Sgt 2023

Question 1

Compliance with this Procedure will ensure that arrests are conducted and reported in a manner consistent with all legal principles and best practices.

Answer 1

Section 494 of the Criminal Code (CC) provides authorities for arrest without warrant by any person.
In addition to the authorities to arrest without warrant given to any person in s. 494 CC, a peace officer is given additional authorities under ss. 495(1), 524(2), 525(6) and 31(1) CC. A peace officer may arrest any person who

Question 2

Section 494 of the criminal code provides authority for?

Answer 2

Section 494 the criminal code provides authority for arrest without warrant by any person 

Question 3

Section 495(1) criminal code

Answer 3

– Has committed an indictable offense or the officer believes on reasonable grounds has committed or is about to commit and indictable offense
– Officer finds committing a criminal offense
– On reasonable grounds believes the person is wanted on the warrant of arrest or committal, which is in force within the territorial jurisdiction the person is found in

Question 4

Section 524(2) & 525(6) criminal code

Answer 4

Has contravened or is about to contravene the terms of a criminal release or has committed an indictable offense while on a release for a criminal offense

Question 5

Section 31(1) criminal code

Answer 5

Is found committing or it is believed on reasonable grounds the person is about to commit a breach of the peace

Question 6

Is there a general arrest authority for provincial statutes?

Answer 6

No, there is no general arrest authority for a contravention of provincial statutes, reference must be made to individual statutes for specific arrest authority

Question 7

A police officer shall not arrest a person without a warrant for a summary conviction, dual procedure or 553 indictable offenses if there exist reasonable grounds that the public interest has been satisfied;

Answer 7

– Establish identity of the person
– secure/preserve evidence
– prevent continuation or repetition of the offence
– ensure accused appearance in court
– ensure safety of victim/witness to the offence(s)

Question 8

If satisfied, must release accused by?

Answer 8

– Unconditionally with intent to seek a criminal summons, or
– unconditionally with no intent to proceed in court
– by way of an appearance notice

Question 9

Police officer may continue arrest where public interest is not satisfied or for any indictable offense other than dual or 553 offenses

Answer 9

Criteria for the public interest is set out in section 497

Question 10

In circumstances where continue detention is justified?

Answer 10

The accused must be brought before an OIC

Question 11

True or false
A lack of appropriate release paperwork at scene is not a valid reason to continue an arrest?

Answer 11

True

Question 12

Entry into a dwelling house to affect arrest is prohibited unless:

Answer 12

– The arrest warrant is endorsed with an authorization to enter under S. 529(1) CC or
– the arrest warrant is accompanied by a separate authorization to enter S 529.1 CC (Form7.1)
– reasonable grounds exist to suspect that entry into the dwelling-house is necessary to prevent imminent bodily harm or death to any person
– reasonable grounds to believe that evidence pertaining to an indictable offense is present inside the dwelling-house and that entry is necessary to prevent the imminent loss or destruction of that evidence
– Fresh pursuit

Question 13

Always make proper announcement before execution of a warrant unless?

Answer 13

– Warrant allows it
– exposes police to harm
– risk losing evidence of an indictable offence

Question 14

How should you restrain a person to avoid positional asphyxia?

Answer 14

Restrained in a seating/sitting position-
Unless circumstances don’t allow it

Question 15

What causes excited delirium?

Answer 15

Excited delirium can be caused by drug, alcohol, psychiatric illness or a combination

Question 16

What are the symptoms of excited delirium?

Answer 16

– Abnormal tolerance to pain
– abnormal tolerance to pepper spray
– acute onset of paranoia
– bizarre or aggressive behavior
– hallucinations
– disorientation
– impaired thinking
– Panic
–Shouting
– sudden calm after frenzied activity
– sweating, fever heat intolerance
– unexpected physical strength
– violence towards others

Question 17

Excited delirium is a?

Answer 17

Medical emergency and the person must always be brought to a hospital for examination once they are secured.

Question 18

When dealing with an arrested person who has ingested something potentially harmful, you shall?

Answer 18

– Perform first aid, if necessary
– ensure person is taken to hospital

Question 19

When dealing with an arrested person who is aided by a guide dog, you shall?

Answer 19

-Make reasonable attempts to have the guide dog accommodated by friends or relatives or contact TPOC
-Do NOT transport the guide dog to court with the accused
– Resources include K9 vision Canada or the Humane Society

Question 20

When releasing a person on a form 9, form 10 or when proceeding by way of a criminal summons, ensure the person is served with a?

Answer 20

T.P.S 493(WYNTK form)

Question 21

Foreign embassies and consulates are considered?

Answer 21

Foreign land and outside of the jurisdiction of the police

Question 22

Some of the things to keep in mind when using discretion when determining whether to handcuff an individual are?

Answer 22

Persons medical condition, age, disability, pregnancy and frailty.

Question 23

When arresting someone you should always check?

Answer 23

CPIC
MNI master name index

Question 24

When releasing a person following an arrest shall make reasonable efforts to ensure the safety of other persons who may be affected by the release and the safety of the person being released having regard for what?

Answer 24

The circumstances and the time in place of release

Question 25

When arresting a foreign national?

Answer 25

Should not normally arrest a person during a religious ceremony or judicial hearing

Question 26

When releasing or deciding to release the officer in charge shall?

Answer 26

Consider public interest, particulars are recorded in the UCMR, when releasing ensure the 493 is served

Question 27

Ruling on the search of a person incident to arrest comes from?

Answer 27

December 2001,R v. Golden

Question 28

Where does the lawful authority for searching a person come from?

Answer 28

Statute or common law

Question 29

The decision on what type of search is necessary is based on?

Answer 29

On a case-by-case basis

Question 30

Searches should never be conducted in an abusive fashion or be conducted to____________,______________ or
______________________________

Answer 30

Intimidate, ridicule or induce a confession 

Question 31

Officer in charge notification mandatory (in regards to searches) when:

Answer 31

– After a search at the station
– circumstances around the strip search
– reasonable grounds that person has weapons or evidence in a body cavity

Question 32

Section 1 of the Ontario human rights code states
– every person has a right to equal treatment with respect to services, goods and facilities, without discrimination, because of?

Answer 32

– Race
– ancestry
– place of origin
– citizenship
– creed (religious beliefs)
– sex
– sexual orientation
– gender identity
– gender expression
– age
– Marital status
– family status
– Disability

Question 33

When conducting searches of self identified trans or gender diverse persons shall have explained to them the option for search, which are?

Answer 33

– Male officers only
– female officers only
– a combination of both

Question 34

When required to remove a gender affirming article or prosthetic device from a trans or gender diverse person you shall?

Answer 34

– Let them remove it themselves as long as it doesn’t pose a safety risk to that person or a member
– return the device/item to the person ASAP after the search

Question 35

Items of religious significance
Section 2 of the charter of rights states?

Answer 35

Gives everyone fundamental “freedom of conscience and religion”

Question 36

Items of religious significance
Section 8 of the charter of rights states?

Answer 36

Everyone has the right to be secure against unreasonable search and seizure

Question 37

Our duty to accommodate people with disabilities comes from?

Answer 37

Ontario human rights code and Accessibility for Ontarians with disabilities act

Any infringement of a persons right to be accommodated must be minimal in nature, and no more than is necessary to achieve the desired objective

Question 38

If it is necessary to remove an assistive device from a person with a disability to conduct a search you shall?

Answer 38

Search the item/device in return it to the person ASAP after the search if it is safe to do so.

If the device/item is not returned, articulation must be made clearly in your memo book

Members shall be cognizant that persons requiring the aid of an assistive device may have an emotional as well as a physical attachment to the device and shall treat the assistive device with respect at all times

Question 39

For a search to be lawful it must be?

Answer 39

Reasonable and justified given all the circumstances and it must be conducted for a valid reason

Question 40

Section 8 of the charter of rights states that he search of a person is?

Answer 40

Prima Facie – unreasonable

Question 41

The officers must demonstrate that a search of a person is?

Answer 41

Justified in law, necessary and reasonable

Question 42

For safety reasons all persons under arrest must be searched prior to being?

Answer 42

– Placed in a police vehicle
– prior to being brought into a police station
– lodged in a cell

Question 43

What must be conducted prior to a strip search, if authorized ?

Answer 43

A protective search/frisk search

Question 44

Who approves a strip search?

Answer 44

The officer in charge if there are reasonable probable grounds what is necessary

Question 45

When can a police officer search a person?

Answer 45

– after an arrest (common law-incident to arrest)
– upon consent
– when authorized by statute

Question 46

Incident to arrest, officers may search for?

Answer 46

– Weapons
– anything that could cause injury (including drugs and
alcohol)
– anything that could assist in escape
– evidence

Question 47

What must a police officer be able to demonstrate in regards to a consent search?

Answer 47

– Consent was informed and freely given
– the person giving consent must understand the possible consequences of the search prior to giving consent

A consent search, in most instances, should not be used where other lawful authority exists

Question 48

Whatever practicable, all protective and frisk searches must be captured on?

Answer 48

Audio and video

Question 49

True or false
Those who have been frisk searched only can be housed in the same area as those who have been stripped searched

Answer 49

True

Question 50

If a person in custody has secreted weapons or evidence in a body cavity what should you do?

Answer 50

The person must be taken to the hospital in the item removed either by the person in the presence of a medical professional or by the medical professional

Question 51

If a person who has secreted weapons of evidence in a body cavity and refuses the cavity search, what happens?

Answer 51

They are held in isolation in show caused

Question 52

When a search of person has occurred in the field and the person has not been booked into a police facility the police officer shell?

Answer 52

Complete the search in the field only template

Question 53

When conducting a consent search of a person the police officer shall?

Answer 53

– Ask for the consent of the person and explain the nature of the search
– inform the person that they have the right to refuse consent
– inform the person of potential consequences of the search, including the possibility that anything seized may be used as evidence
– immediately stop searching the person if consent is withdrawn, unless evidence has been disclosed that would permit continuation pursuit to lawful authorities 

Question 54

Prior to a strip search being conducted the officer shall?

Answer 54

Re-read their rights to counsel prior to the strip search and ensure they are provided a reasonable opportunity to speak to counsel before the search commences

Question 55

True or false
Strip searches can only be captured on audio

Answer 55

True

Question 56

Searches must be conducted ______________ and in a methodical manner.

Answer 56

Thoroughly

Question 57

The more intrusive the search, the more_________________
required

Answer 57

Justification

Question 58

Unless reasonable grounds to do so, what action can amount to an unlawful strip search?

Answer 58

Seizing bras, underwire bras or string bikinis

Question 59

Strip searches should not be conducted based solely on

Answer 59

Grounds that a person may come into contact with another person in custody

Question 60

After a strip search who completes the booking and search template & trans template if applicable?

Answer 60

The officer in charge

Question 61

Staff/Sergeant shall book prisoners and authorize strip searches, unless at a central lock up, where a ___________ can be appointed.

Answer 61

Designate

Question 62

Supreme court ruling R v. Golden-

Answer 62

December 2001 re: strip searches

Question 63

Supreme court ruling Cloutier v. Langlois-

Answer 63

Must be conducted for a valid reason (searches)

Question 64

Strip searches can be conducted in the field for exigent circumstances but not to?

Answer 64

Secure evidence

Question 65

True or false
Body cavity searches shall not be performed by any member of the T.P.S. Transport them to a medical facility

Answer 65

True
A medical professional can remove the item but if the person refuses, they will be held in isolation and held for a show cause hearing

Question 66

Gender expression is how –

Answer 66

A person publicly presents their gender

Question 67

Gender identity is –

Answer 67

Each persons internal and individual experience of gender

Question 68

Trans women means

Answer 68

Male at birth who knows themselves to be a woman

Question 69

Trans male is

Answer 69

Female at birth who knows themselves to be a man

Question 70

Trans persons do not have to have surgery to affirm their?

Answer 70

Gender identity

Question 71

How should you refer to a Trans person?

Answer 71

Refer to the person in their chosen name and gender pronouns

Question 72

How should a trans person be lodged/housed in jail?

Answer 72

Lodged according to self identified preference, unless specific overriding health and safety concerns, and searched according to their preference

Question 73

How should you handle an item of religious significance?

Answer 73

Handle the item as requested by the person

Question 74

If a person has an item of religious significance on their person or in their possession, you should

Answer 74

• let the person remove it themselves if it doesn’t compromise safety/risk
  – use gloves when handling the item
  – facilitate the replacement of an item if it is being held and not immediately returned
  – place in a separate property bag
  – multiple items of religious significance can be stored together in one bag unless asked by the person not to beDo you like – a sealed property bag containing religious items may be sealed within the main property bag
  -if it is safe they can retain it

When practicable – facilitate the replacement (apparel or clothing only)

Question 75

Trans includes?

Answer 75

Trans woman, trans man, not binary, gender nonconforming, gender variant or gender queer. Some people may consider two spirit to be a trans identity.

Question 76

Gender affirming articles may include?

Answer 76

Breast forms, chest binders, gaffs, packers, prosthetic penis is in wigs

Question 77

When transporting a prisoner, prior to departure, advise the communications operator of?

Answer 77

Destination , the gender identity and age of the person and the odometer reading

Question 78

Who does the booking officer forward the completed T.P.S 300 to and at what time?

Answer 78

The Booker will forward the completed T.P.S 300 to the detective sergeant at 24:00 hrs

Question 79

What does PVEMU stand for?

Answer 79

Property and video evidence management unit

Question 80

What are young person is in custody the officer in charge will ensure that?

Answer 80

A parent, legal guardian, adult relative, adult friend or spouse is notified without delay and requested to attend the Station.

If the detention of the young person is necessary a parent, relative, spouse or adult friend can interview the person however, a spouse or immediate relative is at the conclusion of the investigation only

Question 81

Who shall ensure an investigation is commenced in relation to the last drink information received on the T.P.S 300 when required?

Answer 81

Det. Sergeant 

Question 82

What does BHS stand for?

Answer 82

Booking hall system

Question 83

What does DAMS stand for?

Answer 83

Detention area monitoring system

Question 84

Divisional cells means

Answer 84

Cells that may be used for short term detention

Question 85

Lock up means

Answer 85

An assigned Division used to detain a person in custody

Question 86

Audio/video equipment has been installed in central lock ups in booking Halls, why?

Answer 86

– To monitor and record the condition of persons in
police custody and members
– ensure safety
– for court purposes

Question 87

When can a young person be housed in the same area as an adult?

Answer 87

A young person (under 18) can be housed in the same area as an adult ONLY when there is adequate space between them

Question 88

What property shall be removed from every prisoner?

Answer 88

Valuables, evidence, implements of escape, offensive weapons as defined by the cc, ligature items (Belts, shoelaces), items that can damage (matches, later, combs, keys) meds, tobacco.

Question 89

When transporting a prisoner in a vehicle with no screen where should the prisoners sit?

Answer 89

The prisoner should sit in the right rear seat and the escort sits in the left rear seat behind the driver

Question 90

What is the target time used between cell checks?

