Sgt Test Flashcards
A MACTAC Squad is comprised of…?
Two or more Strike teams and a squad leader.
How many Officers should be on a MACTAC Strike Team..?
4-5 man strike team.
What does MACTAC stand for?
Multi Assault Counter Terrorism Action Capabilities.
What is the MACTAC Mission?
To save life’s!
“Our collective mission will be to develop a domestic police force which can continue to perform its day-to-day duties in a way that is acceptable within a free society, but which can adapt quickly to an emerging new paradigm that assumes degraded communication emphasizes small team leadership, and embraces decentralized command and control”
A MACTAC incident occurs in SEAC, who should respond to the incident?
All uniformed SEAC will respond directly to the incident.
What are the areas of responsibility (Missions) for MACTAC Squads and Strike Teams?
Assault , Rescue, Containment, Reconnaissance, and Force Protection.
What is a Rescue Task Force (RTF)?
Rescue Task Force is comprised of officers and FD or Medical. They will enter the warm zone and assess patients. FD or Medical will tag patients based on assessments and officers will provide security to medical personnel.
What is an Extraction Team?
An extraction team will enter the warm zone and extract victims that have been tagged by the Rescue Task Force (RTF).
What are the 4 A’s that the first officer on scene should consider?
Assess, Announce, Assemble, Act
What are the 4 C’s?
Contain, Control, Communicate, Coordinate.
What is a MACTAC
1. Notification
2. Alert
3. Activation
- (Notification) A general notification for the area commands that are not affected. Patrol squads do not need to respond to a rally point but should be ready for an Alert in any confirmed MACTAC incident. Communications should broadcast a valley wide MACTAC notification.
- (Alert) A report of a MACTAC incident occurring or potentially occurring. In-the-Box patrol squads may be placed on alert in preparation or as a reserve to actives units.
- (Activation) A MACTAC Incident is confirmed, compelling the affected area command to respond directly.
What is SARA model?
Scanning, Analysis, Response, Assessment.
T/F: The suspect must be armed with either a firearm or other deadly weapon to meet the criteria for STAR?
True
T/F: STAR protocol exists when there is a credible information that a subject is armed with a firearm or other dangerous weapon OR is simulation a firearm or other deadly weapon in a threatening manner?
False IT CANT BE SIMULATED
How many officers must be dispatched to a STAR Protocol?
3
T/F: Per policy, a BAC of above .02 at the time of the BAC test, is per se impairment?
False
Who must you notify if an employee is using medication and they have been informed they may have the potential to cause impairment?
Health and Safety
What must be done if forced entry is made into a structure that causes damage to the Structure?
Document damage with photos/BWC. Complete an Officer Report. Leave information and advise to contact risk management.
T/F: Community Care Taking Doctrine is limited in SCOPE and may be used for welfare check and certain traffic stops?
True
T/F: The purpose of making entry under the Community Caretaker Doctrine is to render aid and save life.
True
List three types of Administrative Warrants (Agencies that we assist)?
1- Animal Control
2- Attorney General
3-Constable
4-Gaming Control
5-Health Administration
6-Child Protective Services
7-Taxi-Cab Authority
T/F: LVMPD Officers can assist in the service of Administrative Warrant to the extent of clearing a structure for that agency.
True
Under which two conditions may a sergeant utilize the self dispatch feature on the MDT?
1-To close out a pending non-response required type call with out using the radio (i.e., a sergeant calls a person report and determines a 416B subject is gone. The sergeant can self-dispatch to update and close the call)
2- After contacting the PR and deeming the call can be canceled, or if the sergeant resolves the call, they may utilize the self-dispatch feature.
Once a sergeant has been advised of calls holding in excess of 60 minutes, the area sergeant will _______?
A. Send a Unit to the call
B. Handle the call themselves.
C. Monitor the call
D. All of the above
C. Monitor the call
T/F: IF a call continues to hold in excess of 90 minutes, it is the responsibility of the area sergeant to contact the PR and advised them of the extended delay and/or other possible resolutions.
True
T/F: In Custody Events: At 90 minutes unless an emergency exists the area sergeant may have an officer sent to the call.
False- They WILL have an officer sent to the call.
How many days does a supervisor have to provide the employee a copy of LVMPD’s Pregnant Workers Fairness Act flyer after she has notified a supervisor that she is pregnant?
3 Days
An Employee Performance Review (EPR) gives a snapshot of an employees work history over what period of time?
3 Years
How many days does a supervisor have to respond to EIIP alerts after receiving an EIIP Alert notification?
14 Days
Who can receive complaints of harassment or discrimination?
Any Supervisor, EDS, IAB.
Disparate Treatment VS Adverse Impact
Disparate- Different that similarly situated employees.
Adverse- is the companies practices creates a disadvantage or cause discrimination of people belong to certain protected classes.
According to the National Child Search Assistance Act of 1990 and Suzanne’s Law entry into NCIC will be made for persons under what age?
Under 20 years old
How many days does an employee have to file a complain of harassment or discrimination?
300 Days
Name the three types of Witness Identifications?
- Show Up
- Photo Line Up
- Live Line Up
T/F: The show up should be done within a relative time from of 1-3 hours.
True
What is the difference between a Collision VS an Incident?
COLLISION- is if damage is more that $750, Complaint of injury or injury or death
INCIDENT- is if damage is $750 or less, no complaint of injury.
A non violent protest where there is an intentional breach of the law is a_______?
Civil Disobedience
An assemble that constitutes a clear and present danger of violent or unlawful acts including Civil unrest, destruction of property, arson, looting or when another immediate threat to public safety, peace or order appears is a ________?
Riot
If a threat of harm needs to be immediately addressed, how many times does the dispersal order need to be given?
One (1)
T/F: Dispersal orders must be issued in serval languages.
False- Only needs to be given in multiple languages if it is determined that most of the crowd speaks a certain language.
T/F: Using force during protest must be authorized by the incident commander.
False
A lawful public expression of objection, disapproval, or dissent toward an idea or action is a ________?
Protest
________ and ___________ searches are done to protect officers from any possible devises that may be placed to injure many and kill first responders upon their arrival on scene.
25 foot and 100 foot searches
_________ occurs when an employee is subjected to adverse employment action based on their participation in a complaint regarding charges of harassment or discrimination.
Retaliation
Who can receive complaints of harassment or discrimination?
Any Supervisor, EDS, IAB.
How many days, from the last incident does a complainant have to forward a written complaint to the EDS Supervisor?
300 Days
A supervisor is hailed by a citizen who advised him that they would want to make a complaint against an officer. The supervisor listens to the complain and determines that the complaint does not rise to the level of misconduct. However the complainant insists on making the complaint. What should the supervisor do?
Supervisor should take the complaint and forward the SOC to IAB.
