Sgt Test Flashcards
A MACTAC Squad is comprised of…?
Two or more Strike teams and a squad leader.
How many Officers should be on a MACTAC Strike Team..?
4-5 man strike team.
What does MACTAC stand for?
Multi Assault Counter Terrorism Action Capabilities.
What is the MACTAC Mission?
To save life’s!
“Our collective mission will be to develop a domestic police force which can continue to perform its day-to-day duties in a way that is acceptable within a free society, but which can adapt quickly to an emerging new paradigm that assumes degraded communication emphasizes small team leadership, and embraces decentralized command and control”
A MACTAC incident occurs in SEAC, who should respond to the incident?
All uniformed SEAC will respond directly to the incident.
What are the areas of responsibility (Missions) for MACTAC Squads and Strike Teams?
Assault , Rescue, Containment, Reconnaissance, and Force Protection.
What is a Rescue Task Force (RTF)?
Rescue Task Force is comprised of officers and FD or Medical. They will enter the warm zone and assess patients. FD or Medical will tag patients based on assessments and officers will provide security to medical personnel.
What is an Extraction Team?
An extraction team will enter the warm zone and extract victims that have been tagged by the Rescue Task Force (RTF).
What are the 4 A’s that the first officer on scene should consider?
Assess, Announce, Assemble, Act
What are the 4 C’s?
Contain, Control, Communicate, Coordinate.
What is a MACTAC
1. Notification
2. Alert
3. Activation
- (Notification) A general notification for the area commands that are not affected. Patrol squads do not need to respond to a rally point but should be ready for an Alert in any confirmed MACTAC incident. Communications should broadcast a valley wide MACTAC notification.
- (Alert) A report of a MACTAC incident occurring or potentially occurring. In-the-Box patrol squads may be placed on alert in preparation or as a reserve to actives units.
- (Activation) A MACTAC Incident is confirmed, compelling the affected area command to respond directly.
What is SARA model?
Scanning, Analysis, Response, Assessment.
T/F: The suspect must be armed with either a firearm or other deadly weapon to meet the criteria for STAR?
True
T/F: STAR protocol exists when there is a credible information that a subject is armed with a firearm or other dangerous weapon OR is simulation a firearm or other deadly weapon in a threatening manner?
False IT CANT BE SIMULATED
How many officers must be dispatched to a STAR Protocol?
3
T/F: Per policy, a BAC of above .02 at the time of the BAC test, is per se impairment?
False
Who must you notify if an employee is using medication and they have been informed they may have the potential to cause impairment?
Health and Safety
What must be done if forced entry is made into a structure that causes damage to the Structure?
Document damage with photos/BWC. Complete an Officer Report. Leave information and advise to contact risk management.
T/F: Community Care Taking Doctrine is limited in SCOPE and may be used for welfare check and certain traffic stops?
True
T/F: The purpose of making entry under the Community Caretaker Doctrine is to render aid and save life.
True
List three types of Administrative Warrants (Agencies that we assist)?
1- Animal Control
2- Attorney General
3-Constable
4-Gaming Control
5-Health Administration
6-Child Protective Services
7-Taxi-Cab Authority
T/F: LVMPD Officers can assist in the service of Administrative Warrant to the extent of clearing a structure for that agency.
True
Under which two conditions may a sergeant utilize the self dispatch feature on the MDT?
1-To close out a pending non-response required type call with out using the radio (i.e., a sergeant calls a person report and determines a 416B subject is gone. The sergeant can self-dispatch to update and close the call)
2- After contacting the PR and deeming the call can be canceled, or if the sergeant resolves the call, they may utilize the self-dispatch feature.
Once a sergeant has been advised of calls holding in excess of 60 minutes, the area sergeant will _______?
A. Send a Unit to the call
B. Handle the call themselves.
C. Monitor the call
D. All of the above
C. Monitor the call
T/F: IF a call continues to hold in excess of 90 minutes, it is the responsibility of the area sergeant to contact the PR and advised them of the extended delay and/or other possible resolutions.
True
T/F: In Custody Events: At 90 minutes unless an emergency exists the area sergeant may have an officer sent to the call.
False- They WILL have an officer sent to the call.
How many days does a supervisor have to provide the employee a copy of LVMPD’s Pregnant Workers Fairness Act flyer after she has notified a supervisor that she is pregnant?
