is included in enclosure
surrounding the home

3 nature of uses

4 steps taken to protect the area from observation from passers-by

73
Q

Exigent circumstances Search exception

A

1 Prevent destruction of evidence of serious felony offenses

2 Warrantless arrest of a violent or dangerous suspect

3 Preserve life Render aid

74
Q

All juveniles seventeen years and younger will be entered into NCIC within _____ _____

A

Two hours

75
Q

On all cancellations of High Risk Runaways _____ ______ detail will be notified and may respond to interview the juvenile

A

Missing person

76
Q

If a crime scene analyst is requested to photograph a crime scene of a misdemeanor offense the ______ _______ will book and seal any evidence

A

Investigating Officer

77
Q

If suspect has been actively pursued by officers, and the suspect commits suicide with a firearm ______ will be notified and respond to conduct the investigation

A

FIT

78
Q

Supervisors ensure, when a photo line up is used for more than one witness, the positions of photos have been changed. when completed they will be _______

A

Impounded

79
Q

Seat belts will be worn at all times, the only exemption is

A

when vehicle is traveling less than 15 mph AND you are expecting to exit the vehicle to take IMMEDIATE police action

80
Q

If collision is only an incident and NO other citizen was involved And damage is 750 or less, and/or private property (rock or pole) with minor or no apparent damage Supervisor will complete a _______ _______ department vehicle incident and send it to the Bureau area commander

A

Supervisor report

All other collisions will be considered an accident and traffic will respond

81
Q

Firing mechanism: trigger pull shall net be less than ______ and will not be less than manufacturer specifications

A

4 lb

82
Q

All officers hired on or after July 1, ______ are required to wear a BWC

A

2013

83
Q

True or False

Officers will not use privately owned BWC under any circumstances.

A

True

84
Q

True or False

The BWC will be worn on the collar, epaulette, eyewear, or head

A

True

85
Q

BWC will be activated under the following circumstances

A

1 vehicle stops
2 person stops
3 all dispatched calls involving contact with a citizen
4 Arrests, suspect interviews, and post Miranda interrogations
5 Search of persons
6 Search warrants of structures or vehicles
7 K9 searches
8 Officer involved traffic accident
9 Code 3 driving
10 Pursuits; primary or secondary
11 Code 5 transport
12 Any adversarial contact
13 Any other citizen contact or official duty at officers discretion

86
Q

True or False
Officers should restrict recording to areas and persons necessary in order to obtain evidence and information, and should minimize collateral intrusion to those not involved

A

True

87
Q

True or false

Officers should whenever possible, safe and practical inform individuals that they are being recorded.

A

True

88
Q

True or False BWC
according to policy: If an Officer must legally ask permission to enter a premise the officer should also ask the resident with standing if they will allow BWC recording.

A

True

89
Q

If an Officer fails to activate the BWC or it malfunctions the officer will document the reason in the ______ ______ on the MDT AND in any __________ ______

A

closing comments

applicable reports

90
Q

True or False
Juvenile victims or witnesses to a crime will only be recorded with the permission of a parent or guardian, this permission must be documented on the recording.

A

True

91
Q

True or False

Evidence.com will only be accessed from LVMPD authorized computers. access from a home, personal device is prohibited.

A

True

92
Q

During a bomb threat incident the patrol officer will contact the person reporting, documents the situation detailing the circumstances, threats and forwards it to ______ ______ ______ ______ _______

A

SNCTC

southern Nevada counter terrorism center

93
Q

subjects what are suicidal and pose an immediate OR demonstrated threat to the public will be handles as a _______ _______

A

Barricaded subject

94
Q

According to the CBRNE incident plan casualties in excess of ___, will cause the _____ _____ _____ to be implemented

A

20

Mass Casualty plan

95
Q

FIT purpose of

A

Conducts criminal investigation to determine weather the use of deadly force was legally justified under CRIMINAL LAW.

96
Q

Low level force Definition

A

Level of force or control that is neither likely nor intended to cause injury

97
Q

Ramming definition

A

The use of a vehicle to intentionally hit another vehicle

-prohibited unless deadly force can be articulated

98
Q

Reportable force definition

A

use of force that results in death, injury or complaint of injury or continuing pain OR use of force greater than low level force. (any application of the LVNR)

99
Q

Significant force definition

A

Force that results in treatment at a medical facility due to injuries or alleged injuries, skeletal fractures or injury’s to a persons head or sternum area

100
Q

Medical attention will be summoned regardless of visible injury or complaint of injury (7)

A

1 Baton strikes to head, neck, or groin
2 OC spray to facial area
3 LVNR when applied
4 ECD probe strikes head, neck or groin
5 All canine bites
6 UOF with vehicle PIT over 40, blocking if contact is made and if occupied, pinching, Ramming
7 Use of force with firearm including LOW Lethal shotgun

101
Q

Handcuffing During investigative detention (Terry stop) can be used with the following articulable facts. (8)

A

1 Subject is uncooperative

2 Subjects acts my present physical danger to themselves or others

3 possibility of flight

4 may be armed

5 stop closely follows violent crime and the subject matches the description

6 crime of violence is about to occur

7 suicidal persons

8 during service of a search warrant

9 subject being transported

102
Q

OC spray will not be used on Handcuffed subjects UNLESS the subject is displaying ________ ________

A

Aggressive resistance

103
Q

If ECD is used which results in Deadly force the probes will be impounded by _______

A

CSI

104
Q

The immediate supervisor will complete the _____ of _____ _____ for any incident involving deadly force or serious bodily injury (at the direction of PEAP)

A

Notice of Relief of Duty

Daniels Test (2 decks)

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