How many hours of sick leave can be taken prior to receiving a contact for abuse or sick leave?
80 hours
At 90 hours a contact is issued
100 second contact is issued
110 a SOC May be opened
How many contacts must an employee receive prior to a SOC being opened for abuse of sick leave?
2 contacts , one at 90 hours and the second one at 100 hours.
SOC may be opened at 110 hours
Who must be consulted prior to opening an SOC for abuse of sick leave?
Labor
You are dispatched to a call as a supervisor, and learn that a child who is 5 years old is dead. There are no suspicious circumstances. Who must be notified?
Abuse /Neglect
If you observe blunt force trauma on a child’s death, who must be notified?
Abuse / Neglect, and Homicide
How many days after the issuance of a contact may the employee submit a rebuttal?
30 days
EIIP thresholds are calculated over a rolling year, with the exception of ___________, which are calculated over a rolling 60 months.
Firearm discharges
T/F: Employees are permitted to access text messages and e-mail while driving but ONLY if they are currently stopped at a stop signal.
False
T/F: PO’s must attend EVOC each year for the first four years of service.
False- Three years of service
BWC video from a vehicle collision or incident must be manually labeled as _________. The retainment of the incident video will be ________years.
Pending Review
5 years
A statement of Complaint will be filed against an officer, after the ________missed attendance of EVOC without proper notification.
A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. Fourth
Second
LVMPD Forms_________ and ________ will be completed by the supervisor after a LVMPD vehicle collision.
LVMPD 393, Supervisors Report of Department Vehicle Incident,
LVMPD 461 Check Ride Report,
Supervisors shall conduct periodic spot inspections of vehicles assigned to their personnel at least________.
A. Monthly
B. Weekly
C. Semi annually
D. Yearly
At least Monthly
T/F: Officers will wear their BWC on their weapon bearing shoulder.
False- Opposite side of weapon bearing shoulder.
Should a supervisor record the interview with the reporting citizen who is filing a complaint?
Yes
Should a supervisor watch BWC video in the presence of the complainant?
NO
Should a supervisor record the interview of a subject or witness officer of a citizen complaint?
No
If a supervisor has probable cause, based on BWC video, to believe a reportring citizen is in violation of NRS 207.280, False Reporting of Crimes, he/she should notify the _________ section, on call supervisor for further direction.
Criminal Intelligence Section, Internal Affairs Bureau
Who is responsible for the collection and upload of BWC when investigations an officer involved shooting?
FIT
__________ means that every individual is accountable to only one designated supervisor to whom they report at the scene of the incident.
Unity of Command
The process of moving the responsibility for the incident command from one incident commander to another is____________.
Transfer of Command
_________ pertains to the number of individuals or resources that on supervisor can mange effectively?
Span of Control
__________ is a proven management system, based on successful business practices.
ICS
_________ is an oral or written plan containing general objectives reflecting the overall strategy for managing an incident?
IAP- Incident Action Plan
The recommended span of control is a ration of one (1) supervisor to ______ reporting elements.
5
In ICS the base is established and managed by the _____ section.
Logistics section
What are the five major management functions of ICS?
Incident Command
Planning Section
Operations Section
Logistics
Financial and Administrative
In ICS, the person in charge of a branch is knows as a _____.
Director
In ICS the _____ section is responsible for ensuring that resources are released from the incident in an orderly, safe, and cost effective manner.
Demobilization Unit
________ The systematic removal of person(s) from hazardous situation or environment. (Inside the designated contaminated area).
_______ in the contaminated area will only be conducted by properly equipped personnel.
—-
Rescue
______- The systematic removal of person(s) from a POTENTIALLY hazardous situation or environment (Outside the designated contaminated area.)
Evacuation
An officer should establish a perimeter of at least ______ feet, from any item that they can visually identify as evidence.
300
T/F: A suspicious item is any item identified as potentially containing CBRNE that requires specialized equipment and training to further evaluate. Suspicious indicator based upon communicated threat, placement and proximity of the item to people and valuable assets.
True
The Critical Incident Review Process (CIRP) is comprised of the________ and the ________. These are two separate but related boards whose combined purpose is to conduct a through review of all aspects of incidents involving the use of deadly force by department member.
Tactical Review Board and Use of Force Review Board
When should a supervisor make an immediate notification to PEAP?
A. When the employee is the victim of a crime and is in need of emotional support.
B. An LVMPD employee has been arrested for a crime.
C. An employee had been involved in a stressful incident during their work shift and the supervisor feels the employee or team needs additional resources.
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
What form should be completed, by a supervisor, when it is determined that an employee has been identified as being a potential harm to themselves or others?
Employee Crisis Intervention Form
Sick time can be taken for which of the following.
A. Illness / Injury
B. Public Health
C. Doctors appointment/ Medial Emergency
D. Bereavement
E. All of the Above
All of the Above
Sick leave request must be completed within ______ hours of returning to work.
24 hours
Employees will complete a leave application form in ESS ______ weeks prior to scheduled military leave.
2 weeks
T/F STAR Protocol: If the call resulted in a legitimate threat, the patrol supervisor will complete the information regarding a hazard on the property and the subject involved.
True
Abuse Neglect detail will be notify of all deaths of elders, _________ years of age or older, caused by abuse or neglect.
60 years
Foot pursuits are inherently dangerous and require ________, _________, and __________ safety awareness.
Good judgement
Sound Tactics
Heightened Safety Awareness
A(n) _________ is the pursuit of a subject wherein the intent of pursuing officer is to take the subject into custody as quickly as possible.
Apprehension
When deciding whether to initiate or continue a foot pursuit, officers should consider other possible, reasonable alternatives such as pursue to _________ vs. pursue to _________.
Pursue to Apprehend vs. Pursue to Contain
The initiating officer shall be responsible for coordinating the progress of the pursuit unless______.
Relieved by another officer or supervisor
What are the five (5) things, an officer in a pursuit should broadcast.
Description
Direction of travel
Crime
If Armed
Unit Call sign
T/F: Officers will summon emergency management after a prolonged physical encounter
False
When an officer loses sight of the suspect, the officer should consider transitioning from __________ to _________.
Pursuit to apprehend TO Pursuit to contain
T/F: Supervisors physical presence is required to exercise control over the foot pursuit an the supporting resources.
False
A supervisor will respond to a foot pursuit when?
1._____
2. ____
3._____
4._____
- Injury to an officer, citizen, or suspect
- Any entry into a residence or similar structure, regardless if is occupied or not
- Any reportable force or
- Any other unusual occurrence that warrants a supervisory oversight
What should the supervisor conduct with the officers involved if any of the following
- Injury to an officer, citizen, or suspect
- Any entry into a residence or similar structure, regardless if is occupied or not
- Any reportable force or
- Any other unusual occurrence that warrants a supervisory oversight
After Action Review
Upon apprehension of the suspect, the supervisor should promptly do what?
