Sgt Flashcards

1
Q

14 division lock up

A

14 division in traffic services adults only

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2
Q

Custody suffering a diabetic reaction. Will exhibit behaviour…. and what to do??

A

Exhibit behaviour such as confusion unsteadiness profuse perspiration or other unusual behavior.

He given a soft drink orange juice chocolate bar or candy.

Afterwards transported to the nearest hospital

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3
Q

Custody suffering a diabetic reaction. Will exhibit behaviour…. and what to do??

A

Exhibit behaviour such as confusion, unsteadiness, profuse perspiration or other unusual behavior.

He given a soft drink orange juice chocolate bar or candy.

Afterwards transported to the nearest hospital

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4
Q

This is a test one

A

here a Forfeiture Order is required shall ensure
 at the time the charges are laid, the original applicable Forfeiture Order and 1 copy, (both shall be left blank) are
included in the crown envelope
 a copy of the applicable property reports are appended to each Forfeiture Order and placed inside the crown
envelope
 the forfeiture section on the back of the crown envelope is completed in full
 the crown prosecutor is made aware that a Forfeiture Order form is in the crown envelope prior to the trial and
sentencing of the accused
- The Ministry of the Attorney General will ensure that Crown Prosecutors are made aware of their obligation
under the Criminal Code to request forfeiture of property seized prior to sentencing, if applicable to the case.
Once the Justice has signed the Forfeiture Order, the prosecutor is required to place the form in a drop box
located in the Detective Sergeant’s office at the courthouse.
At the conclusion of the sentencing, if forfeiture of the property is not granted, shall ensure the Property Disposition Inquiry
(PDI) application on the TPS Network is updated, indicating the disposition of all property.
Where an application for an Order for Continued Detention of property seized is required shall
 give notice to the court by completing a TPS 141, in triplicate, no later than 30 days prior to the expiration of the
current Order for Detention, ensuring the next available Hearing date is used
 serve a copy of the TPS 141 at least 3 business days (weekends and statutory holidays excluded) before the date
of the Hearing on the
 person from whom the property was seized, or
 lawful owner of the seized property, when ascertainable, or
 the parent, adult relative or other adult (refer to Youth Criminal Justice Act), when a young person has been
served with a “Notice of Hearing”
 if a search warrant was issued, provide the following documents to the court location where the search warrant was
issued and/or the Form 5.2 was filed, at least 2 days prior to the Hearing date
 a copy of the original crown envelope, containing
 a copy of the original search warrant and appendices, if applicable
 a copy of the original TPS 143
 a copy of the synopsis from the eReports outlining
 the location of the search
 the date and time of the search
 the accused name and a list of charges laid, or the name of the suspect and a list of charges pending, if
known
 the connection between any property seized and charges laid or charges pending
 the reason the property needs to be held
 appear before the Justice at the court with
 a copy of the TPS 141
 the original search warrant crown envelope containing the above mentioned documents, if applicable and,
 a TPS 143, in duplicate
 a copy of the original Form 5.2

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5
Q

Affiant means a

A

a police officer who swears to an affidavit, commonly used when requesting a search warrant before a
Justice.

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6
Q

Abandoned Property means a thing over which a person

A

surrendered any possessory right or privacy right and which

may or may not relate to a crime and/or crime scene and which potentially has some evidentiary value.

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7
Q

Case Manager means a

A

police officer assigned to prepare and manage a case for trial. A case manager is assigned for
each Confidential Crown Envelope (crown envelope) and designated in accordance with established unit policy.

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8
Q

Common Informant the purposes of court disclosure means a

A

divisional warrant officer, or an on-duty designate, or a court
officer who is a sworn peace officer, during the lawful execution of their duties.
 Court Officers may only act as a Common Informant for the purposes of bringing a Form 5.2 before a
Justice when property has been seized and the accused has been show caused (first appearance only)
and the Form 5.2 is completed correctly and is in the crown envelope at the time the accused is being held
for a show cause hearing.

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9
Q

Continued Detention means the.

In relation to property

A

detention of property beyond the initial 3 (90 days) months from the date of seizure.

Bicycles are 30

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10
Q

Forfeiture means seizure of private property because

 it

A

was illegally obtained, or
 it is an illegal substance, or
 the legal basis for possession has ended.
Forfeiture Order means an Order prepared and signed by a Justice to authorize the disposal of seized property by the
Public Prosecution Service o

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11
Q

Forfeiture Order means an Order

A

prepared and signed by a Justice to authorize the disposal of seized property by the
Public Prosecution Service of Canada (PPSC) and/or the Ministry of the Attorney General (MAG).

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12
Q

Found Property means any property

A

which was located by a member or a citizen and turned over to a member, and the
item (at the time) has no apparent evidentiary value.

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13
Q

Informational Material means

A

information obtained from a thing that is seized.

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14
Q

Justice means a

A

Justice of the Peace or a Provincial Court Judge

Source: S. 2 CC

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15
Q

Peace Officer – Report to ______ for the purposes of filing a Report to _____ means a

A

Report to Justice

for the purposes of filing a Report to

Justice

means a police officer, or a court officer who
is a sworn peace officer

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16
Q

Seized Property means a thing, including

A

including informational material, seized from a person and/or place, with or without a
warrant, by a peace officer without that person’s consent.

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17
Q

Surrendered Property means any

A

article, document, informational material and/or thing whose possession has been
voluntarily given to a member and the item (at that time) may or may not have

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18
Q

90 day places in exam

A

When an informal resolution has been achieved shall prepare an Investigative Report 004-0309 OIPRD and submit electronically within 90 days to the Unit Commander
When required to facilitate a local resolution

collect and preserve the discharged “sock” round(s) and casing(s) for a minimum of 90 days in order to maintain 
integrity of any future investigations, and when no longer required for immediate investigations, or by the Special 
Investigations Unit (SIU)

Constables who are absent from work due to parental leave, family care leave, long–term disability, central sick bank,
suspension, or an off–duty injury will not be considered on active service. Such absences will not be considered as time
served in the rank for reclassification purposes. Such constables will continue to be reconsidered for reclassification every
90 days and will not be eligible for reclassification until they have completed at least 1 year of active service in the
rank/classification.

Officers will be evaluated by one supervisor who has supervised the officer for a minimum period of 90 days. Where
possible, the same appraiser should assess the officer throughout the 1–year appraisal period. The next level supervisor
shall advise which officers a supervisor will be responsible for appraising. Prior to commencing an appraisal, the assigned
appraiser shall review the officer’s appraisal from the previous year to ensure performance issues have been addressed.
However, this review shall not influence the year–end rating of the current appraisal.
The appraisal form shall remain in an officer’s unit personnel file for 5 years. At the end of the 5–year period, the Unit
Commander shall ensure that the appropriate appraisal form is forwarded to People Strategy & Performance – Employee
Records.

prepare an Investigative Report 004-0309 OIPRD and submit electronically within 90 days to the Unit Commander
When required to facilitate a local resolution shall

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19
Q

The following divisions have been designated as lock–ups:
Lock–up Prisoners Divisions Served

11 Male adults
Male young persons when _____is full
With the approval of Duty Senior Officer – Toronto Police Operations Centre
(Duty Senior Officer) authorizes]

These Div bring their custodies male adult to 11 for lock up; _____, ____ and _____

13 Male young persons* All Divisions (1st Backup facility only when _____ Division is full and Duty
Senior Officer authorizes)

14 Male adults ____ and ____ _____

23 Male adults ____ and _____

32 Male adults _____, _____ and _____

33 _______ _______ persons* All Divisions (primary lock–up for male young persons )

41 Male adults _____, ___ and _____

51 Male adults ______, _____, _____, and ______
52 _______ ______ _____

55 All ________ (see item e below) All Divisions

A

11 Male adults 11, 12 and 13

Male young persons* All Divisions [2nd Backup facility only when both 33 and 13 Divisions
are full and Duty Senior Officer – Toronto Police Operations Centre
(Duty Senior Officer) authorizes]

13 Male young persons lock up. All Divisions (1st Backup facility only when 33 Division is full and Duty
Senior Officer authorizes)

14 Male adults 14 and Traffic Services

23 Male adults 22 and 23

32 Male adults 31, 32 and 33

33 Male young persons* All Divisions (primary lock–up for male young persons )

41 Male adults 41, 42 and 43

51 Male adults 51, 53, 54, and 55

52 Male adults 52

55 All females (see item e below) All Divisions

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20
Q
  • Non-binary people should be housed in a manner that they feel will maximize their safety, which may include an
    ______ cell, or being held in an ______ _____, or in _____ or ______ lock-ups as per an individual’s assessment of
    what would best meet their needs
A

individual

interview room,

male

female

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21
Q

If there are specific overriding health and safety concerns I cannot be resolved rendering an accommodation impossible and a prisoner cannot be accommodated The members shall indicate the reasons in the memo book and ensure that the information regarding a trans person’s gender identity history is shared on a ______

A

Need to know basis page 29

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22
Q

Where the police vehicle has no screen, the person shall be placed in the ________ rear seat. If an escort is available, the escort
shall occupy the ______ rear seat.
 allow one (_____) prisoner per vehicle (wagons excepted), when possible, comply with Appendix E when transporting
trans person
 permit only those ______ _____ involved in the ______ inside the vehicle with an arrested person
 ensure ______ and ______ (e.g. witnesses) are not transported in the same police vehicle
 prior to departure, advise the ______ ______ of the ______, the gender identity and age of the
person, and the odometer reading
 advise the communications operator of the ______ ______ upon arrival

A

the left rear seat.

(1)

police officers involved in the investigation inside the vehicle with an arrested person
 ensure prisoners and civilians (e.g. witnesses) are not transported in the same police vehicle
 prior to departure, advise the communications operator of the destination, the gender identity and age of the
person, and the odometer reading
 advise the communications operator of the odometer reading upon arrival
When requested by another member to transport a person in custody to a police station sh

-

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23
Q

In order to address the specific needs of a trans person each case must be assessed individually. To that end the ___________shall determine the best course of action in order to respect and dignity of the person being logged

A

officer in charge

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24
Q

In relation to a criminal code release

Officers holding the rank of _______/______ or higher rank are designated as officers in charge, And designated by the ______ of _______. A letter on the services letterhead indicating such authorization is available when requested in court

A

sergeant/detective

chief of police.

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25
Q

Police officer;

Where a person is to be charged with
 an indictable offence falling within the absolute jurisdiction of a Provincial Court Judge

a dual procedure offence; or
 a summary conviction offence

Shall

A

consider the issue of public interest, as well as attendance in court, and
 if these terms are met, compel the person’s appearance in court in the following manner
 issue a Form 9 as directed in Appendix A or
 proceed by way of a Criminal Summons in compliance with Procedure 01–09
 when releasing a person on an Form 9 or proceeding by way of a Criminal Summons, ensure they have been
served with a TPS 493 (what you need to know)
 if these terms are not met, arrest and bring the person before the officer in charge in compliance with
Procedures 01–01 and 01–03

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26
Q

Duties of the officer in charge when releasing someone for a sexual assault criminal harassment or domestic related Charge shall Ensure

A

When releasing an accused from the station on sexual assault, criminal harassment, or a domestic–related charge shall
ensure
 the victim is immediately notified of all release conditions and the next court date of the accused
 the victim is advised to engage in a safety plan, including the use of 9–1–1 in emergency situations, and to
contact Victim Services for safety planning information, as appropriate
 the victim is advised to contact the Ministry of the Attorney General’s Victim/Witness Assistance Program
 a TPS 483 (victim notification) is completed
 notations of the date, time, person contacted and other details, including attempts made to notify the victim are
 added as supplementary information to the original eReport
 made in the
 memorandum book or case book
 TPS 483
 a copy of the release documents and the TPS 483 are retained electronically in the designated folder on
the division’s Shared Drive Computer Application (X Drive)
[?] the TPS 483 and the original copy of

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27
Q

Bail Hearings and Detention Orders

Case Manager
If an accused person is presently before the courts shall

A

 ensure the case manager at the unit managing the outstanding charge is notified of the new arrest, court date and
location

 ensure compliance with Procedure 02–01, as appropriate

 ensure the items contained in the brief include a notation of the previous charge, court date and form of release

 if the accused person is currently before the courts in another jurisdiction, notify the agency managing the case via
CPIC of the date, time and location of the bail hearings for the new charges

 ensure compliance with Procedure 05–11 for any breach of bail or non–compliance with conditional release
If there is an outstanding warrant for the accused person in another jurisdiction, and the agency managing the charges
indicates they will return the accused to that jurisdiction shall

 ensure compliance with the applicable sections of Procedure 02–01

 include a TPS 178 and a copy of the warrant in the Confidential Crown Envelope (crown envelope)
When seeking a detention order shall ensure

 compliance with Procedure 12–01

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28
Q

Case Manager

When notified that bail has been granted to the accused shall

A

ensure that the conditions of release are communicated personally to the victim as soon as possible
- Bail conditions shall be communicated personally to the victim as close as possible to the time bail is
granted and not delayed until the time the accused person is actually released. It is not sufficient to
simply leave a message or letter outlining the release conditions at the victim’s address.

The conditions
contained on the release documents shall be reported to the victim. However, actual copies of the
release documents are not to be given to the victim by the police.

ensure the victim is notified of the next court date

 ensure the victim is advised to engage in a safety plan, including the use of 9-1-1 in emergency situations, and is
referred to Victim Services Toronto for safety planning information

 ensure the victim is advised to contact the Ministry of Attorney General’s Victim/Witness Assistance Program

 ensure the victim is advised of the option of registering with the Ministry of the Attorney General Victim Support
Line for release notification from a detention facility, if applicable

 monitor all court appearances of the accused person for potential variances to the original bail conditions

 if bail variances have been granted to the accused person, notify the victim as soon as possible of these changes

Upon completion of any notification of bail conditions to the victim shall ensure
 that proper notations of the date, time, person contacted and other details, including attempts made to notify the
victim are
 added as supplementary information to the original eReport

 made in the
 memorandum book or case book

 TPS 483, if applicable

 the Officer in Charge is notified of all results related to victim notification

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29
Q

Release conditions must be directly related to one of the grounds

A

Primary, secondary or tertiary outlined an SS515(10). 

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30
Q

Where in the opinion of the Case manager victim is believed to be a heightened risk due to release of the accused shall

A

the top Section of a TPS483 Is completed and inserted in the crown brief

The outside of the crown brief is marked “ victim notification” to alert court services that the victim notification is required should be accused be granted bail

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31
Q

Organize crime enforcement bail and parole is the…….

A

Only facility to be designated for the purposes of having an accused person report to the police the unit is open between 0900 and 2100 hours Monday through Friday. Except on stat holidays

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32
Q

Officer in Charge

When informed that an arrested person should be held for a bail hearing shall ensure

A

 the crown envelope is completed in compliance with Procedure 12–01
 that the brief clearly outlines that bail is being opposed or that conditions of release are appropriate to the circumstances
 compliance with Procedure 01–03
 consideration has been given to opposing bail whenever the safety of the victim, the victim’s dependents, witnesses,
or the public is believed to be at risk because of the actions of an accused person or because the nature of the
crime demands it
- The Officer in Charge has final decision to recommend the opposition of bail.

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33
Q

Officer in Charge

Upon receipt of a TPS 483 (victim notification) and release documents via e-mail from Court Services for sexual assault, criminal harassment,
a domestic-related case, or any other case as requested by the case manager shall

A

 ensure the police officer notifying the victim reviews the eReports prior to victim notification

 ensure compliance with item 6

Although the Officer in Charge may delegate the task of notifying the victim to another police officer, the
accountability for this obligation remains with the Officer in Charge. This is not a shared accountability.

 advise the police officer making the notification to notify the on–duty Officer in Charge of the results
Upon completion of any notification of bail conditions to the victim by the case manager, other police officer or themselves
shall ensure that proper notations of the date, time, person contacted and other details, including attempts made to
notify the victim are

 added as supplementary information to the original eReport

 made in the

 memorandum book or case book

 TPS 483, if applicable

 forward a copy of the release documents and the completed TPS 483 to the detective sergeant

 ensure the release documents and the completed TPS 483 are retained electronically in the designated folder in
the Unit’s Shared Drive Computer Application (X drive)

Upon receipt of release documents from Court Services indicating bail conditions for an accused person regarding a case
not identified in item 11 shall forward the documents to the detective sergeant.
Officer in Charge – Central Lock–up

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34
Q

Oic; Upon completion of any notification of bail conditions to the victim by the case manager, other police officer or themselves Shall

A

ensure that proper notations of the date, time, person contacted and other details, including attempts made to
notify the victim are

 added as supplementary information to the original eReport
 made in the
 memorandum book or case book

 TPS 483, if applicable

 forward a copy of the release documents and the completed TPS 483 to the detective sergeant

 ensure the release documents and the completed TPS 483 are retained electronically in the designated folder in
the Unit’s Shared Drive Computer Application (X drive)

Upon receipt of release documents from Court Services indicating bail conditions for an accused person regarding a case
not identified in item 11 shall forward the documents to the detective sergeant.

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35
Q

And arrest warrant is a written order signed by. (Name the three)

A

Signed by a judge, justice of the peace or corner. Page 35

Which directs peace officers within the territorial jurisdiction to apprehend the person named or describe there in

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36
Q

Bail hearings and Detention orders. Detective sergeant shall

Upon receipt of a completed TPS 483 and a release document from the officer in charge shall

A

Review the completed documents

Ensure the original documents or forward to the appropriate case manager

P35

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37
Q

Officer in Charge central lock ups regarding bail hearings and Detention orders

A

Shall ensure the crown envelope is completed in compliance with procedure 1201

Compliance with Procedure 01-03

Accused person is fingerprinted prior to transport a Court

The completed crown’s envelope crown’s calendar arrive at court for the first appearance

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38
Q

Officer and Charge regarding bail hearings and Detention orders. When you take receipt of forfeited items from the accused shall.

A

Items such as license registration certificate authorization or other document enabling the acquisition or possession of a firearm or a weapon or travel documents including passport from the accused person Surrendering items as part of the bill condition shall comply with procedures 05-21, 09-01, 09-03

Notify the case manager that he accused person has complied with the applicable bail conditions

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39
Q

Officer in Charge

When releasing an accused from the station on sexual assault, criminal harassment, or a domestic–related charge shall
ensure

A

the victim is immediately notified of all release conditions and the next court date of the accused
 the victim is advised to engage in a safety plan, including the use of 9–1–1 in emergency situations, and to
contact Victim Services for safety planning information, as appropriate
 the victim is advised to contact the Ministry of the Attorney General’s Victim/Witness Assistance Program
 a TPS 483 is completed
 notations of the date, time, person contacted and other details, including attempts made to notify the victim are
 added as supplementary information to the original eReport
 made in the
 memorandum book or case book
 TPS 483
a copy of the release documents and the TPS 483 are retained electronically in the designated folder on
the division’s Shared Drive Computer Application (X drive

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40
Q

Warrant in the first instance. Outline the six bullet points of the public interest where advising a justice in application for a warrant in the first

A

1) accused has fled,
2) The accuses is evading capture,
3) Danger to the public,
4) danger to the victim and or witnesses,
5) Nature and or seriousness of the offence,
6) all attempt to locate a Suspect have been exhausted

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41
Q

Person arrested on Warrant the first must be presented to the court for a bail hearing unless

A

The warrant was endorsed by the issue justice authorizing the release of the arrested person by an officer in charge

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42
Q

Bench warrant. P36

What form is is

A

A bench warrant is a form 7 issued by justice having jurisdiction when the accused has failed to attend court

When directed by summons appearance notice promise to appear reconnaissance entered before an officer in charge, judicial interim release or
When directed by the record to return on a subsequent date

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43
Q

When a person is arrested Pursuant to a Superior Court bench warrant Who is notified and how

A

The Superior Court Liaison Detective fourth with by telephone voicemail or TPSE fax of the following information

Name of the accused date of birth charge date of issue a bench warrant

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44
Q

5.2 for drugs. How many days

A

14 for federal offences
28 for everything else.

Once the Justice and the member have signed and dated the Form 5.2 and copies shall
 file the original signed Form 5.2 at the court, attached to the original Information, if applicable
 place 1 copy of the signed Form 5.2 into the crown envelope to ensure it will be available for disclosure within 14
days for Federal cases and 28 days for all other cases, from date of charge, if applicable
 send 1 copy of the signed Form 5.2 to the Case Manager via inter–departmental mail, if applicable
 e-mail all the information on the Form 5.2 to the Property & Video Evidence Management Unit (PVEMU) and the
Case Manager, if applicable, using the Form 5.2 E-mail Template to: Report to a Justice – PPB/TPS
- The Form 5.2 E-mail Template can be saved then e-mailed to the PVEMU.
 comply with Appendix A

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45
Q

Surety warrants page 37

A

Surety excepts responsibility for a good conductAnd appearance at court of the accused. A surety warrant is issue when the person who is acting a suretyAppears before a justice and requests relief

The original information shall be brought to the sitting court house where the accused is.

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46
Q

Material witness warrants; describe

A

Material witness warrants are issued by a

Justice for the apprehension of a witness who is evading service of a subpoena

or has not appeared in court after being served a subpoena (s. 698 and 705 CC).

No charge is laid as a result of the warrant being issued.

Following an arrest, a bail hearing must be held to determine if the witness should be released until required to appear and give evidence.

A person arrested solely for a material witness warrant shall not be fingerprinted.

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47
Q

Immigration warrants. Define them p37

A

Under section A55(1) of the Immigration and Refugee Protection Act (IRPA), a Canada Border Services Agency (CBSA)
officer may issue a warrant for the arrest and detention of a permanent resident or a foreign national whom the officer has
reasonable grounds to believe is inadmissible and is a danger to the public or is unlikely to appear for examination, for an
admissibility hearing, for removal from Canada or at a proceeding that could lead to the making of a removal order by the
Minister under subsection A44(2) of the IRPA.
When an inadmissible individual fails to comply with a CBSA officer’s request to appear at an enforcement office for reasons
such as receipt of a pre–removal risk assessment (PRRA) determination or to enforce their removal from Canada at a port
of entry, the CBSA officer may issue a warrant for the arrest and detention of the individual. After a full investigation, if the
individual cannot be located, a Canada–wide warrant for their arrest is entered on the Canadian Police Information Centre
(CPIC) system, which is accessible to all law enforcement agencies and ultimately gives their officers the authority to arrest
on the CBSA’s behalf.

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48
Q

Family responsibility arrest warrants 37

Fix this

A

The family responsibility office FRO is a centralized enforcement program mandate to force child and spousal court orders. I’ll be half of support recipients in the Family Court to ensure child and spousal support payments are made. Including conducting a default hearing under section 41 of the family responsibility and support arrears enforcement act

FRSAEA

If a support payer fails to attend an FRSAEA Default hearing Courtney issue a warrant for his arrest. The warrant directs officers to take the name person to court so that a justice can issue an undertaking under form 131 Directing the person to attend court at a later date

When the support payer is arrested on this type of warrant the person may be taken to the Family Court if the court is not sitting brought before a justice of the peace as soon as possible

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49
Q

FRO. WITH RESPECT TO ARREST warrants / arrest warrants

A

Family responsibility office. FRO

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50
Q

The only Facility in Ontario for treatment and control of contagious virulent or infectious disease

A

The west park healthcare centre located at 82 buttonwood age (12 Div)

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51
Q

Medical Orders
Define them
Hint; MOH…….

A

Medical Orders
When a patient either refuses to be confined for treatment or has escaped from a medical facility while undergoing treatment
for a contagious, virulent or infectious disease, the

______~______and _______~_______gives the Medical Officer of Health
(MOH) having jurisdiction the authority to apply for a **_____~_____ to compel the named person to be detained for treatment.

The order is specific to the named person, a named hospital and the police service in the jurisdiction where the application
is made. Unless otherwise specified in the order, the effective radius for medical orders is restricted to the jurisdiction of
the applicant MOH.

The West Park Healthcare Centre, located at 82 Buttonwood Avenue (in 12 Division), is the only medical facility in Ontario
for treatment and control of contagious, virulent or infectious disease.
02-19 Report to a Justice

*Health Protection and Promotion Act

** Court Order

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52
Q

Civil warrants there are two types

A

Small claims court warrants and Civil Court warrants

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53
Q

Reports a Justice. What section of the controlled drugs and substances act requires a 5.2 to be completed for drug seizures

A

Section 13

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54
Q

CDSA

A

Controlled drugs and substances act

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55
Q

Report to a Justice
The management of all property seized by members of the Toronto Police Service (Service) is an integral part in the
administration of justice. A Report to a Justice (Form 5.2) is required by the Criminal Code (CC) every time property is
seized by a peace officer with or without warrant.
Section _____ of the Controlled Drugs and Substances Act (CDSA) requires that a Form 5.2 be completed for drug seizures.

Under the Provincial Offences Act (POA), a Return to a Search Warrant (TPS ______) is required for property seized under
the authority of a search warrant, or when property is seized in a warrantless search during the performance of an officer’s
duties under a Provincial Offences Statute, and where no procedure for dealing with the seized thing is otherwise provided
by law.

A Form 5.2 is an official document, presented during a hearing to a Justice, indicating the results of a search conducted
(with or without warrant) and/or property seized. The Justice will determine the disposition of property seized and will hear
requests for an Order for Continued Detention.

A

13

130

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56
Q

A 5.2 is what an________

A

An official document presented during a hearing to s justice indicating the results of a search conducted with or without warrant and or property seized. the justice will determine the disposition of property see it I will hear request for an order of continued attention

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57
Q

SS117.02, 117.03, 117.04 of the code is for what

A

In relation to 5.2 and seizing firearms weapons and ammunition

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58
Q

The police officer may elect to manage seized property in the following manner

A

 return the property to the lawful owner, if no charges have been laid and there is no dispute as to who is lawfully
entitled to possession of the thing seized

 hold for further investigation, where charges are pending or no charges laid and includes abandoned property

 continued detention of seized property where charges are laid and the seized property is required for further
investigation, preliminary inquiry, trial or other proceeding

The police officer shall consult with a crown attorney for direction on the return of property which was seized as evidence,
prior to returning any property to the lawful owner.

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59
Q

A Police Officer Shall consult with _______ For direction on the return of property which was seized as evidence prior to returning and property to the lawful owner

A

Crown attorney

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60
Q

Retention found property. Police officers are advised that found property is governed by the___________

A

Police services act

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61
Q

What are the timelines for found property

Bikes__________
All other general property_____

A

Bikes; 30 consecutive days

Other 90 Consecutive days

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62
Q

Members who may file a Report to a Justice (Form 5.2)
When a search warrant had been executed, the officer completing the Form 5.2 and attending a Report to a Justice Hearing
may include:

A

 affiant of the search warrant
 case manager
 exhibits officer
 seizing officer.

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63
Q

Who do you contact when seizing cash in relation to proceeds of crime

A

Organize crime enforcement unit - financial crimes - Asset forfeiture.

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64
Q

Officers from Detective Operations – Forensic Identification Services (FIS) who have large seizures at major crime scenes
shall

A

submit an exhibit list to the case manager listing all property seized.

The case manager shall ensure that a Form 5.2 is subsequently completed and filed in court.

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65
Q

Continued Detention Order
Once seized property has
 been entered as an exhibit at a preliminary inquiry, trial or other legal proceeding or
 where charges are laid

A

an Order for Continued Detention is no longer required.

The detention of seized property where no charges are laid shall not exceed 3 months from the date of seizure.

When further detention of the seized property is required beyond the 3 month period, a TPS 143 shall be completed.

The cumulative period of detention shall not exceed 1 year from the date of the seizure.

All applications for the continued detention of seized property shall be made before a Justice in the court location where
the search warrant was issued and/or the Form 5.2 was filed.

In circumstances where it is necessary to detain property beyond 1 year, an application for continued detention shall be
made before a Superior Court Justice. Such applications will be made through the Office of the Crown Attorney. Legal
Services (LSV) is available to provide assistance and direction to the case manager on this process.

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66
Q

A member (in member heading) p40

After seizing property with or without a warrant the police officer seizing the property shall

A

Complete the applicable 5.2

Place the paperwork in the crown envelope.

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67
Q

The property has been seized as a result of the execution of a search warrant and;

A

Charge laid or
No charges later
Charges are pending
Whenever possible the police officer who obtained the search warrant and the officer signing the 5.2 with a Warrant Shall be the same person.

The Report to a justice hearing shall be made meet before a justice in the same court location or the search warrant was issued

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68
Q

Officers may use a common informant to file the 5.2 when property has been seized without a warrant and

A

He accused is held for a show cause hearing
Excuse is released on the form nine or form 10
Charges are laid and or proceeding by way of criminal summons
Charges are pending

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69
Q

There is no requirement to complete a form 5.2 when abandon property is seized without warrant and

A

No rest is made or charges lead or

There are no charges pending

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70
Q

In the case of a Telewarrant the 5.2 shall we filed where

A

In the same jurisdiction where the search warrant was executed

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71
Q

When attending a Report to a Justice Hearing shall

A

 comply with Procedure 04–21

 complete an crown envelope in compliance with Procedure 12–01. Mark in red on the front ‘Report to a Justice’ and insert a copy of

 the search warrant and appendices

 the synopsis from the eReport outlining
 the location of the search
 the date and time of the search and seizure
 the accused name, a list of charges laid, or the name of the suspect, if known and a list of charges pending
 the connection between any property seized and charges laid or charges pending

 the disposition of property seized, including the reason any property is required to be held

 when a search warrant was executed, complete a Form 5.2 with warrant, and appendices if applicable,
forthwith

 when property is seized without warrant, complete a Form 5.2 without warrant or Form 5.2 without Warrant
– Common Informant, and appendices if applicable, forthwith
 make 2 copies of the Form 5.2 and note at the top of each form which is the original and which are the
copies

When appearing before a Justice, in addition to the above items listed in the crown envelope, may be asked to produce
 the original search warrant and appendices, if applicable
 a copy of the original Information to Obtain a Search Warrant (Information), if applicable
 the seized property when directed by a Justice
Where it is not feasible to transport the seized property to the courthouse shall photograph or videotape the evidence.
 Drugs and dangerous materials shall not be taken to court.
 The Information, or a copy thereof, shall not be filed with the Court or placed in the crown envelope

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72
Q

When attending a Report to a Justice Hearing shall

A

 comply with Procedure 04–21

 complete an crown envelope in compliance with Procedure 12–01. Mark in red on the front ‘Report to a Justice’
and insert a copy of

 the search warrant and appendices

 the synopsis from the eReport outlining

 the location of the search

 the date and time of the search and seizure

 the accused name, a list of charges laid, or the name of the suspect, if known and a list of charges pending

 the connection between any property seized and charges laid or charges pending

 the disposition of property seized, including the reason any property is required to be held

 when a search warrant was executed, complete a Form 5.2 with warrant, and appendices if applicable,
forthwith

 when property is seized without warrant, complete a Form 5.2 without warrant or Form 5.2 without Warrant
– Common Informant, and appendices if applicable, forthwith

 make 2 copies of the Form 5.2 and note at the top of each form which is the original and which are the
copies

When appearing before a Justice, in addition to the above items listed in the crown envelope, may be asked to produce

 the original search warrant and appendices, if applicable

 a copy of the original Information to Obtain a Search Warrant (Information), if applicable

 the seized property when directed by a Justice
Where it is not feasible to transport the seized property to the courthouse shall photograph or videotape the evidence.

 Drugs and dangerous materials shall not be taken to court.

 The Information, or a copy thereof, shall not be filed with the Court or placed in the crown envelope
Once the Justice and the member have signed and dated the Form 5.2 and copies shall

 file the original signed Form 5.2 at the court, attached to the original Information, if applicable

 place 1 copy of the signed Form 5.2 into the crown envelope to ensure it will be available for disclosure within 14
days for Federal cases and 28 days for all other cases, from date of charge, if applicable

 send 1 copy of the signed Form 5.2 to the Case Manager via inter–departmental mail, if applicable

 e-mail all the information on the Form 5.2 to the Property & Video Evidence Management Unit (PVEMU) and the Case Manager, if applicable, using the Form 5.2 E-mail Template to: Report to a Justice – PPB/TPS
- The Form 5.2 E-mail Template can be saved then e-mailed to the PVEMU.

 comply with Appendix A

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73
Q

The less lethal shotgun should not be used

A

on children, pregnant women or the elderly, except in situations where other
use of force options would have the potential to cause greater injury

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74
Q

Once the Justice and the member have signed and dated the Form 5.2 and copies shall
 ________ the original signed Form 5.2 at the court, attached to the ______ _______, if applicable
 place ____ copy of the ______ Form 5.2 into the crown envelope to ensure it will be available for disclosure within _____ days for Federal cases and _____ days for all other cases, from date of charge, if applicable
 send _____ copy of the signed Form 5.2 to the Case Manager via inter–departmental mail, if applicable
 e-mail all the information on the Form 5.2 to the ___________and the
Case Manager, if applicable, using the Form 5.2 E-mail Template to: Report to a Justice – PPB/TPS
- The Form 5.2 E-mail Template can be saved then e-mailed to the ______(same as after the…. This is the acronym).
Form 5.2 E-mail Template can be saved then e-mailed to the PVEMU.

 comply with Appendix A

After seizing property under the authority of the POA shall comply with applicable items 2 to 9, substituting TPS 130 for the
Form 5.2, as applicable.

A

 file

original Information,

1 copy of the

14

and 28 days

1 copy

Property & Video Evidence Management Unit (PVEMU)

PVEMU.

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75
Q

If a Justice refused to sign a Form 5.2 or recognize the common informant status shall
 request that the ______ be given on record
 notify the _______ _______by e-mail of the refusal, and request that the seizing officer attend in person to file the
Form 5.2
 complete a TPS 649 outlining the date and time, court location, name of the Justice and the circumstances, and
submit to the Unit Commander through the next level supervisor

A

reasons

the case manager

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76
Q

When property has been seized as a result of a multi–jurisdictional and/or joint forces operation shall ensure a Form ______ is
completed and filed before a Judge.

A

The Form 5.3

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77
Q

A form 5.3 is not contained in ______ forms

A

Tps Officers must refer to the criminal code for appropriate wording

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78
Q

If a 5.2 is not completed a person custody shall not be

A

Held from being transported to court

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79
Q

Case manager

when in receipt of an email notice from common informant Indicating the justice has refused to sign at 5.2 or recognize the common informant status shall ensure

A

The seizing officer attends a report to justice hearing as soon as possible

The common informant submits the TPS 649 to the unit Commander indicating a date time call location name of the justice and circumstances

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80
Q

The Ministry of the Attorney General will ensure that __________ _______ are made aware of their obligation
under the Criminal Code to request forfeiture of property seized prior to _________, if applicable to the case.
Once the Justice has signed the Forfeiture Order, the prosecutor is required to place the form in a drop box
located in the ______ _______’s office at the courthouse.

A

Crown Prosecutors

Sentencing

Detective sergeant’s

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81
Q

Where a Forfeiture Order is required shall ensure (This is in the report to justice section)

 at the time the charges are laid, the original applicable _________ ______ and _______ copy, (both shall be left blank) are
included in the crown envelope
 a copy of the applicable _________ reports are appended to each Forfeiture Order and placed inside the crown
envelope
 the forfeiture section on the back of the crown envelope is completed in full
 the crown prosecutor is made aware that a Forfeiture Order form is in the crown envelope prior to the trial and
sentencing of the accused

A

Forfeiture Order and 1 copy, (

property

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82
Q

Where an application for an Order for Continued Detention of property seized is required shall

A

 give notice to the court by completing a TPS 141, in triplicate, no later than 30 days prior to the expiration of the
current Order for Detention, ensuring the next available Hearing date is used
 serve a copy of the TPS 141 at least 3 business days (weekends and statutory holidays excluded) before the date
of the Hearing on the
 person from whom the property was seized, or
 lawful owner of the seized property, when ascertainable, or
 the parent, adult relative or other adult (refer to Youth Criminal Justice Act), when a young person has been
served with a “Notice of Hearing”
 if a search warrant was issued, provide the following documents to the court location where the search warrant was
issued and/or the Form 5.2 was filed, at least 2 days prior to the Hearing date
 a copy of the original crown envelope, containing
 a copy of the original search warrant and appendices, if applicable
 a copy of the original TPS 143
 a copy of the synopsis from the eReports outlining
 the location of the search
 the date and time of the search
 the accused name and a list of charges laid, or the name of the suspect and a list of charges pending, if
known
 the connection between any property seized and charges laid or charges pending
 the reason the property needs to be held
 appear before the Justice at the court with
 a copy of the TPS 141
 the original search warrant crown envelope containing the above mentioned documents, if applicable and,
 a TPS 143, in duplicate
 a copy of the original Form 5.2 and appendices, if applicable

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83
Q

When you’re seeking an order of continued detention beyond the 12 months shell.

This is in relation to report to justice and a 5.2

A

Consult with the office of the crown’s attorney prior to making an application before Superior Court, Justice

Legal services available to provide assistance and direction to the case manager

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84
Q

Member
When anonymously reporting information pertaining to an act of misconduct by another member, may report the information
by way of the dedicated telephone line at 416–343–7090.
Unless authorized to do so, shall not disclose any information received from anonymous reporting that might identify or
tend to identify a person who made the disclosure.
Upon receiving a request for disclosure of information contained in a TPS 909 shall immediately direct the request to the
attention of the _______ _______ – ______ ______.

A

Unit Commander – Legal Services.

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85
Q

After an order for continued Detention beyond 12 months has been signed by a justice shall

A

Email the information on the order for continued attention of property seized to PVEMUUsing the form 5.2 email template to report to justice PPB/TPS

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86
Q

Officer in Charge or Designate

The Officer in Charge or designate shall When reviewing 5.2 paperwork

A

 ensure that all required paperwork is complete, accurate and signed by the submitting officer and/or the supervisor
 ensure that all required paperwork is in the crown envelope and available for disclosure in accordance with this
Procedure and Procedure 12–08
 review all Form 5.2 and appendices prepared by officers under their direction
 review and approve or deny all requests from officers for permission to present a Form 5.2 personally to a
Justice, taking into consideration the exigencies of the Service

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87
Q

Detective Sergeant (Crown Liaison) – Court Services. Shall regarding signed Forfeiture orders

A

Detective Sergeant (Crown Liaison) – Court Services
 The Crown Liaison in each court location shall ensure
 a TPS drop box is available for crown prosecutors to place the signed Forfeiture Orders
 all received Forfeiture Orders are forwarded to the Unit Commander – PVEMU prior to the completion of
their tour of duty
Definitions

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88
Q

Definitions
For the purposes of this Procedure, the following definitions will apply:
(These are for review not too solve)

A

Definitions
For the purposes of this Procedure, the following definitions will apply:
Abandoned Property means a thing over which a person has surrendered any possessory right or privacy right and which
may or may not relate to a crime and/or crime scene and which potentially has some evidentiary value.
Affiant means a police officer who swears to an affidavit, commonly used when requesting a search warrant before a
Justice.
Case Manager means a police officer assigned to prepare and manage a case for trial. A case manager is assigned for
each Confidential Crown Envelope (crown envelope) and designated in accordance with established unit policy.
Common Informant the purposes of court disclosure means a divisional warrant officer, or an on-duty designate, or a court
officer who is a sworn peace officer, during the lawful execution of their duties.
 Court Officers may only act as a Common Informant for the purposes of bringing a Form 5.2 before a
Justice when property has been seized and the accused has been show caused (first appearance only)
and the Form 5.2 is completed correctly and is in the crown envelope at the time the accused is being held
for a show cause hearing.
Continued Detention means the detention of property beyond the initial 3 months from the date of seizure.
Exhibits Officer means a police officer delegated to seize all property, commonly used when a search warrant is executed.
Forfeiture means seizure of private property because
 it was illegally obtained, or
 it is an illegal substance, or
 the legal basis for possession has ended.
Forfeiture Order means an Order prepared and signed by a Justice to authorize the disposal of seized property by the
Public Prosecution Service of Canada (PPSC) and/or the Ministry of the Attorney General (MAG).

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89
Q

Can abandon property have evidentiary value

A

Yes. Pg43

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90
Q

Who can be an affiant

A

A police officer. Who swears to the affidavit, common use from requesting a search warrant before adjusters

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91
Q

Case manager

A

A police officer assigned to prepare and manage a case for trial case manager assigned for each confidential crown’s envelope and designated in accordance with establishing unit policy

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92
Q

Common informant

A

Divisional warrant officer, or an on duty designate, or a court officer who is a sworn peace officer during a lawful execution of their duties

Court Officers may only act as a Common Informant for the purposes of bringing a Form 5.2 before a
Justice when property has been seized and the accused has been show caused (first appearance only)
and the Form 5.2 is completed correctly and is in the crown envelope at the time the accused is being held
for a show cause hearing.

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93
Q

Continue detention in relation to property

A

Means of detention of property beyond the three months from the date of seizure

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94
Q

Forfeiture Order means an Order prepared and signed by a _______ to authorize the disposal of seized property by the
Public Prosecution Service of Canada (PPSC) and/or the Ministry of the Attorney General (MAG).

A

Forfeiture Order means an Order prepared and signed by a Justice to authorize the disposal of seized property by the
Public Prosecution Service of Canada (PPSC) and/or the Ministry of the Attorney General (MAG).

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95
Q

Forfeiture means seizure of private property because
 it was ________ ______, or
 it is an ______ ______, or
 the ______ basis for possession has ended.

A

Forfeiture means seizure of private property because
 it was illegally obtained, or
 it is an illegal substance, or
 the legal basis for possession has ended.

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96
Q

Found Property

A

Found Property means any property which was located by a member or a citizen and turned over to a member, and the
item (at the time) has no apparent evidentiary value.

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97
Q

Informational Material means

A

thing that is seized.

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98
Q

Justice means a _______ of the _____ or a Provincial Court Judge
(Source: S. 2 CC).

A

Justice of the Peace

Provincial Court Judge

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99
Q

Peace Officer – Report to Justice for the purposes of filing a Report to Justice means a police officer, or a court officer who
is a sworn peace officer.
Property means any article and/or document found by, seized by, surrendered to, or intended to be surrendered to a
Service member.
Seized Property means a thing, including informational material, seized from a person and/or place, with or without a
warrant, by a peace officer without that person’s consent.
Seizing Officer means a peace officer who has seized property, either with or without a search warrant, and includes a
court officer during the lawful execution of their duties.
Surrendered Property means any article, document, informational material and/or thing whose possession has been
voluntarily given to a member and the item (at that time) may or may not have

A

Ff

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100
Q

Information material

A

Information means information obtained from a thing that is seized

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101
Q

Seizedproperty

A

Means a thing including a Informational Material see you from a person or a place with her without a warrant by a peace officer without that person is concerned

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102
Q

Seizing officer

A

Is a peace officer who m has seized property either with or without a search warrant and includes a court officer during the lawful execution of their duties

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103
Q

Divisional Detective attendance mandatory for what type of Death occurrences.

A

 death of a child under 5

 sudden unexpected death of a child

 unnatural sudden death

 sudden unexpected death, apparent suicide or accident where the only witness or person present at the time of
death or the finding of the body is an intimate partner, past or present

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104
Q

Supervisory Officer notification mandatory for death investigations

A

 attempt suicide

 unable to confirm/establish identity of the deceased person

 unable to determine next of kin

 unable to notify next of kin in person

 request by another police service to notify next of kin

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105
Q

Death of a child under five who must attend

A

Supervisor divisional detective attendance is mandatory.

  • Also with a sudden unexpected death of a child
  • Unexpected Sudden death
  • Sudden unexpected death, apparent suicide or accident were the only witness or person present at the time of the death or the finding of the body is an intimate partner past or present
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106
Q

Supervisory Officer notification mandatory for
This is in relation to death investigations

A

 attempt suicide

 unable to confirm/establish identity of the deceased person

 unable to determine next of kin

 unable to notify next of kin in person

 request by another police service to notify next of kin

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107
Q

When will the paramedic not transport

A

Not transfer individuals pronounced or obviously dead. Only transport away from public view the body removal services is not readily available

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108
Q

Officers must remain vigilant for the possibility of foul play in every circumstances during a death investigation when

A

A sudden unexpected death

Or the person present at the time of death or finding of the body is a partner and particularly a partner with whole may have had an intimate relationship with recent or remote

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109
Q

Officer;

the chief Coroner will be notified and requested to attend when

A

In all cases of a unnatural Sudden death
The corner is responsible for pronouncing death in the absence of another qualify medical practitioner and will authorize removal of the body

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110
Q

After pronouncement of death by the by the corner nobody should not be touched or moved without the direction of the corner however

A

It may be possible to allow the family early access and Movement of the body following the initial discussion with a corner regarding the circumstances of death

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111
Q

Identification of the Deceased
The investigator heading an investigation, or a police officer designated by the investigator, shall attend the morgue and be
physically present when a deceased is identified under the following circumstances:

A

 homicide, suspected homicide or other related criminal offences

 cases where the investigating officer has requested the presence of another officer

 cases where an inquest has been or is likely to be called

 when the Coroner believes it is necessary due to the nature of the case, or the condition of the person doing the
identification.

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112
Q

Homicide suspect a homicide or other related criminal offenses. This question is in relation to the morgue

A

The Investigator heading an investigation or a police officer designated by the investigator shall attend the morgue and be physically present

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113
Q

If an inquest is likely to be called what shall the investigator heading an investigation or a please officer Designated by Investigator do

A

Attend the morgue

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114
Q

If the identification of a deceased cannot be determined who shall be notified

A

The missing persons unit and the global email address

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115
Q

What does the medical director of the facility determine

A

The medical Director of facility determines who is admitted during a post Mordom them examination I am a grant only those who have an
essential need to be present

Health & Safety Practices during Post Mortem Examinations
Officers directed to attend and obtain the results of the post mortem examination should be aware that admittance into the
post mortem examination room is determined by the

Medical Director of the Facility and will be granted only to those who
have an

essential need to be present, including:

officers from Detective Operations – Forensic Identification Services (FIS) who are directly related to the case being autopsied and have a need for photographs and evidence collection

 a police officer who has direct information regarding the case and needs to be present for investigative reasons.

Access will be granted only to officers who have an operational, investigative or educational (by appointment only) need to be present.

Attendance should be restricted to the external examination period only unless there is a

pertinent, reasonable need to be
present through the entire post mortem examination.

An office has been set–up exclusively for officers to await the examination results.

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116
Q

f the identification of the deceased can not be determined at this time, shall ensure that the Missing Person Unit (MPU) is
notified via the global e-mail address at MissingPersons.
Health & Safety Practices during Post Mortem Examinations
Officers directed to attend and obtain the results of the post mortem examination should be aware that admittance into the
post mortem examination room is determined by the Medical Director of the Facility and will be granted only to those who
have an essential need to be present, including

A

officers from Detective Operations – Forensic Identification Services (FIS) who are directly related to the case being
autopsied and have a need for photographs and evidence collection
 a police officer who has direct information regarding the case and needs to be present for investigative reasons.
Access will be granted only to officers who have an operational, investigative or educational (by appointment only) need to
be present.

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117
Q

Attendance should be restricted to the _________ examination period only unless there is a

A

External.

pertinent, reasonable need to be
present through the entire post mortem examination.

An office has been set–up exclusively for officers to await the
examination results.

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118
Q

First Police Officer

The first police officer to arrive at the scene (of a death investigation) shall be responsible for

A

offender management (if applicable), preservation of
the evidence and the crime scene while awaiting the arrival of an appropriate investigator.
When responding to an attempt suicide, a possible sudden death or an unnatural sudden death shall attend the scene
promptly.
Upon arrival at the scene shall

 designate a line of approach to the victim that allows for the least contamination possible

 take charge of the scene until the arrival of a supervisory officer

 in the absence of a doctor or Paramedics personnel
 assess the vital signs and responsiveness of the victim
 administer first–aid if signs of life are present while using the universal precautions as detailed in Procedure
08–07

 ensure the victim receives immediate medical attention

 request additional assistance as required

 request the attendance of a supervisory officer

 pending the arrival of a supervisory officer, assign officers to complete necessary tasks

 advise Paramedics and Toronto Fire Services (TFS) personnel of medical and suicide attempt details
 if the body has been moved, make note of the original position and any items moved to gain access to the body
 ensure the communications operator is advised of the details of the incident
 conduct a Person Query, including a CPIC and Canadian Firearms Registry On–line (CFRO) check
 determine whether any of the individuals involved in the occurrence own, possess or have access to a firearm,
ammunition, firearms certificate, registration certificate, permit, licence or authorization and comply with Procedure
05–21
 Officer and public safety is compromised when firearms are left in a deceased’s dwelling and may come
into the possession of an unlicensed person and/or person untrained to properly handle firearms.
 ensure a police officer accompanies the victim to hospital
Additional Police Officers

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119
Q

CFRO

A

Canadian firearms registry online

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120
Q

If a body has a moved make a note of

A

Original position and any items moved to gain access

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121
Q

On the scene of a sudden death Officer shall inquire if

A

The disease was in possession of firearms and ammunition firearms certificate registration certificate permit license or authorized and an authorization and comply with procedure 05-21

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122
Q

When responding to an attempt suicide, a possible sudden death or an unnatural sudden death shall

A

attend the scene promptly
 in the absence of a supervisory officer take direction from the first police officer
Police Officers

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123
Q

Police Officers
Upon discovering
 the death of a child under 5 years of age
 the sudden unexpected death of a child
 a suspicious death or suspected homicide, which may include
 an unexplained or unknown cause of death
 found human remains
 obvious or suspected foul play
 any other suspicious circumstances
 shall __________ the death as _______ and comply with Procedure 05–01.

A

 shall treat the death as suspicious and comply with Procedure 05–01.

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124
Q

Police officers
Upon discovering a sudden unexpected death, apparent suicide or accident where the only witness or person present at
the time of death or the finding of the body is an intimate partner, past or present shall
 remain _______ for the possibility of foul play
 request the attendance of a _____ officer and a divisional ______

A

vigilant for

supervisory officer and a divisional detective

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125
Q

When investigating a sudden death in the emergency department of a hospital shall ensure, as part of the investigation that
hospital staff and other caregivers have not __________ _______ with or _______ the body in such a way as to compromise
the evidence and the investigation.

A

intentionally interfered

altered

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126
Q

Police officer

When investigating an unnatural sudden death shall

A

 request the attendance of a supervisory officer and a divisional detective

 request the attendance and confirmation of notification of the Coroner

 leave the body undisturbed when death has been pronounced or where death appears obvious due to
decomposition, decapitation, transection, gross rigor mortis, gross outpouring of cranial or visceral contents, or a grossly charred body

Police Officers
Upon discovering ( this Is just extra  read)

 the death of a child under 5 years of age

 the sudden unexpected death of a child

 a suspicious death or suspected homicide, which may include

 an unexplained or unknown cause of death

 found human remains

 obvious or suspected foul play

 any other suspicious circumstances

 shall treat the death as suspicious and comply with Procedure 05–01.