Answer 90

Target time of 30 minute intervals is used

Question 91

What is the only designated lock up for females?

Answer 91

23 Division

Question 92

When can methadone patients/prisoners get their prescribed dosage?

Answer 92

– Following released from custody
– if remanded, by request to corrections staff and after staff have consulted with prescribing doctor
– methadone liquid CANNOT be administered at Station, but pills can when the prisoners name and appropriate dosage is noted on the bottle
– pregnant prisoners on methadone should be treated at hospital regardless of the dispensed form

Question 93

Some assistive devices are?

Answer 93

Hearing aids, orthotics, respiratory devices, medical supplies

Question 94

Where should person(s) with airborne diseases be housed?

Answer 94

A person with an airborne disease should be in a room with good ventilation

Question 95

Who makes the decision to send a prisoner to the hospital?

Answer 95

The officer in charge on a case to case basis

Question 96

When a prisoner has or is suspected to have taken a drug or other controlled substance prior to arrest but isn’t showing any signs of impairment or distress, What should the officer in charge do?

Answer 96

The officer in charge will make inquiries to determine whether the person needs medical attention or not. All prisoners shall be informed of the risks of not disclosing the consumption of prescribed and non-prescribed substances.

Question 97

What services are available at no cost to assist the officer in charge in making a determination as to whether a prisoner is in need of further medical treatment?

Answer 97

Telehealth Ontario and Ontario regional poison information Center, – sick kids can assist in determining if further medical attention is needed

Question 98

When prisoners who have taken hard drugs (cocaine, heroin, fentanyl) shall be monitored more closely for at least?

Answer 98

Three (3) hours from the time when the drug was taken

Question 99

True or false
Under no circumstances will an unconscious person be admitted to a police cell or lock up

Answer 99

True

Question 100

Unexpected deaths of intoxicated individuals may occur as a result of a condition called?

Answer 100

Obstructive sleep apnea. The consumption of alcohol or alcohol in combination with central nervous system depressants (e.g. narcotics, barbiturates, etc.) can frequently produce a deep sleep accompanied by loud snoring.

Question 101

Is snoring an indicator of consciousness?

Answer 101

No, snoring is not an indicator of consciousness. It indicates only that a person is breathing. Individuals who are intoxicated or who exhibit very loud or disrupted snoring must be closely monitored and awakened frequently in order to determine if their state of sobriety is improving overtime

Question 102

Alcohol withdrawal syndrome is?

Answer 102

Characterized by physical and mental symptoms that can occur after a person discontinues consuming high doses of alcohol.
Symptoms of AWS may appear within 6 to 12 hours after a persons last consumption of alcohol.
AWS more commonly affects those with a history of alcoholism and/or those who have experience problems with alcohol withdrawal in the past.

Question 103

Mild symptoms of alcohol withdrawal can occur within ___ hours and should subside within ____ hours?

Answer 103

Mild symptoms can occur 24 hours after last drink and should subside after 48 hours

– tremors, anxiety, sleep disturbance, sweating, over responsive reflexes or nausea/vomiting

Question 104

Moderate symptoms of alcohol withdrawal can occur within ____to____hours and should subside after ___ hours.

Answer 104

Moderate symptoms of alcohol withdrawal can occur within 24 to 36 hours and should subside after 48 hours.

– Intensified mild symptoms, rapid breathing, racing
heart rate and agitation

Question 105

Severe symptoms of alcohol withdrawal can occur within ___ hours. 

Answer 105

Severe symptoms of alcohol withdrawal can occur within 48 hours.

– Seizures, intensified mild/moderate symptoms, disorientation, hallucinations and high fever
– persons can deteriorate to a condition called delirium tremens

Question 106

Delirium tremens DTs usually occur ___ to ___ hours after last drink.

Answer 106

Delirium tremens DTs usually occur 48 to 72 hours after last drink.

If left untreated, DTs can result in death

Question 107

AWS – Seizures may present between ___ to ___hours after a persons last consumption of alcohol

Answer 107

Seizures may present between 12 to 60 hours after a persons last consumption of alcohol

Question 108

How should intoxicated persons be placed?

Answer 108

Intoxicated person should be placed on their side in the recovery position who lapse into sleep

Question 109

Can a member inject medication into a prisoner?

Answer 109

Members shall never inject medication into a prisoner.

A prisoner can self inject an auto injector (epinephrine). ** A member can do it if the prisoner cannot do it themselves. The prisoner then must be taken to the hospital after the injection

Question 110

Short term affects of methadone abstinence occur between ___ to ___ hours?

Answer 110

Short term affects of methadone abstinence occur between 24 to 36 hours from last consumption and is not Life threatening?

Question 111

The officer in charge cannot know the background, history and state of mind of every person brought into custody, but is required to?

Answer 111

The officer in charge is required to ensure their safety

Question 112

Persons being held for a show cause hearing are deemed?

Answer 112

To be entering the prisoner population

Question 113

Why is determining the timestamp (last drink) important?

Answer 113

It is important to determine and assess onset of AWS

Question 114

Individuals with excited delirium must always be treated as?

Answer 114

They are suffering from a medical emergency and once secured they are to be taken to the hospital

Question 115

In regards to privacy shields, the officer in charge shall?

Answer 115

– Person should be advised they are video recorded
– person advised they may use the privacy shield
– the officer in charge can deny use if they can justify a safety issue/concern (suicidal)

Question 116

Who authorizes the use of an approved handheld metal detector?

Answer 116

The officer in charge can authorize the use of an approved handheld metal detector to assist in the search of any prisoners at any point of the booking and search process, or at any point while the person is lodged in the station.
For a search to be lawful, using the handheld metal detector, it must be reasonable and justified given all the circumstances and it must be conducted for a valid reason.
Handheld metal detectors are only for used inside a police facility
Where a handheld metal detector has been used the appropriate entry shall be made in the Booking and Search template 

Question 117

After processed, printed/photographed at the arresting unit, young offenders go to?

Answer 117

14 division

Question 118

Adult male prisoners Will be lodged at five designated central lock ups they are? 

Answer 118

14, 23, 32, 43, and 51 Division.

Question 119

14 Designated lock up houses?

Answer 119

Male adults from 11, 14 and 52 divisions as well as Male young persons

TSV as well

Question 120

23 Designated lock up houses?

Answer 120

Male adults from 12, 22 and 23 division
All females adult and young person females

Question 121

32 Designated lock up houses?

Answer 121

Male adults from 13, 31, 32, and 33 divisions

Question 122

43 designated lock up houses?

Answer 122

Adult males from 41, 42 and 43 divisions

Question 123

51 designated lock up houses?

Answer 123

Adult males from 51, 53, and 55 divisions

Question 124

Members shall never apply a police seal or a similar device to?

Answer 124

Videotape, DVD, or cd storage case

Question 125

Who should consider all accommodations to keep trans assistive devices?

Answer 125

The OIC shall consider all accommodations to keep trans assistive devices up to the point of undue hardship

Question 126

How often are cell checks physically done?

Answer 126

Cell checks are physically done every 30 minutes when there are prisoners

Question 127

When a person in custody is transported to the hospital, staff are advised?

Answer 127

That the purpose of the visit is not to receive their prescribed dosage

Question 128



Question 129

Court cells means?

Answer 129

Used the hours court is sitting

Question 130

A detention facility is?

Answer 130

Central lock up or division/booking hall 

Question 131

Police vehicle for the purpose of prisoner transport is a?

Answer 131

A vehicle that has the capacity to transport driver and two or more persons

Question 132

How should non-binary people be housed? 

Answer 132

Non-binary people should be housed in a manner that they feel will maximize their safety, may include individual cell, interview room or male or female lock up as per the individuals assessment of what best suits their needs

Question 133

Who does the officer in charge notify if the lock up is full?

Answer 133

The officer in charge will notify the senior duty officer Who will then initiate a secondary lock up

Question 134

Who will transport young offenders for fingerprints and photos if required?

Answer 134

Court services will transport

Question 135

True or false
The officer in charge may contact another facility to lodge a trans person if safety accommodations cannot be provided at the current facility

Answer 135

True

Question 136

If a unconditional release is done at the station, who does the release?

Answer 136

The officer in charge

Question 137

When releasing a person from the station on a sexual assault, criminal harassment or domestic related charge the officer shall?

Answer 137

Advised the victim of the bail conditions, next court date, safety plan, and T.P.S483 completed

Question 138

A case manager can request an adjournment to bail when unfinished aspects of the investigation pertaining to bail, a justice may adjourn for how long?

Answer 138

Three (3) clear days unless the accused authorizes longer

Question 139

What is the only police facility to have an accused person report to?

Answer 139

Organized Crime Enforcement –Bail & Parole
Open 09:00 to 2100 hrs

Question 140

Who has the final decision to recommend opposing bail?

Answer 140

The officer in charge

Question 141

Who is responsible for notifying a victim even if they delegate the task?

Answer 141

The officer in charge is responsible

Question 142

Who is designated by the chief as an officer in charge?

Answer 142

The chief has designated all sergeants and detectives as OIC. Letter on services letterhead available at all court locations – must be provided when requested.

Question 143

True or false
When a person is brought into the station in paraded before the officer in charge, the person shall be released in the same manner, whether charges are laid or not

Answer 143

True

Question 144

What is the purpose of the show cause brief?

Answer 144

It is through the brief that the crown is made aware of all aspects of a case so that proper representation can be made at the bail hearing concerning the release conditions or they continued detention of an individual

Question 145

Who does the case manager notify of all results relating to victim notification?

Answer 145

The officer in charge
Although the officer in charge may delegate the task of notifying the victim to another police officer, the accountability for this obligation remains with the officer in charge. It is not a shared accountability

Question 146

Who does the officer in charge notify when an accused surrenders documents listed in Bail conditions?

Answer 146

The case manager

Question 147

A warrant to arrest is a written order signed by a?

Answer 147

Judge, justice or a Coroner 

Question 148

Who retains discretion to release on an endorsed warrant?

Answer 148

The officer in charge

Question 149

What is a warrant of committal?

Answer 149

A word of committal is issued by the court upon conviction for an offense. Directs peace officers to arrest named person(s) to serve a period in jail. In default of payment for monetary fines.

Persons arrested solely on a warrant of committal are not held for Bail

Question 150

Where are bench warrants for drugs are held?

Answer 150

Old city Hall

Question 151

If a superior court bench warrant is executed with a new charge, the person is held for bail at provincial court. The person that must appear at Superior Court, before their next court date on the new charge.
If Superior Court is not sitting, the person will be held until they are.
Always advise who when executing a superior court bench warrant?

Answer 151

Superior Court- Detective Liaison

Question 152

If an accuse is arrested on a surety warrant they are held for bail on what charge?

Answer 152

If there is no new charge they are held for bail on their original charge

Question 153

What is a material witness warrant?

Answer 153

Material witness warrants are issued by a Justice for the apprehension of a witness who is invading service of a subpoena or has not appeared in court after being served a subpoena

No charge is laid as a result of the warrant being issued. Following an arrest , a bail hearing must be held to determine if the witness should be released until required to appear and give evidence.

A person arrested solely for a material witness warrant shall not be fingerprinted

Question 154

Who issues immigration warrants?

Answer 154

A Canada border services agency officer may issue a warrant for the arrest and detention of a permanent resident or a foreign national whom the officer has reasonable grounds to believe is inadmissible and is a danger to the public or is unlikely to appear for examination, for an admissibility hearing, for the removal from Canada or at a proceeding that could lead to the making of the removal order by the minister.

Question 155

When a superior court bench warrant is issued, court services unit at Superior Court shall advise who?

Answer 155

The warrant officer of the division in which the original charges were laid

Question 156

In relation to family responsibility arrest warrants, when a support payor is arrested on this type of warrant, the person may be taken to the Family Court, or if the court is not sitting, they are to be brought before who?

Answer 156

A justice of the peace as soon as possible to be dealt with according to law

Question 157

What are the two types of civil warrants?

Answer 157

– Small claims court
– civil court

Question 158

When a patient either refuses to be confined for treatment or has escaped from a medical facility while undergoing treatment for a contagious, virulent or infectious disease, the Health Protection and Promotion act gives the Medical Officer of Health having jurisdiction the authority to apply for a court order to compel the named person to be detained for treatment.
What is the only medical facility in Ontario for treatment and control of contagious, virulent or infectious disease?

Answer 158

The West Park healthcare Center located at 82 Buttonwood Ave. in 12 division

Question 159

If an accused is arrested on a warrant and taken to a courthouse where the information is held, a clerk will obtain it, if it is at a different court location who will obtain it?

Answer 159

The police have to obtain it

Question 160

What is the effective radius of a medical warrant?

Answer 160

It is restricted to the jurisdiction of the applicant MOH

Question 161

When is a Report to Justice (form 5.2) required?

Answer 161

Every time property is seized by a peace officer with or without warrant

Question 162

Section 13 of the CDSA requires a 5.2 for?

Answer 162

Drug seizures

Question 163

When property is seized under POA search warrants or a warrantless seizure what is required?

Answer 163

A Return to a Justice

Question 164

S.489.1 of the CC legislators that a report to a justice is required when?

Answer 164

Every time property is seized by police with or without warrant

Question 165

True or false
Undercover drug purchases are neither searches nor seizures and a 5.2 is not required

Answer 165

True
Drug traffickers have no expectation of privacy in their dealings with customers

Question 166

How can property be managed by a police officer?

Answer 166

– Return property to lawful owner if no charges laid
– hold for further investigation, whether charges laid or
not (includes abandon property)
– continued detention of property where the chargers
are lead, and evidence is required for court

Question 167

Who should police consult with prior to returning property that was originally seized as evidence?

Answer 167

Police should consult with the Crown attorney

Question 168

Found property is governed by?

Answer 168

The police services act

Question 169

What is the retention for found bicycles?

Answer 169

30 consecutive days

Question 170

What is the retention period for all other general property not including found bikes?

Answer 170

90 consecutive days

Question 171

When a search warrant is executed who can submit the 5.2 and attend a report to a Justice hearing?

Answer 171

– Affiant of the search warrant
– case manager
– exhibits officer
– seizing officer

Question 172

True or false
When property is seized without a warrant, a common informant may file the 5.2

Answer 172

True

Question 173

In all instances where property, including cash, is seized as proceeds of crime of offense related preparatory, officers shall contact

Answer 173

OCE-Finacial Crimes-asset forfeiture (ASAP)

Question 174

An order for continued detention is not required when?

Answer 174

– Charges are laid
– the item has been entered as an exhibit at a preliminary inquiry trial or other proceeding

Question 175

The detention of seized property where no charges are laid shall not exceed?

Answer 175

Three (3) months

A further detention request is required if requesting longer than three months

Question 176

The cumulative period of seized property cannot exceed _____________unless authorized by a superior court justice

Answer 176

One year

Question 177

Where should the 5.2 be made before a Justice?

Answer 177

Where the search warrant was issued.

In the case of a tele-warrant, the 5.2 is submitted in the same jurisdiction where the search warrant was executed

Question 178

Is a 5.2 required when abandoned property is seized without warrant and there are no pending charges or arrest? 