________ to the termination point and direct ______, ______ activity.
Respond, Post Pursuit
First responding officer who is not actively engaged in the immediate apprehension of the subject will establish what?
360 perimeter
Which of the following is not an example of an incident?
A. Fire both structural and wild land
B. Hazardous materials incidents
C. Routine calls for service
D. Search and Rescue Missions
C. Routine Calls for service
A/An ________ is an occurrence either caused by humans or natural phenomena that requires response actions to prevent or minimize loss of life or damage to property and or the environment
A. Incident
B. Event
C. Accident
D. Ongoing Demonstration
A. Incident
Studies found that response problems for ICS were far more likely to result from _______ than any other single reason.
A. Lack of common sense
B. Inadequate management
C. Miscommunication
D. Lack of man power
B. Inadequate management
ICS is all of the following except:
A. A proven management system based on successful business practices
B. The result of decades of lessons learned in the organization and management of emergency incidents
C. A system designed to help organize systems, tools, and ideas
C. A systems designed to help organize systems, tools, and ideas.
Designer of the system recognized early that ICS must be interdisciplinary and organizationally flexible to meet the following management challenges except:
A. Meet the needs of the incident of any kind or size
B. Allow personnel from a variety of agencies to mold rapidly into a common management structure
C. Use common terms and common sense to create a functional system
D. Provide logistical and administrative support to operational staff
E. Be cost effective by avoiding duplication of efforts
C. Use common terms and common sense to create a functional system
ICS helps ensure full utilization of all incident resources by all of the following except:
A. Maintaining a manageable span of control
B. Establishing predestinated incident locations and facilities
C. Implementing resource management practices
D. Ensuring integrated communications
E. Allowing officers from different agencies to work amongst each other
E. Allowing officers from different agencies to work amongst each other
T/F: A critical part of an effective multiagency incident management system is for all communication to be in plain English. That is, USE CLEAR TEXT. DO NOT USE RADIO CODES, AGENCY SPECIFIC CODES OR JARGON. Even if you use radio codes on daily basis, other responders may not. The goal is to ensure responders from all agencies can communicate with one another.
True
____________ is major resources (personnel, facilities, and equipment/supply items) are given common names and are “typed” or categorized by their capabilities. This helps to avoid confusion and to enhance interoperability.’
A. Organizational Functioins
B. Resource Descriptions
C. Incident Facilities
D. Position Titles
B. Resources Descriptions
How many steps are included in management by objectives?
Six
Incident Action plans include the measurable strategic operations to be achieved and are prepared around a timeframe called an/a___________?
A. Timeline period
B. Basic period
C. Standard period
D. Operational period
D.Operational period
At the simplest level, all Incident Action Plans (oral or written) must have all of the following elements except:
A. What do we want to do?
B. Who is responsible for doing it?
C. Why are we doing what we are doing?
D. How do we communicate with each other?
E. What is the procedure if someone is injured?
C. Why are we doing what we are doing?
Effective span of control on incidents may vary from _____ to _____:
A. 2-6
B.1-8
C. 3-5
D 3-7
D. 3-7
A ratio of one supervisor to ________ reporting elements is recommended:
A. 3
B. 5
C. 6
D.4
B. 5
___________ are temporary locations at an incident where personnel and equipment are kept while waiting for tactical assignments.
A. Camp
B. Staging area
C. Base
D. Spot
B. Staging area
Tactical resources are always classified as one of the following except:
A. Assigned
B. Standby
C. Available
D. Out of service
B. Standby
Resource management includes processes for all of the following except:
A. Categorizing resources
B. Ordering resources
C. Dispatching resources
D. Tracking resources
E. Recovering resources
F. Ordering resources
F. Ordering resources
Effective ICS communications includes all of the elements except:
A. Modes
B. Planning
C. Networks
D. Communication
D. Communication
_________ means that every individual is accountable to only one designated supervisor to whom they report at the scene of an incident.
A. Chain of command
B. Unified command
C. Single command
D. Unity of command
D. Unity of command
A unified command may be needed for the following incidents except:
A. Múltiple jurisdictions
B. Unavailable jurisdictions
C. A single jurisdiction with multiple agencies sharing reponsibilites
D. Múltiple jurisdictions with multiple agency involvement
B. Unavailable jurisdiction
Transfer of command may take place when:
A. A more qualified individual person assumes command.
B. Any higher ranking officer arrives.
C. The incident situation changes over time, resulting in a legal requirement to change command.
D. The incident response is concluded and incident responsibility is transfered back to the home agency.
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
A more qualified individual person assumes command. Any higher ranking officer arrives.
Any higher ranking officer arrives.
The incident situation changes over time, resulting in a legal requirement to change command.
The incident response is concluded and incident responsibility is transferee back to the home agency.
The following are guidelines that must be adhere to in ICS.
-Check in
-Incident action plan
-unity of command
-span of control
-resources tracking
There are guidelines for what concept?
A. Accountability
B. Mobilization
C. Information and intelligence Management
D. Roles and authority
A. Accountability
T/F: Check in múltiple times for accountability.
False
Below are guidelines for _______:
-Print or type all entries
-Enter dates by month/day/ year format
-Enter date and time on all forms and records. Use local time
-Fill in blanks. Use N/A as appropriate
-Use military 24-hour time
-section chiefs and above assign record keeper (Scribe)
A. Communications Discipline
B. Incident record keeping
C. Initial incident briefing
D. Check in
B. Incident record keeping
T/F: The ICS organization is unique but easy to understand. There is no correlation between the ICS organization and the administrative structure of any single jurisdiction. This is deliberate because, confusion over different position titles and organizational structures has been a significant stumbling block to effective incident management in the past.
True
Which of the following is not one of the five major management functions:
A. Incident Command
B. Operations section
C. Planning section
D. Staffing sections
E. Logistic section
F. Finance/Administration section
D. Staffing sections
On small incidents and events, once person, the ___________, may accomplish all five management functions. In fact, the _________ is the only position that always staged in ICS applications.
A. Sergeant
B. Staging manager
C. Incident commander
D. Watch commander
C. Incident commander
Which one of the following is not the incident commanders responsibility:
A. Ensuring incident safety
B. Overseeing financial situations
C. Providing information services to internal and external stakeholders
D. Establishing and maintaining liaison with other agencies participating in the incident
B. Overseeing financial situations
T/F: Rank, grade and seniority are the factors used to select the incident commander. The incident commander is always a highly qualified individual trained to lead the incident response.
False
Which of these personnel do not make up the command staff?