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127
Q

If a properly completed consent form relating to organ donation is located. This is in the death notification section

A

Notify the corner, paramedics, and hospital personnel

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128
Q

Death investigations. When can a SOCO be assigned to examine crime scenes

A

At the discretion of the officer in charge at FIS

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129
Q

A SOCO. Shall not be assigned to the death involving

A
  • A sudden unexpected death of a child
  • of a child under five years of age
  • A suspicious death or suspected homicide
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130
Q

Death investigation;

If an active criminal record, outstanding criminal warrants, or the identification of the deceased is in question.

A

Request FIS TO finger print and photograph the deceased

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131
Q

The marine unit is notified and their attendance requested when investigating a A death resulting from a

A

Scuba diving accident

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132
Q

When a deceased is found in the bathtub record in the memo book

A

the approximate depth and temperature (e.g. hot, cold or room temperature) of any water present in the bathtub
 the position of the body (e.g. supine, prone or some other position)
 which end of the bathtub the head was positioned
 whether the body is wet or dry, including the hair
 whether the head is submerged at least up to and including mouth and nose
 whether the fingers and/or feet show signs of prolonged immersion
 whether there is evidence of froth in the mouth or nose
 whether the water stopper is engaged
 whether there is evidence to suggest that the deceased may have fallen into the bathtub.
- A finding of drowning is rarely based on definitive autopsy findings. Information from the initial responder is
therefore often critical in these cases in determining the cause and manner of death.

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133
Q

When responding to a rail–related attempt suicide or death on TTC property shall

A

 ensure the electrical power is turned off before approaching the track level
 comply with Procedure 10–10
 make every effort to restore subway service as soon as practicable
Undue subway delays cause safety concerns and a tremendous inconvenience to the TTC and the public.

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134
Q

Before moving a body from a TTC track level shall

When investigating a death on TTC property, upon the direction of the Coroner shall

A

 obtain a stretcher from under the platform, place the body and any dismembered parts on the stretcher and remove
from public view only after

 the Coroner has authorized the removal of the body, and
 the scene has been photographed, and

 a supervisor or detective has been consulted and authorized the removal of the body

 if the body must be moved prior to the scene being photographed, outline the position of the body

Unless otherwise directed, there is no requirement to await the arrival of a detective prior to removing the body.

All subway platforms have rooms available, out of public view, where the body may be removed at the Coroner’s direction.

This permits the TTC a timely return to service and protects the sensibilities of the public. These rooms also allow for
temporary storage of the remains until such time as body removal services are available.

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135
Q

Regarding deaths on TTC property track level. Is there a requirement to await the arrival of a detective prior to removing the body

A

No. P48

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136
Q

When investigating an attempt suicide/suicide by apparent gas poisoning (natural gas, carbon monoxide, etc.) shall

A

 ensure that no person in the immediate area uses any item which may cause unintentional ignition, such as an
open flame, cigarette, electric switch, doorbell, cellular telephone or portable radio, etc.
 if it is safe to do so turn off the source of the gas
 remove the victim to fresh air
 conduct a search of the location for other persons and remove them to safety
When there are concerns that a hazard continues to exist shall
 evacuate all persons in compliance with Procedure 10–09
 request assistance to evaluate the hazard
 not remain in the area
- The TFS, local utilities, and the Ministry of the Environment are equipped to remove such hazards.
 consider the notification and attendance of the Emergency Management & Public Order – Explosive Disposal Unit
(EDU) in compliance with Procedure 10–08

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137
Q

Where concerns exist re gas leak

A

When there are concerns that a hazard continues to exist shall
 evacuate all persons in compliance with Procedure 10–09
 request assistance to evaluate the hazard
 not remain in the area
- The TFS, local utilities, and the Ministry of the Environment are equipped to remove such hazards.
 consider the notification and attendance of the Emergency Management & Public Order – Explosive Disposal Unit
(EDU) in compliance with Procedure 10–08

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138
Q

EDU

A

Explosive disposal unit

In the Emergency management in public order unit

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139
Q

Medication cell not be placed in ________with the body

A

The body bag

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140
Q

Death investigations

Medications should not be taken to Forensic Pathology Units or hospital–based pathology units,

A

unless specifically requested by the pathologist, and only following a case–by–case consideration.
Medications shall not be placed in the body bag or otherwise sent with the body.

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141
Q

Death invitations

comply with Procedures 02–19 and 09–04 when seizing illicit drugs/substances, prescription and controlled
substances pursuant to the

( there acts)

02-19 is 5.2 etc
09-04 is controlled drug and substances Procedures

A

Coroners Act,

Controlled Drugs and Substances Act or the

Food and Drugs Act, as
applicable

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142
Q

Police officer

When investigating an attempted suicide or death by gunshot shall

A

 comply with Procedure 05–21

 if the firearm must be moved for safety reasons, ensure detailed notes are completed regarding the condition of the
firearm, including the position of the action, safety, and any ammunition

 when seizing any firearm, ensure the firearm is rendered safe and the firearm, ammunition and any ejected
ammunition components are handled in compliance with Procedure 09–03

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143
Q

When investigating a death attributed to consumer products shall notify

A

Health Canada, consumer product safety

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144
Q

Health Canada, consumer product safety

When are they notified
This is in the death investor section

A

When is death is attributed to consumer products

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145
Q

When the apparent cause of death is from hanging

A

shall remove the person in such a manner as to preserve the knot, whenever
possible.

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146
Q

When the death is apparently caused by jumping or being thrown from a height shall

A

 search the area for articles of clothing, property or identification which may have fallen from the body
 search the area for body parts, if applicable
 search the location from which the person jumped

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147
Q

When do you not search pockets or clothing of the deceased person for drugs or drug-related paraphernalia

A

In the cases of homicides are criminally suspicious deaths. P50

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148
Q

Police officer;

When the Coroner has ordered an autopsy shall

A

 except in cases of homicides and criminally suspicious deaths, search the pockets and clothing of the deceased
for any illicit drugs or drug related paraphernalia

 if any illicit drugs or drug related paraphernalia are located, ensure the items are seized in accordance with
Procedures 02–19, 04–21, and 09–04, as applicable
- These items create a high-risk situation for all involved and must never accompany the body sent for
post-mortem examination, except in cases of homicides and criminally-suspicious deaths.

 remain with the body until the removal service has attended

 record in the memorandum book the

 presence or absence of any valuables, including jewellery

 exact position of the jewellery on the body

 details of the removal of the body

 maintain continuity by accompanying the body to the morgue or applying a TPS 214 to the body bag prior to removal
to the morgue

  • Bodies should always be transported and stored in the supine (face up) position pending post mortem
    examination to avoid introducing artefacts which may obscure post mortem findings.
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149
Q

How should bodies be transported to the morgue and why

Meaning position of the body

A

In the supine method to prevent introducing artefacts which mayaffect Post Morton finding

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150
Q

Drugs and drug paraphernalia should be removed from the body before

A

Being sent to the postmortem examination these items create a high risk situation for all involved. Except in cases of homicide and criminally suspicious deaths where they remain

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151
Q

If it deceased is a former member of the Canadian forces and destitute

A

Can apply to the Last Post Fund for burial

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152
Q

If the deceased is destitute can apply to what for burial

A

Toronto Social Services

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153
Q

When the next of kin is present at the location of a natural sudden death

Re valuables and offering support

A

shall search the deceased and list valuables and personal effects in the memorandum book
 shall give all valuables and personal effects to the next of kin, requesting that they sign the memorandum book in
receipt
 shall offer the next of kin the use of Victim Services Toronto in compliance with Procedure 04–31
 where there are concerns about the well–being of the next of kin, in addition to offering the use of Victim Services
Toronto, should consider contacting other family members, neighbours, friends, or clergy to assist
 where no autopsy has been ordered, shall ensure the well–being of the next of kin prior to leaving the scene,
including assistance in contacting a funeral service
 if the deceased is obviously destitute, should advise the next of kin they may apply to Toronto Social Services for
burial or to the Last Post Fund if the deceased is a former member of the Canadian Forces

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154
Q

A Firearms Interest Police (FIP) entry is auto–generated and uploaded to CPIC from the eReport entry.
What does the fip Report do;

A

The FIP database in CPIC flags an individual applying for a firearms licence who has committed, or
threatened to commit, an act of violence. Such a flag is not an automatic refusal to issue a licence, but
assists in the initial screening process or subsequent review by a Chief Firearms Officer.

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155
Q

When assigned to attend a post mortem examination shall obtain the results and add the _________ information to
the original eReport.
Supervisory Officer

A

supplementary

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156
Q

When notified have an attempted suicide a supervisor shall Assess the situation and if ______necessary

A

Attendance the sceen

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157
Q

Supervisor when Notified of a sudden death shall

A

Attend the scene promptly

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158
Q

SupervisorWhen When notified of an unnatural sudden death shall

A

 take charge of the scene

 provide assistance and direction to the police officers at the scene

 ensure a police officer accompanies the body to the hospital

 request/assign further assistance, as required

 ensure the attendance of

 a divisional detective

 the Coroner

 a FIS investigator

 ensure a police officer accompanies the body to the hospital

 advise the Officer in Charge of all pertinent information

Whenever possible, notification of next of kin should be made by a supervisory officer in lieu of a
constable.

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159
Q

Supervisor; When notified of an unnatural sudden death shall

A

 take charge of the scene
 provide assistance and direction to the police officers at the scene
 ensure a police officer accompanies the body to the hospital
 request/assign further assistance, as required
 ensure the attendance of
 a divisional detective
 the Coroner
 a FIS investigator
 ensure a police officer accompanies the body to the hospital
 advise the Officer in Charge of all pertinent information
 ensure a police officer has been assigned to notify the next of kin, if necessary
- Whenever possible, notification of next of kin should be made by a supervisory officer in lieu of a
constable.

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160
Q

When dealing with
 the death of a child under 5 years of age
 the sudden unexpected death of a child
 a suspicious death or suspected homicide, which may include
 an unexplained or unknown cause of death
 found human remains
 obvious or suspected foul play
 any other suspicious circumstances
shall

A

treat the death as suspicious and ensure compliance with Procedure 05–01.
When notified of a sudden unexpected death, apparent suicide or accident where the only witness or person present at the
time of death or the finding of the body is an intimate partner, past or present shall
 remain vigilant for the possibility of foul play
 ensure the attendance of a divisional detective

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161
Q

Supervisor

When notified of an unnatural sudden death shall
 take _______ of the scene
 provide _______ and direction to the police officers at the scene
 ensure a _____ ______ accompanies the body to the hospital
 request/assign further assistance, as required
 ensure the attendance of
 a _______ \______
 the Coroner
 a FIS investigator
 advise the _______ in ______ of all pertinent information
 ensure a police officer has been assigned to notify the next of kin, if necessary
- Whenever possible, notification of next of kin should be made by a supervisory officer in lieu of a
constable.

A

charge

 assistance

a police officer

a divisional detective

Officer in Charge

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162
Q

When notified of an unnatural seven deaths who shall attend

A

Supervisory and Officer and Division Detective p51

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163
Q

Who confers with a corner and obtains the corners warrant when investigating an unnatural sudden death

A

Divisional detective

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164
Q

Detective – Division
The divisional investigator shall be responsible for ensuring effective management of the scene, the thoroughness of the
investigation, and that the appropriate notifications are made.
(Unnatural Sudden Death)

A

When notified of an unnatural sudden death shall
 attend the scene and co–ordinate the investigation
 ensure the attendance of FIS personnel, as required
 ensure that valuables seized for safekeeping are handled in compliance with Procedure 09–01
 provide direction concerning the return of valuables to the next of kin
 confer with the attending Coroner and obtain a copy of the Coroner’s warrant;
 provide the following information to the Coroner before leaving the scene
 original eReport number;
 identification of deceased and method of confirmation, if known;
 name, address, phone number and relationship of next of kin, if known; and
 name, badge number and a contact phone number of assigned investigator
- It is imperative that the Coroner is provided with a contact number of the assigned investigator in the
event that additional information is required from the Service prior to the autopsy being conducted.
 ensure identification of the deceased person is confirmed, if possible
 add supplementary information to the original eReport listing
 method of identification confirmation; and
 name, address and phone number of the person making the identification

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165
Q

What is a Division Detective do at the scene of an unnaturally sudden death

A

The divisional investigator shall be responsible for ensuring effective management of the scene, the thoroughness of the
investigation, and that the appropriate notifications are made.
When notified of an unnatural sudden death shall
 attend the scene and co–ordinate the investigation
 ensure the attendance of FIS personnel, as required
 ensure that valuables seized for safekeeping are handled in compliance with Procedure 09–01
 provide direction concerning the return of valuables to the next of kin
 confer with the attending Coroner and obtain a copy of the Coroner’s warrant;
 provide the following information to the Coroner before leaving the scene
 original eReport number;
 identification of deceased and method of confirmation, if known;
 name, address, phone number and relationship of next of kin, if known; and
 name, badge number and a contact phone number of assigned investigator
- It is imperative that the Coroner is provided with a contact number of the assigned investigator in the
event that additional information is required from the Service prior to the autopsy being conducted.
 ensure identification of the deceased person is confirmed, if possible
 add supplementary information to the original eReport listing
 method of identification confirmation; and
 name, address and phone number of the person making the identification

when the Coroner has ordered an autopsy, ensure the following reports are completed and forwarded to the
Coroner’s Office prior to the Post Mortem Examination
 applicable eReports
 Preliminary Police Report
- The Preliminary Police Report was developed by the Office of the Chief Coroner and shall be
completed, in addition to the applicable eReport, for any unnatural sudden death where the Coroner
has ordered an autopsy.
 maintain continuity by ensuring
 a TPS 214 is applied to the body bag prior to removal to the morgue, or
 a police officer accompanies the body to the morgue
 ensure an officer attends and obtains the results of the Post Mortem Examination then adds the supplementary
information to the original eReport
 consider and exercise, where applicable, all powers of search and seizure, with and without warrant, relating to
weapons, firearms, ammunition, explosives and the related licences, certificates or permits
 notify Organized Crime Enforcement – Integrated Gun & Gang Task Force when firearms are or may be a factor
 notify the MPU via the global e-mail address at MissingPersons
- The MPU is available as a resource in all unidentified human remains investigations that will provide
direction, guidance, follow-up and support. The MPU will also ensure all relevant information is
entered on the National Centre for Missing Persons

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166
Q

What is a Preliminary Police Report. In relation the death investigations

A

The Preliminary Police Report was developed by the Office of the Chief Coroner and shall be
completed, in addition to the applicable eReport, for any unnatural sudden death where the Coroner
has ordered an autopsy.

Oic; When notified of an unnatural sudden death shall ensure
 detective personnel are assigned and attend the scene
 a copy of the completed eReport and Preliminary Police Report are forwarded by TPS eFax to the Office of the
Chief Coroner as soon as practicable, and prior to the post mortem examination
 if involving a foreign national, notify Intelligence Services – Strategic Assessment and Analysis Section
- Landed Immigrants should be considered foreign nationals as they remain citizens of the country from
which they emigrated.

Unnatural sudden death and
And a Child under 5

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167
Q

Who do you Notify if firearms may be a factor add an unnatural sudden death

A

Guns and gangs

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168
Q

Who will ensure all relevant information is entered on the National Centre for Missing Persons and Unidentified Remains (NCMPUR) website.

A

The MPU

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169
Q

The ______ is available as a resource in all unidentified human remains investigations that will provide
direction, guidance, follow-up and support. The _____ will also ensure all relevant information is
entered on the National Centre for Missing Persons and Unidentified Remains (NCMPUR) website.

A

The MPU

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170
Q

When notified of a sudden unexpected death, apparent suicide or accident where the only witness or person present at the
time of death or the finding of the body is an intimate partner, past or a present a divisional detective shall

A

attend the scene and co–ordinate the investigation

 conduct a thorough investigation, remaining vigilant for the possibility of foul play

 determine if there is a history of prior domestic violence, intimate relationship dysfunction, or anything else to
arouse suspicion

 consult with the Coroner and the FIS investigator

 if suspicious circumstances exist, consult with a member of the On–Call Homicide Team prior to leaving the
scene

When in receipt of a request to release a suicide note to the next of kin shall consult with Records Management Services
(RMS) – Information Access – Access and Privacy Section on the appropriate course of action.
When the deceased cannot be readily identified shall

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171
Q

When in receipt of a request to release a suicide note to the next of kin a divisional detective shall

A

Records Management Services

(RMS) – Information Access – Access and Privacy Section on the appropriate course of action.

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172
Q

When the deceased cannot be readily identified shall

 request that _______ fingerprint and photograph the deceased

 consider the use of the _____ ______ _______ to complete a reconstructed image for a media release

 request that the _______ have a dentist complete an OPC 105

 ensure the OPC 105 is scanned and attached to the original eReport

 ensure the eReport number is forwarded to RMS – Operations (RMS – Ops) for inclusion in the CPIC Dental
Characteristics file

 consider contacting ______ regarding the completion of Interpol Disaster Victim Identification forms and the gathering
of samples for DNA analysis and comparison

 continue efforts to locate and notify the next of kin

 ensure identification is made by a ______, a ____~____ or a _______who knows the deceased in the presence of a morgue official

A

FIS fingerprint and photograph the deceased

FIS Forensic Artist

 request that the Coroner

contacting FIS

relative, a close friend or a person

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173
Q

When will the dentist complete an OPC105 form

A

When is deceased cannot be Identified. The request is from a corner to a dentist for this information.

Page 52

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174
Q

If an Unnatural Sudden Death involves a foreign national the officer in charge shell

A

Notify intelligence services strategic assessment and analysis section

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175
Q

Landed immigrant are considered _______ as they remain citizens of the country from which they immigrated

A

Foreign nationals

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176
Q

Major Case Manager – Detective Operations – Homicide Shall

When designated as the Major Case Manager shall

A

undertake the functions and responsibilities directed by the Ontario Major Case Management Manual
 comply with Procedure 05–01
Compassionate Messages

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177
Q

Police Officer
When it is necessary to notify next of kin shall complete the Next of Kin Information screen page.
When assigned to notify a next of kin of a death shall

A

 ensure the victim has been properly identified
 deliver the message in person or if unable to deliver the message in person, consult with a supervisory officer
 make every effort to contact the next of kin and deliver the information
 make every effort to leave the next of kin in the company of a support person or where appropriate, request the
assistance of Victim Services Toronto
When delivering a compassionate message on behalf of the investigating officer, obtain the necessary information from the
original eReport, including
 as much information as possible concerning the deceased such as how, when and where the death occurred

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178
Q

If Police officer’s attempts to reach a relative/next of kin are unsuccessful shall

A

 notify a supervisory officer
 add supplementary information to the original eReport
 send the relevant information and the original eReport number by V–mail to the Prime handle
- RMS – Ops will create and post a BOLO.
 if the deceased person is or appears to be of Aboriginal ancestry contact the Community Partnerships and
Engagement Unit (CPEU) – Aboriginal Peacekeeping section by telephone or by e–mail at “Aboriginal
Peacekeeping” for assistance in locating next of kin
- Additional assistance can be obtained from members of First Nations across Canada or from social
agencies dealing with Aboriginal issues. The web link to social agencies within the City of Toronto is
available on the CPEU – Aboriginal Peacekeeping webpage on the Internet.
 add supplementary information to the original eReport, including the Sudden Death Detail page

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179
Q

if the deceased person is or appears to be of Aboriginal ancestry contact the

A

Community Partnerships and
Engagement Unit (CPEU) – Aboriginal Peacekeeping section by telephone or by e–mail at “Aboriginal
Peacekeeping” for assistance in locating next of kin
- Additional assistance can be obtained from members of First Nations across Canada or from social
agencies dealing with Aboriginal issues. The web link to social agencies within the City of Toronto is
available on the CPEU – Aboriginal Peacekeeping webpage on the Internet.

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180
Q

Court Officers may only act as a Common Informant for the purposes of

A

bringing a Form 5.2 before a
Justice when property has been seized and the accused has been show caused (first appearance only)
and the Form 5.2 is completed correctly and is in the crown envelope at the time the accused is being held
for a show cause hearing.

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181
Q

Divisional detective

when the Coroner has ordered an autopsy, ensure the following reports are completed and forwarded to the
Coroner’s Office prior to the Post Mortem Examination

A

 applicable eReports
 Preliminary Police Report
- The Preliminary Police Report was developed by the Office of the Chief Coroner and shall be
completed, in addition to the applicable eReport, for any unnatural sudden death where the Coroner
has ordered an autopsy.
 maintain continuity by ensuring
 a TPS 214 is applied to the body bag prior to removal to the morgue, or
 a police officer accompanies the body to the morgue
 ensure an officer attends and obtains the results of the Post Mortem Examination then adds the supplementary
information to the original eReport
 consider and exercise, where applicable, all powers of search and seizure, with and without warrant, relating to
weapons, firearms, ammunition, explosives and the related licences, certificates or permits
 notify Organized Crime Enforcement – Integrated Gun & Gang Task Force when firearms are or may be a factor
 notify the MPU via the global e-mail address at MissingPersons
- The MPU is available as a resource in all unidentified human remains investigations that will provide
direction, guidance, follow-up and support. The MPU will also ensure all relevant information is
entered on the National Centre for Missing Persons and Unidentified Remains (NCMPUR) website.

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182
Q

Family Responsibility Arrest Warrants

This is just to read

A

Family Responsibility Arrest Warrants
The Family Responsibility Office (FRO) centralized enforcement program mandated to enforce child and spousal court
orders in the Province of Ontario. Staff from the FRO may commence and conduct proceedings on behalf of support
recipients in the family court to ensure child and spousal support payments are made, including conducting a Default
Hearing under s.41 of the Family Responsibility and Support Arrears Enforcement Act (FRSAEA).
If a support payor fails to attend a FRSAEA Default Hearing, the court may issue a warrant for arrest (Form 32B) under s.
41(7) of the FRSAEA. The warrant of arrest directs officers to take the named person to court so that a Justice can issue
an undertaking to appear (Form 131) to the person, directing them to attend a later court date.
When a support payor is arrested on this type of warrant, the person may be taken to the family court, or if the court is not
sitting, brought before a Justice of the Peace as soon as possible to be dealt with according to law

The FRO Warrant unit may be contacted to assist in determining the appropriate court return date to be noted on the
undertaking to appear or recognizance. Staff from the FRO can be reached via phone at 416-240-2443 (police only), and
members should leave a detailed voicemail message when contacting the FRO outside of regular business hours.

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183
Q

(FRO)

A

Family Responsibility Office

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184
Q

MOH

A

medical officer of health the MOH

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185
Q

Civil Warrants

A

There are two (2) types of civil warrants for arrest; namely, Small Claims Court warrants and Civil Court warrants. Members
executing a civil warrant shall also comply with Procedure 02–14.

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186
Q

Medical Orders

A

Medical Orders
When a patient either refuses to be confined for treatment or has escaped from a medical facility while undergoing treatment
for a contagious, virulent or infectious disease, the Health Protection and Promotion Act gives the Medical Officer of Health
(MOH) having jurisdiction the authority to apply for a court order to compel the named person to be detained for treatment.
The order is specific to the named person, a named hospital and the police service in the jurisdiction where the application
is made. Unless otherwise specified in the order, the effective radius for medical orders is restricted to the jurisdiction of
the applicant MOH.
The West Park Healthcare Centre, located at 82 Buttonwood Avenue (in 12 Division), is the only medical facility in Ontario
for treatment and control of contagious, virulent or infectious disease.

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187
Q

Bench Warrants – Fail to Appear or Additional Charge Being Laid
If a “Fail to Appear” or

A

Bench Warrants – Fail to Appear or Additional Charge Being Laid
If a “Fail to Appear” or additional charge is laid in relation to the execution of a bench warrant issued by the Superior Court
of Justice (Superior Court), the new charge will be heard in the Ontario Court of Justice (OCJ). However, the individual
must appear at the Superior Court on the bench warrant before any other court appearances for new or additional charges.
In circumstances where the Superior Court is not sitting, a remand to the next sitting date of the Superior Court shall be
sought at the bail hearing.
Members shall make a prominent notation on the confidential crown envelope (crown envelope) to ensure that the person
is not released until appearances have been made in both courts. A TPS 178 shall be completed and given to a court officer
at the OCJ.

Case managers shall advise the Liaison Detective at 361 University Avenue by telephone or TPS eFax of the execution of
a Superior Court bench warrant at the time of processing.
When a Superior Court bench warrant is issued, the Liaison Detective at 361 University Avenue shall advise the warrant
officer in the division in which the original charges were laid.
In the case of a person appearing on Toronto Police Service (Service) charges but also wanted on a warrant held by another
jurisdiction, a TPS 178 shall be completed and given to a court officer at the Superior Court.

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188
Q

Case Manager When property has been seized as a result of a multi–jurisdictional and/or joint forces operation shall ensure a Form;

A

Form 5.3 is completed and filed before a Judge.  The Form 5.3 is not contained in TPS Forms. Officers shall refer to the CC for the appropriate wording.

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189
Q

The Case Manager shall  ensure compliance with Procedures 02–18, 04–21, Chapter 9 and 12–01  ensure compliance with items 1 to 10  comply with Procedure 12–08 for disclosure matters  not hold a person in custody from being transported to court due to the Form 5.2 not being completed The Case Manager shall ensure all required paperwork  is complete, accurate and signed by the submitting officer and/or the supervisor  is in the crown envelope and available for disclosure in accordance with this Procedure and Procedure 12–08 When in receipt of an e-mail notice from a common informant indicating that a Justice has refused to sign a Form 5.2 or recognize the common informant status shall ensure  the seizing officer attends a Report to a Ju

A

The Case Manager shall  ensure compliance with Procedures 02–18, 04–21, Chapter 9 and 12–01  ensure compliance with items 1 to 10  comply with Procedure 12–08 for disclosure matters  not hold a person in custody from being transported to court due to the Form 5.2 not being completed The Case Manager shall ensure all required paperwork  is complete, accurate and signed by the submitting officer and/or the supervisor  is in the crown envelope and available for disclosure in accordance with this Procedure and Procedure 12–08 When in receipt of an e-mail notice from a common informant indicating that a Justice has refused to sign a Form 5.2 or recognize the common informant status shall ensure  the seizing officer attends a Report to a Ju

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190
Q

(OIPRD)

What does it stand for

A

Office of the Independent Police Review Director

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191
Q

OIPRD Liaison Officer – Chief of Police Designate
The OIPRD Liaison Officer will assume all the duties and powers of the _________ in matters respecting an incident
under investigation. The OIPRD Liaison Officer will coordinate the Service’s response to the OIPRD. The Chief of Police’s
OIPRD Liaison Officer must be a Senior Officer.

A

Chief of Police in matters respecting an incident

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192
Q

The Chief of Police has authorized the _______ – Professional Standards
(PRS) – Complaints Administration as the OIPRD Liaison Officer.
No member shall communicate directly or indirectly with any person from the OIPRD unless directed by the OIPRD Liaison
Officer.

A

Inspector – Professional Standards

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193
Q

All complaints shall be investigated on the merit and substance of the evidence and shall not involve an inquiry into the
________ of the complainant for the sole purpose of _______ the complainant’s credibility. Complainants shall not be
dissuaded from making a complaint, nor shall they be made to feel that there may be any type of retribution for filing a
complaint.

A

background

undermining

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194
Q

Chief of police Liason must be a

A

Senior officer

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195
Q

Delivery of a Complaint
Any member of the public may make an external complaint. A complaint shall be made on an OIPRD form which can be
obtained at any Service facility or at the OIPRD website. The OIPRD form can be submitted

A

electronically, or
 by mail, or
 by TPS eFax, or
 in person (or agent), or
 by delivering the OIPRD form to any Service facility.
Complaints about a police officer from another police service and third party complaints will also be accepted in the above
manner.

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196
Q

Local Resolution
A local resolution is an agreement between all parties prior to an OIPRD complaint being lodged. It must be resolved within
30 days of the complainant reporting to the police and involve a complaint that meets one of the below criteria:

A

*dealing with personal property, other than money or firearms or

*failing to treat a person equally, other than violations based upon the prohibited grounds in the Ontario Human 
Rights Code (Human Rights Code), or

 using profane language, or

 acting in a disorderly manner, or

 neglect of duty, or

 failing to work in accordance with orders, or

 failing to make a report or record entry, or

 conspiring and abetting to commit any of the above, or

 contravening any provision of the Police Services Act (PSA) or its Regulations of a less serious nature.
Local resolutions are facilitated by a supervisor and are to be documented on the prescribed OIPRD form.

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197
Q

Local resolutions are or are not placed in offices personnel file

A

Not

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198
Q

Customer Service Resolution

A customer service resolution in relation to uniform external complaints is;

A

an agreement between all parties after an external complaint has been lodged with the OIPRD, but not formalized. It must be referred by the OIPRD to Professional Standards (PRS), be resolved within 45 days
of the date of notice to PRS, and involve a complaint that meets one of the below criteria:
 dealing with personal property, other than money or firearms, or
 failing to treat a person equally, other than violations based upon the prohibited grounds in the Human Rights Code,
or
 using profane language, or
 acting in a disorderly manner, or
 neglect of duty, or
 failing to work in accordance with orders, or
 failing to make a report or record entry, or
 conspiring and abetting to commit any of the above, or
 contravening any provision of the PSA or its Regulations of a less serious nature.

Customer service resolutions are facilitated by a supervisor and are to be documented on the prescribed OIPRD form.

No record of a customer service resolution shall be placed in a police officer’s personnel file.
Informal Resolution

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199
Q

The categories of a external complaint Resolution

A

Local Resolution
A local resolution is an agreement between all parties prior to an OIPRD complaint being lodged. It must be resolved within
30 days of the complainant reporting to the police

Customer Service Resolution
A customer service resolution is an agreement between all parties after an external complaint has been lodged with the OIPRD, but not formalized. It must be referred by the OIPRD to Professional Standards (PRS), be resolved within 45 days
of the date of notice to PRS

Informal Resolution
An informal resolution is an agreement between all parties after a complaint has been lodged with the OIPRD and involves
conduct that is deemed less serious.
There are two types of informal resolutions:
a) Informal resolution occurs during the investigation
When a complaint is lodged directly with the OIPRD, the substance and nature of the complaint is not initially
established by police. The investigating supervisor may then resolve the complaint by way of an Informal
Resolution Agreement (004-0307 OIPRD). An Investigative Report 004-0309 OIPRD is not required.

b) Informal resolution occurs after the investigation is completed
After an investigation, when a completed Investigative Report (004-0309 OIPRD) has been forwarded to the
OIPRD, the OIPRD may suggest that an informal resolution is an option; which may or may not involve unit
level discipline.

Informal Resolutions are facilitated by a supervisor and are to be documented on the prescribed OIPRD form.
No record of an informal resolution shall be placed in a police officer’s personnel file.

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200
Q

Unit Complaint Coordinator
The investigating supervisor shall review the Unit Complaint Co–ordinator (UCC) e-mail daily for notice of new complaints,
if applicable.
When required to investigate an OIPRD conduct complaint shall initially establish the substance and nature of the complaint.
When determining that an OIPRD conduct complaint may be resolved by an informal resolution

A

 may utilize the following options
 discuss the matter with the complainant, and/or
 discuss the matter with the respondent officer, and/or
 facilitate a discussion between the respondent officer and the complainant, and/or
 facilitate an apology from the respondent officer, and/or
 refer the matter to mediation, if the complainant, respondent officer and Director of OIPRD consent
 shall record the particulars of the complaint and actions taken in the memorandum book
An Investigative Report 004-0309 OIPRD is not required when facilitating an informal resolution.

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201
Q

An Investigative Report 004-0309 OIPRD is not required when facilitating an ________ ______.

A

informal resolution.

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202
Q

With regard to death notifications if a detective is unable to located next of kin you can reach out to. The——— for assistance

A

Victim Services Toronto can assist by providing contact with these agencies.
 contact the office of the Public Trustee for assistance where no next of kin can be located

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203
Q

Child means any person under the age

A

Child means any person under the age of 18 years.

[Source: Child, Youth & Family Services Act, ss. 3(1)].

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204
Q

Homicide Investigation means an investigation led by Detective Operations - Homicide (Homicide) into the circumstances
surrounding a sudden death where there is:

A
\: 
 obvious or suspected foul play, 
 the cause of death cannot be explained, 
 found human remains, 
 any other suspicious circumstance.
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205
Q

Intimate Relationship includes;

A

Intimate Relationship includes current or former relationships between opposite sex and same sex partners and include
persons who:
 are legally married to one another;
 were previously married to one another;
 are not married, but are currently in a family–type relationship;
 are not married, but were formerly in a family–type relationship;
 have a child in common regardless of whether such persons have been married or lived together at one time,
or;
 are (or have ever been) involved in a dating relationship.

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206
Q

Major Case Manager have to have completed what course

A

Major Case Manager shall have successfully completed the Ontario Major Case Management Course
or equivalent as defined by the Ontario Police College, and; shall have the resources to manage investigations through the
minister–approved software, currently known as PowerCase.
[Source: Ontario Major Case Management Manual]

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207
Q

Major Case Manager means the investigator responsible for the effective governance and management of _______ ______
________ ______ investigation and possesses the knowledge, skills, and abilities to perform the functions of ________ _______
Management.

A

of every threshold
major case

Major Case

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208
Q

Major Case Manager had to be resources to manage investigations through the
minister–approved software, currently known as _______ ______.
[Source: Ontario Major Case Management Manual]

A

PowerCase

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209
Q

Arrest Authority
Section 494 of the Criminal Code (CC) provides authorities for arrest without warrant by any person.
In addition to the authorities to arrest without warrant given to any person in s. 494 CC, a peace officer is given additional
authorities under ss. 495(1), 524(2), 525(6) and 31(1) CC. A peace officer may arrest any person who

A

495(1) a) has committed an indictable offence, or a person the officer believes on reasonable grounds
has committed or is about to commit an indictable offence
b) the officer finds committing a criminal offence
c) on reasonable grounds, the officer believes is wanted on a warrant of arrest or committal,
which is in force within the territorial jurisdiction where the person is found, or
524(2) and 525(6) d) has contravened or is about to contravene the terms of a criminal release
e) has committed an indictable offence while on release for a criminal offence
Oic 31(1) f) is found committing or it is believed on reasonable grounds is about to commit a breach of the
peace

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210
Q

524(2) and 525(6) d) has contravened or is about to contravene the terms of a

A

524(2) and 525(6) d) has contravened or is about to contravene the terms of a criminal release
e) has committed an indictable offence while on release for a criminal offence

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211
Q

For the purposes of a Human Trafficking investigation, the Major Case Manager shall be an investigator from Detective
Operations – ______ ______ – _____ ______ Enforcement Team.

A

– Sex Crimes – Human Trafficking Enforcement Team.

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212
Q

For the purposes of a kidnapping investigation, the Major Case Manager shall be an investigator from ________ ________. ________

A

For the purposes of a kidnapping investigation, the Major Case Manager shall be an investigator from Detective Operations
- Organized Crime Enforcement.
.

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213
Q

In Death investigations

Primary Investigator means the investigator assigned by the ______ \_____ ______ in every threshold major case
investigation to perform the functions and responsibilities of the primary investigation function. The Primary Investigator
shall have the knowledge, skills, and abilities to perform the function; shall have successfully completed the Ontario _____
______ ______ Course or equivalent, as defined by the Ontario Police College.
[Source: Ontario Major Case Management Manual]

A

Primary Investigator means the investigator assigned by the Major Case Manager in every threshold major case
investigation to perform the functions and responsibilities of the primary investigation function. The Primary Investigator
shall have the knowledge, skills, and abilities to perform the function; shall have successfully completed the Ontario Major
Case Management Course or equivalent, as defined by the Ontario Police College.
[Source: Ontario Major Case Management Manual]

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214
Q

Sudden Death means an

A

unexpected death that is instantaneous or occurs within minutes or hours from any cause other than violence.

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215
Q

Unnatural Sudden Death means the ________ death of a person by ______, _______, _____ or _______
circumstances, and includes found human remains, in whole or in part.
04-05 Missing Persons

A

the unexpected

suicide, homicide, accident or

suspicious

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216
Q

Suicide means

A

intentionally caused by the person’s own actions.

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217
Q

Sudden Death means an

A

an unexpected death that is instantaneous or occurs within minutes or hours from any cause other
than violence.

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218
Q

Natural Causes means a death due to

A

explainable medical causes including old age or disease.

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219
Q

Primary Investigator means the investigator assigned by the Major Case Manager in every

A

threshold major case
investigation to perform the functions and responsibilities of the primary investigation function.

The Primary Investigator
shall have the knowledge, skills, and abilities to perform the function; shall have successfully completed the Ontario Major
Case Management Course or equivalent, as defined by the Ontario Police College.
[Source: Ontario Major Case Management Manual]
Sudden Death means an unexpect

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220
Q

Rationale
Missing person occurrences are a high-risk area of policing, and must be given appropriate levels of priority and resources
from the outset. Each missing person occurrence reported to the Toronto Police Service (Service) shall/will be treated as
an _________, given the potential that _________ may be uncovered at a later date.

A

investigation,

criminality

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221
Q

Supervision
 Supervisory Officer attendance mandatory for Level _____ and ____ searches with missing Person
 Supervisory Officer ________ mandatory for all missing person investigations

A

Supervision
 Supervisory Officer attendance mandatory for Level 2 and 3 searches
 Supervisory Officer notification mandatory for all missing person investigations

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222
Q

A missing person is a person where both the following circumstances exist with respect to the person:
 The persons whereabouts are ______ and,
- the person has not been in contact with people who would likely be in contact with the person, or
- it is reasonable in the circumstances to _______ for the person’s safety because of the circumstances
surrounding the person’s absence or because of any other prescribed considerations.
 A member of a _______ ______ is unable to locate the person after making reasonable efforts to do so.

A

unknown and,

fear

police force is

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223
Q

All reports of missing persons are accepted at the time that they are made and given full consideration and attention
regardless of:

A

 where the missing person resides;

 where the reportee resides;

 the reportee’s relationship to the missing person;

 the length of time the person has been missing; or

 the missing person’s age, sex, race, citizenship, ethnic origin, religion, sexual orientation, gender identity, gender
expression, belief, social standing, disability or lifestyle.

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224
Q

Missing Persons Act
The Missing Persons Act came into effect on ______ 1, _______. This legislation will assist police officers investigating missing
person occurrences by providing them with the ability, in certain circumstances, to:

A

July 1, 2019.

:
 obtain a court order for a person or entity to produce records that would assist in locating a missing person;

 obtain a search warrant to allow entry onto a premises to locate a missing person; and

 make an urgent demand for records without judicial authorization.

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225
Q

The missing persons unit is Responsible for occurrences of persons

A

Missing in the city of TorontoOr on the way to or from the city of Toronto.
This includes both newly reported and historic cases Of missing persons any and Unidentified human remains

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226
Q

The missing person unit is responsible to enter all relevant information onto the

A

National Centre for missing persons and unidentified remains website.NCMPUR

(NCMPUR) means the national centre created and
maintained by the Royal Canadian Mounted Police (RCMP) to compile data on missing persons and unidentified remains.
The Toronto Police Service supports the centre and encourages officers to forward pertinent information to the RCMP to
assist in matters of missing persons and unidentified remains.

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227
Q

NCMPUR. Is the web site for missing persons

A

National Centre for Missing Persons and Unidentified Remains (NCMPUR)

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228
Q

Missing person unit is designated by the chief to coordinate Management and Report on the use of urgent demands for records outlined in section ____ of the missing persons act

A

8

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229
Q

Missing persons where it has yet to be determined whether foul play involved And the individual remains on accounted for ______ days after being reported missing shall be deemed

A

30 days

A major case pursuant to the Ontario Major Case Management Manual

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230
Q

There are three levels of investigative response to missing person cases it is determined with information collected on the

A

TPS260 & TPS260A. These forms are investigative aid that will be used to assist responding officers and supervisors and the officer in charge assessing the level of risk.

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231
Q

In order to utilize a missing persons DNA as an investigative tool

A

Written consent from the missing persons family is required

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232
Q

Divisional resource checklist

A

Divisional unit Commander Shall ensure that a list of local resources is created and maintained to exist a missing person services

Such as community centre pools arenas libraries churches schools shopping malls transportation facilities hotels motels hostels and withdraw management centres formally known as detoxification centres social service agencies drop in centre is hospital’s private security agency’s operating in the division

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233
Q

Level two and three searches shall be conducted using the

A

Incident management system as defined in chapter 10 appendix A

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234
Q

Before an Amber alert is initiated the the following guidelines must be met

A

The investigator believes the child is under 18

The investigator believe the child is in danger

There is descriptive information about one or more of the following
The child, Abductor, vehicle
And believe that an immediate Broadcrest alert will help in locating the child

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235
Q

Toronto Resident Reported Missing to another Jurisdiction
When information is received from another police agency that a City of Toronto resident has been reported missing in
another jurisdiction, the Detective Sergeant of the division where the missing person resides shall ensure

A

 a Service lead investigator is assigned to the occurrence;

 an investigation is undertaken in cooperation with the agency that received the report;

 once the other agency has cleared the investigative leads within their jurisdiction, the Service will take responsibility
for the investigation;

 CPIC entries are updated as required to indicate the investigation is now the responsibility of the Service; and

 compliance with all relevant direction contained in this Procedure.

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236
Q

If a missing person is under 16 years of age And circumstances warrant

A

The police officer shall advise the parent, guardian, or the approved agency that has custody of the child that they (meaning them not us) may apply to a justice of the peace for an apprehension warrant under the child youth and family services act.CYFSA

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237
Q

When in receipt of a Child Apprehension Warrant, officers shall

A

scan and attach the warrant to the original eReport and
notify RMS – Ops to ensure the warrant is entered onto CPIC
International Investigations

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238
Q

When investigating any missing person case that is international in nature where there is an immediate concern for public
safety, or high risk travelling, officers shall notify

A

Intelligence Services - Security Section (INT – Security) at 8-3500
immediately. Police officers investigating any other cases that are international in scope shall contact the MPU via the global
e-mail address at MissingPersons for assistance.

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239
Q

Police Officer
The first police officer shall be responsible for conducting the initial investigation, preserving evidence, completing all
necessary reports and notifying a supervisory officer of all pertinent facts.
When investigating a report of a missing person shall

A

comply with the applicable Reporting section of this Procedure
 interview the last person to see the missing person, where possible
 comply with Procedure 04–09 if the services of an interpreter are required
 determine if any information has been recorded on a TPS 261 by the reportee, and obtain a copy where possible
 obtain a complete and accurate description of the person, including clothing, medical conditions, identification and
possible destinations
 complete the TPS 261, as required
 obtain dental information for the missing person, if available
 obtain a photograph of the missing person, if available, and transmit electronically to relevant units and agencies,
both internal and external
 search the home and the immediate area thoroughly
 if permission to search the home or adjoining property is not granted notify a supervisor and add the details to the
original eReport
 provide the description and all other pertinent information to the Communications Operator to relay to the field
 phone RMS - Ops as required and provide all pertinent information to ensure that a new missing person eReport is
generated
- When reporting officers call RMS - Ops to create the missing person eReport, RMS – Ops staff will
ensure that the missing person is entered on CPIC immediately.
 ensure the information is provided to surrounding police services, if appropriate
 complete a 300m radius search of the place last seen, if known
- Always consider the nature of the area to be searched (e.g. ground, urbanized, ravine or water). When
searching in highly urbanized areas, searchers should consider the third dimension, upwards through
the building layers.

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240
Q

Missing persons. What form is used when canvassing the neighbours which has suggested questions on it

A

TPS 233A

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241
Q

What level of search there’s a command post start

A

Command posts are established starting at a level 2 search

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242
Q

Supervisory and Officer and a missing person level one. What forms do they ensure are completed

A

Ensure the TPS260 and the TPS261 have been completed

Complete the required 260 a

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243
Q

Level one search police officer Shall contact communication services and request at all pertinent information including telephone numbers and contact information of the officer in charge is forwarded to

A

Toronto Paramedics

Toronto fire department

The TTC

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244
Q

Level 2 search

Supervisory Officer
The first supervisory officer shall be responsible for the quality and thoroughness of the uniform response.

A

When commencing a Level 2 search and investigative response shall
 ensure compliance with item 1
 comply with item 2
 attend the scene and establish a command post at a location other than the place last seen or the missing person’s
home

notify the Officer in Charge
 ensure relatives of the missing person are interviewed
 consider the nature of the area to be searched (e.g. ground, urbanized, ravine, water)
 ensure Communications Services is notified, and the description and all other pertinent information is broadcast
 assign adequate personnel to conduct the search
 assign search areas by using the TPS 230 and the divisional search maps
 document all assignments on a TPS 231
 consider obtaining the assistance from such support units as
 Emergency Management & Public Order (EM&PO)
 Emergency Management & Public Order – Mounted
 Specialized Emergency Response – Marine
 Specialized Emergency Response – Police Dog Services
 external police services
 York or Durham Regional Police Air Support Units [only when authorized by the Duty Senior Officer
– TPOC (Duty Senior Officer) or other senior officer]
 Community Partnerships and Engagement Unit (CPEU) – Auxiliary Program
 community organizations
 when practical, consider having someone familiar with the missing person accompany a patrolling
police officer
 conduct on–going consultation with the Officer in Charge/Search Manager where circumstances may
ensure evidence is collected and preserved in compliance with Procedure 04–21
 warrant escalation to a Level 3 search

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245
Q

Divisional investigator level 2 search shall

A

Divisional Investigator
The divisional investigator is responsible for conducting a timely and thorough investigation of missing person occurrences.
In addition to conducting the investigation, shall

 attend the scene, as required

 ensure that photo, dental, fingerprint and/or footprint information of the missing person have been requested and
obtained, if available

 ensure that a personal item for DNA analysis, as outlined in Appendix A is

 requested from the family of the missing person;

 seized in compliance with Procedure 04–21, if available

 obtain a family reference DNA sample from a member of the missing persons family in compliance
with Procedure 04–21

 ensure the required RCMP Form A01 and Form A02 are completed, as required and attached to the
original eReport

 if it is determined that a judicial authorization (production order/search warrant) is required to

 produce records that may assist in locating the missing person; or

 allow entry onto a premises to locate a missing person, shall

 make the required application in compliance with Procedure 02-17

 consider communicating the relevant information on social media in compliance with Procedure 17–13

 consider requesting assistance from the media in compliance with Procedure 17–01

 consider using a poster or bulletin to assist in locating the missing person by contacting Corporate Communications

 notify the MPU via the global e-mail address at MissingPersons

 ensure all investigative efforts are recorded in the original eReport

 scan and attach all memorandum book notes and hardcopy reports to the original eReport
In exigent circumstances, when it is determined that an urgent demand for records is required shall

 consult with the MPU

 complete the Form 5 - MPA, as required

 complete the Form 6 – MPA, as required

 send a copy of the completed Form 5 – MPA and Form 6 – MPA to the Officer in Charge of the MPU via the global
e-mail address at MissingPersons
- Submission of the completed Form 6 – MPA is required simultaneously with the Form 5 – MPA.

 provide notice to any person whose information was produced pursuant to an urgent demand, which includes

 description of the information the officer accessed; and contact information for the requesting officer

The notice may be provided verbally or in writing. If the notice is provided verbally, the officer shall provide a written copy
of the notice upon the person’s request.

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246
Q

Officer in Charge
The Officer in Charge is responsible for ensuring an appropriate uniform response, and in the absence of the Detective
Sergeant, an appropriate investigative response.
When becoming involved in a Level 2 search and investigation shall

A

 ensure a supervisory officer takes charge of the investigation in compliance with item 6

 ensure detectives are assigned to the investigation, where applicable

 ensure adequate and appropriate resources are obtained to conduct the search

 notify the
 Unit Commander, if available
 Duty Inspector, via TPOC

 ensure the applicable eReports, TPS 260, TPS260A and a TPS 261 have been completed as required, and all
pertinent information has been entered onto CPIC

 ensure all memorandum notes and hardcopy files have been scanned and attached to the original eReport

 ensure Communications Services has been contacted and all pertinent information, including the telephone number
and contact information of the Officer in Charge has been forwarded to
 Toronto Paramedic Services (Paramedics)
 Toronto Fire Services (TFS)
 Toronto Transit Commission (TTC)

 ensure that a media relations officer is appointed, or where appropriate, request the assistance of Corporate
Communications to handle all media enquiries

 ensure the particulars are recorded in the Unit Commanders Morning Report (UCMR), as required

 consider the use of the Service’s Pushpin technology where there is an immediate need to make photographs of
the person available
If information is to be posted on Pushpin shall ensure

 the TPOC is contacted for assistance with posting missing persons bulletins to Pushpin outside of regular business
hours
 it is posted in the Service Wide area of the application

 Communications Services is notified immediately, so an alert may be broadcast notifying all members regarding
the Pushpin posting

Upon being advised of a missing person under 16 years of age shall ensure
 compliance with item 1
 all members involved in the search are notified that the search level has been escalated
 the school principal is contacted, as soon as practicable
 In cases where foul play is suspected shall ensure a Major Case Manager is assigned to conduct the investigation
in compliance with the Ontario Major Case Management Manual.

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247
Q

Level 2;
Divisional Investigator
The divisional investigator is responsible for conducting a timely and thorough investigation of missing person occurrences.
In addition to conducting the investigation, shall

A

 attend the scene, as required
 ensure that photo, dental, fingerprint and/or footprint information of the missing person have been requested and
obtained, if available
 ensure that a personal item for DNA analysis, as outlined in Appendix A is
 requested from the family of the missing person;
 seized in compliance with Procedure 04–21, if available
 obtain a family reference DNA sample from a member of the missing persons family in compliance
with Procedure 04–21
 ensure the required RCMP Form A01 and Form A02 are completed, as required and attached to the
original eReport
 if it is determined that a judicial authorization (production order/search warrant) is required to
 produce records that may assist in locating the missing person; or
 allow entry onto a premises to locate a missing person, shall
 make the required application in compliance with Procedure 02-17
 consider communicating the relevant information on social media in compliance with Procedure 17–13
 consider requesting assistance from the media in compliance with Procedure 17–01
 consider using a poster or bulletin to assist in locating the missing person by contacting Corporate Communications
 notify the MPU via the global e-mail address at MissingPersons
 ensure all investigative efforts are recorded in the original eReport
 scan and attach all memorandum book notes and hardcopy reports to the original eReport
In exigent circumstances, when it is determined that an urgent demand for records is required shall
 consult with the MPU
 complete the Form 5 - MPA, as required
 complete the Form 6 – MPA, as required
 send a copy of the completed Form 5 – MPA and Form 6 – MPA to the Officer in Charge of the MPU via the global
e-mail address at MissingPersons
- Submission of the completed Form 6 – MPA is required simultaneously with the Form 5 – MPA.
 provide notice to any person whose information was produced pursuant to an urgent demand, which includes
 description of the information the officer accessed; and

contact information for the requesting officer
The notice may be provided verbally or in writing. If the notice is provided verbally, the officer shall provide a written copy
of the notice upon the person’s request.