Answer 178

No.

Question 179

When property is seized in a multi – jurisdictional operation, a _____ is submitted before a judge.

Answer 179

5.3 (Not contained in forms in shall refer to the criminal
code for the appropriate wording)

Question 180

In regards to property, if continue detention is required, application must be made no later than _____ days before the current order is set to expire

Answer 180

30 days

Question 181

Continue detention means:

Answer 181

Detention of property beyond the initial three months from the date of seizure

Question 182

Justice means:

Answer 182

Justice of the peace or a provincial court judge

Question 183

When must all applications be made before a justice?

Answer 183

Monday – Friday 0900 to 1600 hrs

Question 184

What are the disclosure requirements once a 5.2 is signed?

Answer 184

– Drugs 14 days from date of seizure
– all other property is 28 days from date of charge

Question 185

In regards to a Tele-warrant what is the timeline to submit a 5.2?

Answer 185

Seven days

Question 186

What is the timeline to submit a 5.2 for a search warrant signed at court location?

Answer 186

90 days/3 months

Question 187

What is the timeline to submit a 5.2 for all other property, not including a tele-warrant or search warrant?

Answer 187

90 days/3 months

Question 188

If the retention period has expired and no lawful owner has come forward the Finder may claim the property within?

Answer 188

Seven consecutive days

Question 189

What shall not be taken to court?

Answer 189

Drugs and dangerous material 

Question 190

True or false
The information or a copy of it, shall not be filed with the court or placed in Crown envelope

Answer 190

True

Question 191

What is available to provide assistance if detaining property beyond 12 months?

Answer 191

Legal services

Question 192

Who may act as a common informant for the purposes of bringing a 5.2 before a Justice when property is seized and the accused has been show caused (first appearance only)?

Answer 192

Court officers

Question 193

Informational material means:

Answer 193

Information obtained from a thing that is seized

Question 194

In relation to death investigations, a supervisor attendance is mandatory for?

Answer 194

– Suicide
– possible sudden-death
–unnatural sudden-death
– suspicious death
– suspected Homicide
- sudden unexpected death
– apparent suicide
-an accident where the only witness or person present at the time of death of finding the body is an intimate partner, past or present

Question 195

In relation to death investigations, a divisional Detective attendance is mandatory for?

Answer 195

– Death of a child under five
– sudden unexpected death of a child
– unnatural sudden death
– sudden unexpected death
– apparent suicide
– an accident where the only witness or person present at the time of the death of finding the body is an intimate partner, Past or present 

Question 196

Death Investigations
Supervisor notification is mandatory for?

Answer 196

– Attempt suicide
– unable to establish identity
– unable to determine next of kin
– unable to notify the next of kin in person
– requested by another service to notify next of kiln

Question 197

Who is qualified and has the authority to pronounce a person dead?

Answer 197

No person other than a qualified medical practitioner has the authority to pronounce a person dead.
A base hospital physician has declared death through on-site consult with EMS

Exceptions are:
– obvious death due to decomposition, decapitation, transection, gross rigor mortis, gross outpouring of cranial or visceral contents or a grossly charred body, or

Question 198

Can you transport a deceased person in the same vehicle as a living patient?

Answer 198

A deceased person is never transported in the same vehicle as a living patient

Question 199

How should you investigate sudden and unexpected death of a child under five?

Answer 199

Every sudden and unexpected death of a child under five shall be actively investigated and treated as suspicious

Question 200

Who can you contact if the identification of a deceased cannot be determined?

Answer 200

If the identification of a deceased cannot be determined, contact the missing person unit (MPU)

Question 201

What circumstances must an investigator or designate be present at the morgue when a deceased is identified?

Answer 201

– Homicide, suspected homicide or other related criminal offense
– when the presence of an investigator is requested by another officer
– cases where an inquest is or will likely be called
– when a coroner determines it necessary

Question 202

Access to the morgue will only be created two officers who have an ____________,______________or__________need to be present.

Answer 202

operational, investigative or educational (Appointment only)

Question 203

Who determines when the body is to be moved?

Answer 203

A coroner will determine when a body is to be moved.

Question 204

In relation to death investigations, a SOCO can attend scenes at the discretion of who?

Answer 204

The officer in charge – FIS

Question 205

A SOCO can not be assigned to?

Answer 205

– Sudden unexpected death of a child
– death of a child under five
– a suspicious death or suspected Homicide

Question 206

When death occurs on TTC property who can photograph this scene?

Answer 206

FIS or SOCO (with approval from FIS)

Question 207

When would you request FIS to fingerprint a deceased person?

Answer 207

– Outstanding criminal warrants exist
– active criminal record is found
– identification of the deceased is in question

Question 208

If a death occurs in a bathtub, what should you do?

Answer 208

You should make good notes on the position of the body, the water temperature, water stopper engaged etc.

Question 209

Do you need to wait for a divisional Detective prior to the removal of a body from a scene a TTC location?

Answer 209

No, unless otherwise directed, there is no need to await a divisional Detective prior to removal of a body from a seed at a TTC location

Question 210

Can you place medications in the bag with a body?

Answer 210

Medications should not be sent in the bag with a body.

Question 211

At a scene of an attempt suicide by gunshot, Shall ?

Answer 211

Make notes on the condition of the firearm, including the position of the action, safety and any ammo

Question 212

What should you do when investigating a death by hanging?

Answer 212

Remove the person in such a manner as to maintain the knot

Question 213

A death investigation involving consumer products who should you notify?

Answer 213

Health Canada – consumer product safety

Question 214

If a corner has ordered an autopsy when should you not search the pockets of the deceased for drugs or drug paraphernalia?

Answer 214

If the corner has ordered an autopsy, search the pockets of the deceased for drugs or drug paraphernalia, unless death is criminally suspicious or suspected Homicide

Question 215

When do you not seize valuables? 

Answer 215

If the next of kin is on scene, do not seize valuables.
If the next of kin is not on scene, seize valuables

Question 216

The Coroner should always be given the contact information of who?

Answer 216

The Coroner should always be given the contact info of the investigator in the event of follow up/new info

Question 217

When should you treat a death as suspicious?

Answer 217

– Death of a child under five
– sudden and unexpected death of a child (under 18)
– a suspicious death or Homicide
– found human remains
– obvious or suspect foul play
– any other suspicious circumstance

Question 218

What should you consider Landed immigrants?

Answer 218

Landed immigrants should be considered as foreign nationals as they remain citizens of the country from which they emigrated

Question 219

Death because of a motor vehicle collision shall be the responsibility of who?

Answer 219

TSV supervisor

Question 220

Who’s responsibility is it to notify the next of kin in relation to a homicide death?

Answer 220

Homicide Detective will notify the next of kin 

Question 221

True or false
Preliminary police report completed for any unnatural sudden death of child under five where coroner requests it?

Answer 221

True

Question 222

The initial report is automatically E transferred to the office of the chief Coroner. Any requests from the office of the chief coroner for additional information must be made and approved for release by?

Answer 222

Homicide and missing persons

Question 223

The supervisory officer, in relation to death investigations, shall ensure the attendance of?

Answer 223

– A divisional Det.
– the Coroner
– a FIS investigator

Question 224

Bodies should always be transported and stored how?

Answer 224

Bodies should always be transported and stored in the supine position pending post Mortem examination

Question 225

Undue subway delays can cause? 

Answer 225

Undue subway delays can cause safety concerns and a tremendous inconvenience to the TTC in the public

Question 226

Fentanyl is a powerful synthetic opioid that is highly toxic and potentially lethal in small doses. As it may be skin permeable, proper handling of suspected fentanyl is?

Answer 226

Essential to minimizing potential health risks for members.

Question 227

If the deceased person is or appears to be of aboriginal ancestry who can you contact?

Answer 227

Contact the community partnerships and engagement unit – aboriginal peacekeeping section.
Additional assistance can be obtained from members of first nations across Canada or from social agencies dealing with aboriginal issues

Question 228

How will the T.P.S treat each missing person occurrence ?

Answer 228

Each missing person occurrence reported to the T.P.S will be treated as an investigation.

Question 229

In relation to missing persons is a supervisor notification minatory?

Answer 229

Supervisor notification is mandatory for all missing person calls.

Question 230

In relation to missing persons, when is a supervisor/investigator attendance mandatory?

Answer 230

Supervisor/investigator attendance is mandatory for level 2 and 3 searches

Question 231

In relation to death investigations, who is responsible the appropriate notifications are made?

Answer 231

The divisional detective

Question 232

When suspicious circumstances exist who shall the divisional Detective consult with? 

Answer 232

The divisional Detective shall consult with Homicide prior to leaving the scene

Question 233

When in receipt of a request to release a suicide note to the next of kin, the divisional Detective shall consult with?

Answer 233

Records management – RMS

Question 234

As a divisional Detective , when notified of an unnatural sudden death shall confer with the attending coroner and obtain a copy of?

Answer 234

The corners warrant. Also preliminary police report for unnatural sudden death where the corner has ordered an autopsy

Question 235

When shall FIS attend a death investigation?

Answer 235

FIS shall attend the scene and autopsy of sudden unexpected death of a child under 18

Question 236

When an officer cannot locate or contact the next of kin, in a death investigation, what shall they do?

Answer 236

Notify the supervisory officer, if you can’t, notify Detective , if can’t notify the D./Sgt.

Question 237

Found human remains are classified as?

Answer 237

Unnatural sudden death

Question 238

A missing person occurrence is where the following circumstances exist:

Answer 238

– The persons whereabouts are unknown and
– the person has not been in contact with a person they usually would be
– it is reasonable based on the circumstances to fear for the person safety

Question 239

How many levels of investigative response are there to a missing person case?

Answer 239

There are three levels of investigated response

Question 240

What are the forms for assessing risk in a missing person investigation?

Answer 240

T.P.S -260 & 260A

Question 241

True or false
All missing person cases where foul play is a strong possibility meet the criteria for major case management 

Answer 241

True

Question 242

When did the missing person act come into effect?

Answer 242

The missing person act came into effect on July 1, 2019

Question 243

Can you collect DNA in relation to a missing person?

Answer 243

DNA from a missing person must be collected ASAP and can be obtained from saliva, blood, skin cells, or sweat.
To use their DNA as an investigative tool, consent must be given by a family member

Question 244

What does NMPDP stand for?

Answer 244

National missing person DNA program

Question 245

What does NCMPUR stand for?

Answer 245

Missing person & unidentified remains

Question 246

What does NDDB stand for?

Answer 246

National DNA databank 

Question 247

How shall level 2 and 3 searches be conducted?

Answer 247

Level 2 and 3 searches shall be conducted using the incident management system – IMS

Question 248

Who will issue a BOLO after the missing person report is submitted?

Answer 248

Records management – RMS

Question 249

True or false
A missing person can be added to CPIC by calling RMS prior to the report being submitted

Answer 249

True

Question 250

Under no circumstances will a missing person report be entered as?

Answer 250

An incident

Question 251

When a person is reported missing by a reportee in person at a division, the reportee shall not?

Answer 251

The reportee shall not be directed to attend a different division

Question 252

When a person is reported missing by a reportee over the phone, the member receiving the call can?

Answer 252

The member receiving the call can forward the reportee to communications

Question 253

If the missing person is under the age of 16 in the circumstances warrant it, what can an officer do?

Answer 253

The officer can apply for a child apprehension warrant under the child, youth and family services act.

Question 254

If a missing person case is international in nature where immediate concern for public safety or high risk traveling officers shall notify who?

Answer 254

Intel - Security section.

Question 255

A missing person level 1 search should consist of a _____ meter search of the immediate area of the place last seen, if known.

Answer 255

300

Question 256

True or false
The investigator shall complete the RCMP form A01& A02 as well as Form 5&6 Missing Person Act

Answer 256

True

Question 257

The divisional box search applies to?

Answer 257

Level 2 & 3 searches

Question 258

Parental abduction involves a child under, what age?

Answer 258

14 yrs

Question 259

What guidelines must be met for an amber alert?

Answer 259

– Investigator believes a child under 18 has been
abducted
– investigator believes the child is in danger
– there exists information about one or more of the
following:
*Child
*Abductor
*Vehicle
– to believe an immediate broadcast will help locate the
child

Question 260

What is the duration of an amber alert?

Answer 260

An amber alert shall have a duration of five (5) hours following activation

Question 261

How is an amber alert initiated by the Toronto Police?

Answer 261

The duty senior officer - TPOC - will contact chief or designate and decide if Amber alert will be initiated. If approved, the duty senior officer will contact TPOC to initiate the alert.

The amber alert request is then sent to the OPP via fax or email.

Question 262

Missing person search – level 1

Answer 262

– Level of search implemented when there are minimal concerns

Question 263

Missing person search – level 2

Answer 263

– Under 16 years old and not likely to be able to care for
themselves
– mentally challenged
– over 65 years old
– evidence of foul play

Question 264

Missing person search – level 3

Answer 264

– When a level 1 or 2 search has been deemed ineffective and extenuating circumstances necessitates this level to be initiated

Question 265

A missing person investigation after 30 days becomes?

Answer 265

A major case

Question 266

In cases of foul play or unusual circumstances, the collection of DNA will be conducted under the direction of?

Answer 266

FIS

Question 267

A citizen requesting information on a missing person shall be directed to who?

Answer 267

The OIC – who will determine the release of information

Question 268

When did the missing person act come into effect?

Answer 268

July 1, 2019

Question 269

True or false
MPU: coordinates, manages and reports on the use of urgent demands for records

Answer 269

True

Question 270

Who is responsible for the divisional resource checklist?

Answer 270

The unit commander is responsible for the divisional resource checklist

Question 271

Amber alerts will be considered in all missing children investigations, and ____________________________ shall be implemented in all cases involving amber alert activations

Answer 271

Major case management

Question 272

Missing person scenario
Reportee outside of Toronto, missing person not a resident of Toronto, area person is missing from is unknown, who investigates?

Answer 272

Officer in charge-TPOC to determine who investigates

Question 273

Who investigates, if a Toronto resident is reported missing to an outside police agency?

Answer 273

D/S of Division missing person resides in shall assign an investigator to coordinate. Once outside agency completes their investigation, the TPS will take responsibility for the investigation.

Question 274

Missing persons, international in nature with immediate safety concerns, Intel shall be called. All other investigations with immediate safety concerns?

Answer 274

The missing person unit shall be called

Question 275

The first officer will provide the phone number for the
D/S to?

Answer 275

the reportee – division where missing person resides

Question 276

The __________ Will ensure on going communication with the OIC of any other Division involved in missing person investigations?

Answer 276

D/Sgt

Question 277

Missing persons – when is a form 6MPA required simultaneously with a form 5MPA?

Answer 277

Level two search – divisional investigator – exigent circumstances

Question 278

True or false
Divisional Detective to provide notice to any person whose records were obtained pursuant to urgent demand – notice can be provided verbally, has to provide written when requested by person

Answer 278

True

Question 279

If the missing person is under 16 years of age, the OIC will ensure who is contacted as soon as practicable?