A. Public information officer
B. Safety officer
C. Liaison officer
D. Finance officer
D. Finance officer
Which of the following are used to divide an incident geographically:
A. Divisions
B. Groups
C. Branches
D. Sections
A. Divisions
______ are a combination of mixed resources with common communications operating under the direct supervision of a leader. __________ can be versatile combinations of resources and their use is encouraged.
A. Task force
B. Strike team
C. Single resource
D. Salvage crew and wrecker
A. Task force
The major activities of the planning section may include all of the following except:
A. Collection evaluating and displaying incident intelligence and information
B. Preparing and documenting Incident Action Plans
C. Conducting plans for de mobilization
D. Directing traffic during a critical incident
D. Directing traffic during a critical incident.
T/F: The incident commander will determine if there is a need for logistics section at the incident, and designate an individual to fill the positions of the logistics sections chief.
True:
The Finance/administration section may staff four units. Not all units may be required: They will be established based on need. Which of the following is not one of the 4 units.
A. Procurement Unit
B. Time unit
C. Cost unit
D. Compensation/ claims unit
E. Tracking unit
E. Tracking unit
MACTAC: According to the manual the LVMPD vision is:
To be the safest community in America
According to the manual the LVMPD mission is :
Partner with the community to provide outstanding service and protection through prevention innovation and leadership.
According to the manual the acronym MACTAC stand for?
Multi Assault Counter Terrorism Action Capabilities
According to the manual the LVMPD values are
ICARE
According to the manual what is the MACTAC mission?
To save lives.
To develop a domestic police force which can continue to perform its day to day duties in a way that is acceptable with a free society, but which adapt quickly to an emerging new paradigm, that assumes degraded communications, emphasizes a small team leader ship, and embraces decentralized command and control.
According to the manual, what are the MACTAC objectives?
According to the Manual, area command ________, approve the “in the box” assignments?
Captains
According to the manual, a _______ squad is a pre-designated patrol squad utilized to affect a response to a major violent incident. These squads are pre-identified and scheduled 24 hours per day, 7 days a week.
In the box squads
According to the manual, each area command will have ______ “in the box” squads assigned and on duty each day and per shift.
One
According to the manual PSU/COP squad can augment ____ squads in protecting department assets.
Stay at Home squads
According to the manual all ____ personnel are always considered “In the Box” squads but will not leave their assigned area commands
DTAC, CCAC, Airport
T/F: According to the manual officers assigned to the “in the box” squads that did not arrive at the rally point prior to the squad meeting, will not attempt to catch up or follow the squads, but will be reassigned to the “stay at home” squad 
true
According to the manual, ______ squads may be tasked to protect key department infrastructure buildings.
Stay at Home
According to the manual an on scene ______ should assume initial overall Incident Command and tactical control as soon as practical.
A. Sergeant
B. Lieutenant
C. Captain
D. All of the above
E. A and B
E. A and B Sergeant and Lieutenant
According to the manual MACTAC strike teams consist of _______ commissioned officers which is similar to the current model employed by the US military Infantry forces and are the base of the current LVMPD Active Shooter Team
4 to 5
According to the manual, strike teams may be broken down into ____ officer-buddy teams.
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
A. Two (2)
According to the manual a strike team is composed of a set number of resources of the same kind and type. This is compliant with the _________ incident protocol and terminology.
A. Unified Command
B. NIMS
C. ICS
D. ICP
B. NIMS
According to the manual, “teams assigned to prevent threat from expanding/retreating from an area of the initial threat or contained area” falls under which team mission?
A. Assault
B. Rescue
C, Containment
D. Forcé Protection
E. Reconnaissance
C. Containment
According to the manual, “first responders on scene, moving to neutralize the immediate threat to save lives”, falls under which team mission?
A. Assault
B. Rescue
C. Containment,
D. Force protection
E. Reconnaissance.
A. Assault
According to the manual, “These teams should be no smaller than a buddy team” falls under which of team mission?
A. Assault
B. Rescue
C. Containment
D. Forcé Protection
E. Reconnaissance
C. Containment
According to the manual, (Phases of a MACTAC Incident), in what phase does formal ICS formation occur?
A. MACTAC Incident
B. MACTAC Activation
C. Control Phase
D. Investigative Phase
C. Control Phase
According to the manual, (Phases of a MACTAC Incident), in what phase does grief counseling occur?
A. MACTAC incident
B. MACTAC activation
C. Control phase
D. Investigative phase
D. Investigative phase
According to the manual, (Phases of a MACTAC Incident), in what phase does the informal ICS formation occur?
A. MACTAC incident
B. MACTAC activation
C. Control phase’
D. Investigative phase
B. MACTAC activation
According to the manual, (Phases of a MACTAC Incident), in what phase does the 4 A’s occur?
A. MACTAC incident
B. MACTAC activation
C. Control phase
D. Investigative phase
B. MACTAC activation
According to the manual, (Phases of a MACTAC Incident), in what phase does the medical triage occur?
A. MACTAC incident
B. MACTAC activation
C. Control phase’
D. Investigative phase
C. Control Phase
According to the manual, sergeants and lieutenants should occasionally conduct ________ minute white board tactical training sessions during briefing or debriefing.
5 to 15 minutes
T/F: According to the manual non-uniformed commissioned officers should have clearly identifiable equipment and clothing prior to arriving at the incident to avoid a “Blue on Blue” Incident
True
4 A’s are
Assess, Announce, Assemble, Act
4 C’s are
Contain, Control, Communicate, Coordinate
In the box squads respond to the rally points and await further orders or information occurs during which notification?
A. Notification
B. Alert
C. Activation
D. All of the above
E. B and C
B. Alert
According to the manual if communication is lost within an area command, all area units will respond to the _______for accountability, and command and control.
A. Área Command
B. Rally Point
C. LVMPD HQ
D. All of the above
E. A and B
A. Área command
According to the manual, when you arrive at the RallyPoint, a call into the dispatch supervisor is needed to get the brief. It is recommended that it is either the sergeant or the ____ to the Rally Point that makes contact with communications.
A. First person
B. Second person
C. Third Person
D. Fourth person
B. Second person
The____ to the Rally Point should be performing site security for arriving units.
A. First Person
B. Second person
C. Third person
D. Fourth person
A. First person
When leaving the rally point, the Strike Team Leader will report to dispatch (Via MDT) only _________ of the officers ACTUALLY LEAVING the Rally Point. This is for ACCOUNTABILITY.
A. Names
B. P Numbers
C. Call Signs
D. A and c
E. All of the above
C. Call signs
According to the manual, Current Standard Operating Procedures (SOP) for Southern Nevada Tactical Teams and Bomb Squad is a _________ Chemical Light to mark Hazards, both known and unknown.
A. Red
B. Green
C. Blue
D. Yellow
A. Red
According to the manual, the “Salute” report is defined as _______.