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248
Q

Duty Inspector with regard to a level 3 search of missing person

A

The Duty Inspector is responsible for ensuring that sufficient resources are made available, the applicable Deputy Chief of
Police is advised and determine, after consultation, whether to escalate or de–escalate physical search operations. Upon
being notified by the Officer in Charge of the requirement for a Level 3 search and investigative response shall

 ensure compliance with this Procedure

 notify the respective Deputy Chief of Police, as soon as practicable

 appoint an Incident Commander from the division

 ensure at least one police officer involved in the original search is available for consultation, if required

 be responsible for arranging facilities and equipment necessary to conduct a Level 3 search

 notify the on–call Search Manager

 request TPOC to contact CPEU – Auxiliary Program to begin the call–out of auxiliary members where appropriate

 maintain liaison with the Search Manager

After consultation, shall determine whether to escalate or de–escalate physical search operations.

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249
Q

Search Manager – Emergency Management & Public Order
When detail to a level 3 search
The Search Manager is responsible for co–ordinating the search for the missing person.
Upon being notified by the Duty Inspector of the implementation of a Level 3 search and investigative response shall

A

ensure a Command Post is established and attend the Command Post when required
 maintain liaison with the Incident Commander
 co–ordinate the Level 3 search aspect of the incident
 implement unit-specific policies regarding Level 3 searches

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250
Q

Regarding level 3 searches

Emergency Management & Public Order provides search management support. The overall
responsibility for the search and its investigation remains with the

A

Division

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251
Q

Detective Sergeant during level 3 search after 30 days have passed

A

When the missing person is not located within 30 days of being reported missing and there is no new evidence, explanation
or circumstances indicating that the occurrence should not be cancelled shall ensure
 the status of the original eReport remains open
 request is made to have the missing person’s dentist complete a RCMP 1667
- At the discretion of the Detective Sergeant, the RCMP 1667 may be completed before the 30–day period
has passed.
 supplementary information is added to the original eReport for inclusion in the CPIC Dental Characteristic File and
submit with the RCMP 1667
 an investigative chronology is created and maintained
 regular investigative follow–up until the missing person is located or a sufficient conclusion is established
 the occurrence is re-assigned when the lead investigator leaves the unit
 in cases where foul play is suspected, an electronic ViCLAS Report/eBooklet is completed in accordance with
Procedure 05-19
 the requirements of the Ontario Major Case Management Manual are met pursuant to the use of the Ministry
approved software (PowerCase)

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252
Q

What is a RCMP 1667 form and when it is used

A

After 30 days during a level 3 search

request is made to have the missing person’s dentist complete a RCMP 1667
- At the discretion of the Detective Sergeant, the RCMP 1667 may be completed before the 30–day period
has passed.
 supplementary information is added to the original eReport for inclusion in the CPIC Dental Characteristic File and
submit with the RCMP 1667

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253
Q

Amber alert definition

A

AMBER Alert means a co–operative effort between police, the media and the Ministry of Transportation to provide early
notification to the public where a person under 18 years of age is believed to have been abducted and where circumstances
lead police to believe that the abducted person is in danger of serious bodily harm or death and there is enough descriptive
information about the abducted person, and/or the abductor, and/or the abductor’s vehicle to believe an immediate
broadcast alert will help in locating the person. An AMBER Alert will have a duration of 5 hours following activation, unless
cancelled or extended.

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254
Q

How long is an Amber alert activated for

A

An AMBER Alert will have a duration of 5 hours following activation, unless
cancelled or extended.

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255
Q

Divisional Search Box means a

A

a portable storage box containing the necessary items essential to the supervisory officer
at the scene of a Level 2 or Level 3 search. These items shall be determined by Procedure 04–05 and established practice,
and should be located where it is easily accessible by the Officer in Charge.

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256
Q

Level 2 Missing Person Search means the level of search when a missing person is:

A
\: 
 under 16 years and judged likely to be incapable of caring for themselves; 
 mentally challenged; 
 over 65 years of age or infirm, or; 
 there is evidence of foul play.
Level 3 Missing Person Search means th
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257
Q

For the purposes of a kidnapping investigation, the Major Case Manager shall be an investigator from Detective Operations
.

A
  • For the purposes of a kidnapping investigation, the Major Case Manager shall be an investigator from Detective Operations
    – Organized Crime Enforcement.
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258
Q

Missing Person – means a person where both the following circumstances exist with respect to the person:

A

The persons whereabouts are unknown and,

 the person has not been in contact with people who would likely be in contact with the person,
or

 it is reasonable in the circumstances to fear for the person’s safety because of the circumstances
surrounding the person’s absence or because of any other prescribed considerations.

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259
Q

National Centre for Missing Persons and Unidentified Remains (NCMPUR) means

A

the national centre created and
maintained by the Royal Canadian Mounted Police (RCMP) to compile data on missing persons and unidentified remains.
The Toronto Police Service supports the centre and encourages officers to forward pertinent information to the RCMP to
assist in matters of missing persons and unidentified remains.

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260
Q

NCMPUR

A

National Centre for Missing Persons and Unidentified Remains (NCMPUR)

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261
Q

National Missing Children’s Operations (NMCO) means the

A

National Missing Children’s Operations (NMCO) means the national registry created and maintained by the Royal
Canadian Mounted Police (RCMP) to compile data on missing and abducted children. The Toronto Police Service supports
the registry and encourages officers to forward pertinent information to the RCMP to assist in matters of both parental and
non–parental abduction.

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262
Q

NMCO

A

National Missing Children’s Operations (NMCO) means the

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263
Q

Parental Abduction means the unlawful removal of a child by a

A

Parental Abduction means the unlawful removal of a child by a parent, guardian, or any other person having lawful care
or charge of a person under the age of fourteen whether or not there is a custody order in relation to that child made by a
court, with the intent to deprive a parent, guardian, or person having lawful care or charge of the person.

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264
Q

A Parental Abduction the child is under what age

A

fourteen whether or not there is a custody order in relation to that child made by a

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265
Q

Place Last Seen means a

A

Place Last Seen means a point where the missing person was actually seen by a witness.

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266
Q

Primary Investigator means the investigator assigned by the

A

Primary Investigator means the investigator assigned by the Major Case Manager in every threshold major case
investigation to perform the functions and responsibilities of the primary investigation function. The Primary Investigator
shall have the knowledge, skills, and abilities to perform the function; shall have successfully completed the Ontario Major
Case Management Course or equivalent, as defined by the Ontario Police College.
[Source: Ontario Major Case Management Manual]

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267
Q

Search Manager means the

A

Search Manager means the police officer in charge of Emergency Management & Public Order – Search Management
Team.

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268
Q

Unit means

This was in the missing Persons section but has a broad description

A

Unit means a section of the Service as designated by the Board, such as a field headquarter, division, bureau or squad.

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269
Q

FRSAEA what is it

A

family responsibility and support arrears enforcement act

FRSAEA

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270
Q

When making an arrest

A

When making an arrest shall
 identify themselves as a police officer
 inform the person that they are under arrest
 inform the person of the reason for the arrest
 take physical control of the person
 inform the person of the Right to Counsel, including the existence and availability of duty counsel and free legal
advice (Legal Aid)
 ensure that the person understands the Right to Counsel
 search the person in compliance with Procedure 01–02
 place the person in handcuffs in accordance with training and utilize the double lock mechanism where possible
 when handcuffs are not used, be prepared to justify this decision
- Keeping in mind officer and public safety, officers may use discretion when determining whether to
handcuff an individual as it may not be practical or necessary in all circumstances (e.g. due to a person’s
medical condition, age, disability, pregnancy, or frailty).
 allow reasonable access to a telephone as soon as practicable
 ensure that, when an arrested person has the care, charge or custody of another person who, because of age,
physical or medical condition, is unable to care for themselves, every effort is made to obtain interim care for the
dependent person

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271
Q

Search Incident to Arrest
The right to search as an incident to a lawful arrest is found in common law, and has been upheld by the Supreme Court,
as long as the search is conducted for a valid objective and is not conducted in an abusive fashion. (Cloutier v. Langlois,
1990)
As an incident to arrest a police officer may search for

A

Search Incident to Arrest
The right to search as an incident to a lawful arrest is found in common law, and has been upheld by the Supreme Court,
as long as the search is conducted for a valid objective and is not conducted in an abusive fashion. (Cloutier v. Langlois,
1990)
As an incident to arrest a police officer may search for
 weapons
 anything that could cause injury (including drugs and alcohol)
 anything that could assist in a person’s escape
 evidence

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272
Q

Search Authorities

A police officer may search a person

A
Search Authorities
A police officer may search a person 
 with a person’s consent
 when authorized by statute
 after an arrest has been made (common law – incident to an arrest)
Consent Search
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273
Q

When conducting a consent search of a person shall

A

ask for the consent of the person and explain the nature of the search

 inform the person that they have a right to refuse consent

 inform the person of potential consequences of the search, including the possibility that anything seized may be
used as evidence

 immediately stop searching the person if consent is withdrawn, unless evidence has been disclosed that would
permit continuation pursuant to lawful authorities

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274
Q

Search Incident to Arrest
The right to search as an incident to a lawful arrest is found in common law, and has been upheld by the Supreme Court,
as long as the search is conducted for a valid objective and is not conducted in an _________ fashion. (_______ v. ______,
1990)

A

abusive fashion. (Cloutier v. Langlois, 1990)

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275
Q

Search Authorities
A police officer may search a person
(3 points)

A
Search Authorities
A police officer may search a person 
 with a person’s consent
 when authorized by statute
 after an arrest has been made (common law – incident to an arrest)
Consent Search
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276
Q

Immigration Warrants
Under section A55(1) of the Immigration and Refugee Protection Act (IRPA), a Canada Border Services Agency (CBSA)
officer may issue a warrant for the arrest and detention of a permanent resident or a foreign national whom the officer has

A

reasonable grounds to believe is inadmissible and is a danger to the public or is unlikely to appear for examination, for an
admissibility hearing, for removal from Canada or at a proceeding that could lead to the making of a removal order by the
Minister under subsection A44(2) of the IRPA.
When an inadmissible individual fails to comply with a CBSA officer’s request to appear at an enforcement office for reasons
such as receipt of a pre–removal risk assessment (PRRA) determination or to enforce their removal from Canada at a port
of entry, the CBSA officer may issue a warrant for the arrest and detention of the individual. After a full investigation, if the
individual cannot be located, a Canada–wide warrant for their arrest is entered on the Canadian Police Information Centre
(CPIC) system, which is accessible to all law enforcement agencies and ultimately gives their officers the authority to arrest
on the CBSA’s behalf.

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277
Q

IRPA

A

Immigration and Refugee Protection Act (IRPA),

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278
Q

(CBSA)

A

Canada Border Services Agency

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279
Q

Reporting Use of Force

Ontario Regulation 926/90 compels members to submit a Use of Force Report to the Chief of Police when a member

A

Ontario Regulation 926/90 compels members to submit a Use of Force Report to the Chief of Police when a member
 uses physical force on another person that results in an injury that requires medical attention
 draws a handgun in the presence of a member of the public, excluding a member of the police force while on duty
 discharges a firearm
 points a firearm regardless if the firearm is a handgun or a long gun
 uses a weapon other than a firearm on another person
For the purpose of reporting a use of force incident, the definition of a weapon includes a police dog or police horse that
comes into direct physical contact with a person.
Additionally, officers are required to submit a Use of Force Report and a TPS 584 to the Chief of Police when the officer
uses a CEW
 as a “demonstrated force presence”
 in drive stun mode or full deployment, whether intentionally or otherwise.

Use of force reports are collected and used to identify individual and group training requirements, or Service use of force
governance requirements.

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280
Q

Confidential Source – Level 2 means

A

Confidential Source – Level 2 means
 a source under the age of 18 (young person), or
 a source whose information could be considered:
 multi–jurisdictional;
 may affect national security;
 involves organized crime;
 is beyond the resources or the source–handling abilities of the officers involved;
 at the discretion of the Controller.
Unless otherwise approved by the Controller, a confidential source – level 2 shall be managed by a Handler – Level 2.
Controller – Source m

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281
Q

Confidential Source – Level 2 means
 a source under the age of _____ (young person), or
 a source whose information could be considered:
 ________–_______;
 may affect ________ security;
 involves ________ crime;
 is beyond the _________ or the source–handling abilities of the officers involved;
 at the discretion of the _________.
Unless otherwise approved by the Controller, a confidential source – level 2 shall be managed by a Handler –

A

of 18 (young person), or

 multi–jurisdictional;

 may affect national security;

 involves organized crime;

abilities of the officers involved;

Controller.

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282
Q

When assigned to a Service vehicle that is equipped with an ICCS shall, at the beginning of the shift, check if the ICCS is
functioning properly by activating the system and creating a brief recording to ensure that:

A

 both cameras are capable of recording video
 the wireless microphones are capable of remotely activating the system and recording audio
 the fixed rear microphone is capable of recording audio
 the camera lens and the windshield are free of debris that may obscure the camera
 the camera is locked in position facing the front of the Service vehicle

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283
Q

Designated Operator

A

The member designated to operate the audio/video equipment in the cells

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284
Q

The member designated to operate the audio/video equipment.

After the person has been lodged in a cell shall

A

The member designated to operate the audio/video equipment.
After the person has been lodged in a cell shall
 monitor the person
 notify the Officer in Charge in the event of any emergency incident involving the person including, but not limited to
 sickness and medical treatment

any injury or attempt suicide
 any assault, aggressive or bizarre behaviour
 any event which is likely to result in a complaint or SIU investigation
 any change in condition of persons in custody
 ensure the DAMS units are operating properly
 immediately notify the Officer in Charge if the equipment malfunctions
Officer in Charge

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285
Q

ensure the CYAC is notified of a sudden unexpected death of a child under ______

A

ensure the CYAC is notified of a sudden unexpected death of a child under 16

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286
Q

Child & Youth Advocacy Centre (CYAC)
The CYAC is a section of ______|______ that promotes the protection of victims; provides advocacy, treatment and ongoing
support.
The CYAC will investigate child sexual and physical abuse cases that include
____(**four points)

A

Sex Crimes

physical assaults, emotional abuse, or neglect occurrences when the victim is under the age of 16 and the suspect
is a caregiver, parent or a person in a position of trust or authority

 physical assaults when the victim is under the age of 16 years and the suspect is a known adult

 sexual offences when the victim is under the age of 18 years, the suspect is known and the offences are not within
the mandate of the Sex Crimes investigative office

 occurrences entitled Child in Need of Protection or Child Left Unattended.

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287
Q

Child & Youth Advocacy Centre (CYAC)
The CYAC is a section of ______|____ that promotes the protection of victims; provides advocacy, treatment and ongoing
support.
The CYAC will investigate child ______ and ______ abuse cases that include
 _______ ________, _______ abuse, or neglect occurrences when the victim is under the age of _____ and the suspect
is a caregiver, parent or a person in a position of trust or authority
 physical assaults when the victim is under the age of ______ years and the suspect is a known adult
 sexual offences when the victim is under the age of ______ years, the suspect is known and the offences are not within
the mandate of the Sex Crimes investigative office
 occurrences entitled _____ in ____ of _______ or Child Left Unattended.
Police officers shall comply with Procedure 05–06 when investigating child sexual and physical abuse cases.
When the victim(s) is under the age of 18 years and the offender(s) is unknown contact Sex Crimes Investigative Section.
Victim Interview

A

Sex Crimes

sexual and physical

 physical assaults, emotional,

age of 16

 physical assaults when the victim is under the age of 16 years and the suspect is a known adult

18 years, the suspect is known and the offences are not
 occurrences entitled Child in Need of Protection or Child Left Unattended.
Police officers shall comply with Procedure 05–06 when investigating child sexual and physical abuse cases.
When the victim(s) is under the age of 18 years and the offender(s) is unknown contact Sex Crimes Investigative Section.
Victim Interview

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288
Q

Victim Interview related to sexual assault;
Only an accredited _______ _____ investigator shall conduct detailed interviews with the victim. Interviews shall be
conducted in a private and victim appropriate environment that provides for the safety and security of the victim.
The investigator may wish to delay the interview based on careful consideration of the condition of the victim and the
information and evidence that is already available. Where operationally possible every effort should be made to provide an
interviewer of the victim’s preferred gender.
Sexual Assault Care C

A

Sexual Assault Care Centres (SACC)
Prior to transporting or attending the Women’s College Hospital Sexual Assault Care Centre (SACC), officers must contact
the 24 hour on-call switchboard number at 416-323-6400 and press “0”. The operator will then transfer officers to the oncall SACC nurse.
- There is no longer an Emergency Department at Women’s College Hospital. If the victim is injured, has consumed
drugs or alcohol, they cannot been seen through Women’s College and will have to attend one of the nearby
Hospitals. Women’s College is closed on weekends from Friday at 2300hrs until 0730hrs on Mondays. Between

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289
Q

Sexual Assault Care Centres (SACC)

Prior to transporting or attending the Women’s College Hospital Sexual Assault Care Centre (SACC), officers must contact

A

the 24 hour on-call switchboard number at 416-323-6400 and press “0”. The operator will then transfer officers to the on

call SACC nurse.

  • There is no longer an Emergency Department at Women’s College Hospital. If the victim is injured, has consumed drugs or alcohol, they cannot been seen through Women’s College and will have to attend one of the nearby
    Hospitals. Women’s College is closed on weekends from Friday at 2300hrs until 0730hrs on Mondays. Between

2000hrs Friday evening and Monday 0730hrs, they are fully mobile, providing service to the 7 emergency
departments in Toronto – Mount Sinai, Toronto General Hospital, Toronto Western Hospital, Michael Garron
Hospital, St. Joseph’s Health Centre, Sunnybrook Health Sciences Centre and St. Michael’s Hospital. The SACC
nurse can be reached by telephone and will arrange to see the victim at the above noted hospitals.

Women’s College SACC operates under the “Acute Mandate” and shall be contacted for all sexual assault victims where
the offence occurred within the previous 12 days.

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290
Q

Under section A55(1) of the Immigration and Refugee Protection Act (IRPA), a Canada Border Services Agency (CBSA)
officer may issue a warrant for the arrest and detention of a _________ _______ or a ________ _____ whom the officer has
reasonable grounds to believe is inadmissible and is a danger to the public or is unlikely to appear for examination, for an
admissibility hearing, for removal from Canada or at a proceeding that could lead to the making of a removal order by the
Minister under subsection A44(2) of the IRPA.
When an inadmissible individual fails to comply with a CBSA officer’s request to appear at an enforcement office for reasons
such as receipt of a pre–removal risk assessment (PRRA) determination or to enforce their removal from Canada at a port
of entry, the CBSA officer may issue a warrant for the arrest and detention of the individual. After a full investigation, if the
individual cannot be located, a Canada–wide warrant for their arrest is entered on the Canadian Police Information Centre
(CPIC) system, which is accessible to all law enforcement agencies and ultimately gives their officers the authority to arrest
on the CBSA’s behalf.

A

a permanent resident or a

foreign national

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291
Q

FRSAEA

A

family responsibility and support arrears enforcement act

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292
Q

Regulated Interactions

Toronto police service Board Policy entitled Regulated Interactions with the Community and the Collection of Identifying Information (TPSB Policy).
This Procedure only applies to an attempt by a police officer to collect identifying information by asking an individual, in a
face-to-face encounter, to identify themself or to provide information for the purpose of identifying the individual, and
includes such an attempt whether or not identifying information is collected, only if that attempt is done for the purpose of

A

 inquiring into offences that have been or might be committed; and/or
 inquiring into suspicious activities to detect offences; and/or
 gathering information for intelligence purposes.
Notwithstanding the above, this Procedure does not apply to an attempt by a police officer to collect identifying information
from an individual when

[?] investigating an offence the police officer reasonably suspects has been or will be committed;
 the individual is legally required to provide the information to a police officer (e.g. during a traffic stop or trespass
investigation);
 the individual is under arrest or is being detained;
 the police officer is engaged in a covert operation;
 the police officer is executing a warrant, acting pursuant to a court order or performing related duties; or
 the individual is employed in the administration of justice or is carrying out duties or providing services that are
otherwise relevant to carrying out the police officer’s duties.

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293
Q

Regulated interactions

interactions With the public are governed by

A

Ontario regulations 58/ 16 Meet under the police services act entitled collection of identifying information in certain circumstances prohibition and duties

And toronto Police Service board policy entitled Regulated interactions with the community and the collection of identifying information

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294
Q

Regulated interactions the procedure applies when a police officer is asking an individual face-to-face to identify themselves.

A

inquiring into offences that have been or might be committed; and/or
 inquiring into suspicious activities to detect offences; a and/or
 gathering information for intelligence purposes.
.

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295
Q

Regulated Interactions the Procedure does not apply to a police officer to collect information when

A

investigating an offence the police officer reasonably suspects has been or will be committed;
 the individual is legally required to provide the information to a police officer (e.g. during a traffic stop or trespass
investigation);
 the individual is under arrest or is being detained;
 the police officer is engaged in a covert operation;
 the police officer is executing a warrant, acting pursuant to a court order or performing related duties; or
 the individual is employed in the administration of justice or is carrying out duties or providing services that are
otherwise relevant to carrying out the police officer’s duties.

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296
Q

Regulated Interactions a Police

A police officer’s exercise of discretion and all interactions between a police officer and an individual must be

A

lawful, ethical,
and bias-free; and conducted in a professional manner with effective communication which respects and upholds the rights
and freedoms of all individuals.

This Procedure outlines a legislated process police officers shall follow for all Regulated Interactions that will ensure
compliance with

 the Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms (Charter) generally and, in particular, the S. 9 protection against
arbitrary detention and the S. 15 right to equal treatment under the law;

 O. Reg. 58/16;
 the Human Rights Code (HRC) of Ontario generally and, in particular, the S. 1 freedom from discrimination based
on race, place of origin, age, colour, ethnic origin, gender identity or gender expression;

 the Municipal Freedom of Information and Protection of Privacy Act (MFIPPA) generally and in particular, with Part
II of the MFIPPA; and
TPSB Policy and other associated Service governance.

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297
Q

Regulated Interactions

This Procedure outlines a legislated process police officers shall follow for all Regulated Interactions that will ensure
compliance with

A

 the Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms (Charter) generally and, in particular, the S. 9 protection against
arbitrary detention and the S. 15 right to equal treatment under the law;
 O. Reg. 58/16;

 the Human Rights Code (HRC) of Ontario generally and, in particular, the S. 1 freedom from discrimination based
on race, place of origin, age, colour, ethnic origin, gender identity or gender expression;

 the Municipal Freedom of Information and Protection of Privacy Act (MFIPPA) generally and in particular, with Part
II of the MFIPPA; and

TPSB Policy and other associated Service governance.

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298
Q

Ontario regulation 58/ 16

A

In relation to regulated interactions

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299
Q

Regulated interaction

A police officer shall not attempt to collect identifying information about an individual from the individual if

A

 any part of the reason for the attempted collection is that the police officer perceives the individual to be within a
particular racialized group unless,

These points are unless;;;;;

 the police officer is seeking a particular individual,
 being within the racialized group forms part of the description of the particular individual or is evident from
a visual representation of the particular individual, and
 the police officer has additional information, in addition to information about the particular individual being
in a racialized group, that may help to identify the individual or narrow the description of the individual;
 Additional information may include, but is not limited to the following:

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300
Q

A police officer shall not attempt to collect identifying information about an individual from the individual if

A

any part of the reason for the attempted collection is that the police officer perceives the individual to be within a
particular racialized group unless,
 the police officer is seeking a particular individual,
 being within the racialized group forms part of the description of the particular individual or is evident from
a visual representation of the particular individual, and
 the police officer has additional information, in addition to information about the particular individual being
in a racialized group, that may help to identify the individual or narrow the description of the individual;

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301
Q

For the purpose of this Procedure only, as stipulated in O. Reg. 58/16, a Regulated Interaction is done in an arbitrary way
unless the police officer has a reason that they can articulate that complies with all of the following

A

The reason includes details about the individual that cause the police officer to reasonably suspect that identifying
the individual may contribute to or assist with
 inquiring into offences that have been or might be committed; and/or
 inquiring into suspicious activities to detect offences; and/or
 gathering information for intelligence purposes.

This is when you can’t;; The reason does not include either of the following:
 that the individual has declined to answer a question from the police officer which the individual is not
legally required to answer; or
 that the individual has attempted or is attempting to discontinue interaction with the police officer in
circumstances in which the individual has the legal right to do so.
 The reason is not only that the individual is present in a high crime location.

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302
Q

Procedure
A police officer’s exercise of discretion and all interactions between a police officer and an individual must be lawful, ethical,
and bias-free; and conducted in a professional manner with effective communication which respects and upholds the rights
and freedoms of all individuals.
This Procedure outlines a legislated process police officers shall follow for all Regulated Interactions that will ensure
compliance with

A

 the Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms (Charter) generally and, in particular, the S. 9 protection against
arbitrary detention and the S. 15 right to equal treatment under the law;
 O. Reg. 58/16;

 the Human Rights Code (HRC) of Ontario generally and, in particular, the S. 1 freedom from discrimination based
on race, place of origin, age, colour, ethnic origin, gender identity or gender expression;

 the Municipal Freedom of Information and Protection of Privacy Act (MFIPPA) generally and in particular, with Part
II of the MFIPPA; and

TPSB Policy and other associated Service governance.

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303
Q

Procedure
A police officer’s exercise of discretion and all interactions between a police officer and an individual must be lawful, ethical,
and bias-free; and conducted in a professional manner with effective communication which respects and upholds the rights
and freedoms of all individuals.
This Procedure outlines a legislated process police officers shall follow for all Regulated Interactions that will ensure
compliance with
 the Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms (Charter) generally and, in particular, the S. ______ protection against
arbitrary detention and the S. _____ right to equal treatment under the law;
 O. Reg. 58/16;
 the Human Rights Code (HRC) of Ontario generally and, in particular, the S. ______ freedom from discrimination based
on race, place of origin, age, colour, ethnic origin, gender identity or gender expression;
 the Municipal Freedom of Information and Protection of Privacy Act (MFIPPA) generally and in particular, with Part
II of the MFIPPA; and

A

the S. 9

S. 15

S. 1

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304
Q

(MFIPPA)

A

the Municipal Freedom of Information and Protection of Privacy Act

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305
Q

What section of the Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms (Charter) protection against
arbitrary detention

A

generally and, in particular, the S. 9

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306
Q

What section of the Canadian charter of rights and freedoms speaks to the right to equal treatment under the law

A

and the S. 15 right to equal treatment under the law;

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307
Q

Human rights code of Ontario HRC. What section speaks to freedom from discrimination based on race place of origin age colour ethnic origin gender identity or gender expression

A

S.1

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308
Q

The municipal freedom of information and protection of privacy act MFIPPA

When is this referred to in the study package

A

Is referred to in regulated interactions

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309
Q

MFIPPA

A

The municipal freedom of information and protection of privacy act MFIPPA

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310
Q

Regulated interaction Information is collected in an arbitrary way if

A

Information only consist of sex with the individual approximate age or both.

And the reason for the attempted collection is it the police officer perceive the individual to be within a particular racialized group

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311
Q

For the purpose of this Procedure only, as stipulated in O. Reg. 58/16, a Regulated Interaction is done in an arbitrary way
unless the police officer has a reason that they can articulate that complies with all of the following

A

 The reason includes details about the individual that cause the police officer to reasonably suspect that identifying
the individual may contribute to or assist with
 inquiring into offences that have been or might be committed; and/or
 inquiring into suspicious activities to detect offences; and/or
 gathering information for intelligence purposes.
 The reason does not include either of the following:
 that the individual has declined to answer a question from the police officer which the individual is not
legally required to answer; or
 that the individual has attempted or is attempting to discontinue interaction with the police officer in
circumstances in which the individual has the legal right to do so.
 The reason is not only that the individual is present in a high crime location.

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312
Q

Permission Required for Access to Restricted Regulated Interaction Reports & Historical Contact Data
As of January 1, 2017, all Historical Contact Data shall be classified as restricted. Access to any Regulated Interaction
Report collected in accordance with this Procedure shall be restricted 5 years after the date it was submitted to the Service’s
records management system.
Prior to accessing restricted Regulated Interaction Reports or Historical Contact Data, members will require the approval of
the Chief, or designate acting in the absence of the Chief. Members seeking approval to access the restricted records shall
submit a request to their Unit Commander to seek the approval of the Chief, or designate acting in the absence of the Chief.
The Chief has appointed the designate as follows
 a

A

 a Deputy Chief, or
 in exigent circumstances only, the Staff Superintendent – Detective Operations.
A member may only submit a request for access to a restricted record
 for the purpose of an ongoing police investigation involving
 preservation of life and/or preventing bodily harm or death
 homicides and attempts,

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313
Q

As of January ______all historical data Shall be classified as restricted

This is relation to regulated interactions

A

January 1 2017

Historical Contact Data means all Person Investigated Card (Form 172), Field Information Report (Form 208), Community
Inquiry Report (Form 306), and Community Safety Note (Street Check) records submitted into the Service’s records
management systems prior to January 1, 2017, and may include any such submitted record whether or not it would have
been categorized as a Regulated Interaction Report had it been submitted on or after January 1, 2017.

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314
Q

Access to any regulated interaction report collected Shall be restricted for how long

A

Five years after the date it was submitted to the services record management system.

P70

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315
Q

Who’s approval do you need when requesting access to a regulated interaction report or historical contact data

A

The chief has appointed the following; the deputy chief or in exigent circumstances only the staff superintendent of detective operations

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316
Q

A member may only submit a request for access to a restricted record

A

for the purpose of an ongoing police investigation involving

 preservation of life and/or preventing bodily harm or death

 homicides and attempts,

[?] sexual assaults, and all attempts (for the purpose of this standard, is deemed to include sexual interference,
sexual exploitation and invitation to sexual touching),

 occurrences involving abductions and attempts,

 missing person occurrences, where circumstances indicate a strong possibility of foul play,

 occurrences suspected to be homicide involving found human remains,

 criminal harassment cases in which the offender is not known to the victim,

 occurrences involving a firearm or discharge of a firearm, and/or

 gang related investigations;

 in connection with legal proceedings or anticipated legal proceedings

 including instances where crown advice is that it is relevant to R. v. Stinchcombe, (1991) and other
disclosure obligations;

 for the purpose of dealing with a complaint under Part V of the PSA or for the purpose of an investigation or inquiry
under clause 25 (1)(a) of the PSA;

 in order to prepare the annual report described in subsection 14 (1) or the report required under section 15 of O.
Reg. 58/16;

 for the purpose of complying with a legal requirement; or

 for the purpose of evaluating a police officer’s performance.

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317
Q

.
No member of the Service shall use any Historical Contact Data or Regulated Interaction Report as a basis for classifying
an individual as “________ to ____”.

A

“known to police”.

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318
Q

Supervisory Officer

When assigned to duties which involve supervising police officers who conduct Regulated Interactions shall

A

Supervisory Officer
When assigned to duties which involve supervising police officers who conduct Regulated Interactions shall
 monitor and evaluate the quality of any Regulated Interactions conducted by police officers under their supervision
 ensure police officers under their supervision can articulate the reason for any Regulated Interaction they initiate
 not use the number of times or the number of individuals from whom a police officer attempts to collect identifying
information to evaluate work performance

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319
Q

Supervisor;Upon becoming aware of a Regulated Interaction Report returned by a Supervisory Officer – GO Review shall

A

Upon becoming aware of a Regulated Interaction Report returned by a Supervisory Officer – GO Review shall
 review the report as required
 ensure the submitting police officers amends and resubmits the report as required, forthwith
 if applicable, provide guidance or instruction targeted at correcting the deficiency
 if applicable, ensure the police officer receives additional training
 if applicable, initiate the appropriate complaint/discipline process in compliance with 13–03 and/or 13–11
 if applicable, ensure access to the Regulated Interaction Report is, or has been, restricted by a Supervisory Officer
– Go Review

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320
Q

Who can permit access to a restricted regulated interaction

A

The chief or a Designate acting an absence of the chief.

Those Designates are;
Deputy chief or in exigent circumstances only the staff superintendent of detective operations

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321
Q

Regulated interactions

The controller must submit a report to the unit commander of the toronto Police College Every

A

Three months that outlines the results of all reviews undertaken specific to the regulated interaction reports

Controller – Regulated Interactions means the member of the Service, designated by the Chief of Police, who assesses
procedural compliance of Regulated Interaction Reports, once they have been approved or restricted by a Supervisory
Officer.

The Controller – Regulated Interaction Reports is also responsible for:

 fulfilling the role of subject matter resource for Supervisory Officers;

 preparing a report to the Unit Commander of the Toronto Police College every three months that outlines the results
of all reviews undertaken specific to Regulated Interaction Reports; and

 monitoring and reporting on any changes or amendments to legislation or Service Governance which may be
relevant to training specific to Regulated Interactions.

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322
Q

Regulated Interactions

Historical contact data means

A

A person investigated card a 172, 208, Community inquiry report form 306, and community safety note street check.

These are records submitted into the services record management system prior to January 1, 2017.

And may include such submitted record whether or not it would have been categorized as a regulated interaction report had it been submitted on or after January 1, 2017

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323
Q

Regulated Interaction means an attempt by a police officer to collect identifying information by asking an individual, in a
face-to-face encounter, to identify himself or herself or to provide information for the purpose of identifying the individual,
and includes such an attempt whether or not identifying information is collected,
 only if that attempt is done for the purpose of,
- inquiring into offences that have been or might be committed; and/or
- inquiring into suspicious activities to detect offences; and/or
- gathering information for intelligence purposes;

but does not include an attempted collection made by a police officer for the purpose of investigating an offence (these attempts are lawful)

the officer reasonably suspects has been or will be committed; and does not include an attempt by a police officer
to collect identifying information from an individual if,
- the individual is legally required to provide the information to a police officer;
- the individual is under arrest or is being detained;
- the police officer is engaged in a covert operation;
- the police officer is executing a warrant, acting pursuant to a court order or performing related duties; or
- the individual from whom the police officer attempts to collect information is employed in the administration
of justice or is carrying out duties or providing services that are otherwise relevant to the carrying out of the
police officer’s duties.

A

Regulated Interaction means an attempt by a police officer to collect identifying information by asking an individual, in a
face-to-face encounter, to identify himself or herself or to provide information for the purpose of identifying the individual,
and includes such an attempt whether or not identifying information is collected,
 only if that attempt is done for the purpose of,
- inquiring into offences that have been or might be committed; and/or
- inquiring into suspicious activities to detect offences; and/or
- gathering information for intelligence purposes;
 but does not include an attempted collection made by a police officer for the purpose of investigating an offence
the officer reasonably suspects has been or will be committed; and does not include an attempt by a police officer
to collect identifying information from an individual if,
- the individual is legally required to provide the information to a police officer;
- the individual is under arrest or is being detained;
- the police officer is engaged in a covert operation;
- the police officer is executing a warrant, acting pursuant to a court order or performing related duties; or
- the individual from whom the police officer attempts to collect information is employed in the administration
of justice or is carrying out duties or providing services that are otherwise relevant to the carrying out of the
police officer’s duties.

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324
Q

Death in police custody.

Supervision;

A

Supervisory Officer mandatory attendance

Officer in Charge mandatory notification

Unit commander mandatory notification

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325
Q

Death Police Custody
The SIU and homicide will conduct _______

Homicide provides what to the corner during investigations of deaths in police custody

A

Parallel investigations

investigative support

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326
Q

Death Police Custody

Police officer Shall

** three points

A

Protect the scene and all evidence

Immediately request the attendance of a supervisor officer

Notify the officer in charge

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327
Q

Death Police Custody

Police officer from FIS shall when on scene

A

When attending the scene of a death in police custody wait until the arrival of the SIU forensics investigator

I SIU and FIS run parallel forensics investigations. Therefore FIS shall wait for SIU before commencing with evidence collection

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328
Q

Death Police Custody, Supervisory and Officer or Shall

A

Attend immediately and take charge of the scene

Request the attendance of
An investigator from homicide
An investigator from FIS
The corner

Ensure compliance with Procedure 0402 and 1316

Ensure the officer in charge has been notified

Notify the officer in charge at the TPOC

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329
Q

Death in Police Custody TPOC

When notified of a death in police custody shall notify

A

Chiefs SIU on call designated authority and the appropriate deputy chief of police

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330
Q

Chief’s Special Investigations Unit (SIU) On-Call Designated Authority means a member of the

A

cadre of on-call Toronto
Police Service uniform senior officers that acts as the designated authority and manages the SIU event in the field on behalf
of the Chief.

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331
Q

The SIU Director may cause an investigation to be conducted if, at the time of the incident,

A

 the official was on duty; or

 the official was off-duty but
- engaged in the investigation, pursuit, detention or arrest of a person or otherwise exercised the powers
of a

police officer, special constable, peace officer

or other prescribed person, as the case may be,

whether or not the official intended to exercise such powers or identified him or herself as a person who
may exercise such powers, or
- the incident involved equipment or other property issued to the official in relation to his or her duties.

Subject Official – SIU Investigations means, in respect of an incident referred to in SIUA ss. 15 (1), an official whose
conduct appears, in the opinion of the SIU Director, to

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332
Q

Crime and Disorder Management

Intelligence led policing consists of a number of components including

A

crime management,

disorder resolution,

problem oriented policing,

targeted policing and directed patrol.

Community Policing is an operational philosophy requiring local
police–community partnerships that prioritize and solve problems in order to enhance safety, prevent crime, maintain order,
and enforce the law.

Ontario Regulation 3/99, Adequacy & Effectiveness of Police Services (O.Reg. 3/99) made under the Police Services Act
sets out standards for crime prevention, law enforcement, victim assistance, public order maintenance, emergency
response and administration and infrastructure.

The Policing Standards Manual contains guidelines to assist police services
boards, chiefs of police and municipalities with the implementation of the requirements of O.Reg. 3/99. Police services must
comply with the legislative requirements of O.Reg. 3/99. The adoption of any or all of the Guidelines contained in the
Policing Standards Manual is at the discretion of the Chief of Police. This Procedure addresses the Community Patrol,
Crime Prevention, Crime, Call and Disorder Analysis, and Problem–Oriented Policing sections of O.Reg. 3/99 and the
Policing Standards Manual.

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333
Q

Senior management team SMT

Is; who is in it.?

A

Include the chief of police, command officers, staff superintendents and directors, And any other member as determined by the chief of police

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334
Q

Define debriefing

A

Means the process by which a person in custody will be asked if they wish to provide information on other crimes including but not limited to the divisional crime problems establish as priorities

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335
Q

Appendix A guidelines for divisional crime management

A

Unit Commanders must designate a divisional crime manager at a minimum a detective sergeant

The crime management team consists of representatives from all sectors of the unit including the unit Commander and representation from the local community Police liaison committee CPLC

The divisional crime management team must meet at a minimum quarterly at the first of the year to establish the crime priorities and strategies for the unit

(This is on p77…take a peek when reviewing this. Too much for card)

Guidelines for Divisional Crime Management
Status: Amended Issued: R.O. 2020.01.03–0001 Replaces: R.O. 2016.02.08-0158
There are four key steps in establishing the Crime Management Process at the divisional level. Their purpose is to ensure
a high level of integration, co–ordination and focus of divisional resources:
1. Long–term strategic planning and evaluation to set direction for the division
Unit Commanders must designate a divisional Crime Manager.
Depending on the unit size, this person should be at a minimum, the Detective Sergeant in charge of the Detective
Office. In those divisions where there is only one Detective Sergeant, efforts should be made to divest them of
administrative duties, so that they can adequately perform their role as Crime Managers.
The divisional Crime Manager will chair the divisional Crime Management Team, which will include
representatives from all sections of the unit, including the Unit Commander and representation from the local
Community Police Liaison Committee (CPLC).
The divisional Crime Management Team must meet, at a minimum, quarterly starting at the first of the year to
establish the crime priorities and strategies for the unit.
Divisional strategies will be based on Service priorities and identified crime management problems. Evolving local
or neighbourhood problems and other strategies approved by the Chief and Command may be added.
The Crime Manager will be responsible for the internal and external communication of divisional crime
management strategies and results.
The measurement process should include a frequent survey of officers on crime management issues to assist in
setting divisional priorities.
The divisional Crime Analyst will provide the Profile Sheet and appropriate additional data to the Crime
Management Team who will review, measure and evaluate strategies.
Special information (i.e. suspect information, problem areas, etc.), will be catalogued and regularly provided to all
members of the division by the divisional Crime Analyst.
The Unit Commander will establish a mechanism to facilitate community input and provide feedback on results to
the community on crime related issues.
2. Short–term/daily tactical planning and evaluation to adjust and react as required
Principal members of the Crime Management Team will meet regularly.
Ongoing monitoring of divisional strategies, priorities, tactics and making mid–course corrections.
Implementation of short–term decisions and tactical deployment plans.
Internal and external communication of short–term strategies and results.
Project co–ordination and integration.
Validation and prioritization of concerns.
Local intelligence information on crime, active criminals and public disorder to be co–ordinated through the
divisional Crime Analyst/Crime Management Team.
3. Integrated Role for Divisional CPLCs
Divisional CPLCs will be partners involved in the crime management process and will assist the problem
identification, problem solving and evaluation systems. The measurement process will include surveys of the
community.
4. Targeted Debriefing of All Prisoners
Where practicable, persons in custody will be debriefed as to information they may provide on any of the crime
problems set as a divisional priority.

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336
Q

The duties of a police officer are set out in subsection 42(1) of the Police Services Act (PSA). These are

A

The duties of a police officer are set out in subsection 42(1) of the Police Services Act (PSA). These are

a) preserving the peace

b) preventing crimes and other offences and providing assistance and encouragement to other persons in their
prevention

c) assisting victims of crime
d) apprehending criminals and other offenders and others who may lawfully be taken into custody
e) laying charges and participating in prosecutions
f) executing warrants that are to be executed by police officers and performing related duties
g) performing lawful duties that the chief of police assigns

H) Enforcing municipal by-laws

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337
Q

Source management

Supervision
Supervisory Officer notification mandatory

A

 when considering whether to establish a relationship with a source

 prior to any meeting with a source

 after any communication or meeting with a source

 upon becoming aware that the safety of a source may have been compromised

 Covert Operations – Source Management notification mandatory

 prior to using any source information obtained from a person who is a first time source

 prior to using any source information obtained from a source, under 18 years of age

Procedure
All officers shall consider the following primary concerns when e

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338
Q

When a source is under 18 years of age who do you contact

A

Covert operations service management notification is mandatory

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339
Q

all crown letters issued on behalf of a source shall only be provided by the _______~______ – Intelligence Services
(INT). See Appendix B

A

The unit commander of intelligence services

 caution shall be used when dealing with sources who are
 facing criminal charges
 subject to any stage of an immigration inquiry
 subject to a parole or probation order

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340
Q

What shall officers consider primary concerns when establishing a relationship with a source

A

Public safety

Officer safety

Safety of the source

Administration of justice

The integrity of service

Corporate liability

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341
Q

Supervisory notification is mandatory in relation to source Management when

A

When considering whether to establish a relationship with a source

Prior to any meeting with the source

Any communication or meeting with the source.

Supervisor) When notified by an officer that the safety of a source may have been compromised as a result of the source’s identity
having been revealed shall

 ensure that the Controller and the Unit Commander are notified forthwith

 notify the detective sergeant

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342
Q

Source management

Covert Operations – Source Management notification mandatory

A

 prior to using any source information obtained from a person who is a first time source
 prior to using any source information obtained from a source, under 18 years of age
Procedure

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343
Q

Supervisory Office

When notified by an officer of an intended meeting with a source shall

A

Carefully consider the primary concerns

Which are

Procedure
All officers shall consider the following primary concerns when establishing a relationship with a source

 public safety

 officer safety

 safety of the source

 the administration of justice

 the integrity of the Service

 corporate liability

When notified by an officer of an intended meeting with a source shall

 carefully consider the primary concerns

 determine whether to permit
 the continuation of a relationship with a source

 the meeting with the source to occur

 ensure the officer complies with all responsibilities set out in this Procedure

make the following entries in the memorandum book or case book, if applicable

 the date, time and location of the intended meeting

 the primary and secondary officers’ names and badge numbers

 when assigned, the Confidential Source Number

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344
Q

Source management

Detective Sergeant
When a source is used shall

 ensure that the officer and supervisory officer comply with all the requirements set out in this Procedure

 ensure reports submitted are accurately completed

 sign and submit the reports in a secure fashion to the Unit Commander forthwith

When notified by a supervisory officer that the safety of a source may have been compromised as a result of the source’s
identity having been revealed shall ensure the _______ and _____~______ are notified forthwith.

A

Controller and the Unit Commander are notified forthwith

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345
Q

Source management Detective Sgt Shall when a source is used

A

Ensure that the officer and supervisor comply with all the requirements are on this procedure

Ensure report submitted or accurately completed

Sign and submit reports in a secure fashion to the unit commander forth with

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346
Q

Source management definition of an agent

A

means a person who acts on behalf of the police and under their direction, which may result in them becoming a
material and compellable witness. The identity of the agent is subject to disclosure

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347
Q

Controller – Source means the_____~_____– Intelligence Services – Covert Operations who ensures the effective

A

Detective Sergeant

control, accountability and evaluation of the source, continually assessing the risks and managing all information provided
by the source.

The Controller – Source is responsible for the Source Management Program of the Toronto Police Service.

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348
Q

Who is a Controller Source

A

Means detective a Sergeant at intelligence services covert operations

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349
Q

Confidential Source – Level 2 means

A

Confidential Source – Level 2 means

 a source under the age of 18 (young person), or

 a source whose information could be considered:
 multi–jurisdictional;

 may affect national security;

 involves organized crime;

 is beyond the resources or the source–handling abilities of the officers involved;

 at the discretion of the Controller.
Unless otherwise approved by the Controller, a confidential source – level 2 shall be managed by a Handler – Level 2.

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350
Q

What a source is under the age of 18 what level source handles it

A

Source handler level 2

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351
Q

If a sources information is considered multi jurisdictional, surface level necessary

A

2

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352
Q

If a sources information may affect national security.

A

Handled by a level 2 source handler

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353
Q

If a source of information involves organize crime

A

Shall be handled by a level 2 source handler

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354
Q

Who provides a crown letter source

Crown Letter – Source means a document provided to the crown attorney by

A
Intelligence Services – Covert Operations –
Source Management (CO–SMS) on behalf of a source seeking consideration for that source’s assistance to the police.

All crown letters issued on behalf of a source shall only be provided by the Unit Commander – Intelligence Services. See
Procedure 04–35, Appendix B.

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355
Q

Handler means a police officer who has received information from a source and who has been so designated by the
__________or designate.

A handler, on behalf of the Toronto Police Service, is responsible for the:

A

Controller

 development of a source

 integrity of any contact

 acquisition and dissemination of information received from the source.

There are 2 levels of handlers: Handler – Level 1 and Handler –2

Handler – Level 1 means any police officer from the Toronto Police Service who can handle level 1 sources only.

Handler – Level 2 means any police officer from the Toronto Police Service who has been accredited and designated by
the Controller or designate. A handler – level 2 can manage agents, and level 1 and level 2 sources. For the purposes of
agents, a handler – level 2 is also responsible for:

 the management of agents on behalf of the Service

 considering the primary concerns

 the acquisition and dissemination of information from that agent.

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356
Q

Handler – Level 2 means any

A

police officer from the Toronto Police Service who has been accredited and designated by
the Controller or designate. A handler – level 2 can

manage agents,

and level 1 and level 2 sources.

For the purposes of
agents, a handler – level 2 is also responsible for:

 the management of agents on behalf of the Service

 considering the primary concerns

 the acquisition and dissemination of information from that agent.

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357
Q

If the source requests advice regarding taxation for money received from this Service, they shall be
advised that

A

financial awards from the Service are considered taxable income, however since the source
is not a Service employee, T4 slips will not be issued.

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358
Q

caution shall be used when dealing with sources who are

A

 facing criminal charges
 subject to any stage of an immigration inquiry
 subject to a parole or probation order

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359
Q

Notification of Homicides

A

Supervisor; attendance mandatory

Divisional detective attendance mandatory

Officer in Charge notification mandatory

Unit Commander; notification mandatory

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360
Q

When an autopsy is ordered as a result of an apparent suicide or accident where the only witness is or has been an intimate
partner, past or present, the autopsy will be performed by a

A

Regional Coroner’s pathologist who currently performs homicide
autopsies. The autopsy will be conducted as if the death had taken place under suspicious circumstances.
Officers are reminded t

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361
Q

As set out in their mandate, Detective Operations – Homicide (Homicide) shall

A

 lead the investigation of all homicides that occur within the City of Toronto;

 lead the investigation of all criminal acts which result in serious bodily harm or life threatening injury to a police
officer while on duty;

 support field officers with the investigation of suspicious deaths;

 lead the investigation of deaths in police custody that are not related to the discharge of a Service firearm; and

 provide investigative support to the Coroner in the investigation of deaths in police custody.

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362
Q

Every sudden unexpected death of a child under 18 years of age shall be treated as suspicious and a member of the On–Call Team – Homicide Squad (On–Call Homicide Team) shall be consulted by the attending _____ detective. Officers
are reminded not to reach premature conclusions regarding the cause and manner of death until a thorough investigation
has been completed.

A

Divisional

The Child & Youth Advocacy Centre (CYAC), a sub-unit of Detective Operations – Sex Crimes, shall be notified when
investigating a sudden unexpected death of a child under the age of 16 in any division City-Wide.

The attending divisional
detective shall consult with a member of the CYAC prior to leaving the scene and/or conducting formal interviews of caregivers.

CYAC investigators are available from 0730 to 2200 hours to investigate child abuse cases.

An on–call child abuse investigator can be reached after hours through the Toronto Police Operations Centre (TPOC).

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363
Q

What is a subunit of detective operations a Sex Crimes

A

The child and youth advocacy centre CYAC

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364
Q

Who investigates the sudden unexpected death of a child under the age of 16 in any division citywide

A

The child and youth advocacy centre CYAC. Which is a subunit of sex crimes

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365
Q

CYAC investigators are available from

A

0730-2200 To investigate child abuse cases and on-call child investigator can be reached through TPOC

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366
Q

Pediatric Death Review Committee (PDRC)
The PDRC is composed of two sections based on the nature and circumstances of the death: PDRC – Child Welfare and
PDRC – Medical.
PDRC – Child Welfare must review all cases of deaths involving children and youth when the child, the youth or their family
was receiving, or had received, the services of a Children’s Aid Society (CAS) or Indigenous child wellbeing society within
_______ months of the death. The PDRC – Child Welfare panel includes police officers, crown attorneys, senior staff from the
Office of the Chief Coroner and representatives from Child Welfare organizations across the province; and is chaired by
the Regional Chief Coroner for the Province of Ontario.