Answer 279

The officer in charge will ensure the principal is contacted as soon as practicable in cases of a missing person under 16

Question 280

Missing person – level 3
Who does the OIC notify?

Answer 280

– Unit commander
- duty senior officer via TPOC
– MPU

Question 281

The senior duty officer during a missing person case/investigation will?

Answer 281

Ensure sufficient resources and converse with the applicable deputy chief (advised and consult a level of search)
– Notify search manager
– assign incident commander from Division
– request TPOC contact auxiliary program

Question 282

EMPU will help with the search, but the overall responsibility for the search and investigation for missing persons is?

Answer 282

Remains with the Division

Question 283

For missing persons, the command post should be established where?

Answer 283

The supervisory officer shall attend the scene and establish a command post at a location other than the place last seen or the missing persons home. 

Question 284

Outside of business hours who can you contact for the assistance with posting missing persons bulletins to push pin?

Answer 284

TPOC and communications is notified immediately so that an alert may be broadcast notifying all members regarding the pushpin posting

Question 285

With the missing person is not located within 30 days of being reported missing and there is no new evidence at the discretion of the detective sergeant the RCMP1667 (dentist characteristic file) maybe be completed before the ____ day period has passed. 

Answer 285

30 day

Question 286

Can you disclose the location of an adult missing person without their approval?

Answer 286

No, do not disclose the location of an adult missing person without their approval

Question 287

Upon confirmation that the missing person has been located who shall ensure that postings are removed from pushpin?

Answer 287

The unit crime analyst

Question 288

What does NCMPUR stand for?

Answer 288

National Center for missing persons and unidentified remains

Question 289

What does NMCO stand for?

Answer 289

National missing children’s operations

Question 290

What does EM&PO stand for?

Answer 290

Emergency Management & Public order

Question 291

Who is responsible for coordinating a level three search for a missing person?

Answer 291

The search management team – EMPO, supported by the requesting division.
The search manager is the officer in charge – EMPO 

Question 292

Regulated interactions are governed by?

Answer 292

Ontario regulation 58/16

Question 293

What is Section 9 of the Charter of rights?

Answer 293

Protects against arbitrary detention

Question 294

What is section 15 of the Canadian charter of rights?

Answer 294

Equal treatment under the law

Question 295

What does section 1 of the Ontario human rights code speak to?

Answer 295

Freedom from discrimination

Question 296

All historical data shall be classified as restricted in regards to regulated interactions as of when?

Answer 296

January 1, 2017

Question 297

If required to access restricted records what does an officer need to do?

Answer 297

The officer shall submit approval to their unit commander who then seeks the chief or designate approval.(Deputy chief or staff super - Det. operations)

Question 298

True or false
A request for historical regulated interactions can only be made for a more serious investigation or matter (Missing person, abductions etc.)

Answer 298

True

Question 299

A regulated interaction report is required in all instances where and attempt to collect identifying information is made, whether or not identifying information is collected. The report must include the officers perception of the individuals what?

Answer 299

The individuals sex, age, and racialized group, but recording name information is not mandatory.

Question 300

A police officer _______ be able to articulate the reasons why a T.P.S 308 was not offered and/or provided, including details related to the particular circumstances in relation to Regulated interactions

Answer 300

Must

Question 301

The ___________ and _________ of any assisting police officer or supervisor who is present at or assist in conducting the regulated interaction shall be included all the T.P.S 308

Answer 301

Name and badge number

Question 302

R. vs. Stinchcombe relates to?

Answer 302

Disclosure obligations

Question 303

True or false
Police officer shall not attempt to collect info, if any part of the reason is officer perceives individual to be within a particular race. If there is additional info then OK, however additional info may not consist of sex or age or both

Answer 303

True

Question 304

All regulated interactions are done in an __________way unless the officer can articulate otherwise

Answer 304

Arbitrary way

Question 305

How does a police officer request restricted data, in relation to regulated interactions?

Answer 305

OIC to chief or designate deputy, in exigent circumstances through OIC to deputy senior officer to staff/super - Det. operations.

Question 306

Shall not use any historical data as a basis for classifying an individual as?

Answer 306

Known to police

Question 307

Controller – regulated interactions means

Answer 307

The member of the service, designated by the chief of police who assesses procedural compliance of regulating interaction reports.
The controller – regulated interaction reports is also responsible for preparing a report to the unit commander of the Toronto Police college every three (3) months that outlines the results of all reviews undertaken specific to Regulated interactions

Question 308

Death in police custody
Supervisory officer attendance is mandatory and will request who?

Answer 308

Homicide, FIS and the Coroner

Question 309

Death in police custody
Who does the supervisory officer notify?

Answer 309

The supervisory officer shall notify the officer in charge – TPOC

Question 310

Whenever an in- custody death occurs what is invoked?

Answer 310

The special investigation unit mandate

Question 311

When there is a death in police custody who will conduct parallel investigations?

Answer 311

The SIU and Det. operations – Homicide

The SIU and FIS run parallel forensic investigations when there is a death in police custody.

Question 312

True or false
Wait for the SIU before evidence collection?

Answer 312

True

The SIU and FIS run parallel forensic investigations when there is a death in police custody

Question 313

What is the SIU Mandate?

Answer 313

– The death of any person
– serious injury of any person
– discharge of a firearm at a person
– sexual assault of a person, as reported by the person

Question 314

The SIU Director may cause an investigation to be conducted if, at the time of the incident:

Answer 314

– The officer was on duty, or
– the officer was off duty, but
*Exercise Powers and/or identified themselves as a police officer when involved in an investigation, pursued, detention, or arrest of a person (Includes police officer, special constable, peace officer or other prescribed a person) whether or not the official intended to exercise such Powers
* Used issued equipment


Question 315

As the officer in charge, in relation to a death in police custody shall?

Answer 315

Ensure the attendance of Homicide, FIS, and the Coroner.
Ensure that the OIC - TPOC was notified
Notify the unit commander

Question 316

In relation to a death in police custody, the OIC -TPOC will notify?

Answer 316

The SIU on call designate and the appropriate deputy

Question 317

Intelligence led policing consists of?

Answer 317

Crime management
Disorder resolution
Problem oriented policing
Targeted policing
Directed patrol 

Question 318

Community policing is an operational philosophy requiring?

Answer 318

Local police – community partnerships that prioritize and solve problems in order to enhance safety, prevent crime, maintain order and enforce the law

Question 319

True or false
A problem can be identified by either the public or the police

Answer 319

True

Question 320

What are the four (4) key steps in establishing the crime management process at the divisional level?

Answer 320

1) Long-term strategic planning
2) Short term/daily planning
3) Integrated rules for divisional CPLC’s
4) Targeted debriefing of all prisoners

Question 321

Divisional Crime management
The unit commander must designate a?

Answer 321

Crime manager
The crime manager should be a minimum of a detective sergeant and if the Division only has one detective sergeant he/she should be absolved of administrative responsibilities

Question 322

The divisional crime management team must meet a minimum of?

Answer 322

Quarterly starting at the first of the year to establish the crime priorities and strategies of the unit

Question 323

Principal members of the crime management team will meet?

Answer 323

Regularly

Question 324

Who will provide the profile sheet and appropriate additional data to the crime management team who will review, measure and evaluate strategies?

Answer 324

The divisional crime analyst

Question 325

In relation to divisional crime management, the detective sergeant shall ensure?

Answer 325

Debriefing of all prisoners happens – apart from investigative interview
Info from debrief may be subject to disclosure

Question 326

Order maintenance means

Answer 326

The act of upholding community standards, using both informal community activities in law-enforcement to create a safer environment and an improved quality of life

Question 327

The duties of a police officer are set out in the police services act S. 42(1), they are

Answer 327

– Preserve the peace
– prevent crimes and other offenses and offered
encouragement to person in their prevention
– assist victims of crime
– apprehending criminals and other offenders who may
be lawfully taken into custody
– Laying charges and assisting in prosecutions
– executing warrants
– perform lawful duties assigned by the Chief of police

Question 328

Source management
A supervisor notification is mandatory when?

Answer 328

– Consider establishing a relationship with a source
– prior to meeting a source
– after meeting or communicating with a source
– after learning the safety of a source may have been
compromised

Question 329

Sources/informants have a legitimate place in law enforcement, and it has long been recognized that they are one of the most__________________ means of obtaining information. The proper management of sources is a key component of risk management.

Answer 329

cost effective

Question 330

Source management notification is mandatory when?

Answer 330

– Prior to using any information from a source who is being used for the first time
– prior to using any source information obtained from a source who is under 18 years old

Question 331

Level two sources are designated by the controller it should only be managed by?

Answer 331

Level two handlers

Question 332

Source payments shall only be dispersed by?

Answer 332

A member of source Management (CO-SMS)

Question 333

Crown letters on behalf of a source shall only be provided by?

Answer 333

The unit commander – intelligence services

Question 334

A source is an asset of the service it is not the exclusive asset of any? 

Answer 334

One police officer

Question 335

As a supervisor when notified by an officer of an intended meet with a source shall?

Answer 335

– Make notes on a date, time and location of meat
– primary and secondary officers name and badge meeting source
– confidential source number, if known
if source compromise notify controller in unit commander
**Notify your D/Sgt**

Question 336

If the source requests advice regarding taxation for money received from this service, they shall be advised that Finacial awards from the service are considered?

Answer 336

Taxable income
However since the source is not a Service employee, T4 slips will not be issued

Question 337

Caution shall be used when dealing with sources who are?

Answer 337

– Facing criminal charges
– subject to any stage of an immigration inquiry
– subject to a parole or probation order

Question 338

All requests regarding information on the identity of a source shall be referred to?

Answer 338

Intelligence services (CO-SMS) by email 

Question 339

A sources identity is privileged and shall not be disclosed to anyone other than a ______________________ without their sources consent

Answer 339

sworn police officer

Question 340

When a charge is lead in a matter where information from a source is involved, the case manager shall notify__________ in writing as soon as practicable.

Answer 340

CO-SMS

Question 341

Confidentiality commences immediately after?

Answer 341

The first officer undertakes that the information provided will be kept confidential, whether or not the source is later formally registered with CO – SMS

Question 342

A police officer when communicating with a source shall not use a source as an agent without?

Answer 342

Prior approval of the unit commander – INT

Question 343

Willhand written reports be accepted by CO – SMS?

Answer 343

Handwritten reports shall not be accepted by CO – SMS and shall be returned to the officers unit commander for action

Question 344

Is the ID of an agent subject to disclosure?

Answer 344

The ID of an agent is subject to disclosure

Question 345

True or false
When multiple communications or meetings occur within the same day all incidents may be recorded on a single T.P.S 276 or T.P.S 277. A single notification to the supervisory officer is sufficient

Answer 345

True

Question 346

Confidential source – level 2 means

Answer 346

– A source under the age of 18 (young person), or
– a source who is information could be considered
– multi – jurisdictional
– may affect national security
– involves organize crime
– is beyond the resources or the source – handling abilities of the officers involved
– at the discretion of the controller
**Unless otherwise approved by the controller, a confidential source – level 2 shall be managed by a handler – level 2

Question 347

True or false
Level 2 handler also develops in managers agents on behalf of the service

Answer 347

True

Question 348

For a preliminary homicide investigation whose attendance is mandatory?

Answer 348

A supervisor and a divisional Detective 

The notification to the officer in charge and the unit commander is mandatory as well 

Question 349

Homicide mandate is?

Answer 349

– Homicide occurring in the city of Toronto
– lead investigation for all criminal acts which result in
serious bodily harm or life-threatening injuries to a
police officer while on duty
– support field officers in suspicious death investigations – lead the investigation of a death in police custody that
does not involve the discharge of a service firearm
– provide investigative support to the Coroner in the
investigation of a death in police custody

Question 350

Every sudden or unexpected death of a child under 18 shall be treated as?

Answer 350

Every sudden and unexpected death of a child under 18 shall be treated as suspicious and Homicide on-call team shall be consulted by the attending division of Detective 

Question 351

Who shall be consulted by the attending divisional Detective in an investigation involving a sudden or unexpected death of a child under 16?

Answer 351

The CYAC

Question 352

An investigator, or designate shall physically attend the morgue and be present when a deceased is identified when?

Answer 352

– Homicide or suspected Homicide
– cases where investigator has requested the presence
of another officer
– cases where an inquest is likely
– when the coroner deems it necessary

Question 353

The first officer on scene of a suspicious death or Homicide Shall request the attendance of?

Answer 353

– supervisor
– divisional Det.
– Coroner
– FIS

Question 354

A preliminary police report shall be completed, in addition to the applicable report, for any death of a child under five years old and forwarded to?

Answer 354

The coroner 

Question 355

As a supervisor, when advised of a sudden or unexpected death of a child under 18 shall?

Answer 355

Treat the death as suspicious and notify the CYAC if the child is under 16 years of age

Question 356

A child is under the age of ____ and an infant is under the age of___?

Answer 356

A child is under the age of 18 and an infant is under the age of 1

Question 357

When an autopsy is ordered as a result of a suicide or accident where the only witness is in intimate partner, the autopsy is to be performed by?

Answer 357

Regional coroners pathologist who currently preforms Homicide autopsies – the autopsy is to be conducted as if suspicious circumstances

Question 358

In relation to a death of a child under 16, the divisional Det. will consult with?

Answer 358

The CYAC prior to leaving the scene or conducting interviews with caregivers, etc.
CYAC is available from 0730 to 2200 and after hours through TPOC

Question 359

PDRC stands for?

Answer 359

Pediatric death review committee

Question 360

The pediatric death review committee is composed of two sections, they are?

Answer 360

PDRC – child welfare and PDRC – medical

Question 361

The PDRC – child welfare panel includes?

Answer 361

Police officers, Crown attorneys, senior staff from the office of the chief Coroner and representatives from child welfare organizations across the province and is chaired by the Regional chief Coroner for the province of Ontario

Question 362

PDRC – child welfare must review all cases of deaths involving children and youth when the child, the youth or their family was receiving, or had received, the services of a Children’s aid Society (CAS) or indigenous child wellbeing society within _____ months of the death.

Answer 362

12 months

Question 363

PDRC – medical reviews the deaths of children where issues or concerns pertaining to the medical diagnosis or provision of care have been identified. These cases are done on a discretionary basis and are referred by?

Answer 363

The relevant regional supervising Coroner

Question 364

The PDRC - medical panel includes?

Answer 364

Pediatric expert, forensic pathologists, senior staff from the office of the chief Coroner and is also chaired by the Regional chief Coroner for the province of Ontario

Question 365

The investigation questionnaire for sudden unexpected death in infants was developed by the office of the chief Coroner and is completed by the coroner, except where the death of an infant is confirmed homicide in which case it will be completed by?

Answer 365

Police

Question 366

The initial officer report is automatically E-transferred to the office of the chief Coroner. Any requests from the office of the chief Coroner for additional information must be made in approved for release by?