A. Size, Activity, Location, Uniform, Time, Equipment
B. Size, Activity, Location, Unit, Time, Equipment
C. Size, Account, Location, Uniform, Time, Equipment
A. Size, Activity, Location, Uniform, Time, Equipment
According to the manual, the term “presence” as used in the Miranda v. Arizona opinion means the right to have an attorney ____________.
A. Before questioning begins
B. During questioning
C. After questioning
D. All of the above
E. A and B only
E. A and B only
T/F: According to the manual, as a general rule, there is a requirement to advise a defendant of all possible charges which could be brought against him, prior to an interrogation.
False - There is NO requirement to advise a defendant
According to the manual, under Miranda the term _________ means more than arrest.
A. Presence
B. Custody
C. Rights
D. Interrogation
B. Custody
T/F: According to the manual, all custodial interrogations require Miranda warnings regardless of the crime classification or seriousness of the offense.
True
An officer conducts a vehicle stop. The driver of the vehicle has a warrant. The officer places the driver under arrest and takes him into custody for the warrant. The officer then questions the driver about ownership of the vehicle to avoid towing it. According to the manual are the officers questions an example of interrogation.
No
According to the manual, _________________ questions are designed to ascertain the nature of an emergency or whether a current danger exists to the public or the officers, and they are not considered interrogations for purposes of Miranda.
A. Threshold
B. Public Safety Exception
C. Volunteered
D. All of the above
E. A and B
B. Public Safety Exception
T/F: According to the manual, under the Nevada Constitution, Miranda applies even where the suspect is unaware he is talking to a police agent, such as an undercover police officer or police informant.
True
According to the manual, unless the detention evolves into an arrest, Miranda is not required for __________.
A. Traffic and Roadside Stops
B. Search Warrant Detention
C. Terry Stops
D. All of the above
E. A and C
D. All of the above
A rookie officer conducted a person stop on a male for jaywalking. After conducting a pat-down for weapons, the officer immediately advised the male of his Miranda Rights. According to the manual, is the male now considered in custody?
No
According to the manual, ____________ is the affirmative communication by the suspect to the government agent that the suspect is exercising the rights granted to him under the Constitution.
A. Testimonial act
B. Waiver
C. Invocation
D. All of the above
E. B and C
C. Invocation
According to the manual, under the 5th Amendment, the suspects can invoke _____________.
A. The right to silence
B. The right to due process
C. The right to counsel
D. All of the above
E. A and C
A and C
The right to silence and The right to Counsel
According to the manual ______ has the right to invoke a Miranda right.
A. An attorney
B. The person being questioned
C. A parent or guardian
D. All of the above
E. A and B
B. The person being questioned
T/F: According to the manual, if the suspect invokes the right to silence, absent a break in custody, they may not be approached by a police again, regardless of the passage of time
False - IF the suspect invokes the right to counsel
A Patrol officer responded to a burglary in progress as the officer approached the scene he will observed a male running from the area. After a short foot pursuit, the male was taken into custody. The officer then read the male his Miranda rights. The male told the officer that he wanted a lawyer, and that he would not answer any questions. A short time later a detective responded to the scene, the detective made contact with the male, and again advised him of his Miranda rights. The male advise the Detective that he understood his rights, agreed to talk to him, and confess to committing the burglary. According to the manual, will the male confession, be admissible in court?
No
T/F: According to the manual, a juvenile is not entitled to have his parents present during custodial interrogations.
True
According to the manual, courts use a “_____________” test in evaluating voluntariness.
A. totality of the circumstances
B. Preponderance of evidence
C. Functional equivalent
D. A and C
E. All of the above
A. Totality of the circumstances
According to the manual, the ____________ amendment is offense specific.
A. Fourth
B. Fifth
C. Sixth
D. Fourteenth
C. Sixth
T/F: According to the handbook, it is the policy of LVMPD that only commissioned employees have the right to work in an environment free of discrimination and harassment (sexual and otherwise)
False. All employees have the right to work in a environment free of any discrimination and harassment
According to the handbook, when there is evidence that harassing or discriminatory conduct has occurred, the Office of Employment Diversity or supervisors in the complainants Chain of Command will conduct an _______ and _______. Investigation of the incident.
A. Immediate, thoughtful
B. Expedited , thorough
C. Immediate, thorough
D. Understanding,, non-biased
C. Immediate, thorough
Every member of the LMVPD has the responsibility for preventing harassment and discriminatory acts by
A. Reporting and encouraging others to report the behavior
B. Encouraging other to participate in acts that could be perceived as harassment or discrimination
C. Refraining from participating in or encouragement of actions that could be perceived a harassment or discrimination
D. All of the above
E. A and C
E. A and C.- Reporting and encouraging other s to report the behavior / Refraining from participating in or encouragement of actions that could be perceived a harassment or discrimination
It shall be an unlawful employment practice for an employer to fail or refuse to hire or to discharge any individual, or otherwise to discriminate against any individual with respect to his compensation, terms, conditions, or privileges of employment, because of such individuals, race, color, religion, sex, or national origin , or to limit, segregate, or applicants for employment in any way which would deprive or tend to deprive any individual of employment opportunities or otherwise adversely affect his status as an employee, because of such individuals race, color, religion, sex, or national origin. This is according to that federal law?
A. Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964
B. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1991
C. Civil Rights Act of 1991
D. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964.
D. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964
According to the handbook, who enforces prohibiting discrimination in the workplace at the state level?
A. NERC
B. EEOC
C. OED
D. Patrol Supervisor
A. NERC
According to the handbook, ________ incident may be sufficient for the Department to sustain a complaint of harassment or discrimination.
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
A. One
According to the handbook, department policy includes ____________ as protected classes.
A. Veteran Status
B. Marital Status
C. Political Status
D. All of the above
E. A and C
E. A and C
Veteran Status and Political Status
T/F: Veteran Status is included as a protected class under the Rehabilitation of 1973.
False. Uniformed Serve Employment and Re-Employment Rights Act of 1994
T/F: According to the handbook, adverse impact occurs when an employer treats an individual less favorably than other similarly situated individuals because of their race, color, religion, sex, or national origin.
False - This is an example of Disparate Treatment
T/F: According to the handbook, the ultimate burden of proof always stays with the complainant in proving that discrimination against them was based on their race, color, religion, sex, national origin, or other projected classes.
True
According to the handbook, the focus of the inquiry into a change of adverse impact is on the ________ of employment practices rather than the motive.