A

12

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367
Q

The paediatric death review committee the PDRc

A

Includes police officers, crown’s attorneys, senior staff from the office of the chief corner and representatives from child welfare organizations across the province and is shared by the chief regional corner for the province of Ontario

They review all cases of deaths involving children and youth when the child or their family receiving or had received the service Of children’s aid CAS or indigenous child well-being society within 12 months of death

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368
Q

First police officer Upon arrival at the scene of a suspicious death or suspected homicide shall

(This is too long to memorize. This is here to review and read over)

A

 designate a line of approach to the body that allows for the least contamination possible

 take charge of the scene until relieved by a supervisory officer

 if the deceased has been removed, note the original position of the body and any items moved to gain access to
the body

 request additional assistance, as required

 request the attendance of
 a supervisory officer
 a divisional detective
 an investigator from Detective Operations – Forensic Identification Services (FIS)
 the Coroner

 pending the arrival of a supervisory officer, assign officers to complete necessary tasks

 ensure nothing at the scene is touched or used, including the telephones and bathrooms

 ensure the communications operator and the Officer in Charge are frequently apprised of all pertinent details

 obtain the name, address and telephone number of every person present at the scene or sufficient information,
including descriptions, to assist in locating these persons at a later time

 remove all persons to an area away from the immediate scene

 encourage all persons present to remain available for questioning

 preserve the integrity of evidence of witnesses by ensuring they don’t discuss their observations with each other

 ensure only personnel involved in the investigation are permitted to enter the crime scene

 comply with Procedure 13–17 by making notations in the memorandum book, including such information as

 sketching a diagram of the scene

 the position of the body and any weapons

 blood stains

 items of evidence

 room furnishings (indoor scene) or weather conditions (outdoor scene)

 physical characteristics of the scene

 conversations with witnesses

 any other information pertinent to the investigation

 conduct a Person Query, including a CPIC check and Canadian Firearms Registry On-line (CFRO) check
Upon discovering

 the sudden unexpected death of a child under 18 years of age, a suspicious death or suspected homicide, which
may include
 an unexplained or unknown cause of death
 found human remains
 obvious or suspected foul play
 any other suspicious circumstance shall treat the death as suspicious.

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369
Q

CFRO

A

Canadian firearms registry online

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370
Q

First police officer on scene of a suspicious death or homicide Shall request the attendance of who

A

Supervisory and Officer a

Division Detective

And investigator from FIS

And the corner

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371
Q

Upon discovering
 the sudden unexpected death of a child under 18 years of age, a suspicious death or suspected homicide, which
may include

A

 an unexplained or unknown cause of death
 found human remains
 obvious or suspected foul play
 any other suspicious circumstance shall treat the death as suspicious.

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372
Q

The investigative questionnaire for sudden unexpected deaths in infants was developed by

A

The office of the chief corner and is completed by the corner except for the death of an infant is a confirmed homicide in which case it will be completed by the police

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373
Q

If a suspect is present at a homicide note the condition of the suspect in the memorandum book particularly

A

Clothing

Marks of violence

Manner of speaking movements and general behaviour

refrain from unauthorized questioning of the suspect

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374
Q

What is a Preliminary Police Report

A

The Preliminary Police Report was developed by the Office of the Chief Coroner and shall be
completed, in addition to the applicable eReport, for any unnatural sudden death where the Coroner
has ordered an autopsy

And a Death of a child under 5 and forwarded to the Coroner office prior to the post mortem exam

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375
Q

The Preliminary Police Report was developed by the ________ of the _____ ________ and shall be
completed, in addition to the applicable eReport, for any unnatural sudden death where the _______
has ordered an autopsy

Or a Child under ______

A

Office of the Chief Coroner

Coroner

5

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376
Q

When performing a door-to-door canvas Police officers Shall carry a sufficient quantity of the TPS____and TPS______

A

TPS233 and tPS234

Complete the TPS233 for every premise attended

Leave a TPS234 at every residence where there is no answer

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377
Q

When is a TPS233 and a TPS234 years

A

When performing a door-to-door canvas

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378
Q

A SOCO shall not be assigned to death investigations involving

A

 the sudden, unexpected death of a child
 the death of a child under 5 years of age
 a suspicious death or suspected homicide.

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379
Q

Supervisory Officer
The first supervisory officer to arrive at the scene of a suspicious death or suspected homicide shall be responsible for the
quality and thoroughness of the uniform response.
When advised of a suspicious death or suspected homicide shall

(Too much to remember. This is review to read)

A

attend the scene promptly
 ensure sufficient personnel are dispatched to the scene
 take charge of all uniformed police officers
 provide assistance and direction to the police officers at the scene
 ensure the attendance of
 a divisional detective
 the Coroner
 an investigator from FIS
- A Scenes of Crime Officer (SOCO) shall not be deployed to examine any scene where there is a sudden unexpected
death of a child or where the death of any person is of a suspicious nature or a suspected homicide.
 notify the Officer in Charge
 ensure a member of the On–Call Homicide Team is notified
 ensure only essential personnel are allowed to enter/remain at the scene

ensure the communications operator and the Officer in Charge are frequently apprised of all pertinent details
 ensure a police officer accompanies the deceased to the hospital or morgue
 ensure the TPS 243 (major crime Scene log) is used by officers assigned to guard the entry to the scene
 ensure personnel are detailed to
 search the area for suspects, weapons or other evidence
 commence a systematic, door–to–door canvass at the earliest opportunity
 ensure the results of all searches and canvassing are submitted to the Major Case Manager/Divisional Detective
 complete and submit a TPS 466, along with the eReport number to the Major Case Manager/Divisional Detective
prior to reporting off duty
 scan and attach the memorandum notes and any hardcopy reports to the original eReport

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380
Q

Supervisory Officer
The first supervisory officer to arrive at the scene of a suspicious death or suspected homicide shall be responsible for the
quality and thoroughness of the uniform response.
When advised of a suspicious death or suspected homicide shall
 attend the scene ______
 ensure sufficient ______ are dispatched to the scene
 take charge of all _______ police officers
 provide assistance and direction to the ______ officers at the scene
 ensure the attendance of
 a divisional ______
 the _____
 an investigator from ______
- A Scenes of Crime Officer (SOCO) shall not be deployed to examine any scene where there is a sudden unexpected
death of a _______ or where the death of any person is of a suspicious nature or a suspected homicide.
 notify the _____ in _____
 ensure a member of the On–_________ team is notified
 ensure only essential personnel are allowed to enter/remain at the scene

ensure the communications operator and the Officer in Charge are frequently apprised of all pertinent details
 ensure a ______ officer accompanies the deceased to the hospital or morgue
 ensure the TPS ______ is used by officers assigned to guard the entry to the scene
 ensure personnel are detailed to
 search the area for suspects, weapons or other evidence
 commence a systematic, door–to–door canvass at the earliest opportunity
 ensure the results of all searches and canvassing are submitted to the Major Case Manager/Divisional Detective
 complete and submit a TPS 466, along with the eReport number to the Major Case Manager/Divisional Detective
prior to reporting off duty
 scan and attach the memorandum notes and any hardcopy reports to the original eReport

A

promptly
personnel
uniformed

detective
Coroner
FIS
-child
Officer in Charge

On–Call Homicide Team is notified

only essential personnel are allowed to enter/remain at the scene

ensure the communications operator and the Officer in Charge are frequently apprised of all pertinent details
 ensure a police officer accompanies the deceased to the hospital or morgue
 ensure the TPS 243 is used by officers assigned to guard the entry to the scene
 ensure personnel are detailed to
 search the area for suspects, weapons or other evidence
 commence a systematic, door–to–door canvass at the earliest opportunity
 ensure the results of all searches and canvassing are submitted to the Major Case Manager/Divisional Detective
 complete and submit a TPS 466, along with the eReport number to the Major Case Manager/Divisional Detective
prior to reporting off duty
 scan and attach the memorandum notes and any hardcopy reports to the original eReport

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381
Q

When is the CYAC notify.

A

When the death of a child under 16

Child youth advocacy centre

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382
Q

The divisional detective shall be responsible for ensuring effective management of the crime scene and that the appropriate
notifications are made.
Upon being notified of a suspicious death or suspected homicide shall

A

 attend the scene promptly

 advise the communication operator upon arrival

 take charge of the scene investigation until relieved by the attending Detective Operations – Homicide or FIS
investigator

The On–Call Homicide officer will determine whether a Homicide investigator shall attend the scene.

 ensure a police officer accompanies the deceased to the hospital or morgue

 ensure the Officer in Charge is notified

 follow the instructions of the attending Homicide investigator as it pertains to the completion of the applicable
eReports

 add supplementary information to the original eReport

 complete the memorandum book, TPS 303 and TPS 466, as applicable

 scan and attach the memorandum notes and any hardcopy reports to the original eReport
If a Homicide investigator is not attending the scene shall

 lead the overall investigation

 consult with the Coroner prior to leaving the scene
When investigating the sudden unexpected death of a child under 18 years of age shall

 treat the death as suspicious

 interview the caregiver at the time of death, using the questions listed in Appendix A as a guide to the type of
information that should be obtained

 consult with a member of the On–
Call Homicide Team and the Coroner prior to leaving the scene

 if the child is under 16 years of age, consult with a CYAC investigator prior to leaving the scene and/or conducting
formal interviews of caregivers

 ensure the following reports are completed and forwarded to the Coroner’s Office prior to the post mortem
examination
 applicable eReports
 Preliminary Police Report (for a death of a child under 5 years of age)

The Preliminary Police Report was developed by the Office of the Chief Coroner and shall be completed, in addition to the applicable eReports, for a death of a child under 5 years of age.

Following the post mortem examination, a Preliminary
Autopsy Findings Report will be completed by the Pathologist and forwarded to the investigator.

 scan and attach the memorandum notes and any hardcopy reports to the original eReport

When investigating the death of an infant (less than 1 year of age) shall, in addition to item 22,

 use Appendix B, as applicable, as a reference to record at–scene information in the memorandum book

 complete Appendix B if the death of an infant is a confirmed homicide and forward to the Coroner’s Office prior to the post mortem examination

  • The Investigation Questionnaire for Sudden Unexpected Deaths in Infants in Appendix B was developed
    by the Office of the Chief Coroner and is completed by the Coroner, except where the death of an infant is
    a confirmed homicide in which case it will be completed by police.
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383
Q

The officer in Charge Shall ensure the following reports are completed, as applicable, and forwarded to the Coroner’s Office prior to the post
mortem examination

A

 applicable eReports
 Preliminary Police Report (for a death of a child under 5 years of age)
 Appendix B (for confirmed homicide of an infant)

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384
Q

Infant means a child less than

A

1 year of age.

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385
Q

Intimate Relationship includes current or former relationships between opposite sex and same sex partners and include

A

persons who:
 are legally married to one another;
 were previously married to one another;
 are not married, but are currently in a family–type relationship;
 are not married, but were formerly in a family–type relationship;
 have a child in common regardless of whether such persons have been married or lived together at one time; or,
 are (or have ever been) involved in a dating relationship.

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386
Q

Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS) means the sudden death of an infant under one (_____) year of age, which remains
unexplained after a thorough investigation which must include a….;

A

Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS) means the sudden death of an infant under one (1) year of age, which remains
unexplained after a thorough investigation which must include a complete autopsy, examination of the death scene, a police
investigation and a review of the child’s clinical history.

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387
Q

Sudden Unexplained Death means the death investigation of a child due to

A

SID

 accidental injury

 non–accidental injury due to neglect or abuse, or

negative autopsy but evidence of an old healed fracture which has not been adequately explained by the
investigation
-

negative autopsy but some positive toxicology, which although not considered to be a cause of death
cannot be explained (e.g. blood alcohol of 30mg in a five month old child)

Where there is significant concern regarding any part of the death investigation, the cause of death should be classified as
a SUD.

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388
Q

SMT

A

Senior management team

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389
Q

ODARA

A

Ontario domestic assault risk assessment.

ODARA

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390
Q

The goal of the service in relation to domestic

A

To reduce the incidence of domestic violence and homicides in the community through education and enforcement.

To thoroughly investigate all domestic violence and domestic incident and bring offenders to justice wherever possible.

Enhance the safety of victims for prompt action including referrals to community partners.

Build effective partnership with community support agency is to ensure a victim focussed response

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391
Q

If RPG exists in a Domestic the laying of Charge will not be determined with regard to;

A

marital status of the parties
 disposition of previous calls for police service
 victim’s unwillingness to attend court

likelihood of obtaining a conviction
 denials of violence despite contrary evidence
 fear of reprisals by the accused
 occupation of the victim/accused
 immigration status of the parties.
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392
Q

In addition to investigating a domestic and taking action in relation to any new criminal offence, prompt enforcement action shall be
taken in all cases in which there is any breach of

A

In addition to investigating and taking action in relation to any new criminal offence, prompt enforcement action shall be
taken in all cases in which there is any breach of
 a Bail condition
 a Probation Order, Parole or Conditional Sentence
 a Recognizance to Keep the Peace (S. 810)
 a Restraining Order (Family Law Act and Children’s Law Reform Act)
 an Exclusive Possession Order (Family Law Act)
 the Trespass to Property Act
 any other court order.
Domestic violence investigators (DVI) shall take the lead role in all domestic violence investigations except in the following
circumstances where

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393
Q

Peace Officer – Report to Justice for the purposes of filing a Report to Justice means a ______ officer, or a ________ officer who
is a _______ ______ officer.

A

a police officer, or a court officer who

is a sworn peace officer.

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394
Q

(PPSC)

A

Public Prosecution Service of Canada

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395
Q

The investigator heading an investigation, or a police officer designated by the investigator, shall attend the morgue and be
physically present when a deceased is identified under the following circumstances:

A

 homicide, suspected homicide or other related criminal offences

 cases where the investigating officer has requested the presence of another officer

 cases where an inquest has been or is likely to be called

 when the Coroner believes it is necessary due to the nature of the case, or the condition of the person doing the
identification.

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396
Q

Case Manager
When assigned a case involving abuse of an elderly or vulnerable adult shall

A

 wherever possible, obtain an electronically recorded statement from the victim in compliance with Procedures 04–
32 and 12–08
- The Crown and the Victim Witness Assistance Program at the court location should be advised of any
known medical, physical or mental conditions of the victim so appropriate arrangements can be made
for any required court appearances.

 ensure all reasonable inquires have been made into the possession by an accused of weapons, firearms,
explosives, authorizations, licences, permits, certificates, Firearm Acquisition Certificates (FAC), etc. and that such
items are surrendered before release to ensure the safety of the victim

 consider opposing bail or the use of bail conditions to ensure the safety of the victim in compliance with the
applicable procedures in Chapter 1

 consider highlighting ss. 718.2(a) Criminal Code (aggravating circumstances) in the confidential crown envelope
(e.g. blind victim, Alzheimer’s patient, dementia or special circumstances) so the Crown may consider seeking
stiffer sentencing upon conviction

 encourage the victim to complete a Victim Impact Statement at the appropriate stage of the court process

 whenever possible, ensure the victim is notified of any known court dates with a follow–up call on the day prior to
the court appearance

 consider use of the Special Interest Persons category on CPIC for victims who are believed to be at risk of additional
abuse
Officer in Charge

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397
Q

Form 47 MHA means an Order for _______ issued by the _______ who issued the person a Community Treatment
Order (CTO) and
a) Has reasonable cause to believe the person has failed to comply with the conditions under the CTO
b) the CTO subject or substitute decision–maker has withdrawn consent to the CTO and the subject fails to permit
the physician to review their condition within ______ hours and the physician believes the subject may cause harm or
suffer deterioration.

A

Examination

Physician

72 hours

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398
Q

Form ______ MHA means an Order for Examination issued by the physician who issued the person a Community Treatment Order (CTO) and
a) Has reasonable cause to believe the person has failed to comply with the conditions under the CTO
b) the CTO subject or substitute decision–maker has withdrawn consent to the CTO and the subject fails to permit
the physician to review their condition within 72 hours and the physician believes the subject may cause harm or
suffer deterioration

A

47

Good for 30 days

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399
Q

Hold up squads mandate

A

Financial institutions

Armored cars

Retail businesses

Home invasions Committed with firearms or offence of weapons

Money deposit

And carjackings committed with firearms or offensive weapons

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400
Q

The robbery procedure was

This procedure was developed to meet the Police Services Act, O. Reg. 3/99, Adequacy and Effectiveness of police
Services to ensure

A

a) The safety of responding officers
b) The protection of the public
c) A thorough investigation, and
d) The collection and preservation of evidence in the approved manner.

Supervision
 Supervisory Officer attendance mandatory for all robberies
 Officer in Charge notification mandatory for all robberies
 Detective notification mandatory for all robberies
 Hold-up (HUS) notification mandatory for all robberies within their mandate
Procedure

HUS shall be contacted immediately in all instances of robbery involving
 financial institutions
 armoured cars
 retail business
 home invasions committed with firearms or offensive weapons
 money deposits and
 carjacking’s committed with firearms or offensive weapons
The Unit Commander – HUS may, upon conclusion of the preliminary investigation, at their discretion, take charge of any
robbery investigation.

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401
Q

Supervision regarding a robbery

A

Supervision
 Supervisory Officer attendance mandatory for all robberies

 Officer in Charge notification mandatory for all robberies

 Detective notification mandatory for all robberies

 Hold-up (HUS) notification mandatory for all robberies within their mandate

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402
Q

Robbery
Divisional Detective
The divisional investigator shall be responsible for ensuring the HUS and FIS/SOCO are notified to attend and take charge
of the investigation until the arrival of the HUS.

A

When attending at the scene shall

 advise the communications operator upon arrival and

 ensure the HUS is notified to attend, if required

 ensure FIS is notified and either FIS or divisional SOCO attend the scene, as required

 take charge of the investigation until the arrival of HUS officers

 consult with the attending supervisory officer regarding GPS tracking information obtained, as applicable

 ensure compliance with Procedure 17–01, as appropriate
Officer in Charge – Division

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403
Q

Global positioning system GPS tracking device in reference to holdups. Used primarily by who

A

The pharmaceutical and financial Industries

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404
Q

When on Scene of a robbery Detective – Detective Operations – Hold-Up Shall

A

shall take charge of the investigation and seize all surveillance recordings.

When attending the scene shall, in addition to complying with unit specific policies

 take charge of the investigation

 seize and hand–deliver any hold–up note to FIS – Documents

 seize or make arrangements for seizure and pick up all surveillance recordings

 consult with the attending supervisory officer and/or divisional investigator regarding GPS tracking information
obtained, as applicable

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405
Q

 Supervisory Officer attendance / notification with regard to a domestic

A

 Supervisory Officer attendance mandatory
- all domestic violence calls
- when the suspect/accused/victim is a member of this Service
- when the suspect/accused is a member of another police service

Supervisory Officer notification mandatory

 Domestic Violence Investigator (DVI) or Officer in Charge notification mandatory when attending or investigating
domestic violence and a supervisor is unable to attend

 Divisional Investigative office mandatory notification where reasonable grounds exist and the suspect has left the
scene

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406
Q

The goal of the Service is with regards to domestic is;

A

 reduce the incidence of domestic violence and homicide in the community through education and enforcement
 thoroughly investigate all domestic violence and domestic incidents, and bring offenders to justice wherever
possible
 enhance the safety of victims through prompt action including referrals to other community partners
 build effective partnerships with community support agencies to ensure a victim focussed response.
Supervision

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407
Q

Domestic violence.

If assistance is not obtain or not available with a Division the incident took place

A

Division receiving the report will thoroughly investigate the allegation

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408
Q

Charges
Police officers shall fully document their response to every domestic violence and domestic incident call, regardless of
whether a criminal offence has been committed or a charge laid/an arrest made. Charges shall be laid in all cases where
reasonable grounds exist, and the decision to lay charges shall not be influenced by factors such as

A

marital status of the parties
 disposition of previous calls for police service
 victim’s unwillingness to attend court

likelihood of obtaining a conviction
 denials of violence despite contrary evidence
 fear of reprisals by the accused
 occupation of the victim/accused
 immigration status of the parties.
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409
Q

Domestic violence investigators (DVI) shall take the lead role in all domestic violence investigations except in the following
circumstances where

A

 the incident involves an allegation of sexual assault, a DVI shall be designated as the lead investigator, but shall
work in consultation with an accredited sexual assault investigator

 the incident involves death, the investigation shall be assigned to Detective Operations – Homicide

 cases involving criteria offences as defined in the Ontario Major Case Management Manual, the investigation shall
be assigned to an accredited Major Case Manager

 the incident involves a young person; a DVI shall be designated as the lead investigator, but shall work in
consultation with an officer assigned to youth investigations.

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410
Q

Domestic violence

In addition to investigating and taking action in relation to any new criminal offence, prompt enforcement action shall be
taken in all cases in which there is any breach of

A

 a Bail condition

 a Probation Order, Parole or Conditional Sentence

 a Recognizance to Keep the Peace (S. 810)

 a Restraining Order (Family Law Act and Children’s Law Reform Act)

 an Exclusive Possession Order (Family Law Act)

 the Trespass to Property Act

 any other court order.

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411
Q

DVRM/ODARA

In relation to a domestic

A

Domestic violence risk management-Ontario domestic assault risk assessment

This is a report that she will be completed for all domestic violence occurrences

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412
Q

Significance of Waypoint health centre

A

Only an accredited DVI, who has received the ODARA training and received a certificate from Waypoint Health
Center shall complete the DVRM/ODARA

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413
Q

Where are domestic violence investigators DVI trained to complete the Ontario domestic assault risk assessment report

A

Waypoint health centre

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414
Q

The DVRM/ODARA must be completed and in the crown brief for the ______ ______

A

Bail hearing

Domestic Violence Risk Management – Ontario Domestic Assault Risk Assessment (DVRM

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415
Q

DVRM

A

Domestic Violence Risk Management – Ontario Domestic Assault Risk Assessment

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416
Q

Domestic violence situations within the City of Toronto where the suspect/accused is a member of this Service will be
initially investigated by the

A

responding division in compliance with this Procedure. The Unit Commander / Duty Senior
Officer shall notify Professional Standards (PRS) who will assume the role of case manager. Divisional personnel shall
assist PRS, as required.
Professional Standards is designated as the Service liaison with other police services regarding Service member–involved
domestic violence occurrences outside the City of Toronto, and shall be responsible for submitting a TPS 901 in compliance
with Procedures 13–02 and 13–03.

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417
Q

Domestic violence occurrences involving members outside of Canada shall be treated as

A

Allegations of discreditable conduct

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418
Q

Supervisory and Officers a Shall attend/be notified at domestics when

A

Shall attend domestic involving violence

Attend domestic incident whenever possible, if cannot must be notified

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419
Q

Supervisor Shall;

With a suspect/Accused or victim in a domestic is a member of this service Shall

A

Attend the scene

Advise the officer in charge of the circumstances

Document all the circumstances your memo book including no arrest was made etc

Conduct a preliminary investigation Into a conduct complain

Insure the victim and dependence are offered the assistance of EFAP, victim services Toronto, and other community agencies

I’m sure the suspect/accused is informed of the assistance of EFAP

Advised the victim they will be contacted by PRS

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420
Q

supervisor domestic violence

When the suspect/accused is a member of another police service shall

A

 attend the scene
 advise the Officer in Charge of the circumstances
 document all the circumstances in the memorandum book, including if no arrest was made, why no arrest was
made/charge laid, when applicable
 ensure that the victim and dependents are offered the assistance of Victim Services Toronto and other community
agencies

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421
Q

Domestic violence investigator Shall on the top border of the crown envelope he’s clearly marked

A

“Domestic”

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422
Q

Domestic violence investigator Shall

A

When investigating breaches of restraining orders issued under the family law act and children’s reform act ensure

A DVRM/ODARA is completed

The top right hand corner of the information is Marked DV

The box entitled incident type section of the crown envelope has been checked off

All charges are clearly noted in the crown envelope as Domestic in origin and the top border of the crown envelope is boldly marked in red

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423
Q

There are four key steps in establishing the Crime Management Process at the divisional level. Their purpose is to ensure
a high level of integration, co–ordination and focus of divisional resources:

A
  1. Long–term strategic planning and evaluation to set direction for the division
    Unit Commanders must designate a divisional Crime Manager.
    Depending on the unit size,
  2. Short–term/daily tactical planning and evaluation to adjust and react as required
    Principal members of the Crime Management Team will meet regularly.
  3. Integrated Role for Divisional CPLCs
    Divisional CPLCs will be partners involved in the crime management process and will assist the problem
    identification, problem solving and evaluation systems.
  4. Targeted Debriefing of All Prisoners
    Where practicable, persons in custody will be debriefed as to information they may provide on any of the crime
    problems set as a divisional priority.
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424
Q

Please restrict your advice to the victim about the services Victim Services Toronto “_____” provide and refrain
from committing to what they will provide. The decision remains with Victim Services Toronto.

A

“can”

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425
Q

When possible with a domestic investigators in a domestic should ensure the have the victim photographed a second time within ______-______hours after the initial incident

A

When possible with a domestic investigators in a domestic should ensure the have the victim photographed a second time within 48-72 hours after the initial incident

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426
Q

Detectives when instigating a domestic Shall consult with ———to assist the victim in a developing a personal safety plan.

A

Sex Crimes behavioural assessment section to assist the victim in developing

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427
Q

Domestic violence investigator show notify Guns and gangs when

A

Fire arms are or may be a factor

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428
Q

FIP

A

Firearms interest police. Domestic violence investigators shell conduct one of these and a CPIC check

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429
Q

SIP. What does it stand for and what is it for

A

Special interest police

A SIP It’s on CPIC After completing a 227

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430
Q

when in receipt of a domestic incident report there no reasonable grounds exist relative to a charge for domestic violence investigator Shall

A

Review all the circumstances including the responses to the risk factor questions

Generate a FIP entry on CPIC if the incident contains information that should be available to the office of the chief Provincial firearms officer

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431
Q

Domestic violence investigator

When in receipt of a Domestic Violence report and the suspect has not been arrested shall

A

 ensure a further investigation is promptly conducted

 lay charges where reasonable grounds exist and submit a TPS 227 with the eReport number

 where reasonable grounds exist and the suspect has not been arrested/charged within 24 hours of the offence,
consider obtaining a warrant in compliance with Procedure 02–01

 complete a Warrant Application Supplementary via eReport and enter the suspect’s information onto CPIC in the
“WANT” category indicating that an arrest warrant is pending, if applicable
The entry will be removed from CPIC after two business days if the warrant is not received.

 if no charges are laid, add supplementary information to the original eReport explaining the reasons for such a
decision

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432
Q

Domestic violence

Unit Commander

Upon receipt of a TPS 649 requesting application into Witness Assistance and Relocation Program (WARP) shall

A

 review and endorse the request where appropriate

 ensure the TPS 649 is sealed and hand delivered to the Unit Commander – Intelligence Services in compliance
with Procedure 04–37

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433
Q

Domestic violence Officer in Charge and Shall

where is safety concerns for officers attending an address ensure a TPS

A

228 has been completed in compliance with procedure and added to the special address system

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434
Q

Bona Fide Reasons means

(In the domestic violence section page 96)

In dictionary means genuine or real. What you’re looking for here is “a victim or…….

A

Bona Fide Reasons means

 a victim or witness who may possibly require or may seek admission into the Provincial Witness Protection Program;

 a Crown Attorney is requesting information for disclosure purposes;

 the information is necessary to prove essential elements of an offence, or;

 investigations where the circumstances make it clear that it is essential to public or officer safety and security to
ascertain the immigration status of a victim or witness.

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435
Q

Child in need of protection means a child

A

Can be apprehended as being in need of protection as defined in S125(1)Of the child youth and family services at

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436
Q

Criteria Offence – Ontario Major Case Management means the following major cases:

A

Criteria Offence – Ontario Major Case Management means the following major cases:

 homicides as defined in subsection 222(4), Criminal Code, and attempts;

 sexual assaults, and all attempts (for the purpose of this standard, is deemed to include sexual interference, sexual
exploitation and invitation to sexual touching);

 trafficking in persons as defined in section 279.01, 279.011 or 279.04, Criminal Code, and attempts as defined in 
section 24(1) Criminal Code;

 occurrences involving non-familial abductions and attempts;

 missing person occurrences, as outlined in the Ontario Major Case Management Manual;

 occurrences suspected to be homicide involving found human remains;

 criminal harassment cases in which the offender is not known to the victim; and,

 any other types of cases designated as a major case pursuant to this Ontario Major Case Management Manual.
[Source: Ontario Major Case Management Manual]

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437
Q

Victim witness assistance program. VWAP

A

Victim/Witness Assistance Program (VWAP) means the program operated by the (Ontario) Ministry of the Attorney
General. Services are provided on a priority basis to the most vulnerable victims and witnesses of violent crime; such as
domestic violence, child abuse, sexual assault, homicide and hate crime. Families of traffic fatality victims are also eligible.
Services begin once police have laid charges and continue until the court case is concluded.
05-05 Sexual Assault

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438
Q

Victim Quick Response Program

A

Victim Quick Response Program means a program administered by Victim Services Toronto that provides quick financial
assistance to victims of homicide, attempted murder, serious physical assault, domestic violence, sexual assault and hate
crime in the immediate aftermath of a crime.
Victim/Witness Assistance Program (VWAP)

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439
Q

During a sexual assault investigation the divisional sexual assault investigator or in their absence of a divisional investigator Shall Conduct a __________ _________ regarding a sex assault and only Contacts us sex crimes once

A

Once they have conducted a Preliminary InvestigationInvestigation

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440
Q

OMCMM

A

Ontario Major Case Management Manual

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441
Q

Ontario regulations 354/04 Major case management meaning of the police service at defines what offences has major cases

A

Sexual assaults including sexual interference and attempted sexual salts sexual exploitation and invitation of sexual touching as major cases.

The Ontario major case management manual the OMCMM Directs that primary investigator be assigned to manage a major all case documents Hardcopy electronic shall be collected and manage in accordance with the filing system sit out in the OMCMM

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442
Q

Who Is notified during occurrences involving human trafficking for the purpose of exploiting Persons or facilitating the Exploitation for a sexual and or forced labour purpose

A

Human Trafficking Enforcement team HTET shall be notified

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443
Q

Who investigates sexual assaults when the victim is under 16 years of age

A

A child sexual abuse investigator

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444
Q

Who investigates incidents involving child pornography or child luring

A

The child exploitation section CES shall be notified And assume control over the investigation

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445
Q

Notification and Assignment of Detective Operations – Sex Crimes
Sex Crimes shall be notified of any sexual assault where, it is determined:

A

:
 the offender is unknown

 there is ongoing risk to the community

 the occurrence involves an offence under s. 272 or 273 of the CC (sexual assault with a weapon, sexual assault
causing bodily harm, wounds, maims, disfigures or endangers life)

 there are multiple victims or multiple suspects

 the occurrence involves multiple sexual acts, the use of restraints, bondage or wearing of a disguise by the offender

 the offender records the offence in any manner

 the offender removes or keeps any personal item from the victim

 the offender uses scripting by having the victim engage in prompted dialogue

 the offender uses a con or ruse, including dating services and the internet, to lure the victim
*the sexual assault is linked to another sexual assault occurrence

 to be a criminal offence, by an unknown offender, where sexual assault appears to have been the motive

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446
Q

Child & Youth Advocacy Centre (CYAC)
The CYAC is a section of Sex Crimes that promotes the protection of victims; provides advocacy, treatment and ongoing
support.
The CYAC will investigate child sexual and physical abuse cases that include

A

 physical assaults, emotional abuse, or neglect occurrences when the victim is under the age of 16 and the suspect
is a caregiver, parent or a person in a position of trust or authority

 physical assaults when the victim is under the age of 16 years and the suspect is a known adult

 sexual offences when the victim is under the age of 18 years, the suspect is known and the offences are not within
the mandate of the Sex Crimes investigative office

 occurrences entitled Child in Need of Protection or Child Left Unattended.

Police officers shall comply with Procedure 05–06 when investigating child sexual and physical abuse cases.
When the victim(s) is under the age of 18 years and the offender(s) is unknown contact Sex Crimes Investigative Section.

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447
Q

Physical assaults when the victim is under the age of 16 years and the suspect is an adult who investigates

A

The child and youth advocacy centre CYAC

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448
Q

Who investigates sexual offences when the victim is under the age of 18 years the suspect is known and the offences are not within the mandate a Sex Crimes

A

The child and youth advocacy Center,

CYAC

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449
Q

What is the CYAC

A

A section of sex crimes that promotes the protection of victims provides advocacy treatment and ongoing support

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450
Q

Who investigate physical assaults emotional abuse or neglect occurrences when the victim is under the age of 16 and the suspect is a caregiver parent or person in a position of trust or authority

A

The CYAC. The child and youth advocacy centre

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451
Q

Sexual assault care centres SACC

A

The Scarborough Hospital (Birchmount Campus) 3030 Birchmount Rd. 12 years and older

SickKids Hospital 555 University Ave. under 18 years

Women’s College Hospital 76 Grenville St. 14 years and older
T

rillium Health Centre – Mississauga Hwy 10/Queensway any age
Divisional Sexual Assault Investigator shall attend t

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452
Q

IOPLA.

You made this acronym under the incident management organization chart

A

Investigative chief

operations chief

planning chief logistics chief

administrative and financial chief

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453
Q

Supervisory Officer

When assigning officers to community patrol activities shall

A

Supervisory Officer
When assigning officers to community patrol activities shall
 promote and implement crime management initiatives to respond to identified crime, public disorder and road safety
problems, including repeat calls for service and repeat victimization
 use crime analysis for identifying areas or issues requiring directed patrol, targeted enforcement, problem–oriented
policing, or community–based crime prevention initiatives
 where possible, work with municipalities, school boards, businesses, community organizations and members of the
public to address crime, public disorder and road safety problems
 assist in developing appropriate strategies, based on the analysis of crime, calls for service, public order, criminal
intelligence and road safety
 encourage officers to document the intelligence information on crimes, active criminals and disorder issues in the
applicable eReports
 ensure patrol officers are provided with relevant information in order to undertake the type of activity to which they
have been assigned
 ensure appropriate measurements of each activity are recorded by each officer assigned
 ensure the use of directed patrol, targeted enforcement and other initiatives to respond to high crime or high
occurrence locations and serial occurrences
 notify the Officer in Charge when crime management initiatives are utilized
 ensure both local and Service–wide crime prevention initiatives are brought to the attention of all relevant members
 encourage officers to provide crime prevention information or referral to the community wherever possible during
the course of duty

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454
Q

NCMPUR

A

National Centre for missing persons and unidentified remains website.NCMPUR

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455
Q

Supervisory and Officer

Sexual assault. If the suspect/accused victim is a member of this service shall

A

Attend the scene

Advising officer in charge of the circumstances

Notify sex crimes

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456
Q

Define a major case manager

A

And investigator responsible for the effective governance and management I have every threshold major case investigation.

Has successfully completed the major case management course or equivalent and can manage Investigations through the ministry approve software known as power case

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457
Q

Major case manager did a human trafficking investigation shall be from what unit

A

Sex Crimes Human Trafficking Enforcement team

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458
Q

For the purposes of a kidnapping investigation, the Major Case Manager shall be an investigator

A

from Detective Operations

– Organized Crime Enforcement.

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459
Q

Sexual assault Care Center,

SACC. Means what

A

Means a Medical Care Center, Designated for the treatment and examination of victims of sexual assault

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460
Q

What does VICLAS Mean and what is the acronym stand for

A

Violent crime linkage analysis system

) means the national database operated by the Royal Canadian 
Mounted Police (RCMP) for the purpose of linking occurrences of designated offences across Canada.
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461
Q

Child abuse investigations shall be conducted in accordance with

A

the “Protocol for Joint Investigations of Child Physical and Sexual Abuse: Guidelines and Procedures for a Co–
ordinated Response to Child Abuse in the City of Toronto”;

 the Toronto Police Service Criminal Investigation Management Plan;

 the Ontario Major Case Management Manual, where applicable;

 the Chief Coroner’s memorandum on the protocol for the investigation of sudden and unexpected deaths in children
under 5 years of age; and

 the Chief Coroner’s memorandum on the protocol to be followed during the investigation of a sudden and/or
unexpected death of any child under 1 year of age (See R.O

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462
Q

The CYAC is staffed by the services designated child-abuse investigators. Who do they work in collaboration with

A

The CYAC is staffed by the Service’s designated child abuse investigators, working in collaboration with members of the

Catholic Children’s Aid Society,

the Children’s Aid Society of Toronto, the

SickKids Hospital’s Suspected Child Abuse and Neglect (SCAN) Program,

Safe–T Program,

Halton Trauma Center, and

Boost Child Abuse Prevention and Intervention.

The CYAC shall be notified when investigating a sudden unexpected death of a child under the age of 16. The attending

Divisional Detective shall consult with a member of the CYAC prior to leaving the scene and/or conducting a formal interview
of caregivers. An on-call child abuse investigator can be reached after hours through the Toronto Police Operations Centre
(TPOC).

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463
Q

Who will investigate occurrences in titled Charlie need a protection or child left on attended

A

The CYAC

Children’s youth and advocacy centre

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464
Q

Who investigates physical assaults on a victim if under the age of 16 and the suspect is a known-adult

A

CYAC will investigate

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465
Q

Who investigates sexual offences when the victim is under the age of 18 years and the suspect is known and the offences are not within the mandate a Sex Crimes

A

CYAC

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466
Q

Who investigates physical assaults emotional abuse or neglect occurrences when the victim is under the age of 16 and the suspect as a caregiver parrot or a person in the position of authority

A

CYAC

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467
Q

The CYAC will investigate

A

The CYAC will investigate child sexual and physical abuse cases that include

 physical assaults, emotional abuse, or neglect occurrences when the victim is under the age of 16 and the suspect
is a caregiver, parent or a person in a position of trust or authority

 physical assaults when the victim is under the age of 16 years and the suspect is a known adult

 sexual offences when the victim is under the age of 18 years, the suspect is known and the offences are not within
the mandate of the Sex Crimes investigative office

 occurrences entitled Child in Need of Protection or Child Left Unattended.

Police officers shall comply with Procedure 05–06 when investigating child sexual and physical abuse cases.
When the victim(s) is under the age of 18 years and the offender(s) is unknown contact Sex Crimes Investigative Section.

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468
Q

Who is notified when investigating a sudden unexpected death of a child under the age of 16

A

The attending detective show consult with a member of the CYAC prior to leaving the scene and or conducting a formal interview of caregivers

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469
Q

If abuse is disclose at school And reported immediately by school personnel to the Children’s Aid Society can an investigation take place on school premises before notifying the parents

A

Yes. Cyac

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470
Q

Investigations on School Premises
If it is determined by the Team that it is in the best interest of the child, investigations may take place on school premises,
without first notifying* the parents and in their absence when

A

the abuse is disclosed at school and reported immediately by school personnel to the Children’s Aid Society (CAS)
 the abuse is disclosed outside the school and the Team wishes to interview the child at school
 the abuse disclosure involves school personnel as an alleged offender
 the abuse disclosure involves another child (student) as an alleged offender
 subsequent to the initial investigation, police or child care protection workers need access to the child at school or
child care setting as a continuation of this process.
* The parents shall be informed of any interview conducted Without prior notification as soon as reasonably possible

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471
Q

Child abuse

If the alleged offender is a school employee, consideration must be given by the Unit Commander or designate of the
investigating unit as soon as practicable of notifying the respective

A

Director of Education or designate, responsible individual
or body.

School officials shall be advised not to interview or advise the alleged offender prior to the police interview.

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472
Q

Where the abuse took place/investigates/child abuse cases

A

Where Abuse Took Place
Where Child Resides
Unit Responsible For Investigation

Where; Inside the City of Toronto
Resides ;Inside the City of Toronto
Division where the incident occurred

Where; Inside the City of Toronto
Readies; Outside the City of Toronto
Division where the incident occurred

Where; Outside the City of Toronto
Resides; Inside the City of Toronto
Division; Initial investigation by division receiving the
complaint and forward the information to the police
service concerned

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473
Q

CYFSA

A

Child youth and family services act.

Page 103 in relation to child abuse

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474
Q

VYSA

A

Is the volunteer youth services agreement

Speaks to children who are 16 or 17 years old who believe they are in need of protection may be eligible for this

Protection Services for 16 and 17 Year olds
On, 2018 January 01, Ontario increased the age of protection to include all children under the age of 18 years.

Children 
who are 16 or 17 years old, who believe they are in need of protection may be eligible to enter into the new Voluntary Youth 
Services Agreement (VYSA), see Appendix C.
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475
Q

Child abuse sex assault

prepubertal under 12 In relation to the sexual assault examination kit SAEK

A

Within 72 hours advise the victim/parent the importance of attending a hospital for a medical evaluation to gather potential forensics evidence

After 72 hours contact scan to discuss if the victim/family require medical attention

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476
Q

Child abuse sex assault

Pubertal adolescents 12-18 In relation to the sexual assault examination kit SAEK

A

Within 12 days advise a victim/parent the importance of attending a hospital for medical evaluation to gather potential forensics evidence

After 12 days contact scan to discuss if the victim/family require medical attention

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477
Q

SCAN (Child abuse)

A

Suspected child abuse and neglect

For children under 18

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478
Q

SAEK

A

Sexual assault examination kit

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479
Q

Prior to attending SickKids ER or SCAN and investigator shall notify who

A

Notify the SCAN on-call clinician through the switchboard

The on-call SCAN member will collaborate with the investigator to determine if immediate transportation to sick kids ER or SCAN is required

The phone consultation will facilitate planning next steps and determine if the victim ought to be interviewed before or after the medical exam

With the note of timelines to collect evidence in mind the collaboration will enhance efficiencies of the investigation and reduce wait times of officers upon arrival at sick kids ER or SCAN

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480
Q

In cases of child sexual assault request to victim post pone________Whenever possible until after the medical examination

A

Voiding. If voiding is necessary avoid wiping the general area or save the tissue for the sexual assault kit

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481
Q

CFRO

In the firearms section

A

Canadian firearms registry online

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482
Q

The Chief firearms officer

A

Is the office responsible for screening FIP reports. Firearm interest police

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483
Q

Officer in Charge
The Officer in Charge is responsible for ensuring an appropriate uniform response, and in the absence of the detective
sergeant, an appropriate investigative response.
Upon receiving notification of a case of suspected child physical or sexual abuse, or circumstances where child abuse
cannot be ruled out, shall

A

 contact the CYAC to request a designated investigator

 ensure the eReport number is

 distributed in accordance with unit policy

 provided to the divisional detective office where the offence took place, if applicable.

At the time of booking a prisoner and before considering release, shall ensure
 all reasonable inquiries have been made into the possession by an accused of weapons, firearms, ammunition,
explosives, authorizations, licences, permits, certificates, Firearms Acquisition Certificate, etc.
 such items are surrendered before release to enhance the safety of the victim

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484
Q

Child abuse. Officer in charge Shall at the time of booking a prisoner in before considering release

A

All REASONABLE inquiries have been made into possession of an accused of weapons firearms ammunition explosives authorizations licenses permits certificates and FAC

Such items are surrender before released to enhance the safety of the victim

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485
Q

Child abuse

Child means

A

Means a person younger than 18

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486
Q

Child abuse;

Define child abuse

A

Child Abuse no person having charge of a child shall
 inflict abuse (physical, sexual or sexual exploitation) on the child; or

by failing to care and provide for or supervise and protect the child adequately,
- permit the child to suffer abuse or
- permit the child to suffer from a mental, emotional or development condition that, if not remedied, could
serioiusly impair the child’s development.
[Source: Child, Youth and Family Services Act ss.136 (1)(2)]
Child in Need of Protection means a child that can be apprehended as being in need of protection as defined in s.125 (1)
of the Child, Youth and Family Services Act.

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487
Q

Child abuse Section

Define Child in need a protection

A

He’s a child that could be apprehended as being a need a protection as defined in section 125 of the child youth and family services are

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488
Q

Child Physical Abuse where the circumstances could be a violation of the Criminal Code and/or render the child in need
of protection under the Child, Youth and Family Services Act, and where the alleged abuser (whether adult or child) has
responsibility for the care of the child victim. Child Physical Abuse refers to an offence where a child is victimized by an
abuser and includes all of the following:

A

 physical assaults, emotional abuse, or neglect occurrences when the victim is under 18 years of age and the
suspect is a caregiver, parent or a person in a position of trust or authority;
 abductions when the victim is under the age of 16 years of age;
 occurrences entitled Child in Need of Protection or Child Left Unattended
 homicides when the victim is under the age of 18 years and the suspect is a caregiver, parent, or person in a
position of trust or authority
 physical offences when the victim is under the age of 18 years and there are clear developmental differences
between the victim and the suspect.

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489
Q

When are abduction and the victim is under the age of 16 years of age. What definition is that in

A

Child physical abuse

Page 106

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490
Q

Child Sexual Abuse means the use of a child by an adult for sexual purposes, whether or not consent is alleged to have
been given, which could be a violation of the Criminal Code and/or could place a child in need of protection under the Child,
Youth and Family Services Act. Child sexual abuse can include:

A
\:
 incest; 
 acts of exposure; 
 sexual touching; 
 sexual intercourse; 
 sexual molestation; 
 inappropriate sexual language; 
 sexual harassment; 
 exhibitionism; 
 exploitation of child for pornography or prostitution.
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491
Q

For the purpose of a kidnapping investigation the major case manager shall be from

A

Organized crime enforcement

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492
Q

Team (child abuse investigation)

A

Mean a designated child-abuse investigator and a children’s aid Society specialist who will conduct interviews together and communicate every stage the investigation

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493
Q

Hate bias crime

Supervisor Notification?

A

Supervisory officer notification mandatory when dispatch to the scene of a Hate bias crime

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494
Q

Hate bias crime and hate propaganda will be reported as

A

For the purposes of this procedure, hate/bias crimes and hate propaganda will be reported as separate offences. Where
the procedure indicates a ‘hate/bias crime’, offences under the ‘Hate Propaganda’ sections of the CC shall be substituted

where appropriate.
A police officer shall be dispatched to every report of hate/bias crime or hate propaganda.
The Service is committed to the investigation of hate/bias crime and to assuming a leadership role in the co-ordination of a
strong police and community response. In addition, the Service is committed to working closely with all segments of the
community to provide education programs on hate/bias crime and hate propaganda.
The investigation of hate/bias crime is the responsibility of the divisional detective office but Intelligence Services – Hate
Crime (INT – Hate Crime) will provide assistance and expertise to all investigations and prosecutions for these crimes. It
will also maintain an information base of hate/bias occurrences and arrests to assist divisional analysts and investigators.
Intelligence Division – Hate Crime will also assist in developing public education programs in partnership with other
members of the Service and the community.
Intelligence Services – Hate Crime will be the central focus for the dissemination of information and support to divisional
hate crime investigation co–ordinators, other police services, government agencies and the community.
Supervisory Officer

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495
Q

Who will provide assistance when divisional detectives are investigating hate crime

A

Intel-hate Crime Will provide assistance and expertise to all investigations and prosecutions of these crimes

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496
Q

Supervisor‘a notification status and what to do

At a hate crime

A

Attends the scene whenever possible

Assign sufficient police officers to ensure a thorough investigation is conducted

Ensure all evidence is dealt with in a compliance procedure 04210430 and 0901

Request assistance of

investigators from the divisional detective office

Forensic services,

intel- hate crime and

victim services Toronto

Ensure the victim and the community that the service will fully investigate the occurrence and assist the community in taking measures to prevent any repetition

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497
Q

Hate. Crimes

Detective Shall

A

Ensure the divisional coordinator is advised of significant, aspects of investigation

Ensure the relevant E reports are provided to the divisional coordinator and Intel hate crimes

Where applicable consider an exercise all powers of search and seizure without warrant related to weapons and firearms permit etc.

Play the fire arms are or maybe a factor notify guns and gangs

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498
Q

Or firearms may be a factor in a investigation

A

Notify guns and gangs

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499
Q

Hate crimes

Officer in Charge
Upon being notified of a hate/bias crime shall ensure

A

 detective personnel attend the scene as required

 in cases involving bodily harm or major property damage, the Unit Commander and INT – Hate Crime, are notified
promptly

 compliance with Procedures 17–01 and 17–08, if applicable

 the relevant eReport numbers are provided to the divisional detective sergeant

 the particulars are recorded in the Unit Commanders Morning Report (UCMR), as required

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500
Q

Hate Crimes

Detective Sergeant

A

Upon being notified of a hate/bias crime shall
 review the circumstances to determine if further action is required
 ensure the eReport number is provided to
 INT – Hate Crime
 the divisional co–ordinator to permit referral of the involved persons to community based agencies
If further investigation is not warranted or a charge is not supported shall
 add supplementary information to the original eReport detailing the reasons for the decision
 ensure the victim and INT – Hate Crime are advised of the decision
If further investigation is warranted shall
 assign the appropriate resources to the investigation including assistance from INT – Hate Crime
 ensure all evidence is dealt with in compliance with Procedures 04–21, 04–30 and 09–01
In all cases where a charge is supported shall ensure
 the investigation is completed in compliance with the applicable Service Governance
 evidence is submitted for expert examination, if necessary
 compliance with Procedure 17–04, if applicable

the victim is informed of developments in the investigation
 at the conclusion of any court proceeding
 supplementary information is added to the original eReport, indicating the disposition of the case
 INT – Hate Crime is advised of the disposition
When an arrest has been made in a hate/bias crime case involving stalking, threatening or harassing behaviour; and where
there is an identifiable target and serious potential for violence shall contact the BAS for advice, referral or an assessment
of risk, if appropriate.

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501
Q

Detective Sergeant When an arrest has been made in a hate crime involve a stalking, threatening or harassing behaviour and where there is an identifiable target and serious potential virus violence Shall contact the

A

BAS. Behavioural assessment section for advice and referral on the assessment of risk if appropriate

Oh 109

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502
Q

BAS. Related to hate crimes

A

BAS. Behavioural assessment section for advice and referral on the assessment of risk if appropriate

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503
Q

Divisional hate crime investigator coordinator

When designated by the unit Commander or Shall

A

Consult and liaison with other divisions and Intel a crime

Track all hate crimes cases to ensure proper application of increased sentencing section 718.2 cc

Follow up on hate crime occurrences to ensure victims are provided access to appropriate police and community-based resources

Provide information and training to divisional personnel on hate crime matters

Maintain a unit specific file on hate crime occurrences

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504
Q

Unit ommander regarding hate crimes shall

A

Appoint a Division hate Crimes instigator - coordinator

Upon being advised of a hate crime Shall ensure

Liaison his maintain and assistance sought from
Intelligence hate crime

Victim services Toronto as applicable

Community partnership and engagement unit

Outside agencies as applicable

When applicable meet with the victim and they affect the community to address any concerns

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505
Q

Define hate bias crime

A

Means a criminal offence committed against a person or property that is motivated by hate bias or prejudice based on the victims race national or ethnic origin language colour religion sex age mental or physical disability sexual orientation or gender identity or expression or on any other similar factor

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506
Q

Define hate propaganda

A

means any communication that advocates or promotes genocide against any identifiable group or makes
statements that are likely to promote hate against any identifiable group because of colour, race, religion, national or ethnic
origin, age, sex, sexual orientation, gender identity or expression, or mental or physical disability.
Hate propaganda offences are found in s. 318 and 319 of the Criminal Code. Advocate genocide and wilful promotion of
hatred require the permission of the Attorney General to proceed with prosecution.
Public incitement of hatred does not require the consent of the Attorney General.