3 Days
An Employee Performance Review (EPR) gives a snapshot of an employees work history over what period of time?
3 Years
How many days does a supervisor have to respond to EIIP alerts after receiving an EIIP Alert notification?
14 Days
Who can receive complaints of harassment or discrimination?
Any Supervisor, EDS, IAB.
Disparate Treatment VS Adverse Impact
Disparate- Different that similarly situated employees.
Adverse- is the companies practices creates a disadvantage or cause discrimination of people belong to certain protected classes.
According to the National Child Search Assistance Act of 1990 and Suzanne’s Law entry into NCIC will be made for persons under what age?
Under 20 years old
How many days does an employee have to file a complain of harassment or discrimination?
300 Days
Name the three types of Witness Identifications?
- Show Up
- Photo Line Up
- Live Line Up
T/F: The show up should be done within a relative time from of 1-3 hours.
True
What is the difference between a Collision VS an Incident?
COLLISION- is if damage is more that $750, Complaint of injury or injury or death
INCIDENT- is if damage is $750 or less, no complaint of injury.
A non violent protest where there is an intentional breach of the law is a_______?
Civil Disobedience
An assemble that constitutes a clear and present danger of violent or unlawful acts including Civil unrest, destruction of property, arson, looting or when another immediate threat to public safety, peace or order appears is a ________?
Riot
If a threat of harm needs to be immediately addressed, how many times does the dispersal order need to be given?
One (1)
T/F: Dispersal orders must be issued in serval languages.
False- Only needs to be given in multiple languages if it is determined that most of the crowd speaks a certain language.
T/F: Using force during protest must be authorized by the incident commander.
False
A lawful public expression of objection, disapproval, or dissent toward an idea or action is a ________?
Protest
________ and ___________ searches are done to protect officers from any possible devises that may be placed to injure many and kill first responders upon their arrival on scene.
25 foot and 100 foot searches
_________ occurs when an employee is subjected to adverse employment action based on their participation in a complaint regarding charges of harassment or discrimination.
Retaliation
Who can receive complaints of harassment or discrimination?
Any Supervisor, EDS, IAB.
How many days, from the last incident does a complainant have to forward a written complaint to the EDS Supervisor?
300 Days
A supervisor is hailed by a citizen who advised him that they would want to make a complaint against an officer. The supervisor listens to the complain and determines that the complaint does not rise to the level of misconduct. However the complainant insists on making the complaint. What should the supervisor do?
Supervisor should take the complaint and forward the SOC to IAB.
How many hours of sick leave can be taken prior to receiving a contact for abuse or sick leave?
80 hours
At 90 hours a contact is issued
100 second contact is issued
110 a SOC May be opened
How many contacts must an employee receive prior to a SOC being opened for abuse of sick leave?
2 contacts , one at 90 hours and the second one at 100 hours.
SOC may be opened at 110 hours
Who must be consulted prior to opening an SOC for abuse of sick leave?
Labor
You are dispatched to a call as a supervisor, and learn that a child who is 5 years old is dead. There are no suspicious circumstances. Who must be notified?
Abuse /Neglect
If you observe blunt force trauma on a child’s death, who must be notified?
Abuse / Neglect, and Homicide
How many days after the issuance of a contact may the employee submit a rebuttal?
30 days
EIIP thresholds are calculated over a rolling year, with the exception of ___________, which are calculated over a rolling 60 months.
Firearm discharges
T/F: Employees are permitted to access text messages and e-mail while driving but ONLY if they are currently stopped at a stop signal.
False
T/F: PO’s must attend EVOC each year for the first four years of service.
False- Three years of service
BWC video from a vehicle collision or incident must be manually labeled as _________. The retainment of the incident video will be ________years.
Pending Review
5 years
A statement of Complaint will be filed against an officer, after the ________missed attendance of EVOC without proper notification.
A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. Fourth
Second
LVMPD Forms_________ and ________ will be completed by the supervisor after a LVMPD vehicle collision.
LVMPD 393, Supervisors Report of Department Vehicle Incident,
LVMPD 461 Check Ride Report,
Supervisors shall conduct periodic spot inspections of vehicles assigned to their personnel at least________.
A. Monthly
B. Weekly
C. Semi annually
D. Yearly
At least Monthly
T/F: Officers will wear their BWC on their weapon bearing shoulder.