A. Conditions
B. Effects
C. Consequences
D. All of the above
C. Consequences
Examples of harassing conduct include:
A. Vulgar and offensive sexually related epithets
B. Racially or sexually explicit cartoons, jokes, e-mais, or administrative messages
C. Religiously offensive jokes, comments, cartoons, etc
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
T/F: Assume you are a newly promoted sergeant working dayshift at NWAC. An officer that was just transferred to your squad requests that he be allowed to arrive to work late on Mondays to attend church. You then advise that the officer, that Mondays is the busiest day of the work week and that you could not accommodate him. However you are willing to allow him to arrive to work late on any other day. You also advise him that you are aware of the church services that are offered on the other days of the work week at his specific church. After the explanation, the officer still insists that he be accommodated on Mondays. According to the handbook, you are required to accommodate him on Mondays?
False.
Requests for religious accommodations will be considered on a case by case basis. These request will need to be forwarded to the _______?
A. Bureau/ Area Commander
B. Patrol Supervisor
C. Office of Employment Diversity
D. Health Detail
C. Office of Employment Diversity
The Age Discrimination in Employment Act of 1967 protects individuals who are ______ years of age or older from employment discrimination based on age.
A. Fourteen
B. Forty
C. Fifty
D. Sixty
B. Forty
T/F: The pregnancy Discrimination Act amended Title VII to specifically prohibit discrimination on the basis of pregnancy, childbirth, or related medical conditions. Women that are affected by pregnancy must be treated in the same manner as employees with similar abilities or limitations.
True
T/F: Assume you are a sergeant working the graveyard shift at DTAC. Officer Johnson approaches you a after briefing, and informs you of what he perceives as inappropriate interactions between a male and female officer on your squad. Officer Smith and Officer Gonzales. On several occasions, Officer Johnson has witnessed Officer Smith blow kisses in the direction of Officer Gonzales while passing her in the hallway. Officer Johnson states that hes only witnessed officer Gonzales smile when kisses were blown at her, but he’s afraid that Officer Gonzales may be too afraid to come forward with a sexual harassment complaint ( even though she never appeared to be upset or offended) According to the handbook, Officer Smiths actions does not constitute sexual harassment?
True
T/F: Two basic requirements for sexual harassment must exist under EEOC definition, The Conduct in question, wether physical or verbal, must be both welcome and of a sexual nature.
False (Unwelcomed)
T/F: Assume you are sergeant working BAC. An officer from your sister squad, approaches and advises you of some problems that she is having with her sergeant. According to the officer, after she refused multiple invitation to go out on a date with her sergeant, he began being very disrespectful to her and wrote her a negative annual evaluation. According to the handbook, this is an example of hostile work environment?
False - This is an example of Quid Pro Quo
T/F: Assume you are a sergeant assigned to CCAC. Two officers on your squad Officer Robinson, and Officer Jackson, recently broke up from a 2 year intimate relationship. One day after briefing Officer Jackson advises you that Officer Robinson tells her “. I can’t wait to get in those panties again” every time he backs her on a call. According to the handbook you should inquire whether Officer Jackson by her conduct, indicate that the sexual comments by Officer Robinson were unwelcome.
True
The ________ will coordinate job accommodations for matters involving ADA.
A. Health and Safety Manager
B. Patrol Supervisor
C. Officer of Employment Diversity
D. Bureau/ Arrea Commander
A. Health and Safety Manger
Assume you are Sergeant assigned to BAC. Bob, the key room attendants job description requires him to stand during briefing. Bob advises you that due to a back injury, he is only able to stand for a short period of time. According to the handbook you should:
A. Ask Bob what is the cause of his back injury
B. Tell Bob that he needs to fill out a memo and forward it to the Captain
C. Allow Bob to sit during briefing
D. A and C
C. Allow Bob to sit during briefing
T/F: The internal Affairs Section will conduct and or coordinate all internal investigations into complaints based on religion, sex, national origin, color, age, disability, sexual orientation, political affiliation or verbal status.
False- The office of Employment Diversity
Assume you are a sergeant working BAC. You are requested at a vehicle stop that was initiated by one of your officers. When you arrive, the driver of the vehicle complains that your officer only stopped him because he was Hispanic. According to the handbook, who will investigate the complaint?
A. Internal Affairs Section
B. Office of Employment Diversity (OED)
C. Watch Commander
D. Director of Human Resources
A. Internal Affairs Section
You are a sergeant assigned to CCAC, you respond to a high priority 417 call in SCAC because you were close to the border and the call was only two blocks away. When you arrive on a call, the scene static and you overhear a conversation between two of the officers there on the scene. One of the officer says to the other, “Yo, the wife had some big ass boobies. I suddenly am in the mood for some milk.” According to the handbook, you should:
A. Go back to your area command and advise their sergeant later
B. Intervene and advise them that type of conversation is inappropriate
C. Report the officers to the Office of Employment Diversity
D. All of the above
E. B and C
B and C
Intervene and advise them that type of conversation is inappropriate, and report the officers to the Office of Employment Diversity
Assume you are a sergeant assigned to the graveyard shift at BAC. During briefing Officer Jackson who is a black officer , makes a black joke after one of the briefing lines was read. According to the handbook, you should:
A. Counsel Officer Jackson about his behavior
B. Do nothing since Officer Jackson is black
C. Report Officer Jackson to the office of Employment Diversity
D. A and C
D. A and C
Counsel Officer Jackson about his behavior and Report Officer Jackson to the office of Employment Diversity
Complaints of harassment of discrimination can be received by _________.
A. Any supervisor
B. The Director of OED
C. The captain of Personnel
D. The Captain of Professional Standards Bureau
E. All of the above
E. All of the above
You are a sergeant assigned to NE31. A female officer assigned to NE32 asks if she could speak to you in confidence. She then advises you, that another officer assigned to her squad, grabbed her butt after briefing the previous week. According to the handbook, you should:
A. Tell her to advise her sergeant
B. Ask her is she wants you to talk to that officer
C. Assist her with documenting and filing a written complaint
D. All of the above
C. Assist her with documenting and filing a written complaint
Assume you are a sergeant assigned to DTAC. One of your officers, Officer Lebrow, stops you in the hallway and says that she wants to talk to you. She then says “Sarge, Officer Mackey tells me on a regular basis that he can’t wait to lick me up and down. I always laugh it off, even though it makes me uncomfortable but I don’t want to make a big deal about it, I just wanted you to know Sarge” According to the handbook, you should :
A. Ensure Officer Lebrow understands the complaint process
B. Wait until you witness Officer Mackey making the comments then act
C. Advise Officer Lebrow to let Officer Mackey know that those comments make her uncomfortable
D. All of the above
A. Ensure Officer Lebrow understands the complaint process
According to the handbook, all complaints of harassment and or discrimination investigations should be completed within _______ days from receipt when possible.
A. 30
B. 45
C. 60
D.90
B. 45
T/F: According to the handbook, the supervisors actions are evidence of the action taken by the department to correct inappropriate behavior and prevent future incidents.
True
The employer is responsible for the acts of its employees. It is know as what theory?