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507
Q

Hate propaganda offences are found in what section of the criminal code and require the permission of her to proceed

A

318 and 319 of the code

Attorney general to proceed with prosecution

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508
Q

Firearms

Supervision attendance is when using the authority of what section of cc

A

Mandatory when using the authority of SS117.02(1) or 117.04(2) cc Of the criminal code for it to search for firearms offence of weapons ammunition or explosive substances

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509
Q

IGGTF

A

Integrated guns and gangs task force

Primarily focussing on illegal firearms drugs in Crimes of Violence

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510
Q

IGGTF -FEU

A

Integrated guns and gangs task force-Firearm enforcement unit

Mandate to identify and take enforcement action against persons involved in the illegal movement of firearms ammunition explosives.

Include smuggling Trafficking and the possession of crime guns

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511
Q

FIAU

A

– Firearms Investigation & Analysis Unit (FIAU) will streamline firearm

investigations and ensure
that there is a standard process for investigation and accountability. FIAU screens all firearms, ammunition and casings
seized by the Service. FIAU will designate if firearms are criminal or non-criminal. Firearms deemed to be criminal will be
examined, which includes verifying, forensic testing, test firing and Integrated Ballistics Identification System (IBIS) testing.
Examiners also provide expert testimony in court. All firearms, ammunition, projectiles and casings brought into the custody
of the Service will be screened through the Detective at FIAU or their designate.
Members of FIAU are available to assist wit

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512
Q

I’ll firearms and ammunition seized during an investigation

A

Will either be seized by guns and gangs if they attend the scene/division

Submitted by investigating officers to the DLMS

Seized on scene by forensics. FIS

And forward it to FIAU for testing and further investigation as required

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513
Q

Who attends homicides other than homicide which involve a firearm

A

Guns and gangs

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514
Q

Officers should familiarize themselves with part III Of the criminal code in order to utilize all available powers of search and seizure with him without warrant relative to

A
firearms
 firearm authorizations
 firearm permits
 firearm licences
 prohibited devices
 prohibited weapons
 restricted weapons
 explosive substances
 ammunition.
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515
Q

FEU

FIAU

A

Firearm enforcement unit

Firearm investigation and analysis unit

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516
Q

FATE

A

Firearms tracing and enforcement unit

Officially the provincial firearms tracing enforcement unit

Page 111

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517
Q

CISO

A

Criminal intelligence services Ontario

Copies of trace requests are forwarded to this unit by firearms investigation and firearms investigation and Analysis unit FIAU and the provincial firearms tracing and enforcement FATE

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518
Q

All submissions to the centre of forensic sciences are now made through the

A

CFS evidence web submission system

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519
Q

Divisional unit investigator when investigating a firearm shall

A

Ensure a tps 296 has been completed and submitted and;

When assigned to an investigation regarding a firearms offence shall
 comply with items 1 through 12
 commence show cause proceedings in compliance with Procedure 01–15, where appropriate
 ensure TPS 296 has been completed and submitted
 whenever possible, consult with the victim when determining required bail conditions, particularly with domestic
violence/stalking cases
 when notified that the courts have ordered the return of a firearm to an offender, ensure the victim is advised, where
possible
 where the release of information to the victim or the general public is warranted comply with Procedure 17–04
 notify the victim, FIAU and the original police officer on the status of any hearing
 when a suspect is arrested for offences relating to weapons, firearms, ammunition, explosives or a prohibited
device, ensure IGGTF has been contacted for advice and assistance in the investigation
 for the purposes of criminal prosecutions, ensure that all firearms being submitted for testing are submitted through
FIAU (Firearms Investigation & Analysis Unit (FIAU) will streamline firearm investigations and ensure
that there is a standard process for investigation and accountability. FIAU screens all firearms, ammunition and casings
seized by the Service.

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520
Q

Firearms

Divisional investigator Shall notify

 notify FIAU via e–

A

Members of FIAU will prepare and submit all submissions to the CFS.
 notify FIAU via e–mail (Firearm.Analysis@torontopolice.on.ca) of any preliminary hearings or trial dates to allow
reasonable time for them to conduct the testing of unmodified firearms for classification and operational purposes
in relation to all court proceedings.
- The FIAU investigator will forward the firearms reports and certificate of analysis to the respective case
manager ONLY upon request.
 determine if the offender is a Public Agent as defined within the Firearms Act section of the CC
 if the offender is a Public Agent, consider restricting access to firearms at the respective ‘Public Service Agency’
and notify FEU

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521
Q

Officer and Charge at TPOC Upon being notified of a call for service related to confirm shooting shall

A

Notify Intel

The public safety response team. PSRT

Integrated guns and gangs task force

Victim services toronto has been notified or during off hours notify the on-call victim services personnel

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522
Q

Officer in Charge
Upon receipt of an eReport and TPS 403 relating to an illegally possessed firearm coming into
police custody shall ensure

A

prints/and or DNA testing is required the submitting officer has selected the applicable box on TPS 403

 the submitting officer has included TPS 240 with the firearm

 compliance with Procedure 09–03 regarding the submission of the firearm to the Property & Video Evidence
Management Unit
 ensure the eReport number is recorded on the TPS 403 and any other property reports

 ensure TPS 403 including mandatory synopsis and TPS 405 are scanned into the related eReport

 IGGTF has been notified

Officer in Charge – Toronto Police Operations Centre
Upon being notified of a call for service relating to a confirmed shooting shall ensure notification of
 Intelligence Services
 Public Safety Response Team
 Integrated Gang and Gun Task Force
 Victim Services Toronto has been notified, or during non-office hours, notify the on-call Victim Services personnel
Definitions

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523
Q

llegally Possessed Firearm means any firearm that

A

Force, responsible for investigations into incidents of firearms trafficking and smuggling.
Illegally Possessed Firearm means any firearm that
 is not legally registered in Canada, or
 has been reported stolen, or
 is being unlawfully possessed, or
 is used in a crime, or
 is suspected to have been used in a crime.

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524
Q

FEU

A

Firearms enforcement unit.

A section of g&g responsible for investigations into firearms Trafficking and smuggling

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525
Q

At the scene ofOf an elderly abuse call supervisor shall

A

Attendance is mandatory whenever possible to provide guidance and assistance during the investigation

In the absence of the supervisor at the officer in charge shall be notified

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526
Q

All complaints of abuse of the elderly or vulnerable adult shall be attended by police officers in_____

A

In person. This includes retirement homes long-term care homes residential care facilities or any other institutional settings

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527
Q

Case Manager

When assigned a case involving abuse of an elderly or vulnerable adult shall

A

Case Manager
When assigned a case involving abuse of an elderly or vulnerable adult shall
 wherever possible, obtain an electronically recorded statement from the victim in compliance with Procedures 04–
32 and 12–08
- The Crown and the Victim Witness Assistance Program at the court location should be advised of any
known medical, physical or mental conditions of the victim so appropriate arrangements can be made
for any required court appearances.
 ensure all reasonable inquires have been made into the possession by an accused of weapons, firearms,
explosives, authorizations, licences, permits, certificates, Firearm Acquisition Certificates (FAC), etc. and that such
items are surrendered before release to ensure the safety of the victim
 consider opposing bail or the use of bail conditions to ensure the safety of the victim in compliance with the
applicable procedures in Chapter 1
 consider highlighting ss. 718.2(a) Criminal Code (aggravating circumstances) in the confidential crown envelope
(e.g. blind victim, Alzheimer’s patient, dementia or special circumstances) so the Crown may consider seeking
stiffer sentencing upon conviction
 encourage the victim to complete a Victim Impact Statement at the appropriate stage of the court process
 whenever possible, ensure the victim is notified of any known court dates with a follow–up call on the day prior to
the court appearance
 consider use of the Special Interest Persons category on CPIC for victims who are believed to be at risk of additional
abuse

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528
Q

Elderly abuse. Case manager Shall

When the victim is blind Alzheimer’s patient dementia or special circumstances

A

Consider highlighting 718.2 of the criminal code So the crown may consider seeking stiffer sentencing upon conviction

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529
Q

Case manager elderly and vulnerable adult section

Whenever possible ensure that victim has notified of any court dates when

A

whenever possible, ensure the victim is notified of any known court dates with a follow–up call on the day prior to
the court appearance

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530
Q

Vulnerable Adult means any adult

A

Vulnerable Adult means any adult who by nature of a physical, emotional or psychological condition is dependent on other
persons for care and assistance in day–to–day living.

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531
Q

Child of Abductions under 18

What are one of the most challenging task at hand when determining whether it’s an actual abduction

A

If it’s a runaway, a lost child, an abandon child, or a fictitious report to cover up a death or family crisis

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532
Q

A child that has been abducted by a stranger is clearly a ‘child in need of protection’ as defined in the Child, Youth and
Family Services Act. Police officers have the authority, on reasonable and probable grounds, to;

A

, to enter and search any
premise without warrant, using force if necessary, to locate a child in need of protection whose health and safety is at
substantial risk. A warrant must be obtained if there is no substantial risk to the child’s health and safety.

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533
Q

Child in need of protection is defined in what act

A

The child youth and family services act.

Please officers have authority on reasonable problem grounds the Internet search any premise without warrant using force if necessary To locate a child in need of protection whose health and safety is a substantial risk

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534
Q

Child abductions supervision

A

Supervisory and Officer attendance mandatory

Divisional detective attendance mandatory when notify the possible adduction of the person is under 18

Supervisory Office and divisional Detective notification mandatory

Officer and Charge mandatory notification when the person is under the age of 18

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535
Q

Members will familiarize themselves with the relevant law when undertaking investigations in Child abductions. What are the sections and brief description

A

280 Abduction of a person under 16 Non–Parental
s. 281 Abduction of person under 14 Non–Parental
s. 282 Abduction in Contravention of Custody Order Parental
s. 283 Abduction Parental
Members will familiarize themselves with the relevant law when undertaking investigations in

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536
Q

Abduction of a person under 16. Non-parental what section of the code

A

280

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537
Q

Abduction of person under 14 non-Parental what section of the code

A

281

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538
Q

Abduction and contravention of custody order what section of the code

A

282

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539
Q

Abduction Parental what section of the code

A

283

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540
Q

Child adoptions the initial gathering of information is crucial officers are to use what forms

A

233a And 233

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541
Q

Nothing should we assume that everything shall be verified and what cases

A

Child of duction

Page 115

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542
Q

Child of abductions police officer Shall on scene

Police Officer
The first police officer shall be responsible for conducting the initial investigation, preserving evidence, completing all
necessary reports and notifying a supervisory officer of all pertinent facts.
Upon receiving a complaint of a possible abduction involving a person under the age of 18 shall promptly attend the scene

A

 conduct a thorough preliminary investigation, ensuring all pertinent information is obtained using, the TPS 233A as
a guideline

 commence an investigation in compliance with Procedure 04–05

 request the attendance of a supervisory officer, divisional detective and additional assistance, as required

 when circumstances indicate a non–parental or stranger involved abduction, notify Detective Operations – Sex
Crimes (Sex Crimes)

 where possible, locate and preserve the scene where the person was last observed

 search the home and immediate area thoroughly

 where possible, locate and preserve any locations where the person normally plays or visits (comfort zones such
as playgrounds, places regularly visited, etc.)

 conduct a Person Query, including a CPIC and CFRO check on all witnesses and immediate family

 locate and interview
 the immediate family
 other relatives
 any witnesses
 any non–family caregiver

 complete the applicable eReports forthwith, selecting Yes for the BOLO option
- Records Management Services – Operations (RMS – Ops) will create and post a BOLO.

 scan and attach all memorandum book notes and hardcopy reports to the original eReport

The window of opportunity established between the time of last sighting and the time the disappearance
was noted is critical to any subsequent canvass of the area.

 offer the complainant/victim’s family the opportunity of having a person of their choice or a member of Victim
Services for support, for both stranger and known offender abductions

 obtain photographs of both the missing person and any suspects

 obtain and review a copy of any Custody Orders, Restraining Orders and/or any other court orders, where
applicable

 ensure that any Children’s Law Reform Act (CLRA) Order of Apprehension is immediately entered on CPIC

Once it has been determined that the child has been located and is safe shall complete the Located/Found section of the
Missing Persons details page.
- Upon receiving and transcribing the person located/found update, RMS – Ops will cancel the BOLO and the missing
person from CPIC.

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543
Q

Supervisory Officer

The supervisory officer shall be responsible for what when dispatched to the scene of a child abduction

A

be responsible for the quality and thoroughness of the uniform response.
Upon being notified of a possible abduction involving a person under the age of 18 shall
 attend the scene promptly and take charge of all uniform police officers
 notify the Officer in Charge
 ensure a divisional detective is notified and requested to attend
 ensure compliance with Procedure 04–05
 organize a thorough search of the area utilizing all available resources
 ensure officers assigned to canvass are instructed to canvass every residence and business in their assigned area
 note each address visited
 interview each occupant where possible, using the questions in the TPS 233A as a guideline, recording
the result on a separate TPS 233
 leave a TPS 234 in the door or mail box where there is no answer to the canvass
 request permission to search the premises
 ensure all police officers scan and attach their memorandum book notes and hardcopy reports to the original
eReport
 ensure Sex Crimes has been notified when circumstances indicate a non–parental or stranger involved abduction
 ensure the on–call Search Manager – EM&PO is notified
- Emergency Management & Public Order should be consulted in circumstances requiring a Level 2 or
Level 3 search under Procedure 04–05.
 ensure that Custody Orders, Restraining Orders and/or any other court order in effect are obtained and reviewed
 add supplementary information to the original eReport, detailing all action taken

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544
Q

Divisional Detective
The divisional detective shall promptly attend the scene, notify Sex Crimes, conduct a thorough and timely investigation
and request activation of the AMBER Alert when appropriate.
Upon being notified of a possible abduction of a person under the age of 18 shall attend the scene promptly

A

 ensure compliance with Procedure 04–05

 ensure the immediate family and other relatives are interviewed

 ensure the school principal or other care givers are notified and interviewed, as appropriate

 ensure witnesses are isolated from each other and interviewed, in compliance with Procedure 04–32 where
possible

 in the case of a non–parental or stranger involved abduction, notify Sex Crimes to ensure the investigation is
conducted in compliance with the Ontario Major Case Management Manual

 in a case of a stranger involved abduction, contact the on–call Detective Sergeant – Intelligence Services (INT)
The INT can assist by providing expertise relating to telephone intercepts and other investigative aids and technology.

 in the case of an apparent parental child abduction, ensure a thorough investigation is conducted to establish an
intent to deprive the custodial parent of their rights to the child
- Custody disputes may involve allegations of parental child abduction. Where no ‘intent to deprive’ is
established, the matter must be documented and both parents should be referred to Family Court for
resolution of the custody dispute.

Should there be grounds to believe there was intent to deprive the custodial parent of the rights to the
child and there is no evidence of a custody order in effect, proceedings may only commence with the
consent of the Attorney General.

 ensure the first police officer completes the applicable eReport forthwith so that a BOLO can be posted

 where the incident meets the criteria for initiating an AMBER Alert, ensure a request has been made through the
Officer in Charge

 ensure the Officer in Charge is updated on a regular basis

 for each suspect and suspect vehicle, ensure a TPS 227 is completed and submitted in compliance with the
instructions on the form

 ensure pertinent information is disseminated to other police services, government agencies and where
appropriate, community organizations in compliance with Procedure 17–04

 if practicable, consult with the Specialized Emergency Response – Emergency Task Force prior to making any
attempts at recovering the abducted person and/or apprehending the suspect

 ensure a ViCLAS report is completed in compliance with Procedure 05–19

 ensure compliance with Procedures 05–06 and the Child Abuse Protocol, where applicable

 notify Corporate Communications regarding the issuance of a news release in compliance with Procedure 17–01

 ensure supplementary information is added to the original eReport, detailing all action taken

ensure all police officers scan and attach their memorandum book notes and hardcopy reports to the original
eReport

 ensure charges are laid or warrants obtained where reasonable grounds exist

 ensure the relevant information is entered on the RCMP Missing Child Registry, where applicable

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545
Q

Division of detective Shall regarding child abductions

A

Divisional Detective
The divisional detective shall promptly attend the scene, notify Sex Crimes, conduct a thorough and timely investigation
and request activation of the AMBER Alert when appropriate.
Upon being notified of a possible abduction of a person under the age of 18 shall attend the scene promptly

 ensure compliance with Procedure 04–05
 ensure the immediate family and other relatives are interviewed
 ensure the school principal or other care givers are notified and interviewed, as appropriate
 ensure witnesses are isolated from each other and interviewed, in compliance with Procedure 04–32 where
possible
 in the case of a non–parental or stranger involved abduction, notify Sex Crimes to ensure the investigation is
conducted in compliance with the Ontario Major Case Management Manual
 in a case of a stranger involved abduction, contact the on–call Detective Sergeant – Intelligence Services (INT)
The INT can assist by providing expertise relating to telephone intercepts and other investigative aids and technology.
 in the case of an apparent parental child abduction, ensure a thorough investigation is conducted to establish an
intent to deprive the custodial parent of their rights to the child
- Custody disputes may involve allegations of parental child abduction. Where no ‘intent to deprive’ is
established, the matter must be documented and both parents should be referred to Family Court for
resolution of the custody dispute.
- Should there be grounds to believe there was intent to deprive the custodial parent of the rights to the
child and there is no evidence of a custody order in effect, proceedings may only commence with the
consent of the Attorney General.
 ensure the first police officer completes the applicable eReport forthwith so that a BOLO can be posted
 where the incident meets the criteria for initiating an AMBER Alert, ensure a request has been made through the
Officer in Charge
 ensure the Officer in Charge is updated on a regular basis
 for each suspect and suspect vehicle, ensure a TPS 227 is completed and submitted in compliance with the
instructions on the form
 ensure pertinent information is disseminated to other police services, government agencies and where
appropriate, community organizations in compliance with Procedure 17–04
 if practicable, consult with the Specialized Emergency Response – Emergency Task Force prior to making any
attempts at recovering the abducted person and/or apprehending the suspect
 ensure a ViCLAS report is completed in compliance with Procedure 05–19
 ensure compliance with Procedures 05–06 and the Child Abuse Protocol, where applicable
 notify Corporate Communications regarding the issuance of a news release in compliance with Procedure 17–01
 ensure supplementary information is added to the original eReport, detailing all action taken

ensure all police officers scan and attach their memorandum book notes and hardcopy reports to the original
eReport
 ensure charges are laid or warrants obtained where reasonable grounds exist
 ensure the relevant information is entered on the RCMP Missing Child Registry, where applicable

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546
Q

VICLAS

A

Violent crime linkage Analysis system

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547
Q

Officer in Charge

shall ensure an

Child Abductions

A

appropriate uniform response, and in the absence of the Detective Sergeant, an
appropriate investigative response.
Upon being notified of a possible child abduction shall

 ensure a supervisory officer and a divisional detective attend the scene

 ensure Sex Crimes has been notified when circumstances indicate a non–parental or stranger involved abduction

 ensure the on–call Search Manager – EM&PO is notified

 notify

  • the Unit Commander
  • the Toronto Police Operations Centre (TPOC)
  • all divisional personnel

 ensure Communications Services broadcast all pertinent information

 ensure Corporate Communications is notified regarding the issuance of a news release in compliance with
Procedure 17–01

 ensure the investigating officer disseminates all pertinent information to other police services, government agencies
and community organizations where appropriate, in compliance with Procedure 17–04

 ensure the particulars are recorded in the Unit Commanders Morning Report (UCMR)

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548
Q

Who ultimately will approve the initiation of an Amber alert

A

The Duty Senior Officer – TPOC (Duty Senior Officer) will contact the Chief of Police, or designate.

The Chief of Police or designate will make the final decision if an AMBER Alert will be initiated. If approved, the
Duty Senior Officer will initiate the Alert through the TPOC.
 ensure supplementary information is added to the original eReport, detail

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549
Q

Detective Sergeant
The Detective Sergeant is responsible for ensuring an appropriate investigative response.

Upon being notified of a possible child abduction shall

A

 in the case of a non–parental child abduction, ensure a Major Case Manager is assigned to lead and conduct the
investigation in compliance with the Ontario Major Case Management Manual
 ensure Sex Crimes has been notified when circumstances indicate a non–parental or stranger involved abduction
 ensure the on–call Search Manager – EM&PO is notified
 co–ordinate the divisional response in conjunction with the case manager
 ensure compliance with Procedure 04–05
 ensure that a divisional detective attends the scene
 assign additional divisional investigative personnel, as required

 ensure the assistance of the INT, Sex Crimes or Detective Operations – Homicide is requested, where appropriate
 ensure that a file is maintained in compliance with the Ontario Major Case Management Manual consisting of the
applicable reports, a photo of the abducted child, press clippings and all other documents deemed relevant
 ensure that measures are taken to contact agencies outside of Canada, where appropriate
 ensure supplementary information is added to the original eReport, detailing all action taken

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550
Q

Child of abductions. Detective Sergeant will call the on-call search manager of which unit is required

A

EMPO

Emergency management and public order

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551
Q

Child abductions what does the investigator a Sex Crimes do When notified of a possible abduction of a person under the age of 18

A

Immediately the liaison with the on-call homicide investigator’s

I’m sure supplemental information is added on the report detailing all actually taken

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552
Q

Child of duction what is the DS of Intel do

A

Would be notified of a possible stranger child of duction Shall consult with the investigating officer an offer such support as required

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553
Q

the inspector will fax a request for activation of an Ontario Amber alert where

A

To the duty officer 0PP GHQ requesting the activation

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554
Q

AMBER Alert means a co–operative effort between police, the media and the Ministry of Transportation to provide early
notification to the public where a person under

A

18 years of age is believed to have been abducted and where circumstances
lead police to believe that the abducted person is in danger of serious bodily harm or death and there is enough descriptive
information about the abducted person, and/or the abductor, and/or the abductor’s vehicle to believe an immediate
broadcast alert will help in locating the person. An AMBER Alert will have a duration of 5 hours following activation, unless
cancelled or extended.

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555
Q

Parental abduction means

A

The unlawful removal of a child by a parent or guardian or any other person having lawful care or charge of a person under the age of 14 whether or not there is a custody order in relation to that child made by a court the intent to deprive a parent guardian or person have a lawful care or charge of the person

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556
Q

Royal Canadian Mounted Police (RCMP) Missing Child Registry means the

A

the national registry created and maintained
by the Royal Canadian Mounted Police (RCMP) to compile data on missing and abducted children. The Toronto Police
Service supports the registry and encourages officers to forward pertinent information to the RCMP to assist in matters of
both parental and non–parental abduction.

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557
Q

Child abductions search management team means

A

Team from emergency management and public order EMPO.

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558
Q

Child of abductions search manager is

A

A police officer of the EMPO

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559
Q

Window of opportunity with child abductions means

A

The interval between the time the missing person was last seen and the time they were believed to be missing

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560
Q

Emotionally disturbed person’s supervision

A

Supervisory and Officer attendance mandatory when EDP is armed or might be

Notify a hook if I had a psychiatric facility for more than an hour

Officer and Charge notification mandatory for MCIT notification

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561
Q

Section 16 of the MHA is;

A

Justice of the peace order of an examination a form 2

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562
Q

Section 17 of the MHA is;

A

Police officers powers of arrest
Reasonable grounds to believe a person is acting in a disorderly manner and is reasonable cause to believe that

manner and has reasonable cause to believe that the person,
(a) has threatened or attempted or is threatening or attempting to cause bodily harm to himself or herself;
(b) has behaved or is behaving violently towards another person or has caused or is causing another person to fear
bodily harm from him or her; or
(c) has shown or is showing a lack of competence to care for himself or herself,

and in addition the police officer is of the opinion that the person is apparently suffering from mental disorder of a nature or
quality that likely will result in,
 serious bodily harm to the person;
 serious bodily harm to another person; or
 serious physical impairment of the person,

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563
Q

Section 33 of the mental health at directs

A

I Police Officer Shall remain at the psychiatric facility until the facility has retained custody of the person

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564
Q

Community referral police access line

A

Community-based mental health and justice services police only access line

Providing police officers assistance when; an individual 16 or older is believed to be emotionally disturbed and a significant risk of involvement with the criminal justice system

Who has not been apprehended under the MHA

24 hours a day seven days a week for police officers only

Can assist
short term residential beds
Referral to the mental health and just as prevention program

Information and referral to other community mental health services

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565
Q

Emotionally disturbed person’s supervisor Shall

A

When information is received the EDP may be armed with a weapon attend ASAP

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566
Q

CPEU

A

Community partnership and engagement unit

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567
Q

Officer in Charge
Upon becoming aware that a call for service involves a suspected EDP that is armed or may be armed with a weapon, shall
ensure

A

 a supervisory officer has been notified and attends the scene as soon as possible

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568
Q

Community treatment order a CTO

A

Is an order with conditions issued by a physician to a person which involves that person with psychiatric treatment in the community that is less restrictive than being detained in a facility

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569
Q

Emotionally disturbed person’s definition of disorderly

A

Miss behaviour that appears to the police to be

To some extent irrational although not unruly

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570
Q

Divisional mental health liaison officer

A

Is the police officer responsible for coordinating all mental health issues within the division usually the community response officer

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571
Q

Form 1 emotionally disturbed person’s is

A

Application by physician for psychiatric assessment signed by a doctor within 7 days of examining the person given any person authority to take the person named on the application to a psychiatric facility. A form 1 is valid for seven 7 from and including the day it was side

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572
Q

Form 2 Emotionally disturbed person what is it

A

Means a justice of the peace order for examination directing police officers to take the person in custody to an Appropriate Psychiatric facility were physician can order the person detained for examination. A Form 2 is valid for seven days from and including the day it was signed

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573
Q

Form 9 mental health act with emotionally disturbed person’s is

A

Means an order for return for an elopee issued by a psychiatric facility Which authorized as a police officer to return the person without their consent to a psychiatric facility. A form nine is valid for a period of 1 month after the person is absent without leave

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574
Q

EDP’s
Length of time forms are good for;

Form 1, 2 and 9??

A

1—7 days
2—7 days
9—1 month

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575
Q

Perform 47MHA

A

Is an order for examination issued by a physician who issued the person of community treatment order CTO and

Has reasonable cost to believe the person has failed to comply with the conditions of the CTO

The CTO subject or substitute decision maker has withdrawn consent to the CTO and the subject fails to permit the physician to review their condition within 72 hours and the physician believes the subject may cause harm or suffered deterioration

Valid for 30 days

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576
Q

Person in crisis

A

Is a person who suffers a temporary breakdown of coping skills but often reaches out for help demonstrating that or they are in touch with reality. Once a person crisis receive the help needed they are often rapidly return to normalcy

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577
Q

SVC

A

Service vehicle collision

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578
Q

SRLD401

A

Service vehicle collision which is reportable under the HTA shall be recorded on this form.

Only reportable collisions.

The SRLD401 shall be completed using the Versadex built-in electronic eMVA xForm and Quickscene diagramming
applications.

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579
Q

When is the ICC video reviewed by a supervisor. (Along with Order times)

A

After a service vehicle collision

Is required for Court request from PVEMU

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580
Q

Supervisor; When in receipt of a SVCR shall review for completeness, accuracy and investigative integrity and submit to the Officer in
Charge prior to reporting off duty.
When detailed to attend a reportable or non-reportable SVC that has occurred outside the City of Toronto shall

A

 promptly attend the scene to provide assistance and conduct an internal investigation
 notify the involved member’s Officer in Charge of any recent updates to the SVC
 liaise with the investigating officer and/or supervisory officer on scene
 obtain a copy of the collision report from the investigating officer
 complete a TPS 559 for each Service vehicle involved, include the circumstances of the SVC and complete the
Supervisor’s Determination section
 ensure the damage is recorded on the appropriate Vehicle Damage Report in the unit file
 send a copy of the SRLD401 or eReport to the Unit Commander – Fleet & Materials Management (FLT) forthwith
 comply with Procedures 13–16 and 15–17, if applicable

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581
Q

SupervisorWhen Service vehicle collision what phone number is completed for each service vehicle involved

A

559

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582
Q

Supervisor; When criminal or provincial charges are warranted in a svc against the involved member shall

A

 if immediate action is not required, consult with the involved member’s Unit Commander prior to laying a charge
 if immediate action is required, take appropriate action, then advise the involved member’s Unit Commander as
soon as practicable
 initiate the applicable charge
 when a conduct issue is identified shall comply with the applicable procedures contained in Chapter 13

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583
Q

Officer in Charge

When notified of a SVC which has occurred

A

Officer in Charge
When notified of a SVC which has occurred
 within the divisional boundaries, or
 outside the boundary of the members’ division and inside the City of Toronto, or
 when detailed by the Officer in Charge – Toronto Police Operations Centre (TPOC)
shall ensure that a supervisory officer is assigned to attend the scene and conduct an internal investigation, if applicable.
When notified of a SVC which has occurred outside of the City of Toronto shall notify the Officer in Charge – TPOC.
When in receipt of a SVCR shall review for completeness, accuracy and systemic integrity and ensure
 the collision is investigated in compliance with this Procedure and Procedures 04–21, 07–01, 13–16 and 15–17, as
applicable
 if the Service vehicle is equipped with an ICCS video, the ICCS video has been reviewed and
 if the SIU mandate has been or may be invoked, comply with Procedures 13–16 and 15–17, if applicable
 a copy of the ICCS video evidence is requested from PVEMU by e–mail; indicating date, time and fleet
number, as soon as practicable
 a copy of the SRLD401 or eReport has been sent to FLT
 if concurring with the report submit

  • the original to TSV Unit Commander (Designate) – SVC Review
    The Service has a legal requirement to forward all SLRD401s to the Ministry of Transportation within 10 days of the vehicle
    collision.
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584
Q

TSV unit commander review regarding Police Service collisions Shall

A

Review the report to comply with procedures

If concurring with the report sign and email the TPS559 along with SLRD401 and other documents to professional standards Analysis and Assessment and the unit commander of the involved officer

If not concurrent with the report Return to the supervisor who investigator the collision

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585
Q

Unit commander Involved member of a service vehicle collision

When I receipt of a SVCR that has been reviewed by TSV Shall

A

Review to ensure compliance with procedures

Ensure the appropriate action is taken which may include
Consideration for repetitive behavior
Recommendation for driving assessment and or driver development training
Initiating criminal provincial charges
Commencing an internal complaint in compliance with the applicable procedures.

Ensure a copy of the SRLD401 has been sent a FLT

Ensure repairs are made to the service vehicle in a timely manner

Review the SVCR for completeness accuracy and systematic integrity

If concurring with the report email a copy of the 559 and SRLD401 four
All not at fault property damage only yes SVRC two professional standards analysis and assessment. The originals retained on unit file and copy on members file per retention schedule

All other collisions including at fault collisions personal injury collisions and pursuit related collisions to the involve member staff sergeant or director

If not concurring with the report and or errors omissions are identified and sure corrections are made in a timely matter once corrected forward to the TSV unit commander SVC review

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586
Q

Duty senior officer regarding service vehicle collision shall

A

When notified of a SVC which is a current outside of the city toronto Shall

Determine whether a supervisor officer should attend the same

Notify the OIC TPOC of the determination

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587
Q

Driving assessment definition.

This is in the service vehicle collision portion

A

Means a practical on the road driving assessment conducted by the divisional traffic Sergeant or traffic Sergeant as applicable

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588
Q

Service vehicle collision Section define intentional contact

A

Toronto police service vehicle operated by a member intentionally comes in contact with another vehicle person or object that’s using a vehicle as a tool to stop a threat

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589
Q

Service vehicle collision

Service vehicle define it

A

Vehicle vessel aircraft or bicycle owned by the service used to perform duties On behalf of the service. Includes leased owned or rented or loaned to the service

A trailer told by a service vehicle also

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590
Q

SVCRC

A

Service vehicle collision reduction committee. Committee consisting of the unit Commander and a Designate from

PRS
Traffic services
And the college

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591
Q

SVCR

A

Service vehicle collision reduction program. Managed by professional standards

Monitors trend analysis problem identification quality assurance and training issues

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592
Q

SVCR

A

It’s a Report consisting of A SVCR401.

Copy of the traffic officers memo book and notes and field notes

Witness statements if applicable

A copy of the evolved members memo book notes or 649

A TPS559

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593
Q

What’s a tps559 this is a todo card

A

Todo

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594
Q

(EFAP) for those members and their families who experience personal
problems relating to health, marriage, family, lifestyle, retirement, legal issues, finances, gambling, substance abuse,
psychological/emotional disorders, work, or critical incident stress.
Procedure
The EFAP provider for the Service, Shepell∙fgi, is contracted to provide assistance to
 active members (full-time, part-time and temporary), their spouse/partner and dependents
 retirees, their spouse/partner
 auxiliary members (critical incident stress only)

A

health, marriage, family, lifestyle, retirement, legal issues, finances, gambling, substance abuse,
psychological/emotional disorders, work, or critical incident stress.

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595
Q

Procedure

The EFAP provider for the Service, _________is contracted to provide assistance to

A

Shepell∙fgi, cost is borne by the employer

 active members (full-time, part-time and temporary), their spouse/partner and dependents
 retirees, their spouse/partner
 auxiliary members (critical incident stress only)
 lifeguards (critical incident stress only)

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596
Q

EFAP committee

A

Comprised of representatives of the chief, the SOO, the TPA, the EFAP provider and representatives of other service supports units such as human resources psychological services chaplaincy and college

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597
Q

When can the EFAP provider break confidentiality

A

When Records are subpoenaed by a court of law

Suspicion that a child is or maybe I need a protection from current or potential physical abuse sexual emotional neglect

When there’s a need to intervene to prevent serious harm to an individual or others

Or there’s a need to report a health professional where there is a reason to believe that they are not working in accordance with the standards of regulated health professionals act

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598
Q

The EFAP provider is required to report non-identifying statistics to who

A

The EFAP committee For the purposes of continuous monitoring of the program program enhancements and re-design program awareness and identification of emerging issues and trends overtime

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599
Q

Supervisor upon becoming aware Supervisor

Upon becoming aware of a member who requests assistance for a problem shall

A

 advise the member of all options available for assistance, including the EFAP provider

 permit the member the opportunity to call the EFAP provider, subject to operational requirements

 follow–up as necessary with the member for support and encouragement

 refer to Procedure 08–04 in the event of a traumatic critical incident
Unit Commander

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600
Q

To do

A

Ask the group
Re “see often 5 for example.

Like on page 129

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601
Q

Unit Commander

Upon becoming aware of a member who requests assistance for a problem shall in relation to efap

A

Unit Commander
Upon becoming aware of a member who requests assistance for a problem shall
 comply with item 5
 ensure all reasonable steps have been taken to support the member in accessing support and treatment, as
necessary
 confer with the member and offer ongoing support, if appropriate
 refer to Procedure 08–04 in the event of a traumatic critical incident
When dealing with EFAP issues in general shall make every effort to encourage the use of and proactively promote the
positive benefits of the EFAP and provide the Necessary information to the members and our families to make contact as soon as possible

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602
Q

CIRT

A

Critical incident response team

Our service members who are trained and trauma response measures.

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603
Q

Employee and Family Assistance Program (EFAP) Liaison/Critical Incident Response Team (CIRT) Coordinator
means the member designated by the EFAP Committee to:
(For review)

A

Employee and Family Assistance Program (EFAP) Liaison/Critical Incident Response Team (CIRT) Coordinator
means the member designated by the EFAP Committee to:
 liaise with
- the EFAP provider and its CIRT,
- the Toronto Police Operations Centre, Officer in Charge and/or unit commander, and the CIRT/Peer
Support Volunteers (PSVs), and;
- work with CIRT/PSVs, the EFAP provider, and/or Psychological Services to co–ordinate defusing and
debriefing sessions.

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604
Q

Supervision re traumatic

A

Supervision
 Supervisory Officer notification mandatory
 when involved in a traumatic critical incident
 upon becoming aware that another member has been involved in a traumatic critical incident, or is showing
signs and symptoms of critical incident stress
 firearm discharge (officer involved shooting)
Procedure

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605
Q

PSV

A

Peer support volunteer

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606
Q

Factors that may impact the assessment of a member when informed in a traumatic incident include, but are not limited to the

A
nature of the event
 member’s Service experience
 member’s life experience
 member’s involvement in previous traumatic critical incidents, and
 member’s behaviour.
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607
Q

Defusing Session means an immediate informal meeting attended by an individual or a group of members involved in a
traumatic critical incident to assess the need for further assistance prior to the end of shift. The defusing session takes
place immediately after the conclusion of the traumatic critical incident in a secure location where disruptions can be
eliminated and lasts for approximately __________. Two Peer Support Volunteers normally lead these meetings with
Employee Family Assistance Program support if necessary. Attendance is mandatory but active participation in the
discussion is voluntary.

A

15 to 30 minutes.

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608
Q

Attendance is mandatory but active participation in discussions Are voluntary. This is related to what

A

defusing and debriefing sessions EFAP

Street traumatic incidents

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609
Q

Members may be referred to a qualified medical practitioner for continued professional assistance. When it is determined,
within the established guidelines, that a member requires professional assistance, the cost of such services is borne by the
___________ as a ________ _______ _______ _________ (______) claim.

A

employer as a

Workplace Safety Insurance Board (WSIB) claim.

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610
Q

Post Incident Firearms Exposure Session

Review

A

Post incident firearms exposure sessions are individual sessions involving firearm exercises undertaken with a qualified
firearms instructor. These sessions do NOT consist of a qualification standard. Rather, post incident firearms exposure
sessions consist of a course of fire intended to be educational, to provide reassurance, and to promote officers’ confidence
with their firearm. Post incident firearms exposure sessions at the Toronto Police College are mandatory for officers who
discharge their firearms in the line of duty and officers determined by their unit commander to be directly impacted by the
incident. However, any officer involved in a shooting incident may request to participate in a post incident firearms exposure
session.
Post incident firearms exposure sessions do not apply to the discharge of a firearm for the purpose of dispatching an animal,
unless circumstances suggest otherwise.
The training cadre attached to Specialized Emergency Response – Emergency Task Force (ETF) is comprised of qualified
firearms instructors. Therefore, ETF officers who discharge their firearms in the line of duty, or are determined by their unit
commander to be directly impacted by a shooting incident, have the option of attending a post incident firearms exposure
session with a qualified firearms instructor at the ETF or at the Toronto Police College.
Unit commanders should consult with the supervisor, the officer in charge, the Armament Officer – Toronto Police College
– Armament Section, and a Service Psychologist, as required, when determining officers directly impacted by an officer–
involved shooting incident.
Member

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611
Q

Post Incident Firearms exposure, sessions

A

Individual sessions with a qualified firearms instructor

Not consist of a qualification standard

Course of fire intended to educate and provide reassurance and promote officer confidence with his firearm

Mandatory for officers takes place at the college

Any officer involved in a shooting me a request to participate

Not applicable to the dispatching of an animal unless circumstances suggest otherwise

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612
Q

Members

When involved in a traumatic critical incident shall

A

Immediately report the incident to a supervisor

Seek medical attention if necessary

Attend diffusing and briefing sessions As directed by the supervisor officer in charge of the unit Commander or the CIRT/PSV or their designate

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613
Q

Members; When involved in an officer–involved shooting incident shall

A

 comply with item 1
 attend a post incident firearms exposure session as directed by the Unit Commander
 Any officer involved in a shooting incident may request to participate in a post incident firearms exposure session.

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614
Q

Upon becoming aware that another member has been involved in a traumatic critical incident or is showing signs and
symptoms of critical incident stress shall

A

immediately notify a supervisor

 refrain from making any diagnosis

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615
Q

Supervisor
Upon becoming aware that a member has been involved in a traumatic critical incident or is showing signs and symptoms
of critical incident stress shall
 immediately notify the Officer in Charge of the affected member’s unit or civilian equivalent
 ensure an Injured on Duty Online Report is completed and submitted in compliance with Procedure 08–03

A

Supervisor
Upon becoming aware that a member has been involved in a traumatic critical incident or is showing signs and symptoms
of critical incident stress shall
 immediately notify the Officer in Charge of the affected member’s unit or civilian equivalent
 ensure an Injured on Duty Online Report is completed and submitted in compliance with Procedure 08–03

The wording for the Injured on Duty Report under the section “Nature and Area of Injury(ies)” shall be: “Traumatic Critical
Incident”.

 participate in the assessment of the incident with the officer in charge to determine the appropriate level of support
for the member
 provide support and ongoing encouragement to assist the member

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616
Q

When a supervisor is filling out an injured on duty reports for members involved in a Trumatic incident the wording on the report Shall indicate

A

Traumatic critical incident

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617
Q

Officer in Charge / Civilian Equivalent
Upon becoming aware of a traumatic critical incident taking place shall

This is really for review. Too much to memorize

A

consult with the Officer in Charge – TPOC to determine the appropriate level of response
 advise the Unit Commander when it is determined in consultation with the TPOC that the CIRT/PSV is required to
attend
 comply with Procedures 08–03 and 15–03, where applicable
When involved in an assessment of a traumatic critical incident shall record all factors considered and actions taken in their
memorandum book. Members not assigned a memorandum book shall make a written record of all factors considered and
actions taken.

When consulted regarding an officer–involved shooting incident shall make a record of the consultation and actions taken
in their memorandum book. Members not assigned a memorandum book shall make a written record of the consultation
and actions taken.
When a member is involved in a traumatic critical incident and the CIRT/PSV is not immediately consulted shall ensure the
member is
 advised that immediate support from the Service’s EFAP provider is available
 provided a copy of the Critical Incident Stress Handout (Appendix A)
 made aware of all the services available to them
Upon becoming aware that a member has been directed to attend a mandatory defusing session, debriefing session, or
post incident firearms exposure session shall ensure that the member complies with such direction.

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618
Q

Unit Commander
Upon becoming aware that a traumatic critical incident has taken place shall ensure the TPOC is immediately consulted
any time a member requests immediate support

A

 when a member’s life has been imperilled
 when assessment of the traumatic critical incident deems this to be the appropriate level of support
 when the Unit Commander and/or Officer in Charge is uncertain about the appropriate level of support
 an appropriate response and support for the affected member has been developed in consultation with the
member’s supervisor, the officer in charge and the TPOC if required
 where appropriate, the use of the guidelines in Appendix B, or other reasonable measures are considered, when
determining the nature of the support and assistance to be offered to the affected member and their immediate
family
 the member’s family is notified of the particulars, if necessary
 immediate support from EFAP provider is made available
 a copy of the Critical Incident Stress Handout is made available
 the well–being of the affected member, their family and co–workers is a priority
 all reporting requirements are met
Upon becoming aware that a member has been directed to attend mandatory defusing or debriefing sessions shall ensure
that the member complies with such direction.

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619
Q

Unit Commander Shall Upon becoming aware that a member has discharged a firearm in the line of duty shall

A

 ensure the member participates in a post incident firearms exposure session at the Toronto Police College with a
qualified firearms instructor prior to returning to full duties
 determine in consultation with the Officer in Charge, the supervisor, the Armament Officer, and a Service
Psychologist, as required, if there are any other officers involved that may have been impacted by the incident
 ensure any officers impacted by the incident attend the Toronto Police College for a post incident firearms exposure
session with a qualified firearms instructor prior to returning to full duties
Officer in Charge – Toronto Police Operations Centre

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620
Q

Officer in Charge – Toronto Police Operations Centre
Upon becoming aware of a traumatic critical incident taking place shall respond to the unit’s request in consultation with the
unit commander or the officer in charge of the involved unit. If assessment of the incident has determined that the CIRT
must be activated, the TPOC shall

A

 immediately notify
 the on–call CIRT/PSV using the on-call roster at the TPOC
 the EFAP Liaison/CIRT Coordinator, during business hours
 the Duty Senior Officer – TPOC
 an on–call member of the Senior Officers Organization and/or Toronto Police Association, whichever is
appropriate

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621
Q

Who contacts the on–call CIRT/PSV upon being aware of a traumatic incident

A

Officer in Charge TPOC

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622
Q

Definitions

Chief’s Special Investigations Unit (SIU) On-Call Designated Authority

A

. means a member of the cadre of on-call Toronto
Police Service uniform senior officers that acts as the designated authority and manages the SIU event in the field on behalf
of the Chief.

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623
Q

CIRT Z members are not….

A

Councillors

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624
Q

Debriefing Session means a

A

scheduled formal meeting specifically set up for members directly involved in the traumatic
critical incident to discuss reactions to the traumatic event in confidence with a qualified mental health professional. The
debriefing session takes place a few days after the conclusion of the traumatic critical incident, in a secure location where
disruptions can be eliminated and can last up to 2.5 hours. The Employee Family Assistance Program Liaison/Critical
Incident Response Team (CIRT) Coordinator will work with the Officer in Charge, CIRT Peer Support Volunteer and/or the
qualified mental health professional to schedule the session. Attendance is mandatory for the members directly involved
but active participation in the discussion is voluntary.
Debriefing sessions may be conducted by a mental health professional assisted by members of the CIRT and are not
operational debriefings.

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625
Q

Debriefing Session

A

Can last up to 2.5
In confidence with a qualified medical health professional

Can take Place a few days after the conclusion of the Traumatic critical incident

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626
Q

Peer Support Volunteer (PSV) means a Service member trained in trauma response measures and available on-call to
provide ongoing assistance and support to members and their families after becoming involved in a traumatic critical
incident. PSVs are qualified to lead defusing sessions. PSVs are not counsellors. The PSVs will assist members to seek
professional treatment, if required.

A

a Service member trained in trauma response measures and available on-call to
provide ongoing assistance and support to members and their families after becoming involved in a traumatic critical
incident. PSVs are qualified to lead defusing sessions. PSVs are not counsellors. The PSVs will assist members to seek
professional treatment, if required.

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627
Q

Family Notification and Liaison who should notify them in the event of a critical incident

A

A Person Who is close to the member. A partner or mediate supervisor subject to logistics exigencies and approval of the unit Commander or Designate

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628
Q

Family Notification and Liaison

A

Consider one person has the information contact at the scene or hospital to write up-to-date information to the notification member.

The chief of police should contact the family only after the initial notification has been completed

One member from the effected members unit should be dedicated to liaison with the family for the initial critical period.  This person should have a cell phone and be on 24 hour call with the family to provide assistance and support. A back up person should be designated to assist.

The unit liaison should meet with the family and determine the immediate needs. Further meetings can take place as
required. The liaison may consult with Psychological Services and/or the EFAP Liaison/CIRT Coordinator as necessary.
Address any safety concerns of the family.

629
Q

Any member may ______–_____ as a victim of critical incident stress. Refer such member to the EFAP Liaison/CIRT
Coordinator or CIRT/Peer Support Volunteer for support/assistance.

A

self–identify

630
Q

Critical incident general info

A

Consider requesting a special budget project number for expenses

Ensure all evidence of the traumatic critical incident is removed from the home unit as soon as possible

Ensure supervisors or admin staff complete the necessary WSIB or IOD paperwork

Contact the senior officers organization and/or Toronto police association for assistance and appropriate and necessary

631
Q

Members When voluntarily seeking help for a substance abuse problem shall

A

When voluntarily seeking help for a substance abuse problem shall
 seek assistance from one or more of, but not limited to
 Wellness – Medical Advisory Services (MAS),
 peers,
 referral agents,
 supervisors,
 the Employee and Family Assistance Program (EFAP), or
 community-based services
 make every effort to resolve the problem

632
Q

When on a leave of absence for a period longer than _______ consecutive days shall, unless otherwise directed by the Chief of
Police, return to their Unit Commander all of their Service issued use of force equipment.
-

A

When on a leave of absence for a period longer than 90 consecutive days shall, unless otherwise directed by the Chief of
Police, return to their Unit Commander all of their Service issued use of force equipment.
-

633
Q

The surrender of Service issued uniform and equipment is an administrative function. Members shall continue to
comply with the Police Services Act and all Service Governance. A member is an employee of the Service until
resignation, retirement, termination or death.
- In the event that a member knows in advance that they will be taking an extended medical leave for a period longer
than ________ consecutive days, the member shall advise their Unit Commander and return their use of force equipment
directly to the Toronto Police College – Armament Section.

A

90.

634
Q

Supervisor

Upon becoming aware of a member who exhibits work performance concerns that may be related to substance abuse shall

A

 determine if there are any immediate fitness for duty or safety concerns

 discuss performance concerns and expectations with the member

 encourage the member to seek assistance, where appropriate

 advise the member of options available for assistance including MAS and EFAP

 follow up, if required, to provide the member with proper support and encouragement to resolve the problem

 provide heightened performance monitoring and management

635
Q

Supervisor

When receipt of a TPS649 and or a MED 1 containing recommendations from MAS

A

Ensure compliance with the restrictions

Ensure the duties assigned to the member comply with the direction contained within

Report any deviation by the member to the Officer and Charge General Unit Commanders on a TPS649

636
Q

Officer in Charge or Designate;

When it is determined that there are fitness for duty or safety concerns shall

A

ensure the member is given immediate medical treatment, if required
 immediately notify the Unit Commander of the circumstances on a TPS 649
When observing that a member is unfit for duty shall
 ensure the member is given immediate medical treatment, if required
 commence an immediate investigation
 initiate the appropriate action depending on the circumstances (e.g. documentation, charges, suspension, etc.)
 comply with Procedures 08–02, 08–03, or 08–04, if applicable
 comply with the applicable procedures in Chapter 13
When in receipt of a TPS 649 and/or a MED 1 containing recommendations from MAS shall
 follow up with the member to ensure compliance
 give a copy to the member’s immediate supervisor
When directed to retrieve Service issued uniform and equipment which a member has surrendered and/or returned shall
 store memorandum books in compliance with Procedure 13–17, when applicable
 forward the eToken, when applicable
 via internal mail to the attention of “Token Administration, 5th Floor, IOSS” for Units within Headquarters, or
 retain token in the spare pool for reconfiguration and use by another member for Units outside of
Headquarters
 return to the Toronto Police College – Armament Section all Service issued use of force equipment, when applicable
 deliver any applicable Service issued uniform and equipment to Fleet and Materials Management (FLT)

637
Q

Where does e Members a token get mailed to when I’m fit for duty

A

Token administration fifth floor IOSS

Or retain the token in the spare pool for reconfiguration and used by another member for unit outside of headquarters

638
Q

Healthcare professional defined

A

A member of a college regulated out of that regulated health professional Zack

639
Q

Definition of a medical advisor

A

He’s a licensed qualified medical practitioner engaged by the toronto police

640
Q

Definition of sickness

A

Means an illness or injury that is not work related but which prevents and number from working or completing a tour of duty

641
Q

OHSA

A

Occupational health and safety act

Legislators at workers are providing a safe workplace.