Answer 366

Homicide and Missing persons

Question 367

The preliminary police report is to be completed for death of a child under five and forwarded to the Coroner prior to?

Answer 367

Post Mortem

Question 368

True or false
On- call Homicide will determine if attending the scene

Answer 368

True

Question 369

In the absence of homicide detectives who will take charge of the scene?

Answer 369

The FIS investigator.

Question 370

True or false
An FIS investigator shall attend the scene in autopsy when a sudden unexpected death of a child under 18 occurs?

Answer 370

True

Question 371

SIDS means

Answer 371

Sudden infant death syndrome for child under 1 that remains unexplained after a thorough investigation in autopsy

Question 372

Sudden unexplained death includes

Answer 372

SIDS, accidental injury, and non-accidental, due to neglect, abuse or other reasons. Where there is significant concern regarding any part of the death investigation, cause shall be classified as SUD. 

Question 373

Hold up squad is notified immediately for all robberies involving?

Answer 373

– Financial institutions
– armored cars
– retail businesses
– home invasions committed with firearms or offensive
weapons
– money deposits and
– carjackings committed with firearms or offensive
weapons

Question 374

True or false
The unit commander – HUS may, upon conclusion of the preliminary investigation, at their discretion, take charge of any robbery investigation

Answer 374

True

Question 375

If in attendance, it is the responsibility of ______ to seize all hold up notes

Answer 375

HUS officers
Detective from HUS Will seize, and hand deliver any hold up note to FIS – documents 

Question 376

Police officer will notify?

Answer 376

The supervisory office, Divisional Detective and Hold Up Squad in relation to hold up.
If the holdup is in progress the first officer will notify communications who will notify the officer in charge and the ETF

Question 377

If in attendance it is the responsibility of _________to seize all surveillance recordings

Answer 377

HUS

Question 378

When each US officers are not available, the officer will sees surveillance recordings if available in hand deliver the surveillance recording to the front desk at ___________________and place it in the HUS video evidence dropbox

Answer 378

33 Division

Question 379

The Toronto Police service recognizes that intimate partner violence is a serious_______________ and is not limited or restricted by marital status, sexual orientation, occupation, vulnerability, age or gender.

Answer 379

Social problem

Question 380

The service views intimate partner violence as?

Answer 380

A preventable crime

Question 381

The goal of the service is to reduce the incidence of intimate partner violence and homicide in the community through?

Answer 381

Education and enforcement

Question 382

Intimate partner violence
Supervisor attendance is mandatory for?

Answer 382

*** All domestic violence calls (public or police involved –
attend all)
– When the suspect/accused/victim is a member of the T.P.S
– When a suspect/accused is the member of another police service

Question 383

Intimate partner violence and intimate partner incident calls for service shall be treated with the same priority as?

Answer 383

Other life-threatening calls

Question 384

When a person attends a division to report an intimate partner violence or intimate partner incident, The division receiving the complaint shall be responsible for the initial investigation and submission of the report. Contact the division where the offense occurred in for the follow up investigation.
At no time shall a reportee be?

Answer 384

At no time shall a reportee be redirected to attend a different unit or location to report intimate partner violence or an incident

Question 385

What does DVRM mean?

Answer 385

Domestic violence risk assessment

Question 386

What does ODARA mean?

Answer 386

Ontario domestic assault risk assessment

Question 387

True or false
A domestic violence risk assessment and Ontario domestic assault risk assessment shall be completed and available for the bail hearing

Answer 387

True

Question 388

What is the minimum of officers that shall be dispatched to an intimate partner violence call?

Answer 388

Two officers

Question 389

Ontario domestic assault risk assessment training is provided by?

Answer 389

Waypoint health center

Question 390

Intimate partner investigators shall take the lead role in all intimate partner violence investigations except?

Answer 390

– Involves sexual assault, work in consultation with an accredited sexual assault investigator
– involves death, Homicide advised and takes over
– cases where major case management criteria met
– involves a young person, work in consultation with a youth investigator

** The DVI Takes lead in cases involving sexual assaults and youth but works in consultation with the investigators from sex crimes and youth investigator 

Question 391

Victims that witnesses of crime shall not be asked their __________________________, unless there are bona fide reasons to do so.

Answer 391

Immigration status

Question 392

Where an intimate partner violence occurs in the city of Toronto and the suspect/accused is a member of the T.P.S who shall be notified and assume the role as case manager?

Answer 392

PRS

The unit commander or duty senior officer shall contact PRS

Question 393

When developing a safety plan for a victim who can you consult with?

Answer 393

Sex crimes – behavioral assessment section to assist the victim

Question 394

True or false
DVRM/ODARA to be completed by accredited DVI who has had the training. An uncooperative victim does not preclude from doing the report as other sources of information are available.

Answer 394

True

Question 395

In relation to intimate partner violence, with the suspect/accused is from another police service, notification is done by?

Answer 395

The unit commander of the Division or the Duty senior officer will notify the duty senior officer of that service where the suspect/accused is from

Question 396

Who is designated as the service liaison with a T.P.S officer is involved in an intimate partner violence outside of Toronto?

Answer 396

PRS

Question 397

When a T.P.S officer is involved in Intimate partner violence outside of Canada is treated as allegations of?

Answer 397

Intimate partner violence outside of Canada is treated as allegations of describable conduct

Question 398

Internal injuries may cause death within ____ hours if not treated

Answer 398

72 hrs

Question 399

The sexual assault/domestic violence care center (SA/ DVCCs) at Womens College Hospital Sexual Assault Care Centre and intimate partner violence services to persons who are over the age of ____and who have been sexually assaulted within the last _____ days and/or are experiencing intimate partner violence

Answer 399

Over the age of 14
Sexually assaulted within the last 30 days

Question 400

Women’s college hospital has seven mobile emergency department sites they are located?

Answer 400

– Mount Sinai
– Toronto General Hospital
– Toronto Western Hospital
– Michael Garron Hospital
– St Josephs health Center
– Sunnybrook health sciences center
– St Michaels hospital

Question 401

 Multilingual Community interpreter services will provide free interpretation services to the service during the investigation of all sexual, intimate partner violence and human trafficking related occurrences.-MCIS interpreters will provide their services to all involved parties, Including the accused up until?

Answer 401

The time that a formal charge has been laid (an information has been sworn to before a justice of the peace)

Question 402

Victims may sustain internal or external injuries, which are not immediately apparent. If injuries are not visible at the time of the investigation, consideration should be given to for photographing the injuries after a?

Answer 402

48 to 72 hour period 

Question 403

Cases involving high-risk offenders may be referred to?

Answer 403

Domestic violence high risk review team at the courthouse by the Detective sergeant

Also consider using physical surveillance for high-risk offenders

Question 404

Victim quick response program is for?

Answer 404

Financial assistance to victims of serious crime

Question 405

The victim/witness assistance program begins and ends when?

Answer 405

The service begins once charges are laid it continues until the court case is concluded

Question 406

The ____________________ when in charge of a divisional Detective office Shall ensure a minimum of one intimate partner violence investigator accredited Det. is assigned to oversee all intimate partner violence investigations in the division

Answer 406

Detective sergeant

Question 407

The written revocable concert program pertains to?

Answer 407

Intimate partner violence assault cases only in addresses the issue of WRC attached to a reconnaissance of the bail or a bail variation.
To qualify, the accused must be eligible for entry into “early intervention” court in the “partner assault response” program

Question 408

The written revocable consent (WRC) program is designed to?

Answer 408

To provide intimate partner violence victims with information about informed consent and to reduce the number of recurrences of consent being revoked and reinstated prior to the charges be concluded at court.

Question 409

In relation to a sexual assault whose attendance is mandatory?

Answer 409

Supervisor and divisional Detective (Sexual assault investigator)

Question 410

The preliminary investigation must be done first before?

Answer 410

Sex crimes is requested.
Only the officer in charge, the divisional sexual assault investigator, or in their absence divisional investigator may request the assistance of sex crimes through TPOC

Question 411

The divisional sexual assault investigator shall attend where?

Answer 411

They shall attend the scene, attend where the victim is located or attend any additional location deemed necessary.

Question 412

Sexual assault, including sexual interference, and attempted sexual assault, sexual exploitation and invitation to sexual touching are all defined as?

Answer 412

Major cases

Question 413

Divisional sexual assault investigator assigned lead in the following circumstances

Answer 413

– Victim under 16, child abuse investigator shall conduct the investigation
– domestic situation, DVI takes lead but will consult with sexual assault investigator
– when the incident involved child pornography or child luring, child exploitation unit contacted and will take over
– when human trafficking involved, Human trafficking unit will be notified

Question 414

Sex crimes notified for?

Answer 414

– Unknown offender(s)
– ongoing risk to community
– sexual assault cause bodily harm or with a weapon
– multiple victims or multiple suspects
– incident involves multiple sexual acts
– offender records the offense in any manner
– Offender keeps or removes any personal items from the victim
– offender uses scripting by having the victim recite dialogue
– offender uses cons or rouses or lure the victim
– linked to another case

Question 415

Who will conduct a victim interview in relation to a sexual assault?

Answer 415

Only an accredited sexual assault investigator

Question 416

Where there are allegations of a sexual assault when the suspect/accuse is a member of the T.P.S?

Answer 416

Sex crimes conducts the initial investigation, then the unit commander of sex crimes will notify PRS

Question 417

CYAC will investigate child sexual and physical abuse cases where?

Answer 417

– Physical assaults, emotional abuse, or neglect where the victim is under 16 and the suspect is a caregiver, parent or person in a position of trust or authority
– physical assaults where the victim is under 16 in the suspect is a known adult
– sexual offenses where the victim is under 18 where the suspect is known but outside of sex crimes mandate
– Occurrences entitled child in need of protection or child left unattended
CYAC notified of any sudden or unexpected death of a child under 16

Question 418

Women’s college SACC operates under the ___________ mandate in Shall be contacted for all sexual assault Victim where the offense occurred within the previous 12 days.

Note: There is no longer an emergency department at Womens college. Must called before attending.

Answer 418

Acute mandate.

Question 419

VICLAS stands for?

Answer 419

Violent crime linkage analysis system

Question 420

What are the sexual assault/domestic violence care centers and the age restrictions?

Answer 420

Scarborough hospital - 12 years and older
Sick Kids Hospital- 18 years
Women’s college hospital -14 years and older
Trillium health center- any age

Question 421

In relation to sexual assault, when the victim(s) is under the age of 18 years in the offender(s) is unknown contact?

Answer 421

Sex crimes investigative section

Question 422

All submissions to the center of forensics sciences are now made through the__________________________

Answer 422

CFS evidence web – submission system

Question 423

Where a report is made within______hrs to _________days of the incident, shall advise the victim of the importance of attending a hospital with an SA/DVCC for the purposes of medical evaluation as well as the gathering of potential forensics evidence.

Answer 423

72 hours to 12 days

The investigator may still consider encouraging the victim to attend the SE/DVCC for the purposes of medical treatment even if beyond 12 days of the incident.

Question 424

Child abuse
Who’ s attendance is mandatory for child sexual or physical abuse?

Answer 424

Supervisory officer attendance is mandatory

Question 425

When did Ontario increase the age of protection to include all children under the age of 18?

Answer 425

January 1, 2018

Children who are 16 or 17 years old, who believe they are in need of protection may be eligible to enter into the new voluntary youth services agreement.

Question 426

Forensics evidence can be gathered for up to ____days following incident if suspected penile penetration of vagina

Answer 426

12 days
Note: the Supreme Court of Canada has ruled obtaining a penile swab incident to arrest, where reasonable grounds exist and if conducted in a reasonable manner, would not constitute a charter breach, it would therefore be lawful as a search incident to arrest. When an arrest is made consider contacting FIS to obtain a penile swab from the accused
72 hour threshold for under 12
12 day threshold for 12 to 18 years old

Question 427

In regards to a sexual assault if the offender is a school employee consideration must be given by the unit commander to contact the respective?

Answer 427

Director of education or designate

Question 428

Child means

Answer 428

Under 18 years old

Question 429

Hate crime/bias
Attendance and notifications?

Answer 429

Supervisory officer – mandatory notification and attendance
Divisional detective sergeant mandatory notification
Intelligence services – hate crime mandatory notification

Question 430

In cases involving bodily harm or property damage the officer in charge will notify?

Answer 430

Unit commander Intel – hate crime

Question 431

What is a hate/biased crime?

Answer 431

A criminal offense committed against a person or property that is motivated by hate

Question 432

What is hate propaganda?

Answer 432

Any communication that advocates or promotes genocide against any identifiable group or makes a statement.

Question 433

Although the investigation of hate/biased crime is the responsibility of the divisional Det. office who will provide assistance and expertise to all investigations and prosecutions for these crimes?

Answer 433

Intelligence – hate crime
Intelligence – hate crime will also complete the hate crime detail page or it’s equivalent and maintain the services information database of hate/crime occurrences to assist divisional analysts and investigators. They will also assist in developing public education programs in partnership with other members of the service in the community.

Question 434

What is one of the most effective ways of curtailing the incidence of graffiti?

Answer 434

One of the most effective ways of curtailing the incidence of graffiti is having it removed or covered over within 24 hours.

Note: the removal of graffiti from private property is the responsibility of the property holder.
Maintenance of public property is the responsibility of the respective government agency.

Question 435

Just need to know…

Answer 435

A fire arms interest police FIP entry will be auto generated from the the eReport entry and uploaded to CPIC. The FIP database in CPIC flags an individual applying for a firearms license who has committed, or threatened to commit, an active violence. Such a flag is not an automatic refusal to issue the license, but Assists in the initial screening process or subsequent review by Chief firearms officer.

Question 436

Generally, no single factor is sufficient to make a determination of what constitutes a heat/biased crime. It is often the result of cumulative information that supports such a finding. It is not enough to determine that the suspect was biased against the victim but rather that the __________ for the commission of the criminal act was hate or bias

Answer 436

Motivation

Question 437

In cases involving stalking, threatening or harassing behavior, and where there is an identifiable target And serious potential for violence, who should the case manager consult with?

Answer 437

The case manager should consult with the divisional detective sergeant regarding the consultation with Det. operations – sex crimes – behavioral assessment section

Question 438

As a supervisory officer being notified of an incident suspected to be a hate/crime shall request the attendance of?

Answer 438

Divisional Det. office, detective operations – forensic identification services, Intel – a crime in victim services Toronto

Question 439

Advocate genocide and willful promotion of hatred require the permission of who to proceed with the prosecution?

Answer 439

The attorney general.

Question 440

Does public incitement of hatred require the consent of the Attorney General?

Answer 440

Public incitement of hatred does not require the consent of the attorney general

Question 441

Intelligent services – hate crime will liaise with the Ministry Of the attorney general and advise the respective Det. office when a decision by the __________________________ has been made concerning the commencement of legal proceedings in cases of heat propaganda

Answer 441

Attorney general

Question 442

Good to know…

Answer 442

Supervisor attendance is mandatory when using authority under section 117 to search for firearms, ammo or explosives

Question 443

What is the primary consideration when conducting firearm investigations?