False- Opposite side of weapon bearing shoulder.
Should a supervisor record the interview with the reporting citizen who is filing a complaint?
Yes
Should a supervisor watch BWC video in the presence of the complainant?
NO
Should a supervisor record the interview of a subject or witness officer of a citizen complaint?
No
If a supervisor has probable cause, based on BWC video, to believe a reportring citizen is in violation of NRS 207.280, False Reporting of Crimes, he/she should notify the _________ section, on call supervisor for further direction.
Criminal Intelligence Section, Internal Affairs Bureau
Who is responsible for the collection and upload of BWC when investigations an officer involved shooting?
FIT
__________ means that every individual is accountable to only one designated supervisor to whom they report at the scene of the incident.
Unity of Command
The process of moving the responsibility for the incident command from one incident commander to another is____________.
Transfer of Command
_________ pertains to the number of individuals or resources that on supervisor can mange effectively?
Span of Control
__________ is a proven management system, based on successful business practices.
ICS
_________ is an oral or written plan containing general objectives reflecting the overall strategy for managing an incident?
IAP- Incident Action Plan
The recommended span of control is a ration of one (1) supervisor to ______ reporting elements.
5
In ICS the base is established and managed by the _____ section.
Logistics section
What are the five major management functions of ICS?
Incident Command
Planning Section
Operations Section
Logistics
Financial and Administrative
In ICS, the person in charge of a branch is knows as a _____.
Director
In ICS the _____ section is responsible for ensuring that resources are released from the incident in an orderly, safe, and cost effective manner.
Demobilization Unit
________ The systematic removal of person(s) from hazardous situation or environment. (Inside the designated contaminated area).
_______ in the contaminated area will only be conducted by properly equipped personnel.
—-
Rescue
______- The systematic removal of person(s) from a POTENTIALLY hazardous situation or environment (Outside the designated contaminated area.)
Evacuation
An officer should establish a perimeter of at least ______ feet, from any item that they can visually identify as evidence.
300
T/F: A suspicious item is any item identified as potentially containing CBRNE that requires specialized equipment and training to further evaluate. Suspicious indicator based upon communicated threat, placement and proximity of the item to people and valuable assets.
True
The Critical Incident Review Process (CIRP) is comprised of the________ and the ________. These are two separate but related boards whose combined purpose is to conduct a through review of all aspects of incidents involving the use of deadly force by department member.
Tactical Review Board and Use of Force Review Board
When should a supervisor make an immediate notification to PEAP?
A. When the employee is the victim of a crime and is in need of emotional support.
B. An LVMPD employee has been arrested for a crime.
C. An employee had been involved in a stressful incident during their work shift and the supervisor feels the employee or team needs additional resources.
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
What form should be completed, by a supervisor, when it is determined that an employee has been identified as being a potential harm to themselves or others?
Employee Crisis Intervention Form
Sick time can be taken for which of the following.
A. Illness / Injury
B. Public Health
C. Doctors appointment/ Medial Emergency
D. Bereavement
E. All of the Above
All of the Above
Sick leave request must be completed within ______ hours of returning to work.
24 hours
Employees will complete a leave application form in ESS ______ weeks prior to scheduled military leave.
2 weeks
T/F STAR Protocol: If the call resulted in a legitimate threat, the patrol supervisor will complete the information regarding a hazard on the property and the subject involved.
True
Abuse Neglect detail will be notify of all deaths of elders, _________ years of age or older, caused by abuse or neglect.
60 years
Foot pursuits are inherently dangerous and require ________, _________, and __________ safety awareness.
Good judgement
Sound Tactics
Heightened Safety Awareness
A(n) _________ is the pursuit of a subject wherein the intent of pursuing officer is to take the subject into custody as quickly as possible.
Apprehension
When deciding whether to initiate or continue a foot pursuit, officers should consider other possible, reasonable alternatives such as pursue to _________ vs. pursue to _________.
Pursue to Apprehend vs. Pursue to Contain
The initiating officer shall be responsible for coordinating the progress of the pursuit unless______.
Relieved by another officer or supervisor
What are the five (5) things, an officer in a pursuit should broadcast.
Description
Direction of travel
Crime
If Armed
Unit Call sign
T/F: Officers will summon emergency management after a prolonged physical encounter
False
When an officer loses sight of the suspect, the officer should consider transitioning from __________ to _________.