Requires employers to assess the risk of workplace violence that may arise in the nature of the workplace. The assessment shall take into account

Circumstances I would be common in similar places
Circumstances Specific to the Workplace
And other prescribe element

642
Q

Workplace violence.

Supervision

A

Supervisory Officer tennis mandatory

Supervisor officer officer in charge and your commander notification mandatory for all

643
Q

Supervisor
Upon identifying a risk of workplace violence shall comply with Procedure 08–09.
Upon becoming aware of, or ought reasonably to be aware of

A

workplace violence or threat of workplace violence, including domestic violence
 violence which may occur in the workplace, and would likely expose any member to physical injury
shall
- take every reasonable precaution necessary for the protection of the members
- maintain confidentiality
- report any incident of workplace violence to the Officer in Charge
- commence an investigation
- speak to the member initiating the complaint in private
- when gathering evidence comply with Procedure 04–21, if applicable
- when there is a domestic violence incident comply with Procedure 05–04, if applicable
- when injuries are sustained in the workplace by a member provide medical assistance and comply with
Procedure 08–03, if applicable
- if an arrest is made, comply with Procedure 01–01
- when a member requires counselling, including counselling which is gender and culturally specific,
comply with Procedure 08–01
- when involved in an incident where the SIU mandate may be invoked comply with Procedure 13–16
- investigate all situations of work refusal, if required

644
Q

A police officer cannot refuse to work when the work is a normal condition of the workers employment or when they refused to work would

A

Directly in danger of life health or safety of another person

645
Q

Domestic Violence means any physical, sexual or psychological harm caused, or attempted, between persons involved
in an intimate relationship including:

A

assault;
 murder;
 sexual assault;
 threatening;
 harassment;
 intimidation;
 unlawful interference with personal liberty;
 any other criminal offence;
 offences under other statutes, such as the Family Law Act, Children’s Law Reform Act, etc.;
but does not include child abuse investigations.

646
Q

worker

Definition

A

Means any person who performs work or supply services for monetary compensation and includes a contractor or a volunteer such as an exhibit remember

647
Q

Workplace harassment

Reasonable precautions necessary for the protection of the member may include

A

Reassignment to reasonable alternative duties

648
Q

Is a courthouse considered a workplace

A

Yes

649
Q

Fentanyl

Fentanyl is a

A

powerful synthetic opioid that is highly toxic and potentially lethal in small doses. The potency and toxicity of
fentanyl varies significantly, as it is sometimes combined with other powdered illicit narcotics and cutting agents. As it can
be skin permeable, proper handling of suspected fentanyl and fentanyl analogues is essential to minimizing health risks to
involved members.

650
Q

What is Narcan

A

That is the brand that makes the naloxone spray kits

Each kit contains two doses Of naloxone 4mg/0.1ml

651
Q

Naloxone must be stored between

A

15°C and 25°C

Brief excursions are permitted between 4°C to 40°C.

NALOXONE cannot be frozen and must be protected from sunlight

652
Q

In order for Designate and Members to be able to administer naloxone the service did what

A

Obtain a medical delegation from a physician which stipulates but all members being issued NALOXONE SHALL maintain a current standard first aid certificate

653
Q

The Naloxone Tracking Form text template shall be used to track

A

Naloxone use. Any member that attends an opioid-related
overdose shall complete this text template in the related eReport forthwith, regardless of whether Naloxone was
administered or not.

654
Q

In the event your NALOXONE kit needs replacing du to expose to temperature or sunlight

A

obtain a replacement Naloxone kit, as soon as practicable by completing a TPS 587 and emailing the form to Fleet
and Material Management (FLT) – Hanna, in the event a kit is
 lost
 damaged, including as a result of exposure to heat or cold
 used
 expired

655
Q

n cases where the SIU mandate is invoked, the SIU shall collect all evidence. Members shall ensure that all Naloxone
spray applicators, both used and unused, are

A

properly protected and preserved at the scene, and released to the SIU in
compliance with Procedure 13–16.
In the event that Naloxone is used on an on-duty Service member shall also comply with Procedure 08–03

656
Q

Remember shell complete first aid training at least every

A

36 months

657
Q

When directed to retrieve a member’s Naloxone kit, because their Standard First Aid Certification has expired, shall return
the kit to the FLT – Hanna.
When in receipt of a Naloxone kit that has been damaged, used or expired shall

A

mark the kit with “X”
 return the spoiled Naloxone kit to FLT – Hanna
 ensure used kits are safely and properly disposed of
 Used kits can be disposed of by returning to FLT – Hanna or can be disposed of at any local pharmacy

658
Q

When A naloxone kit has been damaged users expired what do you do

A

Marked with an X and send to Hana or act drug store

659
Q

How long does it take for continuous exposure and unvented space with multiple smokers are actively smoking to show secondhand absorption of marijuana

A

4 hours

660
Q

MAS

A

Medical advisory services

661
Q

Factors that may impact a member’s fitness for duty include

A

illness, injury, fatigue, mental stress, alcohol and drug

662
Q

THC is responsible for the way the ______ and ______ responds to cannabis

A

Brain and body

663
Q

Testing
In accordance with Standards of Conduct 1.26, when there are reasonable grounds to investigate a member for using
alcohol or drugs in a manner prejudicial to duty, the member shall be afforded the opportunity to take the

A
appropriate test 
(intoxilizer, drug recognition evaluation, or other recognized screening method).

The Service reserves the right to undertake appropriate post-incident drug testing for cannabis, when applicable.
Supervisor
When approached by a member who voluntarily seeks help for an issue, where work performance or safety is not affected,
shall

664
Q

Supervisor
When approached by a member who voluntarily seeks help for an issue, where work performance or safety is not affected,
shall

A

advise the member of options available for assistance, including the CIRT/PSV program, the EFAP, consultation
visits at Psychological Services, MAS, Volunteer Chaplains, benefits coverage for psychological treatment provided
in the community, and community partner wellness resources, such as Toronto Beyond the Blue
 follow up, if required, to provide the member with appropriate support and encouragement to resolve the problem
When it is apparent an illness/injury is affecting a member’s performance of duty shall comply with Procedure 08–02.

665
Q

Unit Commander

When advised that there are fitness for duty concerns for a member shall

A

confer with the member
 if it is apparent that an illness/injury is affecting a member’s performance of duty shall also comply with Procedure
08–02
 if it is apparent that psychological stress or distress is affecting a member’s performance of duty shall also comply
with Procedure 08–14
 if it is apparent that alcohol or drugs are affecting a member’s performance of duty shall also comply with
Procedure 08–05
 advise the member of options available for assistance including MAS, EFAP, and community partner wellness
resources, such as Toronto Beyond the Blue
 ensure a TPS 649 is forwarded to the Unit Commander – Wellness requesting a fitness for duty assessment,
including all relevant facts and history regarding the member (e.g. sick record, performance records, etc.)
 ensure a mandatory fitness for duty evaluation is arranged, if applicable
 ensure the member attends for an assessment as determined by the Medical Advisor or designate
 follow up to ensure that the member complies with ongoing recommendations by the Medical Advisor or designate
 follow up, if required, to ensure the member receives proper support and encouragement to resolve the problem
 ensure that heightened performance monitoring and management is provided
When learning that a member refuses to cooperate with a mandatory fitness for duty evaluation shall take the appropriate
disciplinary action.
.

666
Q

When propriety is being held From a custody line personal gender-affirming prosthetics (including

A

breast forms, chest binders, gaffs, packers, prosthetic penises
and wigs) from a trans or gender-diverse person in a separate property bag, in compliance with Procedure 01-02
Appendix C.

ConsiderPlacing gender affirming prosthetic devices/items in non-see-through bags.

667
Q

When cannabis is being held for a person in custody for safety reasons Shall

A

Please cannabis in a separate property bag and seal the bag in the presence of the OIC or designated supervisor Officer on camera in the in the Booking Hall

It is not necessary to weigh legally possess cannabis prior to placing it in a property bag

668
Q

In relation to prisoners property place all medication in

A

A separate property bag and make the appropriate entries and the Arrest booking hall Management screen for each type of medication ensuring to include the E report number

This bag does not get sealed when going to court

669
Q

When the person Custody just transfer to court a correctional facility or medical facility shell

A

 insert the person’s medication into a property bag and note the property bag number on the Prisoner Medication
Record
 insert Prisoner Medication Record in the property bag
 ensure the prescribed medication and the Prisoner Medication Record accompanies the prisoner

670
Q

The Child & Youth Advocacy Centre (CYAC), a sub-unit of Detective Operations – Sex Crimes, shall be notified when investigating a sudden unexpected death of a child under the age of _______ in any division City-Wide. The attending divisional detective shall consult with a member of the CYAC prior to leaving the scene and/or conducting formal interviews of caregivers. CYAC investigators are available from 0730 to 2200 hours to investigate child abuse cases. An on–call child abuse investigator can be reached after hours through the Toronto Police Operations Centre (TPOC).

A

16

671
Q

(PDRC)

A

Pediatric Death Review Committee (PDRC)

he PDRC is composed of two sections based on the nature and circumstances of the death: PDRC – Child Welfare and
PDRC – Medical.
PDRC – Child Welfare must review all cases of deaths involving children and youth when the child, the youth or their family
was receiving, or had received, the services of a Children’s Aid Society (CAS) or Indigenous child wellbeing society within
12 months of the death. The PDRC – Child Welfare panel includes police officers, crown attorneys, senior staff from the
Office of the Chief Coroner and representatives from Child Welfare organizations across the province; and is chaired by
the Regional Chief Coroner for the Province of Ontario.

PDRC – Medical reviews the deaths of children where issues or concerns pertaining to the medical diagnosis or provision
of care have been identified. These cases are done on a discretionary basis and are referred by the relevant Regional
Supervising Coroner. The PDRC – Medical panel includes pediatric experts, forensic pathologists, senior staff from the
Office of the Chief Coroner; and is also chaired by the Regional Chief Coroner for the province of Ontario.
Identification of the Deceased

672
Q

The PDRC – Child Welfare panel includes

A

The PDRC – Child Welfare panel includes police officers, crown attorneys, senior staff from the
Office of the Chief Coroner and representatives from Child Welfare organizations across the province; and is chaired by
the Regional Chief Coroner for the Province of Ontario.

PDRC – Medical reviews the deaths of children where issues or concerns pertaining to the medical diagnosis or provision
of care have been identified. These cases are done on a discretionary basis and are referred by the relevant Regional
Supervising Coroner. The PDRC – Medical panel includes pediatric experts, forensic pathologists, senior staff from the
Office of the Chief Coroner; and is also chaired by the Regional Chief Coroner for the province of Ontario.
Identification of the Deceased

673
Q

Every sudden unexpected death of a child or the death of a child under 5 years of age must be actively investigated as

A

suspicious, and premature conclusions should not be made regarding the cause and manner of death until a thorough
investigation has been completed. Officers shall comply with the applicable sections of Procedure 05–01 when conducting
such investigations.

674
Q

Identification of the Deceased
The investigator heading an investigation, or a police officer designated by the investigator, shall attend the morgue and be
physically present when a deceased is identified under the following circumstances:

A

homicide, suspected homicide or other related criminal offences
 cases where the investigating officer has requested the presence of another officer
 cases where an inquest has been or is likely to be called
 when the Coroner believes it is necessary due to the nature of the case, or the condition of the person doing the
identification.
If the identification of the deceased can not be determined at this time, shall ensure that the Missing Person Unit (MPU) is
notified via the global e-mail address at MissingPersons.

675
Q

Informal resolution occurs during the investigation

When

A
a complaint is lodged directly with the OIPRD, the substance and nature of the complaint is not initially 
established by police. The investigating supervisor may then resolve the complaint by way of an Informal 
Resolution Agreement (004-0307 OIPRD). An Investigative Report 004-0309 OIPRD is not required.
676
Q

Supervisory Officer

When notified of an unnatural sudden death shall

A

 take charge of the scene

 provide assistance and direction to the police officers at the scene

 ensure a police officer accompanies the body to the hospital

 request/assign further assistance, as required

 ensure the attendance of

 a divisional detective

 the Coroner

 a FIS investigator

 ensure a police officer accompanies the body to the hospital

 advise the Officer in Charge of all pertinent information

Whenever possible, notification of next of kin should be made by a supervisory officer in lieu of a
constable.

677
Q

Supervisory Officer attendance mandatory for

A

suicide, possible sudden death, unnatural sudden death, suspicious death or suspected homicide
 sudden unexpected death, apparent suicide or accident where the only witness or person present at the time of
death or the finding of the body is an intimate partner, past or present

Supervisory Officer attendance mandatory for Level 2 and 3 searches

Supervisory Officer attendance mandatory for all robberies

all domestic violence calls

  • when the suspect/accused/victim is a member of this Service
  • when the suspect/accused is a member of another police service

Sexual assault

Supervisory Officer attendance mandatory upon receiving a complaint of a suspected child physical or sexual abuse

Supervisory Officer attendance mandatory at scene of a complaint of abuse of an elderly or
vulnerable adult

Child abductions

EDP is armed or may be armed with a weapon

Supervisory Officer and Traffic Services Officer attendance mandatory collisions involving a Service Vehicle

any incident of workplace violence

for any incident of workplace harassment

Naloxone is administered
 a member is critically injured

Emergency Incident Response
 determined by the first member on scene or by Communications Services
 when responding to a Level 2 or 3 Incident

Supervisory Officer attendance mandatory when attending a bomb or explosion call

Supervisory Officer attendance mandatory upon confirming a situation requires the attendance of the ETF

upon becoming aware of an incident that might necessitate a school
Lockdown, Hold and Secure or Shelter in Place

SIU INVESTIGATIONS

Use of force when firearm is discharged

when less lethal shotgun is discharged

when a CEW has been used in Drive Stun Mode or Full Development

Pursuit Supervisor attendance mandatory to monitor when a pursuit is initiated

suicide, possible sudden death, unnatural sudden death, suspicious death or suspected homicide
 sudden unexpected death, apparent suicide or accident where the only witness or person present at the time of
death or the finding of the body is an intimate partner, past or present

Supervisory Officer attendance mandatory for Level 2 and 3 searches

Supervisory Officer attendance mandatory for all robberies

  • *all domestic violence calls
  • when the suspect/accused/victim is a member of this Service
  • when the suspect/accused is a member of another police service

SEXUAL ASSAULTS

Supervisory Officer attendance mandatory upon receiving a complaint of a suspected child physical or sexual abuse

678
Q

Appropriate Property bag numbers including separate property bag number is for cash Shall be recorded on

A

The arresting booking, cell management screen.

679
Q

A bag containing medication for prisoners being transported to court Shall

A

Remain open So it may be accessed should have the medication need to be a dispersed

Give the person a detachable seal from the property bags

680
Q

OIC

Prior to a person being transported to a lock–up, criminal court or detention centre shall ensure

A

 necessary medical attention is given to the person

 the necessary eReports are completed for a first court appearance in compliance with Procedure 12–01

 compliance with Procedure 01–15, if applicable

 the Officer in Charge of the destination lock–up is advised when a person is to be transported to the lock–up

the officer advises the transporting officers and the Officer in Charge of the receiving facility of any known issues
regarding the health and safety of the person, including

 known or suspected suicidal tendencies

 violent tendencies, and/or

 a serious medical condition

 injuries

 assistive devices

 safety concerns

 emotional disturbance, any known mental illness or developmental disability

 medication, or whether any medication has been administered

 impairment due to alcohol or drugs

 sufficient police escort is provided

 the person’s property is handled in compliance with Procedure 09–06

 prescribed medication and a Medication Report accompanies the prisoner

681
Q

Officer in Charge / Designated Supervisory Officer
When property of a person in custody is held for safety reasons or seized for evidence shall examine the property and
accompanying reports

A

ensure all reports are complete, accurate and signed by the submitting officer

 ensure the eReport number is included on all Property Reports

 sign the completed reports

 ensure property bags are properly sealed and the appropriate sections of the property bags are completed

 where property is not returned to the prisoner or will not accompany the prisoner to court, ensure the property and
the applicable Property Report, TPS 407, if applicable, and TPS 405 are recorded and stored through the DLMS

 ensure that all property is stored in a secure location, which is inaccessible to the prisoner

682
Q

When a person is released or transferred from police custody Shall ensure that the original prisoner medication record is

A

forwarded to the unit where the arrest occurred or applicable

683
Q

Assistive/Prosthetic Device means a device used to

A

device used to replace, compensate for, or improve the functional abilities of people
with disabilities or for trans or gender diverse persons to affirm gender identity. Assistive device includes a broad range of
items such as mobility and visual/hearing aids, orthotics/prosthetics, speech devices, medical supplies, environmental
controls and respiratory devices. Prosthetics used to express gender identity include: breast forms, chest binders, gaffs,
packers, prosthetic penises and wigs.

684
Q

Cannabis means
 any part of a cannabis plant, including the phytocannabinoids produced by or found in such a plant, regardless of
whether that part has been processed or not, other than a part of the plant referred to in Schedule 2 [of the Cannabis
Act];
 any substance or mix of substances that contains or has on it any part of a cannabis plant; or
 any substance that is identical to any phytocannabinoid produced by, or found in, such a plant, regardless of how
the substance was obtained [including synthetic cannabis products].
[source: Cannabis Act, Schedule 1]
Item of Religious Significance means any item, article, apparel, or clothing a person identifies as having religious
importance.

A

any part of a cannabis plant, including the phytocannabinoids produced by or found in such a plant, regardless of
whether that part has been processed or not, other than a part of the plant referred to in Schedule 2 [of the Cannabis
Act];
 any substance or mix of substances that contains or has on it any part of a cannabis plant; or
 any substance that is identical to any phytocannabinoid produced by, or found in, such a plant, regardless of how
the substance was obtained [including synthetic cannabis products].
[source: Cannabis Act, Schedule 1]

685
Q

When practicable, members shall facilitate the replacement of an item of religious significance as soon as
possible when the item

A

apparel or clothing only

686
Q

IMS

A

Incident management system

in response to any emergency incident including, but not limited to those involving hazardous materials, infrastructure
disruptions that may involve utility and power failures, natural hazards such as severe weather, or a disease or other health
risk.
Supervision

687
Q

A level 1 emergency incident is called what

Level 2??

Level 3??

A

Emergency response

Major Incident

Disaster Incident

688
Q

Emergency Planning

The Service has enhanced its emergency planning ability by the creation of the EPC

A

The EPC is mandated to increase the emergency preparedness; planning, mitigating, responding to and recovering
from emergency incidents.

To achieve this mandate, the EPC has established sub-committees reflective of the Incident Management System (IMS):

Public Information,

Health and Safety,

Investigative,

Operations,

Planning,

Logistics, and

Administration and Finance.

Emergency Management & Public Order (EM&PO) plays an integral role in the EPC as their members are active in each
of the sub–committees.

The EPC also works closely with external stakeholders promoting emergency preparedness and positively contributing to
a cohesive emergency response as required.

689
Q

To achieve this mandate, the EPC has established sub-committees reflective of the Incident Management System (IMS):

A

Public Information, Health and Safety, Investigative, Operations, Planning, Logistics, and Administration and Finance.
Emergency Management & Public Order (EM&PO) plays an integral role in the EPC as their members are active in each
of the sub–committees.

690
Q

Incident Management System (IMS)
The IMS is based on a doctrine enacted by the _________ of the ________ ______ that recommends IMS as the emergency
preparedness model in Ontario. The Ontario Association of Chiefs of Police (OACP) has adopted the IMS as the
recommended emergency preparedness system for Ontario police services.
The IMS will be utilized in conjunction with the City of Toronto Emergency Operations Centre

A

Ministry of the Solicitor General

691
Q

The EOC

A

Emergency operation centre

Emergency Operations Centre (EOC) means a facility operated by the City of Toronto specifically established to conduct
the overall management of an emergency. The Toronto Police Service is one of many agencies represented. The Toronto
EOC is located at 703 Don Mills Road, 6th Floor.

The IMS will be utilized in conjunction with the City of Toronto Emergency Operations Centre (EOC) and can be integrated with other policies and procedures, as required. The IMS creates a clear point of control and can be expanded or contracted
with ease in any size or type of emergency to manage response personnel, facilities and equipment.

692
Q

In an emergency incident response who assumes the role of Incident commander

A

The first member on scene although the service has established a cadre I’ve trade incident commander‘s capable assuming incident command Whenever called upon to do so

As well, Public
Safety, a sub–unit of EM&PO, is staffed by members who respond to and assist in the management of Level 2 – Major
Incidents and Level 3 – Disaster Incidents.

693
Q

Undertaking a strategic role, the Major Incident Command Centre (MICC) may be activated for Level

A

for Level 2 – Major Incident or
Level 3 – Disaster Incident emergencies and should be staffed according to the nature and scope of the event. Such
staffing will include an officer of sufficient training, rank and authority to access and redirect personnel and material support
as required, as well as liaise with other policing partners and external agencies. It is recommended that once activated,
staffing for command and control should follow the IMS in compliance with Chapter 10 – Appendix A.

694
Q

Communication strategy with an emergency incident response the incident commander Shall appoint a ________ Who will ensure corporate communications is consulted

A

Public information officer

695
Q

LEVEL 1 – EMERGENCY RESPONSE
.
First Member
When responding to an emergency incident shall

A

exercise caution when approaching the site, particularly when hazardous materials are indicated or suspected
 take charge of the scene, assuming the role of the initial Incident Commander and implement IMS as required until
relieved of these duties (refer to Chapter 10 – Appendix A for IMS chart and position profiles)
The first police officer is designated as the Incident Commander until relieved by a supervisory officer, or the appropriate
external agency having jurisdiction over the incident.
 if not a police officer, take charge of the scene until relieved by the first attending police officer
 designate a line of approach to the scene that allows for the least risk possible and notify the Communications
Operator – Communications Services (Communications Operator) of this route
 assess the situation and notify the Communications Operator of
- the type or nature of the incident
- the location and extent of damage
- casualty information
- potential hazards
- if a separate radio channel will be required for emergency operations
- the need for additional members and specialized response
- the need for a supervisory officer to attend
- whether immediate traffic diversion is required
- whether Toronto Paramedic Services (Paramedics) or Toronto Fire Services (TFS) response and
equipment are required
The exact location of the Commander post If necessary

Establish a Preliminary command post and location that is away from all hazardous conditions

696
Q

There will only be one command post for any incident. When multiple jurisdictions or agencies are involved in the incident,
there will be a single unified command.

A

direct all responding units to the scene, advising them of
 existing hazards
- required equipment
- the presence of any explosive device(s)
- active attacker(s)
- personal protective equipment
- safe method of entry to the scene
- routes to be avoided
- routes to be closed to non-emergency traffic
- take the required actions deemed immediately necessary to contain the emergency and prevent or
minimize the loss of life
- evaluate the need for, and establish a clearly identified staging area, as required
- communicate the location of the staging area to all responding units and jurisdictions
- if a staging area is established, assign a staging area manager to track and control all available
resources
- in conjunction with the ranking TFS member at the scene, evaluate the requirement for evacuation
The decision to evacuate during civil disturbances or extraordinary police situations, such as hostage, barricade or terrorist
incidents is a police responsibility. The decision to evacuate during a natural and man-made disaster is the responsibility
of fire services.

697
Q

The decision to evacuate during civil disturbances or extraordinary police situations, such as hostage, barricade or terrorist
incidents is a ______ responsibility. The decision to evacuate during a natural and man-made disaster is the responsibility
of _______ _______.

A

police responsibility.

of fire services.

698
Q

The decision to evacuate during civil disturbances or extraordinary police situations, such as hostage, barricade or terrorist
incidents is a police responsibility. The decision to evacuate during a natural and man-made disaster is the responsibility
of fire services.

A

assign members to complete necessary functions such as
- securing inner and outer perimeter in compliance with Chapter 10 – Appendix A, if necessary
- clearing access and egress routes for responding emergency vehicles
- ensuring access to scene is restricted to authorized personnel
- liaise with other responding emergency services supervisors
 maintain radio communication
 ensure persons are assisted to safety
 comply with Procedure 10–09 if an evacuation is required
 when necessary and if qualified to do so, perform the required standard first aid treatment and/or cardio–pulmonary
resuscitation (CPR), using universal precautions at all times
 notify a supervisor

699
Q

Members attending an emergency incident shall take direction from the

A

In the absence of a supervisor for the incident commander take direction from the first police officer

700
Q

First Supervisory Officer
When responding to an emergency incident (level1) shall exercise caution when approaching the site, particularly if hazardous
materials are indicated or suspected.
After being briefed by the first member or first officer on scene shall

A

assess the need to assume the role of Incident Commander and assume the role until relieved of this function, if
necessary
 reassess the situation

 advise the Communications Operator of the status of Incident Commander and the new assessment of the incident
and any new information
 notify the divisional Officer in Charge
 consider expanding the IMS as necessary by delegating members to complete necessary functions
 ensure the following are established, co–ordinated and supervised
- secure inner and outer perimeters in compliance with Chapter 10 – Appendix B, if necessary
- clear access and egress routes for responding emergency vehicles
- access to scene is restricted to authorized personnel
- staging area for additional responding units
- a command post located at a safe distance and near other emergency services command posts, when safe
to do so
 assign one police officer at the scene to maintain radio communication with the Communications Operator and
command post support staff, as required
 ensure all members are directed to complete and submit the applicable eReports prior to the completion of their
tour of duty

701
Q

This is only mentioned once in the package. Related to a;;

assign one police officer at the scene to maintain radio communication with the Communications Operator and

A

Emergency response level 1

702
Q

Incident Commander

If assessing that the situation has escalated and is becoming a Level 2 – Major Incident shall

A

take appropriate immediate action, consider expanding the IMS as necessary by assigning members to complete
necessary functions
 notify the Operations Supervisor – Communications Services (Operations Supervisor) and request that the
divisional Officer in Charge, Toronto Police Operations Centre (TPOC) and EM&PO unit be notified to monitor and
attend as required

When responding to an incident shall
 ensure a communication strategy is developed and communicated in compliance with the Communication Strategy
section of this Procedure
 assign a public information officer who will assume responsibility for the communication strategy
Upon conclusion of an emergency incident shall complete an After Action Report, as req

703
Q

Upon conclusion of an emergency incident shall complete an After Action Report, as req

A

For all levels

Emergency response
Major Incident
Disaster response

704
Q

LEVEL 2 – MAJOR INCIDENT
All Members
In addition to the requirements outlined in the Level 1 – Emergency Response section of this Procedure shall comply with
the further direction contained in this section.
First Supervisory Officer
When responding to a Level 2 – Major Incident shall

A

 Corporate Communications
 Wellness
 Community Partnership & Engagement Unit – Volunteer Resources
 other police services
 Regional Police Air Support Units (when authorized by the Duty Senior Officer or other senior officer)
 when in the role of Incident Commander, continue in the role until relieved
 expand the IMS as necessary by assigning members to complete necessary functions (refer to Chapter 10 –
Appendix A)
 ensure the following are established and supervised
 secure inner and outer perimeters in compliance with Chapter 10 – Appendix B, if necessary
 clear access and egress routes for responding emergency vehicles
 access to scene is restricted to authorized personnel
 staging area for additional responding units/agencies
 a command post located at a safe distance and near other emergency services command posts and
relocate if necessary
 if not already on scene, ensure the attendance of Paramedics and/or TFS, as required
 ensure persons are assisted to safety when safe to do so
 assess and determine whether it is appropriate to recommend Shelter in Place, to commence evacuation, or in the
case of a school, Hold and Secure, or a Lockdown
 comply and ensure compliance with
 Procedure 10–09 if an evacuation is required
 Procedure 10–13 if a school is involved

705
Q

secure inner and outer perimeters in compliance with Chapter 10 – Appendix B, if necessary
 clear access and egress routes for responding emergency vehicles
 access to scene is restricted to authorized personnel
 staging area for additional responding units/agencies
 a command post located at a safe distance and near other emergency services command posts and
relocate if necessary

A

Related to a major incident level 2

706
Q

assess and determine whether it is appropriate to recommend Shelter in Place, to commence evacuation, or in the
case of a school, Hold and Secure, or a Lockdown

Which level of emergency incident speaks to this

A

Major incident level 2

707
Q

Emergency incident response

Officer in charge
If assessing the situation to be a Level 3 – Disaster Incident shall contact the

A

Operations Supervisor to request the

attendance of a Duty Senior Officer.

708
Q

After the completion of any emergency incident at any level Shall

A

Complete the after action report

709
Q

LEVEL 3 – DISASTER INCIDENT
All Members
In addition to the requirements outlined in the Level 1 – Emergency Response and the Level 2 – Major Incident sections of
this Procedure, shall comply with the further direction contained in this section.
When notified of a Level 3 – Disaster Incident or impending disaster shall request the Communications Operator to notify

A

the TPOC
 the on–call EM&PO member
 the Unit Commander/Officer in Charge of the affected division(s), when appropriate.

710
Q

Incident Commander

When responding to a Level 3 – Disaster Incident shall

A

establish communication with the MICC at local 8–0901 and request personnel and logistical support

 update the MICC, as required

711
Q

Unit Commander – Emergency Management & Public Order

When notified of a Level 3 – Disaster Incident shall notify the

A

Staff Superintendent – Public Safety Operations
 Staff Superintendent – Detective Operations
 Staff Superintendents – East Field, West Field and Field Services

712
Q

Command Post means a

A

place near the scene of an emergency incident where members report for instructions and
information. The command post should be located at a safe distance and near other emergency services command posts.

713
Q

Egress means the

A

exit or way out of the scene.

714
Q

Emergency Operations Centre (EOC) means a facility operated by the

A

City of Toronto specifically established to conduct
the overall management of an emergency. The Toronto Police Service is one of many agencies represented. The Toronto
EOC is located at 703 Don Mills Road, 6th Floor.

715
Q

Hold and Secure means that all

A

movement in and out of the school is restricted and external doors locked, however,
movement within the school is not restricted as the external danger near the school poses no immediate threat to the
students or staff unless they leave the building.

716
Q

Incident Commander Cadre (ICC) means Toronto Police Service

A

Senior Officers who have been trained as incident
commanders and are available 24/7 on an on–call basis and may be activated through the Inspector – Emergency
Management & Public Order (EM&PO).

717
Q

Incident Management System (IMS)

A

means the model of police on–site response to emergencies and disasters based
on the Incident Command System, adopted by the Province of Ontario. The IMS provides the functional infrastructure
necessary for the appropriate and efficient use of police resources.

718
Q

Level 1 – Emergency Response means the

A

general response activities and resources to mitigate the situation of any
incident. Members respond quickly to the report of an emergency situation to gather information, assess the situation, and
determine whether additional members and specialized response is required. Many emergency incidents are resolved
within a short period of time, using resources available at the divisional level.

719
Q

Level 2 – Major Incident means an emergency incident which

A

exceeds a division’s normal operational resources and

requires additional support, or multiple agency co–ordination at the site and some degree of external support. Level 2 -

720
Q

Major Incidents may continue for an

A

extended period of time and require a site Command Post and/or the Major Incident
Command Centre (MICC).
Level 3 – Disaster Incident means an incident that may affect a significant portion of the population, may continue for a
long period of time and may require an extensive recovery period. Response to a disaster may require the activation of the
Major Incident Command Centre (MICC), the Emergency Operations Centre (EOC), political direction and support, and the
official declaration of a disaster in accordance with Municipal Code 59 and the provincial Emergency Management and Civil
Protection Act.

721
Q

Lockdown means that

A

all movement in and out of the school and within the school is restricted as the danger is inside the
school or is on school property and poses an immediate threat to the students or staff.

722
Q

Where is the MICC located

A

The major incident command centre is located at police headquarters on the 12th floor however it may be temporary located offsite pending the unique circumstances of the major event or emergency

723
Q

Toronto Emergency Management Program Committee (TEMPC)

A

means a committee comprised of the Mayor and key
representatives from local boards, city agencies, and other agencies and organizations, responsible for the overall
management of Level 3 – Disaster Incidents. During these emergencies, this group is collectively responsible for the
direction and co–ordination of emergency response operations within the City.

724
Q

Who is the only person authorized to transport a suspected bomb or explosive package/device

A

A police explosive technician she’ll handle or transport a suspected bomb or explosive device

725
Q

Bomb Threats, Suspicious Packages/Devices and Explosions

Supervision

A

 Supervisory Officer attendance mandatory when attending a bomb or explosion call

 On-Call Emergency Management & Public Order – Explosive Disposal Unit (EDU) notification mandatory for all
chemical, biological, radiological, nuclear or explosive (CBRNE) related events and incidents
Procedure
The EDU is designated to respond to all explosive related events and incidents including hazardous environments, chemical
suicides, suspicious packages, unknown materials, and illicit drug lab calls. The EDU analyzes, mitigates, and neutralizes
all CBRNE threats, and preserves related evidence.
All members of the EDU have received specialized CBRNE incident training and are Police Explosive technicians accredited
The on-call EDU member shall be notified of all CBRNE related events and incidents by calling the police use only line
(416) 435-2666.

726
Q

CBRNE

A

Chemical biological radiological nuclear or explosive

727
Q

Supervisory Officer
When responding to a bomb threat shall

A

 obtain all relevant information from the first police officer on scene
 assume the role of Incident Commander

When a suspected explosive package/device has been located, shall
 comply with the Suspicious Packages/Devices portion of this procedure
 be vigilant for secondary devices and hazardous materials

728
Q

Incident Commander

Upon arrival at the scene of a bomb threat shall

A

take charge of the incident
 contact the person in charge of the premises to determine if there are emergency plans
 ensure a command post is established and have the person in charge of the premises attend the command post
 ensure a search of premises by persons familiar with premises
Special attention should be paid to public areas and areas where an explosive package/device would cause the most
damage.
 consider use of the explosives detection dog/equipment
 ensure compliance with Procedures 08–03 and 08–04, if applicable

729
Q

Suspicious Packages/Devices
Police Officer
Upon locating a suspicious package/device shall

A

not touch or handle the package/device
 secure the area by establishing a minimum perimeter of 30 meters around the package/device
 evacuate persons in the immediate vicinity
 ensure the EDU is notified of the exact location and description of the package/device
 detail a person to await the arrival of the EDU and direct them to the location
 when directed by the EDU,
 evacuate the area directly above and below the package/device, if located inside a building
 evacuate any adjoining premises
 clear the exterior of the building of pedestrians
 establish an exterior perimeter in compliance with the safe distance measurements contained in 10–03
Appendix A
10–03 Appendix A is a chart from the National Ground Intelligence Center (NGIC) and provides evacuation distances from
specific explosives based on the type of explosive.

730
Q

10–03 Appendix A is a chart from the NGIC _______ _______ _____ ______which provides evacuation distances from
specific explosives based on the type of explosive.

A

National Ground Intelligence Center (NGIC)

731
Q

Where is the command post be located

A

A safe distance away from the scene and your other emergency services

732
Q

Incident Commander

Upon arrival at the scene of an explosion shall

A

preserve the scene until the arrival of the EDU
 ensure the scene is protected for evidence
 ensure Detective Operations – Forensic Identification Services (FIS) has been notified
 notify the Officer in Charge
 if criminal activity is suspected
- ensure investigative personnel are notified to attend and take charge of the investigation
- notify Intelligence Services

733
Q

Incident Commander means the

A

police officer who has taken charge of the incident and who is in charge at the Command
Post and, in conjunction with other emergency services commanders, is responsible for coordinating and managing police
response at an incident.

734
Q

Incident Management System (IMS) means the model of

A

Incident Management System (IMS) means the model of police on–site response to emergencies and disasters based
on the Incident Command System, adopted by the Province of Ontario. The IMS provides the functional infrastructure
necessary for the appropriate and efficient use of police resources.

735
Q

Level 2 – Major Incident means an emergency incident

A
which exceeds a division’s normal operational resources and 
requires additional support, or multiple agency co–ordination at the site and some degree of external support. Level 2 –
Major Incidents may continue for an extended period of time and require a site Command Post and/or the Major Incident 
Command Centre (MICC).
736
Q

Police Explosive Technician means any

A

police officer who has completed the appropriate training as approved by the
Chief of Police to maintain the appropriate knowledge, skills and abilities to

737
Q

The role of the first responders had an incident require an ETF is to

A

Control and contain the same. Unless there is immediate danger to life first responders shall not enter the scene. please officer Shall exercise caution when approaching to seem particularly if weapons are present

738
Q

The role of the Incident Commander is to coordinate and manage the police response at an incident, with the exception of
________ tactical operations. When at the scene of an incident, the Supervisory Officer – ______ will assume the role of ______
Tactical Commander and is responsible for all aspects of the tactical response, unless relieved of these duties by the Unit
Commander – _______ upon arrival at the scene.

A

The role of the Incident Commander is to coordinate and manage the police response at an incident, with the exception of
ETF tactical operations. When at the scene of an incident, the Supervisory Officer – ETF will assume the role of ETF
Tactical Commander and is responsible for all aspects of the tactical response, unless relieved of these duties by the Unit
Commander – ETF upon arrival at the scene.

739
Q

The operational section of the ____ consists of_______ _______ _____ (SWT), and trained crisis negotiators. In addition,
the ______ can initiate tactical paramedic and psychiatric support when necessary.

A

The operational section of the ____ consists of Special Weapons Teams (SWT), and trained crisis negotiators. In addition,
the ETF can initiate tactical paramedic and psychiatric support when necessary.

740
Q

The ETF shall be notified for, but is not limited to, the following scenarios:

A

barricaded persons and hostage situations
 executing high risk search or arrest warrants where violent or armed resistance is anticipated (see Procedure 02–
18)
 arresting persons armed with firearms and/or offensive weapons, and known to be violent
 incidents involving emotionally disturbed persons, including suicide intervention (see Procedure 06–04)
 crisis negotiation
 high risk prisoner escort/witness protection (see Procedure 12–11)
 incidents involving explosive substances (see Procedure 10–03)
 acts of terrorism (see Procedure 10–12)
 Security Offences Act incidents (see Procedure 04–26)
 any other violent situations involving weapons or explosive substances or violent persons
 any other incidents as determined by the Unit Commander – ETF
- All requests for crisis negotiators and/or a Forensic Psychiatrist shall be made through the ETF.

741
Q

Security offences act incidents

A

The ETF shall be notified

742
Q

When at the scene of an incident, the Supervisory Officer – ETF will assume the role of ETF ________ _______ and is
responsible for all aspects of the tactical response, unless relieved of these duties by the Unit Commander – ETF upon
their arrival at the scene.

A

Tactical Commander

and is
responsible for all aspects of the tactical response, unless relieved of these duties by the Unit Commander – ETF upon
their arrival at the scene.
 ensure the suspect is isolated and contained
 ensure detective office personnel attend
 consider requesting that the Communications Operator – Communications Services assign a separate radio
frequency for the use of police personnel

743
Q

Although the Incident Commander has control over all police response at an incident, the Supervisor – ETF will have control
of all aspects of ETF tactical operations. In relation to a bomb threat and/or explosion, the Supervisor–___________ ______& ______ ________ _____ _____ _______ will have control of all aspects of _______ operations.

A

Supervisor–Emergency

Management & Public Order – Explosive Disposal Unit (EDU) will have control of all aspects of EDU operations.

744
Q

Incident Commander means the _______ ______ who has taken charge of the incident and who is in charge at the Command
Post and, in conjunction with other emergency services commanders, is responsible for coordinating and managing police
response at an incident.

A

Incident Commander means the

police officer

745
Q

Terrorism means

A

means the criminal use of violence, intimidation or coercion, or the threat of such violence to influence the
behaviour of others by a terrorist activity.

746
Q
Threats to School Safety
Status: Amended Issued: R.
Rationale
This Procedure was developed to assist officers in situations that may pose a threat to school safety.
Supervision

A

Supervisory Officer attendance mandatory upon becoming aware of an incident that might necessitate a school
Lockdown, Hold and Secure or Shelter in Place
 Supervisory Officer notification mandatory for all threats to school safety
 Officer in Charge notification mandatory upon becoming aware of an incident that might necessitate a school
Lockdown, Hold and Secure or Shelter in Place

747
Q

If there is an immediate threat to life, officers may initiate an Immediate _______ ____\\ with regard to school dater m safety

Except in ______ circumstances, the details of which must later be explained to the _______, police officers shall report to
the main school office prior to commencing any investigation in a school (as defined in the Police / School Board Protocol).
When conducting an investigation, police officers shall make every effort to minimize disruption to school routines.
When a police officer becomes aware of a violent crime or serious safety concern that may affe

A

Rapid Response.

exigent

principal

748
Q

shall advise the school ______ of the danger and may recommend the school Lockdown, Hold and
Secure, or Shelter in Place, depending on the nature of the threat. The ______ is the person in charge of a school and, as
such, makes the decision to initiate a Lockdown, Hold and Secure or Shelter in Place.

A

Principal

749
Q

Examples of situations that might initiate a school Lockdown include

A

Examples of situations that might initiate a school Lockdown include
 a person attacking a person with a knife in a school
 a person using or threatening to use a gun on school property

750
Q

Examples of situations that might initiate a Hold and Secure include

A

a suspect with a weapon in the vicinity of a school
 a search near a school for a suspect wanted for a violent offence
 a serious motor vehicle accident in the area of a school, requiring temporary control of pedestrian and vehicle traffic
When there is a report of a person carrying a concealed firearm or other concealed weapon on school property, and there
is no indication that the person poses an immediate threat, members shall not advise the school to initiate a Lockdown or
Hold and Secure. This will reduce the possibility of creating a hostage situation or provoking a violent response in the
suspect.

An example of a situation that might initiate a Shelter in Place includes if there is hazardous material around the building
and evacuation may not be safe. A Shelter in Place would normally be recommended by Toronto Fire Services.
In summary, there are 3 categories of movement restriction that may be implemented
a) Lockdown
b) Hold and Secure, or
c) Shelter in Place

751
Q

An example of a situation that might initiate a Shelter in Place includes if there is hazardous material around the building
and evacuation may not be safe. A Shelter in Place would normally be recommended by Toronto Fire Services.
In summary, there are 3 categories of movement restriction that may be implemented
a) Lockdown
b) Hold and Secure, or
c) Shelter in Place

A

hazardous material around the building
and evacuation may not be safe. A Shelter in Place would normally be recommended by Toronto Fire Services.
In summary, there are 3 categories of movement restriction that may be implemented
a) Lockdown
b) Hold and Secure, or
c) Shelter in Place

752
Q

When there is a report of a person carrying a concealed firearm or other concealed weapon on school property, and there
is no indication that the person poses an _________ _______, members shall not advise the school to initiate a

A

Lock down or hold and secure

This will reduce the possibility of creating a hostage situation or provoking a violent response in the
suspect.
An example of a situation that might initiate a Shelter in Place includes if there is hazardous material around the building
and evacuation may not be safe. A Shelter in Place would normally be recommended by Toronto Fire Services.

753
Q

Police Officer
When attending on school premises to conduct an investigation shall

A

 report to the main school office prior to commencing the investigation
 in exigent circumstances, initiate an Immediate Rapid Response

754
Q

Police officer

Upon becoming aware of an incident that might necessitate a school Lockdown shall

A

comply with item 2
 identify a parent staging area
 advise the Communications Operator
 request the Communications Operator to notify
- the Officer in Charge
- the Toronto Police Operations Centre (TPOC)

Supervisory Officer
Upon being notified of a school Lockdown, Hold and Secure or Shelter in Place shall
 first comply with Procedure 10–01
 be mindful of the circumstances that led to the involvement of the police and ensure the original investigation
continues
 attend the school
 assess the need to assume the role of Incident Commander and if necessary, become the Incident Commander
until relieved of this function
Upon being notified of a Hold and Secure that police have recommended shall
 comply with item 5
 assign a police officer to attend that school if, operationally feasible
Upon being notified of a school Lockdown shall
 comply with item 5

assign an officer to attend that school
 assign an officer to the parent staging area and ensure the officer keeps parents informed of the status of the
Lockdown in compliance with the Communication Strategy
Incident Commander

755
Q

comply with item 2
 identify a parent staging area
 advise the Communications Operator
 request the Communications Operator to notify
- the Officer in Charge
- the Toronto Police Operations Centre (TPOC)

These steps for what;

A

An incident which might facilitate a school lockdown

Upon completion of the incident shall notify the principal or designate of the involved schools that the incident has concluded
so that the school can resume normal operations.

756
Q

Immediate Rapid Response means

A

that if there is an immediate threat to life in a school, officers shall enter the school to
stop the threat in accordance with training.

757
Q

means;

that if there is an immediate threat to life in a school, officers shall enter the school to
stop the threat in accordance with training.

A

Immediate Rapid Response means

758
Q

Lockdown means that

A

all movement in and out of the school and within the school is restricted as the danger is inside the
school or is on school property and poses an immediate threat to the students or staff.

759
Q

Parent Staging Area means a

A

location where parents can initially report to and await details. Usually positioned off-site
from the immediate emergency or threat. Ideally separate and exclusive from the emergency responders, equipment and
media.

760
Q

Shelter in Place requires that people

A

with the doors and windows closed due to an external
environmental threat. Fans, including heating and air conditioning units, should be turned off to prevent air from outside
entering the building. Normal operations may continue within the building.

761
Q

(OIPRD)

A

Officer of the Independent Police Review Director

762
Q

The OIPRD will manage and have carriage of all external complaints. The OIPRD may retain the investigation of an external
complaint or direct the Service or ______ ______ _____ to investigate the external complaint on their behalf. The OIPRD
will determine final dispositions of all external complaints regardless of who investigates the complaint.

A

or another police service to

763
Q

OIPRD Liaison Officer – Chief of Police Designate
The OIPRD Liaison Officer will assume all the duties and powers of the Chief of Police in matters respecting an incident
under investigation. The OIPRD Liaison Officer will coordinate the Service’s response to the OIPRD. The Chief of Police’s
OIPRD Liaison Officer must be a Senior Officer. The Chief of Police has authorized the _____~______~_____ (—-) Complaints Administration as the OIPRD Liaison Officer.

A

Inspector – Professional Standards

(PRS) – Complaints Administration as the OIPRD Liaison Officer.

764
Q

Delivery of a Complaint
Any member of the public may make an external complaint. A complaint shall be made on an OIPRD form which can be
obtained at any Service facility or at the OIPRD website. The OIPRD form can be submitted

A

 electronically, or

 by mail, or

 by TPS eFax, or

 in person (or agent), or

 by delivering the OIPRD form to any Service facility.

Complaints about a police officer from another police service and third party complaints will also be accepted in the above
manner.

765
Q

The OIPRD with not accepted

A

Anonymous complaints

766
Q

Local Resolution
A local resolution is an agreement between all parties prior to an OIPRD complaint being lodged. It must be resolved within
______ days of the complainant reporting to the police and involve a complaint that meets one of the below criteria:

A

30 days

 dealing with personal property, other than money or firearms, or

failing to treat a person equally, other than violations based upon the prohibited grounds in the Ontario Human 
Rights Code (Human Rights Code), or

 using profane language, or

 acting in a disorderly manner, or

 neglect of duty, or

 failing to work in accordance with orders, or

 failing to make a report or record entry, or

 conspiring and abetting to commit any of the above, or

 contravening any provision of the Police Services Act (PSA) or its Regulations of a less serious nature.

Local resolutions are facilitated by a supervisor and are to be documented on the prescribed OIPRD form.

767
Q

No record of a ________~______ shall Place in Police Officers personal file

A

local Resolution

768
Q

The three types of resolution regarding a complaint are

A

Local Resolution 30 days

Customer service Resolution 45 days

Informal resolution. No time frame indicated. A record for all three on Officers file

769
Q

Customer Service Resolution
A customer service resolution is an agreement between all parties after an external complaint has been lodged with the
OIPRD, but not formalized. It must be referred by the OIPRD to Professional Standards (PRS), be resolved within 45 days
of the date of notice to PRS, and involve a complaint that meets one of the below criteria:

A

dealing with personal property, other than money or firearms, or

 failing to treat a person equally, other than violations based upon the prohibited grounds in the Human Rights Code,
or

 using profane language, or

 acting in a disorderly manner, or

 neglect of duty, or

 failing to work in accordance with orders, or

 failing to make a report or record entry, or

 conspiring and abetting to commit any of the above, or

 contravening any provision of the PSA or its Regulations of a less serious nature.

Customer service resolutions are facilitated by a supervisor and are to be documented on the prescribed OIPRD form.
No record of a customer service resolution shall be placed in the officers file

770
Q

Informal Resolution
An informal resolution is an agreement between all parties after a complaint has been lodged with the OIPRD and involves
conduct that is deemed less serious.
There are two types of informal resolutions:

A

a) Informal resolution occurs during the investigation
When a complaint is lodged directly with the OIPRD, the substance and nature of the complaint is not initially
established by police. The investigating supervisor may then resolve the complaint by way of an Informal
Resolution Agreement (004-0307 OIPRD). An Investigative Report 004-0309 OIPRD is not required.
b) Informal resolution occurs after the investigation is completed
After an investigation, when a completed Investigative Report (004-0309 OIPRD) has been forwarded to the
OIPRD, the OIPRD may suggest that an informal resolution is an option; which may or may not involve unit
level discipline.
Informal Resolutions are facilitated by a supervisor and are to be documented on the prescribed OIPRD form.
No record of an informal resolution shall be placed in a police officer’s personnel file.
Human Rights
The Toronto Police Services Board (Board) and the Service are committed to the delivery of police services that are fair,
respectful and unbiased. Discriminatory and harassing behaviour is offensive, degrading and illegal under the Human
Rights Code.

771
Q

Harassment, Coercion or Intimidation
The PSA includes the following offence provisions:
 harassment, coercion or intimidation in relation to a complaint
 intentionally hindering or obstructing or providing false information to the OIPRD or an investigator
 attempts at the above.
This applies to either a police officer or a member of the public. No prosecutions of these offences can be commenced
without the consent of the _______~_________.

A

Attorney General.

772
Q

Where a witness officer has previously supplied a statement regarding a conduct complaint involving a criminal allegation,
and is subsequently designated as the ________ officer, the statement shall be returned to the officer upon demand. No
copies of the statement shall be retained by any other member of the Service, following the demand.
Statements Pertaining to a Conduct Complaint Involving Criminal Allegations (Respondent)
Where a police officer is designated as a respondent officer in a conduct complaint involving a criminal allegation, the
respondent officer may supply the investigating supervisor with a detailed statement concerning the incident, but is not
compelled to do so.
Where a witness officer has previously supplied a statement regarding a conduct complaint involving a criminal allegation,
and is subsequently designated as the respondent officer, the statement shall be returned to the officer upon demand. No
copies of the statement shall be retained by any other member of the Service, following the demand.
Interprovincial Policing

A

respondent officer,

773
Q

Statements Pertaining to a Conduct Complaint Involving Criminal Allegations (Respondent)
Where a police officer is designated as a respondent officer in a conduct complaint involving a criminal allegation, the
respondent officer may supply the investigating supervisor with a detailed statement concerning the incident, but is _______~_____
to do so.