Answer 443

Officer safety

Question 444

Organized crime enforcement – integrated Gun & Gang task force is responsible for?

Answer 444

OCE – IGGTF -the identification and arrest of criminal government and the identification, arrest and dismantling of any gang, criminal organization or crime group.

Question 445

Firearms enforcement unit is mandated to?

Answer 445

FEU – is mandated to identify and take enforcement action against persons involved in the illegal movement of firearms, ammunition and explosives. This include The offenses of smuggling, trafficking and the possession of crime guns.

Question 446

Firearms enforcement unit – firearms investigation & analysis unit will?

Answer 446

FIAU – will streamline firearm investigations. Determine if firearms are criminal or non-criminal origins.

Examiners also provide expert testimony in court.
All fire arms, Ammunition, projectiles and casings are brought into the custody of the service will be screamed through the Det. at FIAU or their designate.

Question 447

All firearms and ammo seized during an investigation will either be?

Answer 447

– Seized by members of IGGTF if they attend the scene or the division
– submitted by divisional officer via DMLS
– seized by FIS
And forwarded to FIAU for testing and further investigation.

Question 448

Part III of the criminal code houses information on all available powers to search and seizure, with or without warrant relative to?

Answer 448

– Firearms
– firearm authorizations
– firearms permits
– fire arm licenses
– prohibited devices
– prohibited weapons
– restricted weapons
– explosive substances
– Ammo

Officers Shall seek Prohibition orders where there is an interest for public safety

Question 449

All firearms sumissions for testing shall be completed by?

Answer 449

Firearm investigation & analysis unit (FIAU) will prepare and submit to CFS

Question 450

All firearms submissions for testing shall be completed by?

Answer 450

Firearm investigation & analysis unit (FIAU) will prepare and submit to CFS

Question 451

Members at ________ can assist officers to obtain information as to whether the involved person possesses a firearm license, authorization, registration certificate or permit

Answer 451

Firearms investigation & analysis unit

Question 452

When is a fire arm Bail form completed?

Answer 452

When a person is arrested for firearm possession

Question 453

What units are to be notified by TPOC after a confirmed shooting?

Answer 453

– Intel
– IGGTF
– victim services
– PSRT

Question 454

No firearm shall be modified, cut or dismantled for the purpose of proving it safe, without authorization from?

Answer 454

The Det. at FIAU or designate

Question 455

Who made test fire weapons?

Answer 455

Only members at FIAU may test fire weapons

Question 456

Good to know……

Answer 456

When officers from specialized criminal investigations – FIS at 10 active crime scenes involving firearms, they will seize or receive all firearms, ammunition, casings and projectiles.
Members from FIS will turn the seized items over to the laboratory section of FIS for identification, testing and examination.
The seized items will then be forwarded to FIAU for further testing, analysis and investigation.
A CFS evidence web – submission will only be completed by the FIAU investigator and submitted with the seized items to CFS

Question 457

Explosives shall be handled by?

Answer 457

Emergency Management & public order – explosive disposal unit

Question 458

When will the FIAU investigator forward the firearms reports and certificate of analysis to the respective case manager?

Answer 458

The FIAU investigator will only forward the firearms reports and certificate of analysis to the respective case manager only upon request

Question 459

Upon notification of the report follow up for DNA/fingerprint identification and/or IBIS linkage, what shall the divisional/unit investigator do? 

Answer 459

Request the appropriate extension period In consultation with the detective sergeant if unable to follow up within 14 days.

Question 460

Who is certified to perform serial number restoration procedures?

Answer 460

FIS/FIAU Technicians.

Question 461

Who shall determine what form of testing on a firearm is required?

Answer 461

Only FIS/FIAU members In consultation with the investigating officer

Question 462

Good to know…

Answer 462

The detective sergeant – FEU will assume the lead in multijurisdictional investigations into firearms trafficking and/or smuggled firearms after consultation with the divisional investigator

Question 463

Illegally possessed firearm means

Answer 463

Any firearm that
– is not legally registered in Canada
– has been reported stolen
– is being unlawfully possessed
– is used in a crime
– is suspected to have been used in a crime

Question 464

Who will attend to debrief arrested persons in possession of/or firearm related offenses?

Answer 464

IGGTF
Organized crime enforcement – integrated gun and gang task force

Question 465

Who will attend to debrief known gang members?

Answer 465

IGGTF

Question 466

Elder and vulnerable adult abuse
Is a supervisory officer attendance mandatory?

Answer 466

Yes, supervisory officer attendance mandatory at scene of a complaint of abuse of an elderly or vulnerable adult. Officer in charge (in the absence of a supervisory officer) notification is mandatory at the scene

Question 467

Elder and vulnerable adult abuse
What is the goal of the service?

Answer 467

– Reduce the incidence of abuse of elderly and vulnerable adults through education and enforcement
– investigate all occurrences thoroughly and to bring offenders to justice wherever possible
– ensure the safety of victims through prompt action including referrals to other community partners

Question 468

Good to know…

Answer 468

All complaints of elder abuse or vulnerable adult shall be attended to in person by a police officer

Question 469

Elderly means

Answer 469

Anyone over the age of 65

Question 470

Elder in vulnerable abuse can include?

Answer 470

– Physical
– psychological
– sexual
– Finacial
– neglect 

Question 471

Vulnerable adult means

Answer 471

Person who by nature of physical, emotional, or psychological condition is dependent on someone else for care

Question 472

Good to know…

Answer 472

Victim services Toronto is able to provide access to a variety of community resources including the Advocacy Center for the Elderly, a community based legal clinic for low income senior citizens.

Question 473

Good to know… 

Answer 473

The crown and the victim witness assistance program at the court location should be advised of any known medical, physical or mental conditions of the victim so appropriate arrangements can be made for any required court appearance. Consider highlighting the Crown envelope so the Crown may consider seeking stiffer sentencing upon conviction.

Question 474

A child that has been abducted by a stranger is?

Answer 474

A child that has been abducted by a stranger is clearly a “child in need of protection” as defined in the child, youth and family services act.

Question 475

Who’s attendance is mandatory in relation to child abductions?

Answer 475

Supervisory officer attendance is mandatory
Divisional Det. attendance mandatory upon receiving a complaint of a possible abduction of a person under the age of 18.

Question 476

Good to know…

Answer 476

Police officers have the authority, on reasonable and probable grounds, to enter and search any premises without warrant, using force if necessary, to locate a child in need of protection whose health and safety is a substantial risk. A warrant must be obtained if there is no substantial risk to the child’s health and safety.

Question 477

The criminal code sets out the following 4 abduction – related offenses

Answer 477

Abduction of a person under 16 – non-parental
Abduction of a person under 14–9 parental
Abduction in contravention of/a custody order – parental
Abduction – parental

Question 478

When circumstances indicate a non-– parental or stranger involved abduction notify who?

Answer 478

Sex crimes (The divisional Det. will notify)

Question 479

Who shall be assigned a non-parental child abduction case?

Answer 479

A major case manager

Question 480

In circumstances of a stranger involved adduction who should you contact?

Answer 480

The on-call detective sergeant at intel (The divisional Det. will contact)

Question 481

Good to know…

Answer 481

Ensure that any children’s law reform act order for apprehension is immediately entered on to CPIC

Question 482

Window of opportunity refers to?

Answer 482

The time between when they were last seen in the time they were believed to be missing

Question 483

What should be considered in all cases of missing children investigations?

Answer 483

Amber alert

Question 484

What shall be implemented in all amber alert cases?

Answer 484

Major case management

Question 485

Before an Amber alert is initiated, the following guidelines must be met:

Answer 485

– The investigator believes a child under 18 years of age has been abducted
– the investigator believes the child is in danger
– there is descriptive information about one or more of the following *child
*abductor
*vehicle
To believe in immediate broadcast alert will help in locating the child

Question 486

Who creates and posts a BOLO?

Answer 486

Records management services (RMS)

Question 487

Good to know…

Answer 487

The supervisory officer shall notify the officer in charge in cases of child abductions
Will ensure that EMPO has been notified and EMPO should be consulted in all level 2 in 3 searches

Question 488

Who will request the activation of an amber alert?

Answer 488

The divisional Detective by contacting OIC

Question 489

Good to know…

Answer 489

Custody disputes may involve allegations of parental child abduction. Where no intent to deprive is established, the matter must be documented and both parties should be referred to family court for resolution of the custody dispute.

Should there be grounds to believe there was intent to deprive the custodial parent of the rights to the child and there is no evidence of a custody order in effect, proceedings may only commence with the consent of the Attorney General.

Question 490

In child abductions the divisional Detective Shall?

Answer 490

Ensure the school principal and other caregivers are interviewed
Notify sex crimes if non-parental abduction
Ensure MCM compliance
Stranger involved abduction – notify D/S Intel

Question 491

After the divisional Det. contacts the officer in charge to request an amber alert, what transpires?

Answer 491

Divisional Det. To
Officer in charge To
TPOC
Duty senior officer TPOC consult with Det.
Duty senior officers then contact the chief or designate
Chief or designate make final decision
If approved, duty senior officer initiate through TPOC – contacts duty senior officer OPP

Question 492

Parental abduction means

Answer 492

Unlawful removal of a child by parent, guardian or caregiver of child under 14, whether or not there is a custody order, with intent to deprive

Question 493

Divisional Det. shall lead the investigation of all aggravated assault and attempted homicide that occur within the city of Toronto with the exception of?

Answer 493

Shootings – organized crime enforcement shall lead
With the victims under 16 and the suspect is a caregiver, parent or person in position of authority – investigator from CYAC Shalit investigations

Question 494

In relation to a serious assault (aggravated assault or attempted homicide) who needs to attend the scene?

Answer 494

Supervisory officer and divisional detective mandatory attendance.
OCE detective or investigator mandatory notification where a shooting has occurred

Question 495

Good to know…

Answer 495

A scenes of crime officer SOCO shall not be deployed to examine any scene of an aggregate assault and/or an attempted homicide without consulting with FIS

Question 496

In regards to serious assault the notification of a Det./investigator from the OCE is based on the discharge of a firearm with the intent to?

Answer 496

Wound a person(s)

Question 497

In relation to serious assaults the OIC shall notify?

Answer 497

The unit commander if I’m duty or the officer in charge – TPOC

Question 498

Good to know…

Answer 498

Decisions regarding the safe placement of siblings or other children who might be at risk are time sensitive. Collaborative information sharing facilitates timely decisions that will safeguard children who may potentially be at risk, well preserving the integrity of the criminal investigation

Question 499

Aggravated assault means

Answer 499

Everyone commits aggravated assault who wounds, maims, disfigures or endangerous life

Question 500

The mental health act provides for?

Answer 500

The treatment and apprehension of persons in crisis.

Officers are to respond appropriately to the behaviors and circumstances they observed

Question 501

A person in crisis means

Answer 501

A member of the public whose behavior brings them into contact with emergency services, either because of an apparent need for urgent care within the Mental health system, or because they are otherwise experiencing a mental, emotional or substance use crisis involving behavior that is sufficiently erratic, threatening or dangerous that emergency services are called in order to protect the person or those around them. This includes persons who may require assessment under the MHA.

Question 502

T.P.S goal in regards to persons in crisis is?

Answer 502

Zero deaths and ensuring the well-being, safety, rights and dignity of individuals and communities. In every encounter, the service is committed to taking all reasonable steps to assess, De-escalate and safely resolve the situation.

Question 503

Good to know…

Answer 503

Person in crisis
Officers may consider completing an eReport for any circumstances where the details of the incident would assist officers in resolving conflicts in any future crisis related contacts.

Question 504

Is a supervisor attendance mandatory for persons in crisis calls?

Answer 504

No, only for person in crisis who is or may be armed with a weapon is attendance mandatory

Question 505

As an officer if you were detained at a psychiatric facility for longer than one hour what should you do?

Answer 505

Notify a supervisory officer

Question 506

Good to know… 

Answer 506

Report for all apprehensions or attempt to locate someone on a form

Question 507

What is section 33 of the MHA?

Answer 507

Section 33 of the MHA states that officers must stay with person in custody at the facility until facility accepts custody

Question 508

Can an officer use third-party information for an apprehension?

Answer 508

There is no longer a requirement for a police officer to observe the persons behavior and may use information obtained from a third-party to form reasonable and probable grounds for apprehension

Question 509

Good to know…

Answer 509

Community referral police access line is available to police officers with dealing with:
– any person over 16 who is believed to be emotionally disturbed/substance use at significant risk of involved in the criminal justice system
– Who has not been apprehended under the mental health act

***Proceed only on the consent of the person in crisis

Question 510

Section 17 MHA states-

Answer 510

Where in officer has a reasonable and probable grounds to believe that a person is acting or has acted in a disorderly manner and has reasonable cause to believe that the person;
A) Has threatened or attempted or is threatening or attempting to cause bodily harm to himself or herself
B) Has behaved or is behaving violently towards another person or has caused or is causing another person to fear bodily harm from him or her
C) Has shown or is showing a lack of confidence to care for himself or herself

And in addition the police officer is of the opinion that the person is apparently suffering from mental disorder of a nature or quality that likely will result in,
D) Serious bodily harm to the person
E) Serious bodily harm to another person, or
F) Serious physical impairment of the person

And it would be dangerous to proceed under section 16 Justice of the peace order for examination/form to, the police officer may take the person in custody to an appropriate place for examination by a physician

Question 511

Good to know…

Answer 511

The CMHA Will only accept individuals who can be safely supported in the community. This means that the individual does not pose a threat to the safety of the public or is not a serious risk of harming themselves or others. Prior to providing the support, the person in crisis must voluntarily agree to the services being provided and any other required conditions for admittance.

Question 512

-MCIT program is

Answer 512

A collaborative partnership between participating hospitals and the service bound through a memorandum of understanding. The-MCIT program partners a mental health nurse with a police officer with additional training in working with persons in crisis that will respond, or assist in the response to calls for service involving individuals experiencing a mental, emotional or substance use crisis.

Question 513

-MCIT response will assist with?

Answer 513

– Assessing the situation
– attempting to stabilize and defuse the crisis
– providing supportive counseling as needed
– connecting the individual to appropriate community services

Question 514

When requested by paramedics to transport a violent EDP from a residence or a hospital to a psychiatric facility shall?

Answer 514

– Ensure an application for admission (Form 1) has been signed by a physician
– ETF is notified prior to attending the address. ETF will determine whether they attend or not

Question 515

What are members encouraged to access when considering a referral to a community support agency?

Answer 515

T.P.S mental health referrals guide

Question 516

Form 1 – application by a physician is

Answer 516

For a psychiatric assessment signed by a doctor within 7 days of examining the person, giving any person the authority to take the person named to a psychiatric facility. A Form 1 is valid for 7 days from when it was signed

Question 517

Form 2 - Justice of the Peace order for examination is?

Answer 517

Directing police officers to take the person in custody to a psychiatric facility where a physician may order the person further detained. A Form 2 is valid for 7 days from and including the day it was signed.