A. Sexual Harassment
B. Respondent Superior
C. Quip Pro Quo
D. Hostile Environment
B. Respondent Superior
An individuals ________ expectation of privacy is protected from government (Police) intrusion
A. Rational
B. Legitimate
C. Reasonable
D. All of the above
E. B and C
E. B and C
Legitimate and Reasonable
According to the manual, a _________ of a person occurs when police interfere with an individuals freedom of movement.
A. Search
B. Seizure
C. Arrest
D. All of the above
E. B and C
B. Seizure
According to the manual, _________ is defined as “ what a person knowingly exposes to the public even in his own home or office”
A. Open View
B. Plain View
C. Rear View
D. Front Sights
A. Open VIew
According to the manual, ________ is a factor set forth to determine whether an area falls within the “Curtilage” of the property.
A. Proximity of area to the home
B. Whether an area is included in enclosure which surrounds a home.
C. Nature of uses to which area is put
D. Steps taken to protect area from observation by passers-by
E. All of the above
F. A and D
E. All of the above
In order to have “standing” a person must have ______ and access to the police of items searched.
A. Authority
B. Dominion
C. Control
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
T/F: A passenger may challenge a stop of a vehicle on Fourth Amendment grounds, only if they have possessory or ownership interest in the vehicle.
False- Even if they have no Possessory
T/F: A traffic stop that is legitimate when initiated becomes illegitimate when the officer detains the car and driver beyond the time required to process that traffic offense, unless the extended detention is consensual , de minis, or justified by a reasonable articulable suspicion of criminal activity.
True
Three categories of police interactions exits. One of the categories, _________ is defined as a seizure limited in length, scope and purpose, and for which a police officer must have articulable suspicion that the civilian has committed or will commit a crime.
A. Consensual Encounter
B. Detention
C. Arrest
B. Detention
T/F: If during a frisk, an officer feels an item that is not a suspected weapon, but it is immediately apparent from the mass and control that the item is probable contraband, the officer can legally seize it.
True
Nevada Law places as an absolute limit of _______ minutes for a Terry Stop.
A. 30
B. 45
C. 60
D. 90
C. 60
To arrest a suspect in his own residence under Payton, Officers must have an arrest or search warrant for the person plus ‘______________” to believe the suspect resides there and is currently present.
A. Reasonable Suspicion
B. Probable Cause
C. Good Faith
D. All of the above
Probable Cause
T/F: Police may search a jointly occupied premises if one of the occupants consent, even if an objecting spouse’s absence is due to a lawful arrest by police.
True
The “Plain View” exception to the warrant requirement authorizes warrantless ____________.
A. Searches
B. Seizures
C. Arrests
D. All of the above
B. Seizures
What is Expression or communications of thoughts or opinions in spoken words, in writing, by expressive conduct, symbolism.
A. Speech
B. Post
C. Public Concern
D. Profile
Speech
What is Content an individual shares on social media site or the act of publishing content on site.
A. Speech
B. Post
C. Public content
B. Post
Topics that relate to a matter of political social or other concern to the community. It does not include topics that relate to employment/ personnel matters or information learned in the course of employment is?
A. Public Concern
B. Page
C. Social media
A. Public concern
A category of electronic resources that integrate user generated content and use participation such as, Facebook, X, Instagram, YouTube, Snapchat, etc, and smart phone or other portable device applications.
A. Profile
B. Page
C. Social media
C. Social Media
The specific portion of a social media sit where contenten is displayed and managed by an individual or individuals which administrative rights is?
A. Social Media
B. Page
C. Profile
B. Page
Personal information that a user provides on social media sites is.
A. Page
B. Profile
C. Post
B. Profile
Law enforcement personnel must work hard to gain trust and confidence of the community they serve. Department members must give thoughtful consideration to their actions to avoid damaging the ____ and______ the department has with the community
A. Cost/ Maintanece
B. Reputation / trust
C, experience/ trust
D. Communication / reputation
B. Reputation / Trust
T/F: Department Members are free to express themselves as private citizens in matters of public concern to the degree that their speech does impair their relationships with citizens .
False,, Does not Impair
Social media is a valuable tool when seeking _____ or information about______, ________ect.
A. People or problems, problems public information
B. Evidence, missing persons, criminal investigations
C.Problems, theft, crime
B. Evidence missing persons, criminal investigations
A department members speech is a reflection of ____ and ______.
A. Thoughts and feelings
B. Self and department
C. Character and values
D. Sheriff and public
E. None of the above
C. Character and values
A voluntary alternate dispute resolution process for resolving disputes and conflicts in which a neutral third party (Mediator) helps the parties to resolve a dispute or conflict an reach a mutually acceptable resolution.
A. Harassment
B. Discrimination
C. Mediation
D. Sexual Harassment
E. Reasonable Person Standard
C. Mediation
The unwelcome sexual advances, request for sexual favors and other verbal or physical contact of a sexual nature that could affect an individuals employment status,opportunities, or work performance or could create a hostile work environment is:
A. Harassment
B. Discrimination
C. Mediation
D. Sexual Harassment
E. Reasonable Person Standard
D. Sexual Harassment
Which states, the victim is subjectively offended and reasonable similarity situated member of the protected class against whom the harassment or discrimination is directed would be objectively offended:
A. Harassment
B. Discrimination
C. Mediation
D. Sexual Harassment
E. Reasonable Person Standard
E. Reasonable Person Standard
An act practice or pattern of behavior, based on an individuals, race, color, religion, sex, national origin, age, genetic information, disability, military service, sexual orientation, gender identity or expression, including non-binary, pregnancy, workers compensation status, family medical leave, or political affiliation pursuant to federal and state laws, which has an adverse impact of members of other identifiable groups:
A. Harassment
B. Discrimination
C. Mediation
D. Sexual Harassment
E. Reasonable Person Standard
B. Discrimination
Any conduct based on an individuals , race, color, religion, sex, national origin, age, genetic information, disability, military service, sexual orientation, gender identity, or expression, including non binary, pregnancy, Worker’s Compensation status, family medical leave, or political affiliation pursuant to federal and state laws, that has purpose to affect of unreasonably interfering with an individual work performance, or creates an intimidating, hostile, or offensive work environment
A. Harassment
B. Discrimination
C. Mediation
D. Sexual Harassment
E. Reasonable Person Standard
A. Harassment
A form of identity that has nothing to do with aspects of anatomy is?
A. Sexual
B. Gender
C. Non-binary
D. Racial
E. All of the above
C. Non-binary
Each supervisor has a responsibility to prevent acts of harassment and or discrimination by?
A. Watching and waiting
B. Monitoring and acting
C. Monitor and refraining
D. Counseling and stopping
E. C and D
F. A and B
E. C and D
Monitor and refraining and Counseling and stopping
This is a form of discrimination against an individual who has complained, assisted, or otherwise participated in complaints of harassment, and or discrimination.