A

not

compelled

774
Q

Supervisor

When becoming aware of an OIPRD complaint, and having established the substance and nature of the complaint shall

A

provide the complainant with an OIPRD form/brochure and information about the OIPRD complaint process

 attempt to resolve the complaint by way of a local resolution

Upon receipt of a completed OIPRD complaint form and having reviewed and established the substance and nature of the
complaint shall
 fax the form, including any attachments, to the OIPRD, or

 attempt to resolve the complaint by way of a local resolution
When a complainant is unable to communicate in writing, or due to any disability is unable to attend a Service facility shall
make every effort to assist the complainant in completing the form.

Where the circumstances of a complaint suggest an immediate investigation is warranted shall, in addition to receiving the
complaint, notify the Officer in Charge, Unit Commander, or if absent, the Duty Senior Officer – Toronto Police Operations
Centre.

775
Q

Supervisor When attempting to facilitate a local resolution

A

may utilize the following options

 discuss the matter with the complainant, and/or

 discuss the matter with the respondent officer, and/or

 facilitate a discussion between the respondent officer and the complainant, and/or

 facilitate an apology from the respondent officer, and/or

 refer the matter to mediation which is a third party, off-site meeting, if the complainant, respondent officer
and Director of the OIPRD consent

 shall record the particulars of the complaint and actions taken in the memorandum book

 shall complete a TPS 649 with reasons and forward to the Unit Commander for further assignment to an
investigating supervisor, if a local resolution cannot be immediately resolved

The 30 calendar day period for resolving a local resolution may be extended for an additional 30 calendar days, upon
consent of the OIPRD.

When a local resolution has been achieved shall

 record the particulars of the complaint and actions taken in the memorandum book

 complete the Local Resolution Agreement 004-0301 OIPRD and submit to the unit Commander

776
Q

The 30 calendar day. For resolving a local Resolution may be extended for an additional 30 calendar days upon consent of who

A

OIPRD

777
Q

Which resolution with a complaint has a 45 day time period to be resolved

A

Customer service resolution

A customer service resolution is an agreement between all parties after an external complaint has been lodged with the
OIPRD, but not formalized. It must be referred by the OIPRD to Professional Standards (PRS), be resolved within 45 days
of the date of notice to PRS, and involve a complaint that meets one of the below criteria:
 dealing with personal property, other than money or firearms, or
 failing to treat a person equally, other than violations based upon the prohibited grounds in the Human Rights Code,
or
 using profane language, or
 acting in a disorderly manner, or
 neglect of duty, or
 failing to work in accordance with orders, or
 failing to make a report or record entry, or
 conspiring and abetting to commit any of the above, or
 contravening any provision of the PSA or its Regulations of a less serious nature.

778
Q

Which resolution can be resolved within 30 days

A

Local Resolution
A local resolution is an agreement between all parties prior to an OIPRD complaint being lodged. It must be resolved within
30 days of the complainant reporting to the police and involve a complaint that meets one of the below criteria:

779
Q

When determining that an OIPRD conduct complaint cannot be resolved by an informal resolution shall prepare a report in what time frame;

A

prepare an Investigative Report 004-0309 OIPRD and submit electronically within 90 days to the Unit Comm

780
Q

When determining that an OIPRD conduct complaint cannot be resolved by an informal resolution shall

A

provide the respondent officer with a TPS 649 outlining the substance of the complaint
 record the particulars of the notification to the officer in their memorandum book, if applicable
 consult with Equity, Inclusion & Human Rights regarding an alleged violation of a prohibited ground under the
Human Rights Code
 conduct an investigation and maintain detailed notes
 ensure all evidence is collected in compliance with Procedure 04–21
 if applicable, direct the respondent and witness officers to
 provide a TPS 217, and/or
 attend an investigative interview
 direct the officers to provide additional information as required
 notify the Unit Commander of all side issues, where they exist, and initiate a separate TPS 901 for each, and comply
with Procedure 13–03 as appropriate
 liaise with PRS – Complaints Administration to ensure the timely conclusion of complaint investigations
 complete a 45 Day Investigation Status Update Form 004-0306 OIPRD and submit electronically within 35 calendar
days to the OIPRD Liaison Officer
 prepare an Investigative Report 004-0309 OIPRD and submit electronically within 90 days to the Unit

781
Q

Unit Complaint Coordinator

When due to the size or complexity of an investigation, that the investigation will not be concluded within the 90 calendar
day time period mandated by the OIPRD, shall consult with the

A

OIPRD Liaison Officer and complete an OIPRD Time

Extension Request.

782
Q

45-Day Status Update Form (004-0306 OIPRD)

A

means a form outlining the status of the investigation to the Office of the
Independent Police Review (OIPRD

783
Q

Alternative Dispute Resolution means

Definition

A

mediation, conciliation, negotiation or any other means of facilitating the resolution
of issues in dispute by a third party off site meeting.

784
Q

Association mean

Definition

A

ues in dispute by a third party off site meeting.

Association means the Toronto Police Association or the Toronto Police Senior Officers’ Organization.

785
Q

Civilian Member means any Service employee who is not a police officer, including employees classified as:

A
 permanent; 
 temporary; 
 part–time; 
 summer help; 
 participants in the co–operative education program.
786
Q

External Complaint means an allegation made by a member of the public:

Definition

A

in writing and signed on the Office of the Independent Police Review Director (OIPRD) form; and,
 delivered to any Toronto Police Service (Service) facility or the OIPRD personally or by an agent, by mail, facsimile
or by electronic mail (e–mail); and,
 must concern the policies of, or the services provided by the Service or the conduct of a police officer; and,
 classified by the OIPRD.

787
Q

Investigating Supervisor in reference to complaints means a

A

a supervisor assigned to investigate a complaint and includes
a Unit Complaint Co–ordinator (UCC).

788
Q

Local Inquiry means

Definition

A

when a local resolution process has commenced but is not completed, (e.g., complainant refuses to
complete/sign a local resolution form).

789
Q

Local Resolution means

Definition

A

Local Resolution means the agreement that is reached between all parties when an external complaint is made directly
to a police officer in lieu of being lodged with the Office of the Independent Police Review Director (OIPRD). No record of
a local resolution shall be placed in a police officer’s personnel file.
Office of the Independent Police Review Director (OIPRD) means an independent civilian ag

790
Q

Ontario Civilian Police Commission (OCPC) means

A

an independent oversight agency and is the appeal body for

decisions made at police disciplinary proceedings.

791
Q

Party to a Complaint includes:

A

a person making a complaint under Part V of the Police Services Act

 a police officer who is a witness officer in a complaint filed by a member of the public under Part V of the Police
Services Act

 the Chief of Police of the police service to which the complaint relates
or

 in the case of a complaint against the Chief of Police, the Police Services Board of the police service to which the
complaint relates, and

 may include any person added as a party by the Office of the Independent Police Review Director (OIPRD).

792
Q

Respondent Officer means

A

a police officer who is the subject of a complaint filed by a member of the public under Part V
of the Police Services Act, and may include a Chief of Police or Deputy Chief of Police.

793
Q

The police officer who is The subject of a complaint filed by member of the public is referred to as

A

Respondent Officer means a police officer who is the subject of a complaint filed by a member of the public under Part V
of the Police Services Act, and may include a Chief of Police or Deputy Chief of Police.

794
Q

Serious Complaint Allegation means a matter that,

A

at the discretion of the Chief of Police, is of public interest to be dealt
with as a complaint under Part V of the Police Services Act. A serious complaint, if substantiated, must go to a disciplinary hearing.

795
Q

Unsubstantiated in reference to complaints means a matter where:

Definition

A

insufficient evidence exists to support the allegation
 evidence exists that, if believed, would not constitute misconduct
 the identification of the police officer involved cannot be established.

796
Q

Uniform Internal Complaint Intake / Management

Unit Commanders shall forward the completed file, including the adjudication/disposition, to PRS – Complaints within ________days

A

Unit Commanders shall forward the completed file, including the adjudication/disposition, to PRS – Complaints
Administration within 120 days.

797
Q

Uniform internal complaints

Members of the Toronto Police Service (Service) may initiate a conduct complaint about a police officer in the following
manner:

A

civilian members in general and police officers of equal or lesser rank by way of a TPS 649 to the subject officer’s
supervisor
 a civilian supervisor that directly manages a police officer by way of a TPS 901
 a supervisory officer of higher rank than a police officer by way of a TPS 901

798
Q

The Toronto Police Services Board (Board) and the Toronto Police Service (Service) are committed to providing all its
members with a workplace that is safe. The ________~______&_______act legislates that workers are provided
a safe workplace. This procedure outlines for members what constitutes workplace violence and the process for reporting
workplace violence. Members reporting workplace violence, including domestic violence, are protected from reprisal.

A

. The Occupational Health & Safety Act (OHSA) legislates that

799
Q

OHSA

A

The occupational health and safety act

800
Q

Where a witness officer has previously supplied a statement regarding a conduct complaint involving a criminal allegation,
and is subsequently designated as the subject officer, the statement shall be __________ to the officer upon demand. No
________ of the statement shall be retained by any other member of the Service, following the demand.

A

returned to the officer

upon demand. No

copies

801
Q

When notified by a supervisor of being the subject of an internal conduct complaint involving a non–criminal allegation shall,
within ______ calendar days, or as otherwise directed

A

provide a copy of
 all relevant documents
 all memorandum book entries for the relevant tours of duty
 prepare a TPS 217 containing all information related to the circumstances of the complaint and forward to the
investigating supervisor
 attend an investigative interview and respond to all questions posed that are related to the complaint in question

802
Q

When notified by a supervisor of being the subject of an internal conduct complaint involving a criminal allegation

A

provide a copy of
 all relevant documents
 all memorandum book entries for the relevant tours of duty
 attend an investigative interview and may choose to respond to all questions posed that are related to the complaint
in question
- may choose to prepare a TPS 217 which may contain information related to the circumstances of the
complaint and forward to the investigating supervisor
- When a conduct complaint has been resolved informally the subject officer shall sign the applicable
section of the TPS 901.

803
Q

Investigating Supervisor

When required to investigate an internal conduct complaint shall

A

provide the subject officer with a TPS 649 outlining the substance of the complaint
 record the particulars of the notification to the officer in the “Log Notes” of the TPS 901 and in their memorandum
book, if applicable
 consider consulting Equity, Inclusion & Human Rights during the investigation and when preparing the Report of
Investigation if the complaint relates to the Human Rights Code
 conduct an investigation and maintain detailed notes
 ensure all evidence is collected in compliance with Procedure 04-21
 if applicable, direct the subject and witness officers to
 provide a TPS 217 and/or
 attend an investigative interview
 direct the officers to provide additional information, as required
 notify the Unit Commander of all side issues where they exist, and initiate a separate TPS 901 for each, as
appropriate
 liaise with PRS – Complaints Administration to ensure the timely conclusion of complaint investigations
 prepare a Report of Investigation, including any recommendations, and submit to the Unit Commander
 provide training to members on the complaint process, if applicable

804
Q

The unit complaints coordinator The UCC SHALL have a minimum rank of white

A

Detective / Sergeant

805
Q

Unit Commander upon being advised that the suspension has been confirmed shall

A

being advised that the suspension has been confirmed shall
 ensure the suspended officer has complied with items 1 and 2
 ensure all surrendered use of force equipment is delivered to the Toronto Police College – Armament Section
 ensure the surrendered warrant / identification card is delivered to the Unit Commander - Facilities Management
(FCM)

806
Q

Uniform Internal Complaint Intake / Management

Unit Commander

Upon receipt of a completed Report of Investigation shall

A

review the Report of Investigation and any recommendations from the investigating supervisor
 consider consulting with Equity, Inclusion & Human Rights if the complaint relates to the Human Rights Code
 adjudicate to determine if the complaint is unsubstantiated or substantiated
When determining that the internal conduct complaint is unsubstantiated shall notify the subject officer of the decision on a
TPS 649.
When determining that the internal conduct complaint is substantiated shall
 resolve the complaint informally, or
 impose disciplinary action
When resolving the internal conduct complaint informally shall ensure
 details of the internal informal resolution are recorded on the TPS 901
 the subject officer signs the TPS 901
 the TPS 901 is forwarded to PRS – Complaints Administration
 if the complaint relates to the Human Rights Code, a copy of the TPS 901 is forwarded to Equity, Inclusion & Human
Rights

807
Q

Unit commander Upon being advised of an internal conduct complaint which, due to its complexity or where the reputation of the Service
may be severely impacted in a negative manner, shall consult with the ________~________~_______~_____ .

A

Unit Commander – Professional Standards.

808
Q

Informal Resolution (Internal) in reference to internal complaints means if,

A

at the conclusion of the investigation and upon
review of the written report, the Unit Commander is of the opinion that there was misconduct and/or unsatisfactory work
performance but that it was not of a serious nature, the Unit Commander may resolve the matter informally.

809
Q

Internal Complaint means an

A

allegation from internal sources concerning the conduct of a police officer, or the policies or
the services provided by the Toronto Police Service.

810
Q

Investigative Brief means a brief similar in content to a crown brief, in that it should be

A

bound, the pages numbered
sequentially, and include all video and audio recordings, or other electronic recordings, along with a transcript of same, and
should be in a format as defined by Professional Standards Support – Prosecution Services.

811
Q

Prohibited Grounds means the protected grounds under the

Definition

A

Ontario Human Rights Code for which a person cannot
discriminate. These include: age, ancestry, citizenship, colour, creed, disability, ethnic origin, family status, gender
expression, gender identity, marital status (including single status), place of origin, race, receipt of public assistance (in
housing only), record of offences (in employment only), sex (including discrimination based on pregnancy and
breastfeeding), and sexual orientation.

812
Q

Uniform Complaint Withdrawal
Status: Amended Issued: R.O. 2020.01.03-0001 Replaces: R.O. 2016.02.08-0158
Rationale
The Police Services Act (PSA) allows for a complainant to withdraw a complaint. This Procedure outlines the process for
the withdrawal of internal and external complaints.
Procedure
When a complainant wishes to withdraw a complaint, or a part thereof, the withdrawal must be in writing and signed by the
complainant. The ______~____~____ (_____) may continue to deal with the complaint if the ______ considers it appropriate to do
so.

**If a complainant wishes to withdraw a complaint after a hearing has commenced, consent must be provided by the Chief
and the OIPRD.

A

Chief of police

Chief

Chris considers

consent must be provided by the Chief
and the OIPRD.

813
Q

Rationale
In accordance with the Police Services Act, (PSA) the Chief of Police may suspend a police officer from duty with pay where
the police officer is suspected of, or charged with, an offence under a law of Canada or of a province or territory, or is
suspected of misconduct under the PSA. If a Chief of Police, Deputy Chief or other police officer is convicted of an offence
and sentenced to a term of __________, the Chief of Police or Police Services Board, as the case may be, may suspend
him or her without pay, even if the conviction or sentence is under appeal.
Procedure

A

Imprisonment

814
Q

The Chief of Police (Chief) hereby authorizes the following personnel the power of suspension granted to the Chief under
the PSA

A

 any Deputy Chief of Police
 all Uniform Senior Officers
 all officers permanently assigned to Professional Standards (PRS)
 the Officer in Charge of a unit

815
Q

Criteria for Immediate Suspension
An authorized officer of equal or superior rank shall commence the suspension of a police officer.
The following factors shall be considered in determining if immediate suspension from duty is appropriate

List for criteria

A

the seriousness of the misconduct

 impact upon the reputation of the Toronto Police Service (Service), and public confidence in the Service, if the
police officer is not suspended

 impact upon the integrity of the investigation

 prevention of workplace violence or workplace harassment
After having made the decision to suspend, the suspending officer shall advise the suspended officer that the suspension
is effective immediately.

816
Q

If the suspension is revoked the following conditions shall apply, if applicable:

A

 the police officer shall not be placed in a position where they could compromise the investigation
 the police officer shall not be placed in a position where they could likely have contact with any victim or witness
involved in the investigation

817
Q

When suspending a police officer from duty shall

A

 verbally advise the police officer that they are immediately suspended from duty

 relieve the suspended officer of the applicable Service issued uniform and equipment as listed in item 1

 deliver all surrendered Service issued uniform and equipment to the suspended officer’s Unit Commander

 date and sign the suspended officer’s memorandum book

 advise the suspended officer

  • to report to their Unit Commander as directed
  • that access is restricted to only the public areas of any Service facility
  • of the continued availability of the Employee and Family Assistance Program (EFAP)

 arrange for the suspended officer to collect any personal property at the unit, where applicable

 notify the Duty Senior Officer

 complete a TPS 649 outlining the details of the suspension and submit to their Unit Commander

 comply with the applicable sections of Procedures 13–02 and 13–03
Unit Commander

818
Q

Unit Commander

Upon learning that a police officer under their command has been suspended shall ensure

A

 the suspended officer has complied with item 1

 the safe and proper storage of all seized firearms, including ammunition

 memorandum books are stored in compliance with Procedure 13–17

 further investigations are conducted, if necessary

 the following have been notified of the circumstances and are forwarded a copy of the TPS 649 from the suspending
officer

 Staff Superintendent – Corporate Risk Management (CRM)

 Unit Commander – Professional Standards (PRS)

 ensure the following have been notified of the suspension

 the suspended officer’s Deputy Chief of Police / Chief Administrative Officer

 the suspended officer’s Staff Superintendent / Director

The Unit Commander – Accounting Services shall be notified if suspended officer was issued a corporate/covert credit card or had Systems Applications and Product in Data Processing (SAP) access.

Upon being advised that the suspension has been confirmed shall

 ensure the suspended officer has complied with items 1 and 2

 ensure all surrendered use of force equipment is delivered to the Toronto Police College – Armament Section

 ensure the surrendered warrant / identification card is delivered to the Unit Commander - Facilities Management
(FCM)

ensure the surrendered corporate/covert credit card is delivered to Unit Commander - Accounting Services

 ensure the surrendered eToken is delivered to the Information Security Officer - Professional Standards Support
(PSS) – Information Security

 ensure any other applicable surrendered uniform and equipment is delivered to Fleet and Materials Management
(FLT) – Equipment and Supply section, 9 Hanna Avenue, for storage

819
Q

CRM

A

– Corporate Risk Management (CRM

820
Q

Who is responsible for entering unpaid suspensions in HRMS

A

Corporate risk management CRM

Part day suspensions will be entered on TRIMS only.

821
Q

The Unit Commander – Accounting Services shall be notified if suspended officer was issued a corporate/covert credit card
or had Systems Applications and Product in Data Processing (SAP) access.

A

corporate/covert credit card
or had Systems Applications and Product in Data Processing (SAP) access.

ensure the appropriate entries are made in HRMS

822
Q

The conduct of civilian members is governed by ________ of _______ – Part II. Discipline matters relating to civilian
members are governed by the respective Collective Agreement

A

by Standards of Conduct –

Part II. Discipline matters relating to civilian
members are governed by the respective Collective Agreement

823
Q

The outcomes available in the complaint process for a civilian member are:

A

unsubstantiated

 substantiated

 internal informal resolution.

The disciplinary actions available in a substantiated complaint for a civilian member are:

 verbal reprimand

 written reprimand

 suspension without pay

 suspension without pay pending recommendation for termination.

Civilian members may not utilize time banks as an alternative to a suspension without pay.
In accordance with the principles of progressive discipline, assessed disciplinary penalties shall increase for subsequent
offences and subsequent penalties shall not regress in severity. However, in exceptional circumstances, and only following
consultation with and advice from

824
Q

The disciplinary actions available in a substantiated complaint for a civilian member are:

A

 verbal reprimand
 written reprimand
 suspension without pay
 suspension without pay pending recommendation for termination.

Civilian members may not utilize time banks as an alternative to a suspension without pay.

825
Q

Workplace Violence and Harassment

The Occupational Health & Safety Act (OHSA) legislates that workers are provided a

A

safe workplace. Members shall refer
to Procedure 08–11 for what constitutes workplace violence and Procedure 08–12 for what constitutes workplace
harassment, and the process for reporting either incident.

826
Q

Association Representation
Where a member is the subject of a conduct complaint, or a witness to a conduct complaint, members are reminded that
they may confer with an ________ representative prior to attending an investigative interview and may also request
__________ representation be present. Supervisors should remind members of their ability to obtain ________
representation when investigating a complaint.

A

Association

827
Q

Member

When notified by a supervisor of being the subject of an internal or external conduct complaint involving a criminal
allegation shall, within _____ calendar days, or as otherwise directed
- provide a copy of

A

10 calendar days, or

all relevant documents
- all memorandum book entries for the relevant tours of duty, if applicable
- confer with an Association representative, as applicable
- attend an investigative interview and may choose to respond to all questions posed that are related
to the complaint in question
- have Association representation, as applicable
 may choose to prepare a TPS 217 which may contain information related to the circumstances of the complaint
and forward to the investigating supervisor

828
Q

Civilian. Upon receipt of a TPS 931 with respect to a conduct complaint

A

shall be provided the opportunity
- to confer with an Association representative, as applicable
- to have Association representation, as applicable
 may choose to respond to the disciplinary action in writing within 10 working days
Supervisor

829
Q

What are “log notes” and who is responsible for them

A

Supervisors during a internal or external complaint and during the investigation. the log notes are on the TPS901.

830
Q

Member unless otherwise specified,
 for the purposes of the Standards of Conduct means any ________~_____, or any __________ member, or any _______
member;
 for the purposes of the Service Procedures means any _______~______, or any _________ member.

A

Member unless otherwise specified,
 for the purposes of the Standards of Conduct means any police officer, or any civilian member, or any auxiliary
member;
 for the purposes of the Service Procedures means any police officer, or any civilian member.

831
Q

I’d an auxiliary considered a
member of the service? ;

A

Only for Standards of Conduct not for Service Procedures

832
Q

Standards for Work Performance

Work performance standards applicable to members can be found in

A

Service Governance
 Federal Statutes and associated Regulations
 Provincial Statutes and associated Regulations
 Municipal By-laws and Municipal Codes

833
Q

Unsatisfactory work Performance

All work performance deficiencies should be addressed in a timely manner. Minor work performance deficiencies can
generally be resolved through _______, ________ or _______ provided to the member. Members must be provided the
opportunity to improve work performance without adversely affecting their work record.

A

discussion, guidance or training

834
Q

Work Performance Issues
Examples of work performance issues that may form the basis for a complaint of unsatisfactory work performance include,
but are not limited to

A

 incompetence

 quality of work

 quantity of work

 insubordination

 personal appearance

 engaging in personal activities detrimental to the job

 failure to co–operate

 missed deadlines

 frequent or repetitive errors

 excessive absenteeism or tardiness

835
Q

For civilians it’s not called the police services act it’s called the

A

Standards of conduct

See page 189

836
Q

A Special Review is a _______–part process. The initial part involves an interview between the member and the unit commander.
This initial meeting is intended to ensure that management practices or accommodation factors are not the root cause of
the reported deficiency.
Where it is established that a supervisor or manager failed to provide adequate or necessary training or equipment, or failed
to establish or communicate a work performance standard, an internal complaint shall be initiated against the supervisor or
manager in compliance with the applicable procedures in Chapter 13.
The second part of the Special Review will be initiated where it is identified that the work performance deficiency is a
persistent situation attributable to the individual member. A meeting between the unit commander, the assigned supervisor
and the member will be held to

A

develop a plan for corrective action
 profile the time frame for improvement
 detail the specific standard to be met
 explain the possible disciplinary ramifications if the standards are not met.
The time frame for a Special Review is 90 calendar days. Additional review periods may be added where the member has
demonstrated an effort to comply, but has not sufficiently met the threshold level, or the supervisor was unable to fully
observe the conduct of the member as a result of injury or illness. The additional review periods will be in increments of 30
calendar days, to a maximum of 90 calendar days.
No Special Review shall be initiated until the member has received a copy of the specific standard to be met and has been
informed of the disciplinary consequences if the standard is not met.
The following outcomes are possible at the conclusion of a Special Review

837
Q

What is the timeframe for a special review

A

90 days

The time frame for a Special Review is 90 calendar days. Additional review periods may be added where the member has
demonstrated an effort to comply, but has not sufficiently met the threshold level, or the supervisor was unable to fully
observe the conduct of the member as a result of injury or illness. The additional review periods will be in increments of 30
calendar days, to a maximum of 90 calendar days.

838
Q

When assigned to conduct a Special Review shall

A

meet with the member in private
 conduct heightened monitoring of the member’s performance
 complete a TPS 956 for each 30–day performance examination period
 continue to provide guidance or instruction targeted at correcting the deficiency
 advise the second–level supervisor throughout the Special Review and provide any recommendations
If a member meets the standard threshold during the assessment period, the supervisor shall conclude the examination
and forward any recommendations to the second–level supervisor.

839
Q

When a Special Review has concluded and it is determined that the member did not meet the standard threshold shall
ensure

A

where a police officer is unable to meet the standard, a TPS 901 is generated and the internal complaint process
commencing with Procedure 13–03 is followed
 where a civilian member is unable to meet the standard, a TPS 931 is initiated and ensure compliance with
Procedure 13–09 Shore

840
Q

Accommodation Factor means

A

providing accommodation to persons with any disability, as defined in the Accessibility for
Ontarians with Disabilities Act.

841
Q

Disability means:

A

Disability means:
a) any degree of physical disability, infirmity, malformation or disfigurement that is caused by bodily injury, birth
defect or illness and, without limiting the generality of the foregoing, includes diabetes mellitus, epilepsy, a
brain injury, any degree of paralysis, amputation, lack of physical co-ordination, blindness or visual
impediment, deafness or hearing impediment, muteness or speech impediment, or physical reliance on a guide
dog or other animal or on a wheelchair or other remedial appliance or device;
b) a condition of mental impairment or a developmental disability;
c) a learning disability, or a dysfunction in one or more of the processes involved in understanding or using
symbols or spoken language;
d) a mental disorder, or;
e) an injury or disability for which benefits were claimed or received under the insurance plan established under
the Workplace Safety and Insurance Act; (“handicap”).
[Source: Ontario Human Rights Code, Accessibility for Ontarians with Disabilities Act]

842
Q

Todo

A

Look at 260

260a Form

843
Q

Missing Persons Act
The Missing Persons Act came into effect on ____ 1, ____. This legislation will assist police officers investigating missing
person occurrences by providing them with the ability, in certain circumstances, to:

A

July 1 2019

 obtain a court order for a person or entity to produce records that would assist in locating a missing person;
 obtain a search warrant to allow entry onto a premises to locate a missing person; and
 make an urgent demand for records without judicial authorization.
If it is determined that a search warrant or, in exigent circumstances, an urgent demand for records may further the
investigation, police officers shall comply with the relevant direction contained in this Procedure.
Missing Persons Unit (MPU

844
Q

Parental Abduction means the unlawful removal of a child by a

A

parent, guardian, or any other person having lawful care
or charge of a person under the age of fourteen whether or not there is a custody order in relation to that child made by a
court, with the intent to deprive a parent, guardian, or person having lawful care or charge of the person.

845
Q

Rationale
The right to search as an incident to a lawful arrest is found in common law, and has been upheld by the Supreme Court,
as long as the search is conducted for a valid objective and is not conducted in an abusive fashion.

A

 Cloutier v. Langlois (Supreme Court of Canada) (1990)
 R. v. Flintoff (Ontario Court of Appeal) (1998)
 R. v. Coulter (Ontario Court of Justice) (2000)
 R. v. Golden (Supreme Court of Canada) (2001)
 R. v. Clarke, Heroux and Pilipa (Ontario Superior Court of Justice) (2003)
 R. v. Mann (Supreme Court of Canada) (2004)
 R. v. McGuffie (Ontario Court of Appeal) (2016)
 R. v. MacPherson (Ontario Native Council on Justice) (2018)
 R. v. Tonkin (Ontario Superior Court of Justice) (2020)
As an incident to arrest a police officer may search for
 weapons
 anything that could cause injury (including drugs and alcohol)
 anything that could assist in a person’s escape
 evidence

846
Q

Section 2 of the Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms (Charter) gives everyone the fundamental freedom________and ________

Section 8 of the Charter states that “everyone has the right to be secure against unreasonable ______or_____

the Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms (Charter) generally and, in particular, the S. 9 protection against arbitrary ________

and the S. 15 right to ______~______ under the law;

 the Human Rights Code (HRC) of Ontario generally and, in particular, the S. 1

A

S. 2 freedom of
conscience and religion

S. 8 everyone has the right to be secure against unreasonable
search or seizure

S. 9 protection against
arbitrary detention

S. 15 right to equal treatment under the law;;

Human rights Code;
Section 1 of the Ontario Human Rights Code states “Every person has a right to equal treatment with respect to services,
goods and facilities, without discrimination because of race, ancestry, place of origin, colour, ethnic origin, citizenship, creed,
sex, sexual orientation, gender identity, gender expression, age, marital status, family status or disability.”
The Service acknowledges its obligation and responsibility, short of undue hardship, to accommodate self-identified trans
or gender diverse person

847
Q

Section 1 of the Ontario Human Rights Code states “Every person has a right to equal

A

treatment with respect to services,
goods and facilities, without discrimination because of race, ancestry, place of origin, colour, ethnic origin, citizenship, creed,
sex, sexual orientation, gender identity, gender expression, age, marital status, family status or disability.” From this section,
creed is the issue that deals with religious beliefs.
The Service recognizes that special arrangements may have to be made when handling items, articles, apparel, or clothing
a person identifies as having religious importance (item of religious significance). Members conducting searches of persons
shall treat an item of religious significance with respect and handle the item appropriately.
Although there are a multitude

848
Q

Limitations on Regulated Interactions
Regulated Interactions shall be conducted in a manner consistent with this Procedure and O. Reg. 58/16.
A police officer shall not attempt to collect identifying information about an individual from the individual if

A

 any part of the reason for the attempted collection is that the police officer perceives the individual to be within a
particular racialized group unless,

 the police officer is seeking a particular individual,

 being within the racialized group forms part of the description of the particular individual or is evident from
a visual representation of the particular individual, and

 the police officer has additional information, in addition to information about the particular individual being
in a racialized group, that may help to identify the individual or narrow the description of the individual;

 Additional information may include, but is not limited to the following:

 the appearance of the individual, including clothing, height, weight, eye colour, hair colour, hair style;

 the location where the individual might be found;

 the type of vehicle the individual might be found in;

 the associates the individual might be found with; or

 the behaviour of the individual.
However, additional information may not consist only of the sex of the individual, approximate age, or both.
OR
the attempted collection is done in an arbitrary way.
For the purpose of this Procedure only, as stipulated in O. Reg. 58/16, a Regulated Interaction is done in an arbitrary way
unless the police officer has a reason that they can articulate t

849
Q

Ontario Human Rights Code
The Human Rights Code prohibits actions that discriminate based on a prohibited ground in a protected social area.
The following are the Human Rights Code prohibited grounds:

A
Age;
 Ancestry; 
 Colour; 
 Race;
 Citizenship;
 Ethnic origin;
 Place of origin;
 Creed;
 Disability;
 Family status;
 Marital status (including single status);
 Gender Identity; 
 Gender expression;
 Receipt of public assistance (in housing only);
 Record of offences (in employment only);
 Sex (including pregnancy and breastfeeding); and
 Sexual orientation.
850
Q

The following are the Human Rights Code protected social areas:

A
Accommodation (housing) 
 Contracts
 Employment
 Goods, services and facilities
 Membership in vocational associations and trade unions
851
Q

Discrimination and/or Harassment

Harassment means engaging in a course of

A

vexatious comments or conduct that is known or ought reasonably to be known
to be unwelcome. Harassment can include a one–time incident or repeated incidents.

Examples include, but are not limited to, the following:
 any action, verbal or physical, that expresses or promotes intolerance, prejudice, discord or hatred based on any
prohibited ground under the Human Rights Code;
 unwelcome or offensive comments, remarks, innuendos, banter, teasing, gossip or joking that is based on any
prohibited ground under the Human Rights Code;
 unwelcome inquiries, questions or comments about an individual based on any prohibited ground under the Human
Rights Code;
 offensive written or visual material, like graffiti or degrading pictures, based on any prohibited ground under the
Human Rights Code;
 using bias or stereotypes in language or other forms of communication;
 threats, intimidation or physical force based on a prohibited ground under the Human Rights Code;
 condescending, paternalistic or patronizing behaviour based on a prohibited ground under the Human Rights Code;
 refusal to work or co–operate with a member based on any prohibited ground under the Human Rights Code;
 unwanted attention of a repetitive, derogatory or abusive nature;
 any unwelcome physical contact;
 implied or expressed promise of reward for complying with a sexually oriented request;
 implied or expressed threats or penalty for failure to comply with a sexually oriented request;
 unwelcome staring, obscene or offensive gestures;
 persistent unwanted contact or attention after a personal relationship has ended;
 misgendering trans and gender variant people, and failure to use chosen name and pronouns; and
 exclusion, ignoring and other “by omission acts”

Steps taken by a supervisor as part of performance management or discipline are not harassment.

852
Q

Member

When the respondent in an Human Rights Tribunal of Ontario (HRTO). complaint shall

A

record on the reverse side of the original document
- their name, rank/position, employee number, and unit
- the date, time and location received
- their signature
 immediately send a copy of the document to Legal Services by TPS eFax
 advise and provide a copy of the documents to their supervisor
 may retain a copy of the document
 forward the original document to Legal Services
 not respond directly to the HRTO

853
Q

Supervisor

Upon becoming aware that a member is the respondent in an HRTO complaint shall

A

ensure the member has complied with item 6
 forward the copy of the documents to the respondent’s Unit Commander
 ensure that the complainant and any witnesses are protected from reprisal
 ensure the workplace is not poisoned/toxic
 not respond directly to the HRTO

854
Q
  • all HRTO complaints regarding the delivery of police services shall remain with _______~_______ for
    response and case management
A

Legal Services

Order HRTO complaints which deal with employment related issues are assigned to labor relations

855
Q

Human rights

Discrimination means any

A

distinction, conduct or action, either by intention or not, on the basis of any prohibited ground
under the Human Rights Code, which has the impact of excluding persons, denying benefits or imposing burdens on an
individual or group, which are not imposed on others or which withholds or limits access to benefits available to others.

856
Q

Human rights

Gender: the set of socially classified behaviours, attitudes and norms associated with and roles of

A

men, women, trans
people, non-binary people and more. Encompasses gender identity, a person’s internal sense of being a man, woman, both
or neither.

the set of socially classified behaviours, attitudes and norms associated with and roles of men, women, trans
people, non-binary people and more. Encompasses gender identity, a person’s internal sense of being a man, woman, both
or neither.

857
Q

Human rights

Gender Expression is

A

is how a person publicly presents their gender. This can include behaviour and outward appearance
such as dress, hair, make-up, body language and voice. A person’s chosen name and pronoun are also common and
important ways of expressing gender.

858
Q

Gender identity is each

A

person’s internal and individual experience of gender. It is their sense of being a woman, a man,
both, neither, or anywhere along or beyond the gender spectrum. A person’s gender identity may be the same as or different
from the typical pairing with their birth-assigned sex. Gender identity is fundamentally different from a person’s sexual
orientation.

859
Q

Human Rights Tribunal of Ontario (HRTO) means the

A

independent provincial government agency who receives Human

Rights Code complaint applications and assists parties to resolve complaints through mediation and/or a hearing.

860
Q

Offensive Material means the

A

possession, reproduction, circulation, dissemination, publication or posting of any material
that may be considered offensive or insensitive under the Human Rights Code in any area of a Toronto Police Service
facility.

861
Q

Ontario Human Rights Commission (OHRC) means an

A

independent government agency that provides leadership for the
promotion, protection and advancement of human rights and builds partnerships across the human rights system (but does
not receive Human Rights Code complaints).

862
Q

Human rights

Poisoned/Toxic Work Environment means

A

harassing or discriminatory behaviours, that are sufficiently severe and/or
pervasive, that causes significant and unreasonable interference to a member’s work environment. A poisoned/toxic work
environment can interfere with and/or undermine work performance and can cause emotional and psychological stress not
experienced by other members. As such, it results in unequal terms and conditions of employment and prevents or impairs
full and equal enjoyment of employment, benefits, or opportunities.

863
Q

What can cause a significant and unreasonable interference to a member’s work environment. A _______~_______~______
environment can interfere with and/or undermine work performance and can cause emotional and psychological stress not
experienced by other members. As such, it results in unequal terms and conditions of employment and prevents or impairs
full and equal enjoyment of employment, benefits, or opportunities.

A

Poisoned/Toxic Work Environment

. A poisoned/toxic work
environment can

864
Q

Trans: is an umbrella term referring to people with

A

diverse gender identities and expressions that differ from their assigned
sex at birth. It includes but is not limited to people who identify as transgender, trans woman (someone assigned male at
birth who knows themself to be a woman), trans man (someone assigned female at birth who knows themself to be a man),
non-binary, gender non-conforming, gender variant or gender queer. Some people may consider two-spirit to be a trans
identity. Trans persons may or may not make a social transition, have surgery, use prosthetic devices or take prescription
medications (such as hormone therapies), to affirm their gender identity. They may or may not have identity documents that
reflect their lived identity

865
Q

SIU

Supervision

A

Supervisory Officer attendance mandatory
 Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority attendance mandatory
 Supervisory Officer notification mandatory when a Service member is involved in an incident where the SIU
mandate is or may be invoked
 Officer in Charge – TPOC notification mandatory when the SIU mandate is or may be invoked
 Duty Senior Officer notification mandatory when the SIU mandate is or may be invoked
 Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority notification mandatory when the SIU mandate is or may be invoked

866
Q

Wellbeing of Members during SIU

A

The medical and psychological wellbeing of Service members is a priority for the Service. To assist involved officers in
coping with an event in which the SIU mandate is or may be invoked, access, as required, to medical care and/or a
representative of the Critical Incident Response Team (CIRT) / Employee Family Assistance Program (EFAP) / Peer
Support Volunteer (PSV) will be provided.

867
Q

Who Notifies the SIU

In cases where the SIU mandate may be invoked,

A

the Supervisory Officer – Toronto Police Operations Centre (TPOC) shall
be responsible for immediately notifying the ;;

Duty Senior Officer - TPOC (Duty Senior Officer) and the Deputy Chief of Police
(Deputy Chief) of the Command involved.

The Duty Senior Officer shall be responsible for notifying the Chief’s Special Investigations Unit (SIU) On-Call Designated Authority.
Only the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority, or in their absence, the Duty Senior Officer, shall be responsible for
notifying the SIU directly. The Duty Senior Officer must attempt to contact the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority
prior to initiating contact with the SIU.
All requests or inquiries related to an SIU investigation shall be made to the Professional Standards Support – Special
Investigations Unit Liaison Section (PSS – SIU Liaison Section).

868
Q

Only the _________~______~______~____~_____~_______ or in their absence, the Duty Senior Officer, shall be responsible for
notifying the SIU directly

A

Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority,

The Duty Senior Officer must attempt to contact the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority
prior to initiating contact with the SIU.

All requests or inquiries related to an SIU investigation shall be made to the Professional Standards Support – Special
Investigations Unit Liaison Section (PSS – SIU Liaison Section).
Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority Duties Relating to SIU Investigations

869
Q

Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority is;

What rank etc

A
Section 30(1) of the SIUA allows the Chief of Police, who is a designated authority under the Act, to, in writing, delegate 
any of his or her powers or duties as designated authority to a 

senior officer of the Service,

subject to such conditions or
restrictions as the Chief may set out in the delegation. The Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority assumes all the duties
and powers of the Chief of Police in matters respecting an incident under investigation by the SIU. The Chief of Police has
authorized the following senior officers to act in this role:

 Uniform Senior Officer – authorized in writing by the Chief of Police
 Duty Senior Officer
The Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority will direct the Service’s response to the SIU investigation.
Professional Standards Support (PSS) shall have custody of the Administration investigation into the policies of or services provided by the service and the Conduct of police officers as directed by s11 of O. Reg 267/10

When the Community Safety and Policing Act (CSPA) legislation comes into force, s. 81(1) CSPA and associated
regulations will replace s.11 of O. Reg. 267/10

870
Q

When the Community Safety and Policing Act (CSPA) legislation comes into force, s. 81(1) CSPA and associated
regulations will replace s.11 of O. Reg. 267/10.
All requests for SIU personnel to participate in traini

A

When the Community Safety and s. 81(1) CSPA and associated

regulations will replace s.11 of O. Reg. 267/10.

871
Q

Collection of Evidence
In cases where the SIU mandate is invoked, the SIU shall collect all evidence. However, in cases where the SIU mandate
may be invoked and a lack of immediate action may jeopardize the evidence or where there is a potential hazard to the
public, such evidence will be

A

collected and preserved by Service members as detailed in Procedure 04–21.
Search and Seizure of Service Property by SIU

872
Q

Search and Seizure of Service Property by SIU

The SIU will be permitted, subject to the direction of the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority, to seize any

A

police–
issued equipment, without warrant, that is relevant to an SIU investigation. Any other items can only be seized by consent
or by search warrant. The Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority is solely responsible for the release of all equipment
and documents to the SIU. Under no circumstances will equipment, documents, or memorandum books be surrendered to
the SIU without the specific direction of the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority.
Seizure of Service Firearms by SIU

873
Q

The Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority is solely responsible for the _________ of all ________
and _________ to the SIU.

Under no circumstances will _______, ______, or _______~______ be surrendered to
the SIU without the specific direction of the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority.
Seizure of Service Firearms by SIU

A

release of all equipment and documents to the SIU.
.

Under no circumstances will equipment, documents, or memorandum books

874
Q

Seizure of Service Firearms by SIU
In cases where Service firearms are involved, firearms shall remain _______ until proven safe at a proving station, in
compliance with Procedure 15–03 and in the presence of an ________ _______ and the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated
Authority. The firearm may then be turned over to the _______, at the direction of the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority.
In exigent circumstances, such as in the case of an injured officer, a supervisory officer shall seize the firearm by means of
seizing the _____~_____~_____ , ensuring it is secured and shall comply with the direction of the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated
Authority.

A

Holstered

SIU Investigator

SIU

Whole duty belt

875
Q

SIU
In instances involving other Service firearms, the police officer discharging the firearm shall _______ the _____ in the
presence of an SIU investigator, the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority and in compliance with Procedure 15–03
and training. If the officer is unable to perform this task, another officer who is currently qualified in the handling of the
firearm shall perform this task.

A

Unload the firearm

876
Q

Seizure of Service Conducted Energy Weapons (CEWs) by SIU
In cases where Service CEWs are involved, CEWs shall remain _______. The CEW information shall not be ______,
altered, or modified, and the cartridge and battery shall not be _______. The CEW may then be turned over to the SIU, at
the direction of the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority.
In exigent circumstances, such as in the case of an injured officer, a supervisory member shall seize the CEW by means
of seizing the ______~______~_____ belt, it is secured and shall comply with the direction of the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated
Authority.
All handling of the CEW shall be in compliance with Procedure 15-09 and training.

A

Holstered

Downloaded

Removed

WholeWill duty belt

877
Q

Seizure of Service Vehicles by SIU

Service vehicles equipped with radios and/or mobile workstations having access to confidential records, and/or specialized
equipment must be stored in a secure location. The following process shall be followed when a Service vehicle equipped
with the aforementioned is seized by the SIU:

A

The Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority is solely responsible for coordinating the release of the Service
vehicle. A departmental tow truck shall be used to tow the Service vehicle to a secure Service garage. The vehicle
shall be securely stored until the authorized member of the Service is available to remove the radio, mobile
workstation, and/or equipment. The removal of equipment will not occur until the SIU are in attendance, unless the
SIU consents not to be present. Any equipment that is removed shall be securely stored by the Service and replaced
in the vehicle when returned. Other Service and/or officer’s personal equipment shall only be removed under the
direction of the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority, prior to the vehicle being towed. Members wishing to
remove personal items from the vehicle shall make the request to the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority.
 When a Service vehicle requires forensic examination as part of the SIU investigation, the Service vehicle shall be
towed by a departmental tow truck to either a secure Service garage or the Centre of Forensic Sciences vehicle
storage area. In this circumstance, no equipment shall be removed from the Service vehicle unless directed by the
Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority.

878
Q

The Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority is solely responsible for coordinating the release of the Service
vehicle. A departmental tow truck shall be used to tow the Service vehicle to a secure Service garage. The vehicle
shall be securely stored until the authorized member of the Service is available to remove the radio, mobile
workstation, and/or equipment. The removal of equipment will not occur until the _______ are in _______, unless the
______ consents not to be present. Any equipment that is removed shall be ________ stored by the Service and replaced
in the vehicle when returned. Other Service and/or officer’s personal equipment shall only be removed under the
direction of the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority, prior to the vehicle being towed. Members wishing to
remove personal items from the vehicle shall make the request to the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority.
 When a Service vehicle requires forensic examination as part of the SIU investigation, the Service vehicle shall be
towed by a departmental tow truck to either a secure Service garage or the ________ ~____~________~_______ vehicle
storage area. In this circumstance, no equipment shall be removed from the Service vehicle unless directed by the
Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority.

A

SIU attendance

SIU

Secured

Centre a Forensic sciences

879
Q

Seizure of Service Mobile Devices by SIU
Service-issued mobile devices have access to confidential records and must be stored in a secure location. The Chief’s
SIU On-Call Designated Authority is

A

solely responsible for coordinating the release of the Service issued smart device. The
mobile device shall be surrendered to the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority or their designate and securely stored
by the PSS - SIU Liaison Investigator until the Chief’s SI

880
Q

Seizure of Body Worn Camera Devices by SIU

Service-issued body worn camera devices have access to confidential records and must be stored in a

A

secure location.
The Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority is solely responsible for coordinating the release of the Service issued body
worn camera. The body worn camera shall be surrendered to the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority or their
designate and securely stored by the PSS - SIU Liaison Investigator until the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority
authorizes the release of the body worn camera.

881
Q

Criminal Investigations
Officers shall be mindful of the circumstances that led to the involvement of the police and ensure that the original
investigation continues, subject to certain restrictions as outlined below.
Section 18 of the SIUA directs

A

that the SIU shall be the lead investigator, and shall have priority over any police service in
the investigation of an SIU–related incident.

Co–operation between the Service and the SIU is essential to ensure the timely completion of investigations. Where the

SIU mandate has been invoked, priority in witness interviews and the collection or inspection of evidence shall be given to
the SIU.

All investigations conducted by members of this Service that may conflict with the SIU mandate shall first be cleared by the
Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority

882
Q

Chief’s Administrative Investigation
Service investigations within this category will be conducted through PSS to determine issues related to the policies of, or
services provided by, the Service and the conduct of involved police officers.
Subject Officials, Witness Officials or any other member of the Service shall provide the assigned investigator with a copy
of their notes, and shall make themselves available for an interview, when directed.

A

PSS to determine issues related to the policies of, or
services provided by, the Service and the conduct of involved police officers.
Subject Officials, Witness Officials or any other member of the Service shall provide the assigned investigator with a copy
of their notes, and shall make themselves available for an interview, when directed.

The exceptions provided to a Subject Official with regard to providing notes or attending an interview listed under the SIU
criminal investigation do not apply to the Chief’s Administrative Investigation. All members shall cooperate as directed by
s. 11 of O. Reg. 267/10.
- When the CSPA legislation comes into force, s. 81(1) CSPA and associated regulations will replace s.11 of O. Reg.
267/10.

883
Q

Service subject matter experts shall be assigned Chief’s Administrative Investigations. The following internal units shall be
assigned Administrative Investigations:

A

Professional Standards  officer–involved firearm discharge

Specialized Criminal Investigation –
Homicide  death in police custody – other than an officer–involved firearm discharge

Specialized Criminal Investigation –
Sex Crimes  allegations of sexual assault

Traffic Services  suspect apprehension pursuit or officer–involved collision

Professional Standards Support  all serious injury not listed above

884
Q

Chief’s Administrative Investigation

A

Service investigations within this category will be conducted through PSS to determine issues related to the policies of, or
services provided by, the Service and the conduct of involved police officers.

885
Q

SIU Investigative Interviews
The SIU will communicate all requests directly to the ______ of ______. The scheduling of all investigative interviews requested
by the SIU shall be arranged through the __________~_______~_____
The __________~_______~_____ shall direct all officers in relation to the SIU requests. Should the SIU contact an officer
directly, the officer shall immediately notify the PSS -siu liaison section

A

Chief of police

PSS - SIU Liaison Section.

The PSS - SIU Liaison Section shall

direct all officers in relation to the SIU requests. Should the SIU contact an officer
directly, the officer shall immediately notify the PSS -

886
Q

In accordance with s. 25(2) of the SIUA, Witness Officials, when properly designated as such, shall attend for an
investigative interview with the SIU and shall answer all reasonable questions immediately, or within _____ hours if appropriate
grounds for delay exist.

A

24

887
Q

SIU has the authority to audio record, or video record on _____, official’s interviews.

A

Consent

888
Q

Non–Service Witnesses in SIU INCIDENT

A

Non–Service witnesses shall be segregated and transported separately, where practicable. The SIU shall have first right to
interview witnesses that relate to its mandate. Officers shall encourage all witnesses to remain at the scene or a police
facility. However, should a witness refuse, the officer shall obtain sufficient information to allow for follow–up at a later time.
Failure to Comply

889
Q

Members acting as a representative of the Association and offering advice to an involved officer shall

A

advise the OIC of their arrival at the unit

respect the duties and obligations of the involved officer in keeping with the SIUA, Wood v. Schaeffer, 2013 SCC
71, and the direction contained in this Procedure

 offer advice only after the involved officer has completed their notes

 be advised that all communication with the involved officer is without privilege

890
Q

, Wood v. Schaeffer, 2013 SCC

71, is related to;

A

SIU

respect the duties and obligations of the involved officer in keeping with the SIUA

Speaks to write in complete an independent notes consistent with the SIUA

891
Q

Police Officer
When involved in an incident where the SIU mandate is or may be invoked shall

A

immediately notify a supervisory officer where the seriousness of the injury cannot initially be determined,
immediate notification shall be made to a supervisory member so that the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority
can notify the SIU Director, per s. 15(1) of the IUA.

 protect and preserve the scene and all evidence

 ensure the original investigation that gave rise to the event is completed, subject to restrictions contained in this
Procedure

 write complete and independent notes, consistent with the SIUA and Wood v. Schaeffer, 2013 SCC 71.

 submit their completed notes by the end of their tour of duty to the OIC or PSS SIU Liaison Investigator, unless
excused by the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority

 consult with legal counsel and/or an Association representative only after their notes are completed and submitted
to the OIC or PSS SIU Liaison Investigator

 not communicate directly or indirectly with any other member of the Service concerning their involvement prior to
the completion of their notes and all SIU interviews

892
Q

Supervisory Officer
When attending an incident where the SIU mandate is or may be invoked shall

A

take charge of the scene and determine the roles (only) of the involved officers
 ensure the scene and all evidence is protected and preserved
 segregate the involved officers
 ensure each of the involved officers are transported separately to a designated unit, where practicable
 ensure unauthorized persons do not question involved officers, unless there is an immediate medical requirement,
or an urgency to locate outstanding suspects, or preserve evidence
 immediately notify the OIC – TPOC
 ensure the OIC is notified and updated on a regular basis
 comply with the applicable portions of Procedures 08–01 and 08–04, if applicable
 brief the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority with the details of the incident
The Administrative Investigation commences with the arrival of a supervisory officer. Any supervisory officer obtaining
information from an involved officer shall do so under the compulsion of s. 11 of O. Reg. 267/10, for the purpose of the
Administrative Investigation.