Question 518

Form 9 - Order for Return

Answer 518

For an elope, issued by a psychiatric facility authorizing Police to return the person to the facility. A Form 9 is valid for one month after the person is absent without leave

Question 519

Form 47- Order for examination

Answer 519

Issued by the physician who issued the person a community treatment order. Can be used if:
- has reason to believe person has failed to comply with conditions of community treatment order
– fails to let the physician assess their condition within 72 hours
Form 47 authorizes a Police officer to take that person into custody and return to the physician. Valid for 30 days.

Question 520

Good to know…

Answer 520

Persons in crisis
Custody occurs with the hospital arranges for their staff to take charge of the individual, or when the person is taken for an assessment. With a supervisor’s approval, a police officer may remain at the psychiatric facility if it is in the public interest, requested by hospital staff or charges against the person are being considered, and a decision on whether or not to admit the person has yet to be made

Question 521

Good to know…

Answer 521

Within reason, an officer may transport the person to more than one psychiatric facility if the officer feels it is in the public interest to do so. Officers must be prepared to articulate their reasons for taking this course of action

The officer shall submit a T.P.S 649 to the unit commander detailing the problem

Question 522

The divisional mental health liaison officer shall?

Answer 522

– Coordinate divisional community mental health needs through community service providers
– coordinate with internal divisional resources and community mental health professionals
– review mental health related events and occurrences, and identify opportunities to make referrals
– coordinate with the divisional FOCUS representative
– coordinate with community relations officer to engage the FOCUS table
– liaise with community partnerships and engagement unit
– Ensure that hospitals within the division have sufficient 710 forms

Question 523

Service vehicle collisions attendance is mandatory for who?

Answer 523

A supervisor and a TSV officer attendance is mandatory for all service vehicle collisions.
***Subject to availability, the attorney supervisory officer shall be from TSV
Supervisory officer notification mandatory for all collisions involving a service vehicle

Question 524

What are the hospitals partnered with the-MCIT program?

Answer 524

– St. Joseph’s Hospital
– Humber River Hospital
– North York general hospital
– Scarborough health network
– St Michaels hospital
– Michael Garron Hospital

Question 525

Who is responsible to manage the-MCIT deployment to mental health related calls for service?

Answer 525

Although-MCIT’s remain assigned to the community response unit the on duty PRU management team will be responsible to manage MCIT

Question 526

When a member is involved in a service vehicle collision and they are determined at fault the member may be subject to?

Answer 526

– Criminal/provincial charges
– disciplinary action
– driving assessments/driver development training
– revocation of blue card

Question 527

What form does a supervisor complete for each service vehicle involved collision?

Answer 527

T.P.S 559 and will complete the supervisors determination section

Question 528

The Service has an obligation to submit an SLRD40 one within how many days of the vehicle collision?

Answer 528

10 days

Question 529

When a supervisor is notified of the service vehicle collision outside of the city of Toronto what shall they do?

Answer 529

Notify TPOC

Question 530

If a collision involves a vessel who will investigate?

Answer 530

Marine unit

Question 531

Good to know…

Answer 531

All service vehicle collisions deemed reportable shall be recorded on a SLRD401 and submitted to the MTO
Service vehicle collisions deemed not reportable shall be recorded on a report and do not need to be documented on a SLRD401

Question 532

In relation to service vehicle collisions, intentional contact includes?

Answer 532

Person, vehicle, or object

Question 533

Reportable collision includes?

Answer 533

Death, personal injury, or damage over 2000

Question 534

When a member is in a reportable service vehicle collision, the members address shall be?

Answer 534

40 College St., Toronto and the phone number
416–808–2222

Question 535

In the event that the service vehicle collision location is at or near a covert police facility, officer should?

Answer 535

Consult with a supervisory officer prior to entering the location on reports.
Members shall record the particulars as described on the documents of the unmarked vehicle

Question 536

Good to know…

Answer 536

Supervisor: send a copy of SRLD401 or eReport to you to Commander Fleet and materials fourthwith

Question 537

As a supervisor, with criminal or provincial charges are warranted against the involved member in a service vehicle collision shall?

Answer 537

–if immediate action is not required, consult with the involved members unit commander prior to leaving a charge
– if immediate action is required, take appropriate action, then advise the involved members unit commander as soon as practicable

Question 538

As a supervisory officer upon receipt of a provincial offenses – notice of trial shall?

Answer 538

Assume the role of case manager, as appropriate

Question 539

Driving assessment means

Answer 539

A practical, on the road driving assessment conducted by the divisional traffic Sgt, or Traffic Services sergeant

Question 540

As a supervisory officer with notified that a reportable or non-reportable service vehicle collision has occurred in the city of Toronto shall?

Answer 540

Determine if any of the following apply
– criminal offense
– provincial offense
– conduct issue
– training requirement
– no further action required

Question 541

Good to know…

Answer 541

If a service vehicle collision has occurred outside of the city the officer in charge shall notify the officer in charge – TPOC
The officer in charge – TPOC will then notify the duty senior officer

Question 542

Police service collision reduction committee means

Answer 542

A panel consisting of, but not limited to, the unit commander and/or designate From
– Professional standard support
– Traffic Services
– Toronto Police college

With the mandate to monitor Toronto Police service vehicle collisions for trend analysis, problem identification, quality assurance and training issues, and report its findings to the chief of police

Question 543

Service vehicle collision reduction program means

Answer 543

E program managed by professional standard support which monitors Toronto Police service vehicle collisions

Question 544

Is a supervisor notification required for a traumatic critical incident?

Answer 544

Yes, supervisory officer shall be notified

Question 545

Is a supervisor notification required for a traumatic critical incident?

Answer 545

Yes, supervisory officer shall be notified

Question 546

Is a supervisor notification mandatory with a member is involved in a traumatic critical incident?

Answer 546

Yes, supervisory officer notification is mandatory

Question 547

Good to know…

Answer 547

Critical incident response team (CIRT)/peer support volunteer (PSV) is available and can be contacted at the discretion of the OIC after a critical incident

Question 548

True or false?
An injured-on duty report must be completed by a supervisor for all members involved in a critical incident?

Answer 548

True.
In the nature of injury section put “traumatic critical incident”

Question 549

Traumatic critical incident, mitigation process is?

Answer 549

– Defusing session lasts (15–30 minutes)
– debriefing session (takes place a few days after the incident and could last up to 2.5 hours)
– referral (if required to EFAP or psychological services)

Question 550

What is a post incident firearms exposure session?

Answer 550

Post incident, firearm, exposure sessions (not for animal dispatching) at the Toronto Police College are mandatory for officers who discharge their firearms in the line of duty in office is deemed to be directly impacted by the event.
Arranged through unit commander, and an officer may also request to attend.

Question 551

How can critical stress be experienced?

Answer 551

Physically or psychologically

Question 552

In critical incident scenarios when should unmarked vehicles be used?

Answer 552

When transporting family members

Question 553

Who is utilized media inquiries?

Answer 553

Corporate communications

Question 554

When did determining whether it event is “traumatic critical incident” the supervisor was consult with?

Answer 554

The officer in charge of Tpoc

CIRT and PSV- contact will depend on assessment by the OIC with TPOC however must be contacted when a member requests immediate support

Question 555

The designated “on call person” to liaise with family members must be available?

Answer 555

24 hours a day

Question 556

When does the Chief make contact?

Answer 556

The chief makes secondary contact after the initial notification

Question 557

Good to know…

Answer 557

EFAP services are provided to members, auxiliary and lifeguards (critical incident stress only)

Question 558

The decision, whether an event is a traumatic critical incident should be based on?

Answer 558

The nature and circumstances of the event, rather than reaction, or lack there of the involved individuals

Question 559

Good to know…

Answer 559

The unit commander will consult with supervisor, OIC and armament officer - Toronto Police college and a Service psychologist as required when determining officers directly impacted by officer involved shootings

Question 560

Good to know…

Answer 560

OIC Tpoc, after consulting with Unit Commander of officer involved in determining CIRT will be initiated, immediately notify:
On-call CERT/PSV, EFAP liaison , duty, senior officer, Tpoc, on call member of senior officer organization

Question 561

Healthcare professionals means

Answer 561

Member of college regulated under regulated, health professionals act

Question 562

Medical advisor means?

Answer 562

A licensed, qualified medical practitioner, engaged by T.P.S

Question 563

For substance abuse is supervisor notification mandatory?

Answer 563

Yes supervisor notification is mandatory

Question 564

When a supervisor is made aware of a member with substance abuse, what shall they do?

Answer 564

The supervisor shall offer members MAS and EFAP and follow up with the member and provide the appropriate support and encouragement

Question 565

Substance-abuse refers to the use of?

Answer 565

– Cannabis
– alcohol
– prescription, non-prescription, or illegal drugs?
– any other substance?

Question 566

In relation to substance-abuse, if on leave of absence for longer than 90 days, the officers, firearm and use of force equipment shall be returned where?

Answer 566

The armament unit at Toronto Police college

Question 567

In relation to workplace violence is a supervisory officer, attendance mandatory?

Answer 567

Yes, a supervisory officer shall be notified and their attendance is mandatory for any incident involving workplace violence

Question 568

Good to know…

Answer 568

A police officer cannot refuse to work when the work is a normal condition of the workers, employment, or when the refusal to work, would directly endanger, the life, health, or safety of another person

Question 569

Good to know…

Answer 569

The officer in charge of members being aware of how to immediately summon assistance if workplace violence occurs.
The OIC to ensure applicable eReports provided to members unit commander and PRS commander prior to the completion of tour of duty.

Question 570

In relation to, workplace harassment is supervisory officer, attendance mandatory?

Answer 570

Yes, supervisory officer attendance is mandatory for any incident of workplace harassment

Question 571

Good to know…

Answer 571

The definition of workplace harassment, under OHSA is broader than the definition contained in the Ontario human rights code

Question 572

How does the reporting of workplace harassment go?

Answer 572

Member to report to the supervisory officer, supervisor to report to officer in charge, officer in charge to ensure eReport to unit commander and PRS unit commander prior to completion of tour of duty

Question 573

Workplace harassment-reasonable protection necessary for the protection of a member may include?

Answer 573

Reassignment to reasonable alternative duties

Question 574

Is supervisory officer, attendance mandatory when naloxone is administered?

Answer 574

Yes, a supervisor needs to attend when no oxygen is administered or a member is critically injured

Question 575

How many doses does naloxone nasal spray have in each?

Answer 575

Each naloxone nasal spray has two doses

Question 576

What are the temperatures that naloxone can be stored at?

Answer 576

Luxe and can be stored between 15 to 25° and cannot be frozen.

Question 577

True or false?
Members issued or using naloxone, must be up-to-date with their standard first aid

Answer 577

True

Question 578

Good to know…

Answer 578

Any member attending an opioid related overdose shall complete a naloxone tracking form, regardless of it being administered or not

Question 579

In instances where officers administer naloxone, SI, you may require a notification in scenarios where?

Answer 579

– The police officer used force against prior to or after the provision of first aid.
– the person suffered serious injuries or dies while detained by police or in police custody.
– the person suffers serious injuries or dies because of motor vehicle incident involving police or a police pursuit.

Question 580

If a naloxone kit is damaged, expired or used what shall you do?

Answer 580

Mark the kit with an X and return the spoiled kit to Hanna garage

Question 581

Where are used naloxone  kits disposed?

Answer 581

Use kids can be disposed of in a garage or a local pharmacy

Question 582

Good to know…naloxone

Answer 582

Brief excursions permitted between 4°C to 40°C. Cannot be frozen, must be protected for direct sunlight.

Question 583

If you were not up-to-date on your first aid and legally allowed to administer naloxone, who do you return the kit to?

Answer 583

The unit commander

Question 584

What does supervisory officer attention scene where naloxone was used? Who do they notify?

Answer 584

The supervisory officer shall immediately notify the OIC and OIC – Tpoc

Question 585

As the officer in charge, when naloxone has been used on a service member, who shall the OIC notify?

Answer 585

The OIC shall immediately notify the members unit commander, and the OIC - Tpoc

Question 586

Tpoc, when notified of naloxone used on a service member will notify who?

Answer 586

Notify the on-call wellness, on-call S00, and duty inspector

Question 587

Who determines if members are fit for duty medically?

Answer 587

MAS

Question 588

The requirement to be fit for duty in relation to cannabis use is?

Answer 588

28 days

Question 589

How long can THC stay in your body fat deposits for?

Answer 589

28 days

Question 590

Workplace safety is ashared responsibility between who

Answer 590

Workplace safety is a shared responsibility between the board, the service and its employees, and service members

Question 591

Good to know…

Answer 591

When reasonable grounds exist to investigate member for using alcohol or drugs in a manner, prejudicial to duty, members shall be offered the opportunity to take appropriate test (Intoxilyzer, DRE or other). Service reserves the right to undertake appropriate post incident drug testing.

Question 592

When there is a fitness for duty issue, what does the supervisory officer do?

Answer 592

Notify OIC
unit commander on a TPS649
Also, notify the unit commander of wellness and request fitness for duty assessment

Question 593

In regards to property, a separate bag is issued for the following prisoner property

Answer 593

– meds
– money not seized
– cannabis
– personal item.
– religious item
– gender item.

Question 594

In relation to property when should you consider a non-see-through bag?

Answer 594

Consider at nine see-through bag for gender affirming items

Question 595

What items will court services not transport?

Answer 595

Court services will not transport edged weapons, or alcohol in any form

Question 596

Good to know…

Answer 596

An item of religious significance can be any item that the person identifies as having religious significance.

Question 597

Good to know…

Answer 597

Refrigerate medication when required to do so

Question 598

Is it necessary to weigh all cannabis?

Answer 598

No, it is not necessary to weigh, legally possessed cannabis. Place in a separate property bag in the presence of a supervisor and seal.

Any cannabis that is legally possessed, will be returned to seizing unit for a release to the owner

Question 599

When is the property bag left open?

Answer 599

A bag containing meds shall remain open in case the accused needs their medication

Question 600

If the officer in charge allows valuable property to be retained by a prisoner, they shall ensure who is advised?

Answer 600

The transporting officer(s)

Valuable property: money, jewelry, etc. may make the prisoner a target for robbery

Question 601

The incident management system (IMS) is used mainly for?

Answer 601

Unplanned emergencies

Question 602

Good to know…

Answer 602

The incident management team - all are trained in the incident management system

Question 603

EPC stands for?

Answer 603

The emergency preparedness committee

Question 604

In relation to emergency incident response, when is a supervisory officers attendance mandatory?

Answer 604

Supervisory attendance is mandatory for level 2 or 3 incidents

Supervisory officer, notification is mandatory for level 1

Question 605

In relation to an incident response when does Tpoc get notified?

Answer 605

Tpoc is notified for level 2 and 3

Question 606

When is the unit commander notified in relation to Emergency incident response?

Answer 606

You recommend your notifications, mandatory for all level 2 and 3 incidents

Question 607

When is the attendance of a duty senior officer requested?