Pursuit to apprehend TO Pursuit to contain
T/F: Supervisors physical presence is required to exercise control over the foot pursuit an the supporting resources.
False
A supervisor will respond to a foot pursuit when?
1._____
2. ____
3._____
4._____
- Injury to an officer, citizen, or suspect
- Any entry into a residence or similar structure, regardless if is occupied or not
- Any reportable force or
- Any other unusual occurrence that warrants a supervisory oversight
What should the supervisor conduct with the officers involved if any of the following
- Injury to an officer, citizen, or suspect
- Any entry into a residence or similar structure, regardless if is occupied or not
- Any reportable force or
- Any other unusual occurrence that warrants a supervisory oversight
After Action Review
Upon apprehension of the suspect, the supervisor should promptly do what?
________ to the termination point and direct ______, ______ activity.
Respond, Post Pursuit
First responding officer who is not actively engaged in the immediate apprehension of the subject will establish what?
360 perimeter
Which of the following is not an example of an incident?
A. Fire both structural and wild land
B. Hazardous materials incidents
C. Routine calls for service
D. Search and Rescue Missions
C. Routine Calls for service
A/An ________ is an occurrence either caused by humans or natural phenomena that requires response actions to prevent or minimize loss of life or damage to property and or the environment
A. Incident
B. Event
C. Accident
D. Ongoing Demonstration
A. Incident
Studies found that response problems for ICS were far more likely to result from _______ than any other single reason.
A. Lack of common sense
B. Inadequate management
C. Miscommunication
D. Lack of man power
B. Inadequate management
ICS is all of the following except:
A. A proven management system based on successful business practices
B. The result of decades of lessons learned in the organization and management of emergency incidents
C. A system designed to help organize systems, tools, and ideas
C. A systems designed to help organize systems, tools, and ideas.
Designer of the system recognized early that ICS must be interdisciplinary and organizationally flexible to meet the following management challenges except:
A. Meet the needs of the incident of any kind or size
B. Allow personnel from a variety of agencies to mold rapidly into a common management structure
C. Use common terms and common sense to create a functional system
D. Provide logistical and administrative support to operational staff
E. Be cost effective by avoiding duplication of efforts
C. Use common terms and common sense to create a functional system
ICS helps ensure full utilization of all incident resources by all of the following except:
A. Maintaining a manageable span of control
B. Establishing predestinated incident locations and facilities
C. Implementing resource management practices
D. Ensuring integrated communications
E. Allowing officers from different agencies to work amongst each other
E. Allowing officers from different agencies to work amongst each other
T/F: A critical part of an effective multiagency incident management system is for all communication to be in plain English. That is, USE CLEAR TEXT. DO NOT USE RADIO CODES, AGENCY SPECIFIC CODES OR JARGON. Even if you use radio codes on daily basis, other responders may not. The goal is to ensure responders from all agencies can communicate with one another.
True
____________ is major resources (personnel, facilities, and equipment/supply items) are given common names and are “typed” or categorized by their capabilities. This helps to avoid confusion and to enhance interoperability.’
A. Organizational Functioins
B. Resource Descriptions
C. Incident Facilities
D. Position Titles
B. Resources Descriptions
How many steps are included in management by objectives?
Six
Incident Action plans include the measurable strategic operations to be achieved and are prepared around a timeframe called an/a___________?
A. Timeline period
B. Basic period
C. Standard period
D. Operational period
D.Operational period
At the simplest level, all Incident Action Plans (oral or written) must have all of the following elements except:
A. What do we want to do?
B. Who is responsible for doing it?
C. Why are we doing what we are doing?
D. How do we communicate with each other?
E. What is the procedure if someone is injured?
C. Why are we doing what we are doing?
Effective span of control on incidents may vary from _____ to _____:
A. 2-6
B.1-8
C. 3-5
D 3-7
D. 3-7
A ratio of one supervisor to ________ reporting elements is recommended:
A. 3
B. 5
C. 6
D.4
B. 5
___________ are temporary locations at an incident where personnel and equipment are kept while waiting for tactical assignments.
A. Camp
B. Staging area
C. Base
D. Spot
B. Staging area
Tactical resources are always classified as one of the following except:
A. Assigned
B. Standby
C. Available
D. Out of service
B. Standby