A. Mediation
B. Sexual Harassment
C. Adverse Impact
D. Retaliation
D. Retaliation
Who must a supervisor notify in an event and employee request religious accommodations?
A. Bureau Commander
B. His/Her Lieutenant
C. Health and Safety
D. EDS Director
D. EDS Director
An employee who wishes to file a complaint for harassment and discrimination, can notify who?
A. The EDS Director
B. Health and Safety
C. Risk Management
D. Any Supervisor
E. IAB Commander
F. A,D,E
F. The EDS Director, Any Supervisor, IAB Commander
When a supervisor received a complaint from a citizen, and it doesn’t amount to a Department policy violation of law, a supervisor will?
A. Give the employee a written
B. Document in blue team as a Citizen Contact
C. Issue the Employee an SOC
D. None of the above
B. Document in blue team as a Citizen Contact
When is supervisor receives, an EIIP alert from an employees dashboard, the superiors has ____ days to respond to the alert?
A. 10
B. 30
C. 14
D. 60
C. 14 days
T/F: A supervisor will be solely responsible for identifying any/all significant events that may or may not affect employees?
B. False (Will Not)
T/F: Off Duty Officers who witness an alleged crime will not be threatened or charged with insubordination for failure to cooperate with a criminal investigation.
True
You as a supervisor receives information that one of your employees is a victim of a felony crime or other crime of violence ( eg., Domestic Violence) who must you notify?
A. Your supervisor
B. Bureau Commander
C. Watch Commander
D. Criminal Investigations Supervisor
E. C and D
Watch Commander and Criminal Investigations Supervisor
A nationally recognized model developed to implement and facilitate the problem solving, process const of 4 steps which are?
A. Scanning, Analysis, Response, and Assessment
B. Scanning, Analysis, Report and Assessment
C. Scanning, Acquire, Respond, and Assessment
D. None of the Above
A. Scanning, Analysis, Response, and Assessment
________ is the movement progression, or reduction from the application of one force type to another.
Force Transition
________ is an impeding violent act, harm, or resistance that will likely occur if not instantly confronted or addressed.
Imminent Threat
________ are broad categories of force options in escalating stages of intensity that are identified as low level force, intermediate force, and deadly force.
Levels Control
Officers are legally authorized to use deadly force to effect an arrest when in cómplice with NRS and the legal standards under the court case ___________.
Tennessee v. Garner
T/F: Officers may give a warning, if feasible, before use of deadly force
False. Not MAY they WILL
Any officer present, regardless of rank, and observing another officer using force that is clearly beyond what is justified or objectively reasonable under circumstances will, when in a safe position to do so, intercede to prevent the use of unreasonable force is known as ____________.
Duty to intervene
Reporting on duty to intervene. The reporting Officer will document in writing no later than ______ days after the occurrence.
10 days
Medical attention WILL be summoned for which of the following use of force applications, regardless of visible injury or complaint of injury for:
A. Batón/Impact Weapons-any strikes to the head, neck, chest, spine, kidneys, or groin
B. Canine- All bites
C. Empty Hand Tactics (strikes, kicks)
D. All of the above
E. A and B Only
E. A and B Only
Batón/Impact Weapons-any strikes to the head, neck, chest, spine, kidneys, or groin and Canine- All bites
A subject who is walking or running away is in which level of resistance?
Obstructive
The difference between obstructive and assaultive levels of resistance is ______
Subjects Intent to do harm
T/F: Empty hand tactics (physical constraints, hand control (escorts), takedowns not likely to cause injury) all fall within low level Resistance?
False- Low Level Force
Low Level Force Consists of which of the following:
A. Batón ( as escort Tool )
B. OC
C. PIT
D. All of the above
E. A and C only
A. Baton (as escort tool)
You as a supervisor formulate a plan on a call for service where a male has been seen checking door handles in the parking lot and now the male is threatening to fight your officers. He keeps reaching into his pockets. (Unsure if he has a weapon) and not complying with any commands. You form an arrest team that contains an officer that is utilizing the low-lethality shotgun. As your verbal officer is trying to gain compliance with the individual. He begins approaching the arrest team him and your officers on low-lethality shotgun utilizes the tool when the subject is 6 yards away.
A. What level of resistance is the subject in?
B. What level of force did the Office Utilize with the low lethality Shotgun?
A- Assaultive
B- Deadly Force
An Officer on your squad utilizes the 40mm specially impact weapon from a distance of 6 yards. What Level of Force did the Officer in?
Intermediate
____________ exist when a person is in a position to effectively resist and officers control or to use force or violence upon the officer or others.
Opportunity
What are the four elements of deadly force?
Ability, Opportunity, Imminent Jeopardy, Preclusion
__________ is when lesser alternatives have been reasonable considered and exhausted before the use of deadly force, to include disengagement.
Preclusion
T/F: Per Policy, Officers will hand cuff individuals being transported to a detoxification facility?
True
T/F: When responding to a security office where a subject has been placed in handcuffs prior to the officers arrival, the responding officer will immediately place his/her own handcuffs on the subject before beginning the investigation?
False- Officer must first establish reasonable suspicion or provable cause based on their own investigation before placing their own handcuffs on the individual
An officer who uses their baton to “stir the pot” is using what level of force?
Low Level Force
During a protests or demonstration situation, OC spray may only be used when authorized by a ________ in response to imminent threat of harm.
Incident Commander
When using the ECD, once the subject has been exposed to _____ number of cycles, the tool will be deemed ineffective and another use of force option will be considered unless exigent circumstance exists.
3 (three)
An officer on your squad utilizes the PIT technique on a vehicle travelling 39MPH. Which level of force did your Officer use?
Intermediate
T/F: Application of PIT(successful or attempts ) requires a Use of Force Report and Pursuit Report.
True
_______ is a series of questions to obtain information to determine if there is an immediate threat to public safety.
Public Safety Statement(PSS)
T/F: Supervisors involved in the use of force incident will investigate the use of force and the use of force of other subject officer involved?
False-WILL NOT
When the use of force is determined to be unfounded, the superviso will document it he investigation in a _____________ in Blue Team.
Citizens Contact (CC)
Additional Police units, approved by a supervisor traveling on adjacent streets using emergency equipment to keep pace with a pursuit is known as a _________.
Paralleling
T/F: Officers speed will not exceed more than 20 MPH over the posted speed limit during a pursuit?
False
T/F: Any officer who assumes the primary position, at any point during a pursuit, regardless of duration in the primary position, will complete a separate Pursuit Report in Blue Team?
True
T/F: If, during a pursuit, the officer is involved in a motor vehicle collision, he/she may continue in the pursuit if damage to the unit is minor. And it can still be operated without danger.
True