Answer 607

For level 3 incidents only

Question 608

Emergency incident response, Level 1 ~ Emergency

Answer 608

~ divisional level resources
– resolved in a short period of time

Question 609

Emergency incident response
Level 2 – Major incident

Answer 609

– Incident that exceeds capabilities of dividual resources
– requires additional support.
– Tpoc and EM— PO.
– may require a major incident command center. (MICC)
– require a command post and major incident command center.

Question 610

Emergency incident response.
Level 3 – disaster incident.

Answer 610

Dash affects a significant portion of the population.
– recovery may require a major incident Command center (MICC)
– political direction or support.
– official declaration of a disaster as per municipal code 59.

Question 611

Where is the MICC located?

Answer 611

12th floor of HQ

Question 612

Good to know…

Answer 612

And after action report is required for all levels as well as a UCMR entry

Question 613

The public safety unit, sub of
EM-PO is staffed by?

Answer 613

Those who respond to level 2 or 3 incidents

Question 614

Who will appoint a public information officer in relation to an emergency incident response?

Answer 614

The incident commander will appoint a public information officer who is on scene and will update Corp. comm

Question 615

True or false?
The first officer on scene is the incident commander until they are relieved by a supervisor?

Answer 615

True

Question 616

What can a staging area be used for?

Answer 616

A staging area can be used to track and control resources

Question 617

Who’s decision is it to evacuate during civil disturbances or police situation’s (hostage, barricaded person, terrorism)?

Answer 617

It is the responsibility of the police

Question 618

Who is decision? Is it to evacuate during a natural disaster or man-made disaster?

Answer 618

It is the responsibility of fire services

Question 619

Where is the emergency operation centre located?

Answer 619

6th floor of 703 Don Mills Rd.

Question 620

The explosive device unit and mounted unit are subunits of?

Answer 620

EM ~ PO

Question 621

Specialized emergency response units are?

Answer 621

ETF, Marine unit, K9

Question 622

Incident management system organizational chart.

COMMAND
Incident commander

Answer 622

– Incident specialist.
– liaison
– intelligence.
– health and safety.
– emergency information officer

Question 623

Incident management system, organization chart

OPERATIONS

Answer 623

– Staging
– site management.
– evacuations
– search.
– crowd management
– prisoner management
– specialized operations.

Question 624

Incident management system, organization, chart.

LOGISTICS

Answer 624

– services.
– support.
– communications
– supply.
– feeding
– medical.
– facilities
– transportation.

Question 625

Incident management system organizational chart.

PLANNING

Answer 625

– situation
– resources
– demobilization
– documentation

Question 626

Incident management system, organization chart

ADMINISTRATION & FINANCE

Answer 626

– Procurement
– cost
– claims

Question 627

Incident management system, organization, chart

INVESTIGATIVE

Answer 627

– detective operations
– divisional investigative
– traffic services
– victim services
– major case management

Question 628

In relation to bomb threats/suspicious devices in packages/explosions when is a supervisor attendance mandatory?

Answer 628

Supervisory officers shall attend for bomb or explosion related calls

Question 629

In relation to bomb threats, suspicious packages, and explosions. When does the supervisory officer become incident commander?

Answer 629

Supervisory officer becomes incident, commander once on scene, and will set up a command post

Question 630

Who can handle or transport a suspected bomb or explosive package/device?

Answer 630

Only a police explosive technician can handle or transport a suspected, bomb, or explosive package/device

Question 631

How many metres should be secured around the suspicious package or device?

Answer 631

Secure an area of a minimum of 30 m around the package or device

Question 632

In relation to major incidents , what is an explosion classified as?

Answer 632

Explosions are classified at a minimum as a level 2 – major incident

Question 633

CBRNE stand for?

Answer 633

Chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear, or explosive

Question 634

Good to know…

Answer 634

All members of EDU are CBRNE trained and are explosive technicians

Question 635

What is the role of the first officer on scene of a situation where the ETF are required?

Answer 635

Control the scene

Question 636

Situation where ETF are required, officers should not?

Answer 636

Not enter the scene, unless eminent threat to life

Question 637

Situations that require the ETF a supervisory officer attendance is mandatory when?

Answer 637

Supervisory attendance is mandatory once it is determined, the situation requires the ETF

Question 638

In situations where crisis negotiators and/or forensic psychiatrist are needed, who shall make the request?

Answer 638

All crisis, negotiators and/or forensic psychiatrist requests shall be made through the ETF

Question 639

Good to know…

Answer 639

UCMR entry is required if ETF attend a scene

The OIC will update the UCMR

Question 640

For an explosive or bomb call who maintains control of the scene?

Answer 640

For all explosive or bomb calls, the supervisor of EDU maintains control of the scene

Question 641

Good to know…

Answer 641

Supervisor, ETF will assume rule of ETF tactical commander over all ETF, unless relieved by the unit commander ETF

Question 642

In relation to threats to school safety, who makes the decision shelter in place, hold and secure, or lockdown, after consultation with the police

Answer 642

The principal

Question 643

There is a threat to school safety, and the officer arrives on scene to investigate, What shall they do?

Answer 643

Always report to the office first when an investigation occurs on school property unless eminent danger to life prevents you from doing so

Question 644

In relation to threats to school safety, when is a supervisors attendance mandatory

Answer 644

Supervisory attendance is mandatory for all level 3

Question 645

Shelter in place (Level 1)

Answer 645

– hazardous material in or around the school
– often requested by Toronto fire services.
*normal operations can continue inside the school with windows closed and fans turned off in the event of a hazardous material close by.

Question 646

Hold and Secure (Level 2)

Answer 646

– Suspect with a weapon near a school
– search near a school for a suspect wanted for a violent offence
– serious motor vehicle collision near a school requiring minimal pedestrian traffic.
*Normal movement within the school, however, all external doors and windows locked as the threat remains outside the school.

Question 647

Lockdown (Level 3)

Answer 647

– person attacking a person with a knife in a school
– a person using or threatening to use a gun on school property
*Means movement in and out of the school is restricted and the danger is inside the school, and there is an immediate threat to staff/students

Question 648

The officer on scene of a school lockdown, hold and secure, or shelter in place shall notify?

Answer 648

The supervisory officer and the OIC

Question 649

In relation to a school lockdown, the officer shall request who to notify OIC, Tpoc?

Answer 649

Communications

Question 650

Who will determine the final disposition of all external complaints, regardless of who investigates the complaints?

Answer 650

The 0IPRD

Question 651

How can the OIPRD form be submitted?

Answer 651

– Electronically
– by mail
– T.P.S EFax
– in person (or an agent)
– by delivering the OIPRD form to any service station.

NOTE- complaints about a police officer from another service and third-party complaint will also be accepted in the above manner

Question 652

True or false?
The OIPRD will accept anonymous complaints.

Answer 652

False, the OIPRD will not accept anonymous complaints

Question 653

What is a local resolution?

Answer 653

An agreement prior to OIPRD notification

Question 654

A local resolution is resolved in how many days?

Answer 654

Resolved in 30 days

Question 655

Local resolution means

Answer 655

Dash deals with personal property other than money or firearms
– must be resolved within 30 days of the complainant report to police unless OIPRD authorizes an extension
– facilitated by supervisor and documented on an OIPRD form
– not placed in police officers, personnel file

Question 656

Customer service resolution.

Answer 656

Is an agreement once the OIPRD has been notified/lodged but not formalized
Referred by OIPRD to professional standards
– must be resolved within 45 days of the date of notice to PRS from OIPRD
– Facilitated by supervisor and documented on an OIPRD form
– not placed in police officers personnel file

Question 657

Studies have shown that it can take upwards of _____ hours of continuous exposure in in unventilated space were multiple smokers of cannabis are actively smoking to show secondhand absorption.

Answer 657

Four(4) hours

Question 658

THC is responsible for the way?

Answer 658

The brain and body respond to cannabis

Question 659

It accordance with standards of conduct member shall not use recreational cannabis for a minimum of ____ hours prior to attending work

Answer 659

24 hours

Question 660

When responding to a level 3 – disaster incident who will establish communication with the MICC?

Answer 660

The incident commander

Question 661

On a level two major incident in relation to emergency incident responses who does the first supervisory officer notify?

Answer 661

The first supervisory officer will notify the divisional officer in charge and notify the officer in charge – Tpoc
Will also request the assistance as required for emergency specialized units and services

Question 662

The first supervisory officer Will request assistance from such specialized units/services as regional police air support units with the authorization from who?

Answer 662

When authorized by the duty senior officer or other senior officer

Question 663

When receiving a call of a bomb threat the members shall attempt to note the following information about the callar?

Answer 663

Sex And approximate age
Speech characteristics
Background noises
Telephone number on call display if available

Question 664

Who provides the evacuation distances from specific explosives based on the type of explosive?

Answer 664

National Ground intelligence Center

Question 665

At the minimum explosive shall be treated as a?

Answer 665

Level 2 - major incident

Question 666

When arriving at the scene of an explosion who notifies intelligence services?

Answer 666

Incident commander

Question 667

The operational section of the ETF consists of special weapons teams and trained?

Answer 667

Crisis negotiators

Question 668

In matters respecting an incident under investigation in relation to uniform external Complaint who will assume all the duties and powers of the chief of police?

Answer 668

The OIPRD liaison officer

Question 669

What are some of the criteria in relation to customer service resolution

Answer 669

Dealing with personal property other than money or firearms
Failing to treat a person equally
Using profane language
Acting in a disorderly manner
Neglect of duty
Failing to work in accordance with orders
Failing to make a report or record entry
Inspiring and abetting to commit any of the above

Question 669

What are some of the criteria in relation to customer service resolution

Answer 669

Dealing with personal property other than money or firearms
Failing to treat a person equally
Using profane language
Acting in a disorderly manner
Neglect of duty
Failing to work in accordance with orders
Failing to make a report or record entry
Inspiring and abetting to commit any of the above

Question 669

What are some of the criteria in relation to customer service resolution

Answer 669

Dealing with personal property other than money or firearms
Failing to treat a person equally
Using profane language
Acting in a disorderly manner
Neglect of duty
Failing to work in accordance with orders
Failing to make a report or record entry
Inspiring and abetting to commit any of the above

Question 670

What are some of the criteria in relation to customer service resolution

Answer 670

Dealing with personal property other than money or firearms
Failing to treat a person equally
Using profane language
Acting in a disorderly manner
Neglect of duty
Failing to work in accordance with orders
Failing to make a report or record entry
Inspiring and abetting to commit any of the above

Question 671

What is an informal resolution?

Answer 671

And informal resolution is an agreement between all parties after a complete has been lodged with the OIPRD and involves conduct that is deemed less serious

Question 672

There are two types of informal resolutions what are they?

Answer 672

Informal resolution – occurs during the investigation
Informal resolution – occurs after the investigation is completed

Question 673

Informal resolutions are facilitated by a supervisor and are to be documented on?

Answer 673

The prescribed 0IPRD form

Question 674

True or false
No record of an informal resolution Shall be placed in a police officers personnel file

Answer 674

True

Question 675

Notifications of a complete to a police officer is made on?

Answer 675

T.P.S 649

Question 676

A complaint made against a Toronto police service officer in another province or territory, who has been appointed to act as a police officer in the province or territory, the complete shall be forwarded to?

Answer 676

The 0IPRD

Question 677

When a supervisor receives a complete OIPRD complaint and reviewed the nature of the complete Shall?

Answer 677

Fax the form and any attachment to the OIPRD
Attempt to resolve the complaint by way of local resolution

Question 678

Is an investigative report required by the unit complaint coordinator for an informal resolution?

Answer 678

No, an investigative report is not required by the UCC for an informal resolution 

Question 679

The Toronto Police service is committed to ensuring that the complaint process is?

Answer 679

Accountable and transparent

Question 680

The Toronto Police service is committed to ensuring that the complaint process is?

Answer 680

Accountable and transparent

Question 681

Who is the OIPRD liaison?

Answer 681

The inspector at PRS

Question 682

What shall be done with a complaint of a Toronto police officer acting in another province or territory?

Answer 682

It shall be forwarded to the OIPRD

Question 683

The Toronto Police service is committed to ensuring the complaint process is?

Answer 683

Accountable and transparent

Question 684

In regards to eat criminal alligation is the respondent compelled to provide a statement and attend an interview?

Answer 684

The respondent may provide a statement and attend interview, may answer questions but it’s not compelled to do so

Question 685

In relation to a conduct complaint the officer has to?

Answer 685

The officer has to provide a statement, attend interview and answer questions.
It’s the same when witness to a criminal allegations

Question 686

In regards to internal complaints how many days do you have to submit the completed file to PRS?

Answer 686

120 days

Question 687

If a complaint is withdrawn but the investigation continues, did the officer being investigated must be made aware the investigation is continuing within how many days?

Answer 687

30 days

Question 688

Who determines which unit will investigate an internal complaint?

Answer 688

PRS – complaints administration

Question 689

In a complaint against a senior officer who shall delegate a supervisor to investigate?

Answer 689

The applicable deputy chief

Question 690

Unit commanders shall forward the completed file in relation to a internal complaint including disposition to PRS – complaint administration within?

Answer 690

120 days

Question 691

In regards to internal complaint/human rights code a copy shall be forwarded to?

Answer 691

Equity, inclusion and human rights

Question 692

Good to know…

Answer 692

If at the conclusion of internal investigation, the subject officers conduct constitutes misconduct and unable to serve 90 one within six months, shall consult with PRS – prosecutions, prepare board report, summary of investigations and reason why the delay

Question 693

Good to know…

Answer 693

Uniform complete withdrawal
When complainant wishes to withdraw – must be in writing inside, chief May continue to deal with complaint if he considers appropriate to do so.
If complainant wishes to withdraw after hearing has commenced, chief and OIPRD have to consent

Question 694

When PS a hearing has commenced…

Answer 694

Only hearing officer may receive withdrawal

Question 695

The chief of police or police services board may suspend the officer without pay when?

Answer 695

If the police officer is convicted and served a term of imprisonment. Even if the conviction is under appeal.

Question 696

Regulated interaction
Applies to an attempt by a police officer to collect identifying information by asking an individual in a face-to-face encounter, to identify themselves or to provide information for the purpose of identifying the individual and include such an attempt whether or not identifying information is collected,

Answer 696

– Inquiring into offenses that have been or might be committed
– inquiring into suspicious activities to detect offenses
– gathering information for intelligence purposes

Question 697

Regulated interaction
Does not apply to an attempt by a police officer to collect identifying information from an individual when;

Answer 697

– Investigating an offense the police officer reasonably suspects has been or will be committed
– the individual is legally required to provide the information i.e. traffic stop, trespass to property
– the individual is under arrest or is being detained
– the police officer is engaged in a covert operation
– the police officer is executing a warrant
– The individual is employed in the administration of justice or providing services that are otherwise relevant to carrying out the police officers duty

Question 698

Controller – regulated interactions
Must prepare a report to the unit commander aof the Toronto Police college every?

Answer 698

Three months