893
Q

Who briefs the Chiefs SIU Designate authority with the details of an SIU Incident when their mandate might be invoked

A

Supervisory officer

894
Q

When the Community Safety and Policing Act (CSPA) legislation comes into force, s. 81(1) CSPA and associated
regulations will replace

A

s.11 of O. Reg. 267/10.
All requests for SIU personnel to participate in training or conferences, and any request made by the SIU for members to
provide training, must be made through the Chief

895
Q

When required to seize a Service issued firearm shall

A

do so only if currently certified to handle the specific firearm
 do so by means of seizing the whole duty belt
 comply with direction from the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority
 safely handle and secure the firearm in compliance with Procedure 15–03

896
Q

Officer in Charge
When notified of an incident where the SIU mandate is or may be invoked shall

A

ensure the OIC – TPOC is notified

 ensure a supervisor attends

 ensure the scene and all evidence has been protected and preserved

 notify their Unit Commander

 provide ongoing assistance to the members at the scene
When the involved officers arrive at the unit shall

 ensure the wellness of each involved officer, including their medical and psychological wellbeing

 ensure compliance with the SIUA and Wood v. Schaeffer, 2013 SCC 71

 segregate each officer by placing them in separate offices, where practicable

 direct all involved officers to complete their notes independently

 allow contact with the involved officers by only
- authorized personnel
- counsel and an Association representative only after notes have been completed and submitted in
compliance with this Procedure and Procedure 13–17

 brief the attending Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority with the details of the incident
When notified, or having identified, that an involved officer requires medical and/or psychological assistance shall

 immediately engage the appropriate supports, including a medical facility and/or a CIRT / EFAP / PSV
representative, as necessary

 make a memorandum book entry including details of

  • the reasons for engaging supports
  • what supports were engaged
  • any resulting delay in the completion of the involved officer’s notes
897
Q

allow contact with the involved officers by only
- authorized personnel
- counsel and an Association representative only after ______ _____~_____~_____ and submitted in
compliance with this Procedure and Procedure 13–17
 brief the attending Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority with the details of the incident
When notified, or having identified, that an involved officer requires medical and/or psychological assistance shall
 immediately engage the appropriate supports, including a med

A

After notes have been completed

898
Q

Unit Commander
When notified that a member under their command has been involved in an incident where the SIU mandate is or may be
invoked shall

A

attend the scene of the incident, if available
 assist in the investigation, when requested
 provide the necessary support for involved officers
 refer to Procedures 08–01 and 08–04, if applicable
 confer with the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority, when necessary
 confer with the PSS SIU Liaison Investigator, when necessary
 ensure all side issues
- of a serious nature are reported to PRS
- of a less serious nature are dealt with as soon as practicable
- arrange for replacement of seized equipment

899
Q

Who arranges for the replacement of seized equipment by the SIU

A

The unit Commander

900
Q

Professional Standards Support SIU Liaison Investigator
Shall perform such duties as required or directed by

A

the Chief’s SIU Liaison Officer or the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority
 the Superintendent – PSS as related to s. 11 of O. Reg. 267/10
 when the CSPA legislation comes into force, s. 81(1) CSPA and associated regulations will replace s.11 of O. Reg.
267/10.

901
Q

Incident Notes means, only in relation to an incident where the

A

Special Investigations Unit mandate is or may be invoked,
notes made in the members Service-issued memorandum book or case book about the incident giving rise to the SIU
.

mandate being invoked. Incident notes do not include other types of notes such as occurrence reports, arrest reports, use
of force reports, duty reports, logs or canine training records. All incident notes shall be completed by the end of tour of
duty, unless otherwise authorized by the Chief’s Special Investigations Unit On-Call Designated Authority

902
Q

Peer Support Volunteer (PSV) means a

A

Service member trained in trauma response measures and available on-call to
provide ongoing assistance and support to members and their families after becoming involved in a traumatic critical
incident. PSVs are qualified to lead defusing sessions. PSVs are not counsellors. The PSVs will assist members to seek
professional treatment, if required.

903
Q

Service member trained in trauma response measures and available on-call to
provide ongoing assistance and support to members and their families after becoming involved in a traumatic critical
incident.

A

PSVs are qualified to lead defusing sessions. PSVs are not counsellors. The PSVs will assist members to seek
professional treatment, if required.

Peer support volunteer

904
Q

Police Officer – SIU Investigations in reference to Special Investigations Unit (SIU) investigations means a police officer
engaged in the execution or purported execution of duty. Off–duty events may be subject to an SIU investigation. For
example, but not limited to, the following events:

A

where a police officer verbally identifies themselves as a police officer;
 where a police officer produces police identification;
 where a police officer engages in an investigation;
 where a police officer uses police equipment or property;
 where a police officer operates a Service vehicle; or
 where a police officer otherwise engages their oath of office.

where a police officer otherwise engages their oath of office.
The decision to contact the SIU in such circumstances will be at the discretion o the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated
Authority or, in their absence, the Duty Senior Officer – Toronto Police Operations Centre.

905
Q

Professional Standards Support Special Investigations (SIU) Liaison Investigator means the investigator assigned to

A

the Professional Standards Support - SIU Liaison Section that support the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority and
oversees all investigations required under Section 11 of Ontario Regulation 267/10. (When the Community Safety and
Policing Act (CSPA) legislation comes into force, s. 81(1) CSPA and associated regulations will replace s.11 of O. Reg.
267/10.)
Serious Injury in reference to Special Investigations Unit investigations, a person sustains

906
Q
Community Safety and 
Policing Act (CSPA) legislation comes into force, s. 81(1) CSPA and associated regulations will
A

replace s.11 of O. Reg.
267/10.)
Serious Injury in reference to Special Investigations Unit investigations, a person sustains

907
Q

Serious Injury in reference to Special Investigations Unit investigations, a person sustains serious injury if they:

A

sustain an injury as a result of which they are admitted to a hospital;
 suffer a fracture to the skull, limb, rib, or vertebra;
 suffer burns to a significant proportion of their body
 lose any portion of their body;
 as a result of an injury, experience a loss of vision or hearing; or
 sustains a prescribed injury.

908
Q

Special Investigations Unit (SIU) Mandate means that the SIU Director may cause an investigation to be conducted into
any incident in which any of the following occurs, if the incident may have resulted from the criminal conduct of a Service
official:

A

the death of a person

 the serious injury of a person

 the discharge of a firearm at a person

 the sexual assault of a person, as reported by the person.

The SIU Director may cause an investigation to be conducted if, at the time of the incident,

 the official was on duty; or

 the official was off-duty but
- engaged in the investigation, pursuit, detention or arrest of a person or otherwise exercised the powers
of a police officer, special constable, peace officer or other prescribed person, as the case may be,
whether or not the official intended to exercise such powers or identified him or herself as a person who
may exercise such powers, or

  • the incident involved equipment or other property issued to the official in relation to his or her duties.

Subject Official – SIU Investigations means, in respect of an incident referred to in SIUA ss. 15 (1), an official whose
conduct appears, in the opinion of the SIU Director, to have been a cause of the incident. The Subject Official must be
provided with a notice of their designation in writing.

909
Q

Subject Official – SIU Investigations means, in respect of an incident referred to in SIUA ss. 15 (1), an official whose
conduct appears, in the opinion of the SIU Director, to have

A

been a cause of the incident. The Subject Official must be

provided with a notice of their designation in writing.

910
Q

The Service also recognizes that there may be circumstances where members may be reluctant to identify themselves
when reporting discreditable conduct. Therefore, PRS can receive information anonymously on a dedicated telephone line.
The telephone number 416–343–7090 is available between the hours of _____ and ______ each business day.

A

08:00-16:00

911
Q

The Anonymous Reporting of Discreditable Conduct Program (Program) allows for the anonymous, _______ ______ reporting of
criminal activity or misconduct

A

Good faith

912
Q

Before considering the use of the anonymous reporting system, members should be cautioned that the Service cannot
________ total _______ from outside sources. In particular the courts may supersede any privilege extended by the
Command to members. However, the Crime Stoppers Program can claim privilege from disclosing information based on a
Supreme Court of Canada decision.
Investigative Responsibility

A

guarantee. anonymity

913
Q

Protections
A member is prohibited from disclosing any information received from anonymous reporting that might identify or tend to
identify a person who made the disclosure, unless authorized to do so.
Professional Standards investigators hold a ___________ \______ and therefore a member utilizing the anonymous reporting
process shall be deemed to be in compliance with s. 1.3 of the Standards of Conduct.

A

Supervisory rank

914
Q

Member
When anonymously reporting information pertaining to an act of misconduct by another member, may report the information
by way of the dedicated telephone line at

A

416–343–7090.
Unless authorized to do so, shall not disclose any information received from anonymous reporting that might identify or
tend to identify a person who made the disclosure.
Upon receiving a request for disclosure of information contained in a TPS 909 shall immediately direct the request to the
attention of the Unit Commander – Legal Services.

915
Q

Member – Professional Standards

When receiving information through anonymous reporting shall complete a TPS

A

909.
Investigator/Case Manager – Professional Standards
In addition to those duties specified in Procedures 13–02, 13–03 and 13–09 shall
 ensure the completed TPS 909 is not photocopied
 ensure the completed TPS 909 is placed in the unit file
 not remove the TPS 909 from the unit file unless directed by a court order
 refer to the information source in any subsequent reports, documents or records as the “anonymous police
informant”

916
Q

Unit Commander - Professional Standards
When in charge of Professional Standards shall ensure

A

there are sufficient personnel to manage the intake, administration, co–ordination and maintenance of the
information received through anonymous reporting
 compliance with items 4 and 5
 a separate unit file is maintained for all completed TPS 909 reports
 when there is insufficient evidence to assign a TPS 909 for investigation, the document is retained in the Unit file
for the current year plus one year
 TPS 909 assigned for investigation are retained in compliance with the Records Retention Schedule
 a statistical log is maintained of all anonymous complaints received and outcomes thereof
 source names and personal identifiers are NOT kept in the statistical log

917
Q

Misconduct means any conduct that is contrary to or a breach of any Legislative or Service Governance or the Police
Services Act.
Service Governance includes:

A

Police Services Board Policies and By-laws
 Toronto Police Service Collective Agreements
 Standards of Conduct
 Service Governance Definitions
 Policy and Procedure Manual
 Routine Orders
 specialized manuals issued by the Chief of Police
 unit-specific policies issued by their Unit Commander
 CPIC messages, and
 directions from a superior.

918
Q

Evaluations, Reclassifications and Appraisals

Police officers holding the rank of

_______, _______/_______ and _________/______~_______

shall be subject to an annual

A

uniform performance appraisal during the month of their birth. The uniform performance appraisal process is a performance
review emphasizing goal setting and measurement of achievement.

Officers will be evaluated by one supervisor who has supervised the officer for a minimum period of 90 days. Where
possible, the same appraiser should assess the officer throughout the 1–year appraisal period. The next level supervisor
shall advise which officers a supervisor will be responsible for appraising. Prior to commencing an appraisal, the assigned
appraiser shall review the officer’s appraisal from the previous year to ensure performance issues have been addressed.

However, this review shall not influence the year–end rating of the current appraisal.

The appraisal form shall remain in an officer’s unit personnel file for 5 years. At the end of the 5–year period, the Unit
Commander shall ensure that the appropriate appraisal form is forwarded to People Strategy & Performance – Employee
Records.

919
Q

Officers will be evaluated by one supervisor who has supervised the officer for a minimum period of _______ days. Where
possible, the same appraiser should assess the officer throughout the _____–_____ appraisal period. The next level supervisor
shall advise which officers a supervisor will be responsible for appraising. Prior to commencing an appraisal, the assigned
appraiser shall review the officer’s appraisal from the previous year to ensure performance issues have been addressed.
However, this review shall not influence the year–end rating of the current appraisal.

A

90

1 year

920
Q

The appraisal form shall remain in an officer’s unit personnel file for ______ years. At the end of the _______–year period, the Unit
Commander shall ensure that the appropriate appraisal form is forwarded to People Strategy & Performance – Employee
Records.

A

5

921
Q

Transfers and Secondments
When an officer is permanently transferred into a unit after an appraisal has been initiated, the assigned appraiser will _____
with the officer’s former supervisor. When a temporary transfer is for more than _______ ______, the officer’s new supervisor will
assume responsibility for the performance appraisal and will _______ with the officer’s former supervisor. However, if the
transfer is for a period of _____ months or less, the officer’s home unit will retain responsibility for the appraisal and shall liaise
with the officer’s current supervisor. When an officer has transferred into a new unit, the appraiser shall review the unit/job
specific duties/responsibilities for possible adjustment.
Unit Commanders who have been assigned responsibility for officers on secondment will be advised of those due for
appraisal. In such cases, an appraisal will be completed in consultation with the appropriate supervisor responsible for the
seconded officer.

A

Liaise

6 months

liaise

6

922
Q

Generalist Constable Development Program
Constables assigned to the Generalist Constable Development Program shall be evaluated on their job performance within
each training assignment. At the conclusion of each training period, a TPS ______ shall be completed by the constable’s
immediate ______. The TPS_____ will be completed in addition to the annual performance evaluation.
Training activity checklists (TPS 526 and TPS 527) for the investigative and interpersonal skills segments of the program
shall be maintained by the constable to assist in tracking the activities participated in or demonstrated. Checklists will be
reviewed by the supervisor and maintained in the officer’s personnel file.
Annual Uniform Performance Appraisal
The annual uniform performance appraisal (annual appraisal) is for _____ year consisting of 2 steps: commencement of the
appraisal process and the year–end summary.
Constables being reclassified and probationary sergeants/detectives do not require an annual appraisal.

A

528

Supervisor

528

1

923
Q

Commencement of the Annual Appraisal Process
This consists of

A

identifying any specific tasks unique to the officer’s current duties/responsibilities
 discussing with the officer the sections on human rights, personal qualities, technical skills and core competencies,
and
 completing the development plan

924
Q

Year-End Summary
After reviewing the officer’s unit/job specific duties/responsibilities and development plan, the appraiser will discuss the
human rights section with the officer, and comment and rate the officer on personal qualities, technical skills and core
competencies.

A

The appraiser will discuss the year–end summary with the officer.
People Strategy & Performance – Employee Records will forward a printout to each Unit Commander at the beginning of
each month listing officers to be evaluated during the month. In addition, each unit will be responsible for providing the
officer’s performance report for the previous 13 police reporting periods to the Unit Commander.
Officers may respond to their annual appraisal by preparing a TPS 649 within 10 days of being counselled.
Unit Commanders or, if applicable, the second in command, shall review the appraisal forms, make any appropriate
comments and meet with the officer. In addition, Unit Commanders shall ensure appropriate action is taken where
significant performance problems have been identified by the appraiser.
When selecting officers for training or staff development opportunities, Unit Commanders, where appropriate, should take
into consideration an officer’s performance, development and career goals as outlined in the current and previous annual
appraisals.

925
Q

People Strategy & Performance – Employee Records will forward a printout to each Unit Commander at the beginning of
each month listing officers to be evaluated during the month. In addition, each unit will be responsible for providing the
officer’s performance report for the previous _____ police reporting periods to the Unit Commander.

Officers may respond to their annual appraisal by preparing a TPS 649 within _____ days

A

13

10

926
Q

A performance appraisal shall be completed for probationary constables at the conclusion of Compressed Work Week
(CWW) cycle _____ and ____ by the assigned coach officer and at the conclusion of CWW cycle ____, ____, ____ and _____by the assigned
supervisory officer with appropriate review and comment by the Unit Commander at each stage. One of the performance
appraisals of a probationary constable shall be completed by the_______~______~_____ supervisor where the
probationary constable completes their two CWW cycles

A

1 and 2

3, 5, 7 and 9 by the assigned

Community Response Unit

927
Q
Cadets–in–training who stand in the top \_\_\_\_% of their recruit class and pass all examinations without rewrite during the 
probationary training program shall be granted \_\_\_\_ months service towards reclassification from \_\_\_\_\_ to \_\_\_\_\_ class constable 
subject to satisfactory performance during the probationary period.
A

25

2

4th to 3rd

928
Q

.Former Police Constables of the Service who did not continue as a police officer and have been rehired will undergo a
performance appraisal after the completion of the ______ CWW cycle or the equivalent of ______ months to determine appropriate

A

5th

6

929
Q

Sergeant/Detective
Constables promoted to the rank of sergeant or detective shall be on probation for a period of ___year from the date of
promotion as published on Routine Orders. During the probationary period, duties shall be performed in ______ unless,
otherwise directed in writing by the Chief of Police.

A

1

Uniform

930
Q

Probationary sergeants who are absent from work due to parental leave, family care leave, long-term disability, central sick
bank, suspension, or an off-duty injury will not be considered on active service. Such absences will not be considered as
time served in the rank. Such probationary sergeants will resume their probationary period and will not be eligible to be
confirmed in the rank of sergeant until they have completed at least _____year of active service in the rank.

A

1

931
Q

Probationary sergeants/detectives will have a performance appraisal completed by the assigned supervisory officer prior to
the completion of the _____ _____ and _____ month following promotion. No annual appraisal is required for probationary sergeants

A

3rd, 6th, 10 th

932
Q

Confirmation in the rank of sergeant will be automatically withheld if a probationary sergeant is charged with a ______
offence or charged under the ______ \_____ ______. Unit Commanders shall ensure that Labour Relations and People
Strategy & Performance – Employee Records are advised immediately by e–mail when any probationary sergeant eligible
to be confirmed in the rank has been so charged. Charges laid internally, or by the Special Investigations Unit (SIU), other
police agencies, or by private information, will also result in not confirming a sergeant in the rank. A probationary sergeant
will not be confirmed in the rank until the underlying misconduct/complaint is resolved in favour of the officer.
Staff sergeants may be reclassified to the rank of detective sergeant and sergeants may be reclassified to the rank of
detective and vice versa, as deemed necessary by the Chief of Police. Such reclassifications shall be published on Routine
Orders.

A

Criminal

Police services Act

933
Q
Reclassifications
The appraisal process includes constable reclassification from \_\_\_\_ to \_\_\_\_, and \_\_\_\_ to \_\_\_\_ class. The appraisals will be 
completed prior to the officer being reclassified.
Constables holding the classification of 3rd and 2nd class are eligible for reclassification to the next higher constable 
classification after serving \_\_\_\_ months in their classification. Upon recommendation of a constable’s Unit Commander, the 
Chief of Police shall make a recommendation for reclassification to the Board.
A

3rd to 2nd and 2nd to 1st

12 months

934
Q

For constables who are eligible for reclassification from ____ to _____ class, and _____ to _____ class, a performance appraisal shall
be completed by the assigned supervisory officer _____ months in advance of the reclassification date.

No annual appraisal is
required for constables being reclassified.

****An annual appraisal is different than a Performance appraisal

A

3rd to 2nd class, and 2nd to 1st class, a performance appraisal shall
be completed by the assigned supervisory officer 2 months

935
Q

In instances where a constable is absent from work due to an injury on duty, the period of absence will be counted as active
service and the original eligibility date shall be used for reclassification purposes, provided that
 the minimum ______ months required period of service between classifications has been met
 the constable has returned to a policing function for at least _____ days
 the constable has been evaluated by supervisors and the evaluations indicate that the constable possesses the
knowledge, skills and abilities required for reclassification

A

12

90

936
Q

A constable whose reclassification is withheld may exercise their rights under Item 2 of the Memorandum of Understanding
of the Uniform Collective Agreement. When a constable chooses to appeal or dispute a recommendation under this section,
the constable shall notify their Unit Commander and the Toronto Police Association within ______ hours of the time the constable
was informed that the reclassification was being withheld.

A

72

937
Q

Civilian Members
Civilian positions have a qualifying period from 6 months to 1 year, depending on the job classification.
Probationary civilians covered by Units “A”, “B” and “C” Collective Agreements shall be appraised on a TPS 535 at the
conclusion of their 2nd and 4th months of employment. Civilian members covered by Units “D” and “E” Collective Agreements
shall be appraised on a TPS 535 after completing 348 hours (equivalent of 2 months) and 696 hours (equivalent of 4
months). Civilians shall be appraised on a TPS 535 as follows

A

6 month qualifying period – at the conclusion of the 2nd and 4th month in the new position
 1 year qualifying period – at the conclusion of the 2nd, 4th and 10th month in the new position
The evaluation process for annual evaluations, probationary evaluations and reclassifications shall be in accordance with
Appendix B. Accommodation and accessibility needs must be taken into account when conducting a performance appraisal.
Civilian members may respond to their annual evaluation by completing a TPS 649 within 10 days of being counselled or
complete the appropriate section on the appraisal form.

938
Q

Civilian Members
Civilian positions have a qualifying period from ____ months to _____ year, depending on the job classification.
Probationary civilians covered by Units “A”, “B” and “C” Collective Agreements shall be appraised on a TPS 535 at the
conclusion of their _____ and _____ months of employment. Civilian members covered by Units “D” and “E” Collective Agreements
shall be appraised on a TPS 535 after completing _____ hours (equivalent of 2 months) and ______ hours (equivalent of 4
months). Civilians shall be appraised on a TPS 535 as follows
 6 month qualifying period – at the conclusion of the 2nd and 4th month in the new position
 1 year qualifying period – at the conclusion of the 2nd, 4th and 10th month in the new position
The evaluation process for annual evaluations, probationary evaluations and reclassifications shall be in accordance with
Appendix B. Accommodation and accessibility needs must be taken into account when conducting a performance appraisal.
Civilian members may respond to their annual evaluation by completing a TPS 649 within 10 days of being counselled or
complete the appropriate section on the appraisal form.

A

6 months 1 year

2nd and 4th months of employment.

348 hours (equivalent of 2 months) and 696 hours (equivalent of

939
Q

5-01 Use of Force

Rationale
The Toronto Police Service (Service) places the highest value on the protection of life and the safety of its members and
the public, with a greater regard for _____ _____ than the protection of ______. Members of the Service have a responsibility
to only use that force which is reasonably necessary to bring an incident under control effectively and safely

A

human life than the protection of property.

940
Q

Approved Use of Force Options

Ontario Regulation 3/99 provides that, at minimum, police officers are issued

A

issued a handgun

 issued oleoresin capsicum (OC) aerosol spray

 issued a baton, and

 trained in officer safety, communication and physical control techniques

941
Q

Members shall not use a weapon other than a firearm unless

A

that type of weapon has been approved for use by the Solicitor General

 the weapon conforms to technical standards established by the Solicitor General

 the weapon is used in accordance with standards established by the Solicitor General

 the weapon, in the course of a training exercise, is used on another member in compliance with Service Governance
Intermediate Force Options

942
Q

Intermediate Force Options
Members may use an intermediate weapon such as their issued baton, OC spray or conducted energy weapon (CEW) as
a force option

A

to prevent themselves from being overpowered when violently attacked
 to prevent a prisoner being taken from police custody
 to disarm an apparently dangerous person armed with an offensive weapon
 to control a potentially violent situation when other force options are not viable
 for any other lawful and justifiable purpose

943
Q

Weapons of Opportunity
Despite the foregoing, nothing in O.Reg. 926/90 or this Procedure prohibits a member from the reasonable use of weapons
of opportunity when none of the approved options are available or appropriate to

A

defend themselves or members of the

public.

944
Q

Authorized Restraining Devices
Handcuffs, leg irons, spit shields and other restraints authorized by the Chief of Police (e.g. plastic flexi–cuffs) may be used

A

to control the violent activities of a person in custody
 when prisoners are being transferred from one place to another
 to prevent a prisoner from escaping

945
Q

Fleeing Suspect
A peace officer, and every person lawfully assisting the peace officer, is justified in using force that is intended or is likely
to ________ ______ or ______ _____ _____ to a person to be arrested, if
a) the peace officer is proceeding lawfully to arrest, with or without warrant, the person to be arrested;
b) the offence for which the person is to be arrested is one for which that person may be arrested without warrant;
c) the person to be arrested takes flight to avoid arrest;
d) the peace officer or other person using the force believes on reasonable grounds that the force is necessary for
the purpose of protecting the peace officer, the person lawfully assisting the peace officer or any other person
from imminent or future death or grievous bodily harm; and
e) the flight cannot be prevented by reasonable means in a less violent manner.
[Authority: CC, ss. 25(4)]

A

cause death or grievous bodily

946
Q

Motor Vehicles
Discharging a firearm at a motor vehicle is an ______ method of disabling the vehicle. Discharging a firearm at a motor
vehicle may present a hazard to both the officer and to the public. Police officers are prohibited from discharging a firearm
at a motor vehicle for the sole purpose of ________ the vehicle.
Police officers shall not discharge a firearm at the operator or occupants of a motor vehicle unless there exists an _______
_______ of _____ or ______ _____ _____ to officers and/or members of the public by a means other than the vehicle.
Police officers shall be cognizant that disabling the operator of the motor vehicle thereby disabling the control over the
motor vehicle may also present a hazard to both the officer and the public.
Except while in a motor vehicle, officers shall not place themselves in the path of an occupied motor vehicle with the intention
of preventing its escape. Additionally, officers should not attempt to disable an occupied vehicle by reaching into it.
Pursuant to Procedure 13–03 and 13–05, any apparent breach of this Procedure will be carefully considered on its merits
having regard to all the circumstances before discipline is commenced.

A

ineffective

Disabling

immediate
threat of death or grievous bodily

947
Q

Excessive Force
Everyone who is authorized by law to use force is criminally responsible for any excess thereof according to the nature and
quality of the act that constitutes the excess. (Authority: CC, s. 26)
Reporting Use of Force
Ontario Regulation 926/90 compels members to submit a Use of Force Report to the Chief of Police when a member

A

uses physical force on another person that results in an injury that requires medical attention
 draws a handgun in the presence of a member of the public, excluding a member of the police force while on duty
 discharges a firearm
 points a firearm regardless if the firearm is a handgun or a long gun
 uses a weapon other than a firearm on another person

For the purpose of reporting a use of force incident, the definition of a weapon includes a police dog or police horse that
comes into direct physical contact with a person.

Additionally, officers are required to submit a Use of Force Report and a TPS 584 to the Chief of Police when the officer
uses a CEW
 as a “demonstrated force presence”
 in drive stun mode or full deployment, whether intentionally or otherwise.

948
Q

Use of force reports are collected and used to identify ______ and ______ ______ requirements, or Service use of force
governance requirements.

A

individual and group training

949
Q

When was the anti-racist act implemented

A

2017

Ontario Regulation 267/18, made under the Anti-Racism Act, 2017, requires the Ministry of the Solicitor General to collect
police service member’s perception regarding the race of individuals about whom a Use of Force Report is completed. As
outlined in Procedure 16–07, the Toronto Police Services Board Policy entitled “Race-Based Data Collection, Analysis and
Public Reporting” requires the Toronto Police Service (Service) to collect, analyze and publicly report on data related to the
race of those individuals with whom Service members interact. When officers are required to complete a Use of Force
Report, in accordance with this Procedure, they shall record their perceived race of the individual(s) about whom the report
is completed in the designated section of the report.
Team Reports

950
Q

Toronto Police Services Board Policy entitled “Race-Based Data Collection, Analysis and
Public Reporting” requires the Toronto Police Service (Service) to collect, analyze and publicly report on data related to the
race of those individuals with whom Service members interact. When officers are required to complete a Use of Force
Report, in accordance with this Procedure, they shall record their ______ race of the individual(s) about whom the report
is completed in the designated section of the report.

A

perceived race of the individual(s) about

951
Q

Team Reports
Specialized Emergency Response – Emergency Task Force (ETF) and Emergency Management & Public Order – Public
Safety (Public Safety), when operating/responding as a team, shall submit a Team Report UFR Form 1 in situations where
force, meeting the reporting requirements, is merely _______. An incident in which force was actually used, including the
Demonstrated Force Presence of a CEW, requires a _______ Use of Force Report from each individual officer involved.
Exemptions to the Reporting Criteria

A

displayed.

separate Use of Force Report from each individual officer involved.

952
Q

Exemptions to the Reporting Criteria
A Use of Force Report is not required when

A

a firearm, other than an issued handgun, is merely carried or displayed by an officer
 a handgun is drawn or a firearm pointed at a person or is discharged in the course of a training exercise, target
practice or ordinary firearm maintenance in accordance with Service Governance
 a weapon other than a firearm is used on another member of the Service in the course of a training exercise
 physical force is used on another member of the Service in the course of a training exercise

953
Q

The information from the Use of Force Report shall not be contained in an

A

officer’s personnel file.

954
Q

The Use of Force Report shall not be introduced, quoted from, or in any way referred to, during considerations of ________
or ______ ____ without the consent of the reporting officer.

A

promotion
or job assignment

without the consent of the reporting officer.

955
Q

Where a court order, subpoena, or prosecutor’s request for disclosure of the Use of Force Report is received, such request
shall be directed to ________~______. Where the request is made under the Municipal Freedom of Information & Protection
of Privacy Act and not by a court order, subpoena, or prosecutor’s request for disclosure, such request shall be directed to
the Coordinator – Records Management Services – Access and Privacy Section.

A

Legal Services

956
Q

When a Service firearm has been discharged, the ______~______~_____shall be notified forthwith.
The _____~_____~_____ (- - -) shall be responsible for all administrative investigations pertaining to firearm
discharges. The discharging officer’s supervisory officer is required to complete a Firearm Discharge Report. A supervisory
officer from the involved officer’s unit may be assigned to support and assist the _____ in the investigation.

A

Senior Duty Officer

Firearm Discharge Investigator (FDI)

FDI

957
Q

A FDI is not required when investigating the discharge of an impact projectile launcher or a tear gas launching device,
where the projectile expelled by the firearm is designed or intended as a _____~______ mechanism.

A

less–lethal mechanism.

958
Q

Batons are the only impact weapon permitted for use when dealing directly with the public.
When authorized to use OC aerosol spray shall

A

only use it when other options reasonably present a risk of injury to a subject or themselves
 make all reasonable efforts to decontaminate sprayed individuals at the earliest safe or practicable opportunity,
including the consideration of aerosol water mist decontamination devices

959
Q

Police officers issued with and/or authorized to carry firearms or ammunition shall not draw a handgun, point a firearm at a person, or discharge a firearm unless
- there are reasonable grounds to believe that to do so is necessary to

A

protect against loss of life or
serious bodily harm (Authority: O. Reg. 926/90, s. 9)
-

engaged in a training exercise, target practice or ordinary weapon maintenance (Authority: O. Reg.
926/90, ss. 9.1)
-

the discharge of a handgun or other firearm is to call for assistance in a critical situation, if there is no
reasonable alternative [Authority: O. Reg. 926/90, ss. 10(a)]
-

the discharge of a handgun or other firearm is to destroy an animal that is potentially dangerous or is so
badly injured that humanity dictates that its suffering be ended [Authority: O. Reg. 926/90, ss. 10(b)]

 not discharge a firearm

  • at a motor vehicle for the sole purpose of disabling the vehicle

at the operator or occupants of a motor vehicle unless there exists an immediate threat of death or
grievous bodily harm to the officers and/or members of the public by a means other than the vehicle

Or as a warning shot

960
Q

In critical situations shall, when tactically appropriate

A

avoid confrontation by disengaging to a place of safety
 take all reasonable measures to contain the scene
 notify the communications operator and request the attendance of
- a supervisory officer
- Toronto Paramedic Services (Paramedics), if required

961
Q

Members shall not make, retain or release a copy of the Use of Force Report for any purpose except as required in this
Procedure.
 attach the TPS 105 and TPS 584 , as applicable, to the Use of Force Report and submit to their supervisor prior to
the completion of the tour of duty
 when approved by a supervisor, submit the completed Use of Force Report electronically via internal e-mail to the
______~______at ______
 where critical incident stress may have occurred, comply with 08–04

A

Training Analyst at the TPC

962
Q

Supervisory Officer

When notified of a firearm discharge incident shall

A

attend the scene immediately

 ensure the scene and all evidence are protected and collected in compliance with Procedure 04–21

 exercise all due caution to ensure the evidence is not contaminated, overlooked or destroyed

 advise the Officer in Charge at the first available opportunity and provide regular updates

 ensure the Officer in Charge of the division in which the firearm discharge occurred has been notified, if the
discharge did not occur in the members home unit

 support and assist the FDI and investigate as required

 submit a TPS 586 to the Officer in Charge prior to the completion of the tour of duty

963
Q

Supervisor
Upon receipt of a Use of Force Report shall

 where critical incident stress may have occurred, comply with 08–04

 ensure the report is accurate and completed in accordance with this Procedure

 direct the submitting officer to email the electronic version of the report to the ______~______as required

 ensure the TPS 105, TPS 584 and TPS 586, as applicable, are attached to the Use of Force Report

 submit the completed Use of Force Report and TPS forms to the ______ in _______ prior to the completion of the
tour of duty

 where a member is incapable of completing the Use of Force Report, as the immediate supervisor, complete the
member’s portion

 if recommending additional training, complete the applicable section of the Use of Force Report

 comply with Procedure 15–03, if applicable

A

Training Analyst,

Officer in Charge

receipt of a Use of Force Report shall
 where critical incident stress may have occurred, comply with 08–04
 ensure the report is accurate and completed in accordance with this Procedure
 direct the submitting officer to email the electronic version of the report to the Training Analyst, as required
 ensure the TPS 105, TPS 584 and TPS 586, as applicable, are attached to the Use of Force Report
 submit the completed Use of Force Report and TPS forms to the Officer in Charge prior to the completion of the
tour of duty
 where a member is incapable of completing the Use of Force Report, as the immediate supervisor, complete the
member’s portion
 if recommending additional training, complete the applicable section of the Use of Force Report
 comply with Procedure 15–03, if applicable

964
Q

Supervisor

Upon receipt of a Use of Force Report shall

A

where critical incident stress may have occurred, comply with 08–04
 ensure the report is accurate and completed in accordance with this Procedure
 direct the submitting officer to email the electronic version of the report to the Training Analyst, as required
 ensure the TPS 105, TPS 584 and TPS 586, as applicable, are attached to the Use of Force Report
 submit the completed Use of Force Report and TPS forms to the Officer in Charge prior to the completion of the
tour of duty
 where a member is incapable of completing the Use of Force Report, as the immediate supervisor, complete the
member’s portion
 if recommending additional training, complete the applicable section of the Use of Force Report
 comply with Procedure 15–03, if applicable

965
Q

Officer in Charge

Upon being notified of a firearm discharge shall

A

ensure a supervisory officer is assigned to support and assist the FDI during the course of the firearm discharge
investigation in accordance with the ‘Additional Investigative Requirements – Firearm Discharge’ section of this
Procedure

 where the firearm discharge results in injury or death to a person, notify the Unit Commander and comply with
Procedures 04–02 and 13–16, as applicable

 notify the Officer in Charge – Toronto Police Operations Centre forthwith

 ensure a description of the event is detailed in the Unit Commander’s Morning Report (UCMR)
Upon receipt of a Use of Force Report shall

966
Q

The applicable forms (use of force) shall be forwarded to the Training Analyst

A

Within 72 hours

967
Q

Use of force

When additional training is recommended for a member shall ensure

A

a TPS 649 is forwarded to the Unit Commander – TPC, and a copy is forwarded to the respective Staff
Superintendent/Director
 the member attends training as directed
 all information pertaining to additional training is included in the member’s personnel file, except the Use of Force
Report

968
Q

Firearm Discharge Investigator – Professional Standards

When advised that a firearm discharge incident has occurred shall

A

take charge of the investigation
 direct all required resources to ensure compliance with the additional investigative requirements
 conduct a thorough investigation and submit the appropriate report
Unit Commander – Toronto Police College

969
Q

Firearm Discharge Investigator (FDI) means a detective or detective sergeant assigned to

A

Professional Standards who

has completed the accredited Firearm Discharge Investigators Course.

970
Q

Unit Commander – Toronto Police College

In addition to unit specific guidelines, shall designate a member as the Training Analyst to

A

 schedule and co–ordinate additional use of force training

 review all Use of Force Report, TPS 105, TPS 584 and TPS 586 reports, as applicable, to identify individual and
group training requirements

 submit all mandatory information from completed Use of Force Reports electronically to the Ministry of the Solicitor
General, as required

 if individual training requirements are identified, conduct a further review of the use of force incident and direct
appropriate remedial training through the applicable Unit Commander

971
Q

Who is responsible for submitting all mandatory information from completed Use of Force Reports electronically to the Ministry of the Solicitor
General, as required

A

Training Analyst as

Disaster by Unit Commander – Toronto Police College

All points he/ she does

schedule and co–ordinate additional use of force training

 review all Use of Force Report, TPS 105, TPS 584 and TPS 586 reports, as applicable, to identify individual and
group training requirements

 submit all mandatory information from completed Use of Force Reports electronically to the Ministry of the Solicitor
General, as required

 if individual training requirements are identified, conduct a further review of the use of force incident and direct
appropriate remedial training through the applicable Unit Commander

if group training requirements are identified, conduct a further review of required training and make changes as
appropriate

 conduct ongoing review and evaluation of all use of force procedures, training and reporting

 ensure that written records of Use of Force training taken by Service members are to be maintained by the TPC

 submit an annual CEW report

972
Q

The less lethal shotgun is an

A

intermediate extended range impact weapon which may provide the opportunity for police
officers to resolve potentially violent situations at a greater distance with less potential for causing serious bodily harm or
death than other use of force options.
Impact munitions operate on the premise of pain compliance or incapacitation, so that the control of the subject can be
established.

973
Q

What is this;

Intermediate extended range impact weapon which may provide the opportunity for police
officers to resolve potentially violent situations at a greater distance with less potential for causing serious bodily harm or
death than other use of force options.
Impact munitions operate on the premise of pain compliance or incapacitation, so that the control of the subject can be
established.

A

Less Legal shotgun

974
Q

Notify ________ Senior Officer notification mandatory when less lethal shotgun is discharged

A

Duty

Officer in Charge - TPOC
When notified of an incident where the SIU mandate is or may be invoked shall
 notify the Duty Senior Officer

(I think this is for he’s notified)

Because the discharge of a sock shot gun means siu notified

975
Q

Supervision when lethal shotgun is discharged

A

 Supervisory Officer attendance mandatory when less lethal shotgun is discharged

 Supervisory Officer notification mandatory when less lethal shotgun is discharged

 Officer in Charge notification mandatory when equipment is missing, damaged or malfunctioning

 Officer in Charge of Division of occurrence notification mandatory when less lethal shotgun is discharged

 Duty Senior Officer notification mandatory when less lethal shotgun is discharged

 Toronto Police Operations Centre notification mandatory when less lethal shotgun is discharged
Procedure

976
Q

In the case of an accidental or negligent discharge, the officer will be deemed not qualified to use the Less Lethal Shotgun
until

A

remedial training is successfully completed and the officer is subsequently re-qualified by a member of the Armament
Section.

977
Q

Use of a Less Lethal Shotgun

Police officers may use a less lethal shotgun as a force option

A

 to prevent from being overpowered when violently attacked

 to prevent a prisoner from being taken from police custody

 to disarm an apparently dangerous person armed with an offensive weapon

 to control a potentially violent situation when other use of force options are not viable

 for any other lawful and justifiable purpose.

978
Q

The less lethal shotgun is a weapon designed to aid officers in gaining control of a subject who is assaultive. In certain
situations, the less lethal shotgun may be a viable option against subjects who pose a threat of imminent serious bodily
harm or death, including _______ threats or attempts.

A

Suicide

979
Q

The less lethal shotgun should not be used on

A

children, pregnant women or the elderly, except in situations where other
use of force options would have the potential to cause greater injury.

980
Q

Safeguards
It is critical that Less Lethal Shotguns are not confused with conventional shotguns. The Toronto Police Service (Service)
has established the following safeguards to prevent unintended injuries or death that may result from such confusion:

A
  1. Less lethal shotguns are clearly identifiable by their orange stocks and fore-ends, as well as the writing “Less
    Lethal” on the stock.
  2. Less lethal shotguns and associated ammunition shall be stored in a designated storage container at the unit.
  3. No conventional shotguns or any other types of shotgun ammunition, including “00” buckshot or rifled slug
    rounds shall be stored in the less lethal shotgun storage container.
  4. Less lethal shotguns will only be transported in a designated orange bag.
  5. Ammunition for conventional shotguns shall not be carried in the designated orange bags.
  6. Conventional shotguns shall not be transported in the orange bags designated for less lethal shotguns.
  7. Officers assigned with a less lethal shotgun shall not be simultaneously assigned a conventional shotgun.
    Two-officer cars shall not be assigned both a lethal and less-lethal shotgun.
981
Q

Police Officer

When assigned to use a less lethal shotgun shall

A

 be qualified by the Armament Section to use less lethal shotguns

 take custody of the less lethal shotgun and designated orange bag

 prove the less lethal shotgun safe and perform a function check in accordance with training

 comply with Procedures 15-03 and 15–15

 administratively load the less lethal shotgun with 4 CTS-2581 “super-sock” rounds in the tubular magazine and 6
CTS-2581 “super-sock” rounds in the side saddle

 ensure the designated orange bag contains only 10 CTS-2581 “super-sock” ammunition

 not be simultaneously assigned a conventional shotgun

 not carry or load any other type of shotgun ammunition in the less lethal shotgun

 not chamber any rounds when transporting the weapon

 if a round is chambered during the course of an event, unload and reload the weapon in a safe area in accordance
with training, and secure accordingly

 transport the less lethal shotgun to and from the vehicle in accordance with training

 report deficiencies to the Officer in Charge, immediately upon discovering any unsatisfactory equipment

 return the less lethal shotgun to the unit at the completion of the tour of duty, and store in the designated storage
container

When assigned to a marked police vehicle not equipped with an electric mount shall
 store the less lethal shotgun in the designated orange bag or approved trunk mount

 store the designated orange bag in the locked trunk

When assigned to a police vehicle with an electric mount shall
 activate the “master electric switch”

 ensure the indicator light is displayed

 press the designated button on the dashboard

 test the manual key override feature

 when the test sequence has been completed, secure the less lethal shotgun within the mount
secure the designated orange bag in the vehicle trunk

 turn off the “master electric switch” and ignition to ensure the security of the less lethal shotgun, whenever the
vehicle is left unattended

982
Q

Police Officer
When assigned to use a less lethal shotgun shall

administratively load the less lethal shotgun with _____ CTS-2581 “super-sock” rounds in the tubular magazine and ____
CTS-2581 “super-sock” rounds in the side saddle

ensure the designated orange bag contains only _____ CTS-2581 “super-sock” ammunition

A

4

6

10

983
Q

Police officer

When assigned both a less lethal shotgun and a C-8 rifle shall

A

 be assigned to a police vehicle equipped with an electric mount
 mount the C-8 rifle in the car mount
 store the less lethal shotgun in the trunk of the marked police vehicle

984
Q

When assigned to a marked police vehicle not equipped with an electric mount shall

A

 store the less lethal shotgun in the designated orange bag or approved trunk mount
 store the designated orange bag in the locked trunk

985
Q

Police officer

Less Lethal Shotgun Stora

When assigned to a police vehicle with an electric mount shall

A

 activate the “master electric switch”

 ensure the indicator light is displayed

 press the designated button on the dashboard

 test the manual key override feature

 when the test sequence has been completed, secure the less lethal shotgun with In the mount

secure the designated orange bag in the vehicle trunk

 turn off the “master electric switch” and ignition to ensure the security of the less lethal shotgun, whenever the
vehicle is left unattended

986
Q

when practicable, advise the communications operator via radio “_____ _____ on ____”
 when practicable, prior to discharging a less lethal shotgun announce “______ ______

A

Sock Round on Scene”

Sock Round

987
Q

When no contact of a discharged “sock” round is made with a person, the SIU is still required to investigate any discharge
of a firearm at a person by an official, regardless of whether serious injury or death occurred;
 collect the discharged “sock” round(s) and casing(s) when no longer required for any immediate investigations, or
by the Special Investigations Unit (SIU)
 document the particulars on a TPS 649 and submit to the;

A

Toronto Police College – Armament Section for proper
disposal and issuance of replacement rounds

You only hold for 90 days when you make contact

When contact is made of a discharged “sock” round with a person, the SIU is still required to investigate any discharge of
a firearm at a person by an official, regardless of whether serious injury or death occurred;
 collect and preserve the discharged “sock” round(s) and casing(s) for a minimum of 90 days in order to maintain
integrity of any future investigations, and when no longer required for immediate investigations, or by the Special
Investigations Unit (SIU)
 document the particulars on a TPS 649 and provide the document to the Toronto Police College – Armament
Section for issuance of replacement rounds
 comply with procedure 09-03 and complete a TPS 403 and TPS 405 when collecting and preserving “sock” round(s)
and casing(s)

988
Q

When contact is made of a discharged “sock” round with a person, the SIU is still required to investigate any discharge of
a firearm at a person by an official, regardless of whether serious injury or death occurred;

A
 collect and preserve the discharged “sock” round(s) and casing(s) for a minimum of 90 days in order to maintain 
integrity of any future investigations, and when no longer required for immediate investigations, or by the Special 
Investigations Unit (SIU)

 document the particulars on a TPS 649 and provide the document to the Toronto Police College – Armament
Section for issuance of replacement rounds

 comply with procedure 09-03 and complete a TPS 403 and TPS 405 when collecting and preserving “sock” round(s) 
and casing(s)
989
Q

Supervisor

When notified of a less lethal shotgun discharge incident shall

A

 attend the scene immediately

 ensure immediate medical attention is provided, if required

 comply and ensure compliance with the applicable sections of Procedure 15–01

 notify the

 Officer in Charge

 Officer in Charge – Toronto Police Operations Centre

 comply with Procedure 13–16

 ensure compliance with item 7

990
Q

Charter protections

A

Section 1 of the Ontario Human Rights Code states “Every person has a right to equal treatment with respect to services,
goods and facilities,

Section 2 of the Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms (Charter) gives everyone the fundamental “freedom of
conscience and religion”.

Section 8 of the Charter states that “everyone has the right to be secure against unreasonable search or seizure”.

the S. 9 protection against
arbitrary detention and the

S. 15 right to equal treatment under the law;

991
Q

Supervisor

When notified of a less lethal shotgun discharge incident shall

A

 attend the scene immediately

 ensure immediate medical attention is provided, if required

 comply and ensure compliance with the applicable sections of Procedure 15–01

 notify the Officer in Charge

 Officer in Charge – Toronto Police Operations Centre

 comply with Procedure 13–16

 ensure compliance with item 7

992
Q

the Officer in Charge –re what Weapon does this apply;

 each key ring for a police vehicle equipped with an electric mount includes a manual override mount key

A

a less lethal shotgun equipped vehicle

 where feasible, assign 2 qualified officers to a less lethal shotgun equipped vehicle

993
Q

Officer in Charge

When assigning an officer equipped with a less lethal shotgun to patrol duties shall ensure

A

the officer is qualified in the use of a less lethal shotgun

 the officer is not simultaneously assigned a conventional shotgun

 where feasible, assign 2 qualified officers to a less lethal shotgun equipped vehicle

 the Officer in Charge – Communications Services is notified of the vehicle call sign

 each key ring for a police vehicle equipped with an electric mount includes a manual override mount key

 2 sets of vehicle keys are available for each vehicle, with both sets going to the officer of a solo vehicle, and each
officer receiving a set where the vehicle has 2 officers

 compliance with Procedure 13–16

 compliance with Procedures 15-03 and 15–15

When assigning an officer both a less lethal shotgun and a C-8 rifle shall only do so when the officer is assigned to a marked
police vehicle equipped with an electric mount.

When notified of a less lethal shotgun discharge incident shall
 ensure compliance with items 7 and 10
 comply and ensure compliance with the applicable sections of Procedure 15–01
When a less lethal shotgun is inspected or cleaned shall ensure the appropriate entry is made on the TPS 553.

994
Q

When assigning an officer both a less lethal shotgun and a C-8 rifle shall only do so when the officer is assigned to a ________
vehicle equipped with an ____ ______.

A

Marked

Electric mount

995
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring
 conventional shotguns; and other types of shotgun ammunition, including “00” buckshot or rifled slug rounds are
not stored in the designated less lethal shotgun storage container
When notified of a less lethal shotgun discharge shall

A

Unit Commander

Unit Commander

When in charge of a unit which is equipped with less lethal shotguns shall ensure

 whenever possible, less lethal shotgun equipped patrol vehicles are deployed during each relief

 less lethal shotguns and associated ammunition are stored in a designated storage container at the unit

 conventional shotguns; and other types of shotgun ammunition, including “00” buckshot or rifled slug rounds are
not stored in the designated less lethal shotgun storage container

When notified of a less lethal shotgun discharge shall

 comply and ensure compliance with the applicable sections of Procedure 15–01

 ensure compliance with items 7, 10 and 13

When additional training is recommended for an officer, such as in the case of a negligent or accidental discharge of a
less lethal shotgun, shall comply with the applicable sections of Procedure 15–01.

996
Q

Accidental Discharge means an unintentional discharge of a service firearm or less lethal shotgun by a police officer that
is

A

not the result of undue care and attention to the prescribed safe handling procedures.

997
Q

Administrative Load means the manner in which a

A

gun is loaded, in accordance with training, to ensure safety.

998
Q

Chief’s Special Investigations Unit (SIU) On-Call Designated Authority means a member of

A

the cadre of on-call Toronto
Police Service uniform senior officers that acts as the designated authority and manages the SIU event in the field on behalf
of the Chief.

999
Q

Less Lethal Shotgun means a

A

designated shotgun which uses less lethal impact munitions and is designed to be braced
against the shoulder when fired.

1000
Q

Negligent Discharge means an

A

intentional or unintentional discharge of a service firearm or less lethal shotgun by a police
officer that is the result of undue care and attention to the prescribed safe handling procedures.

1001
Q

Conducted Energy Weapon
In ________(month) ________(year), the Ministry of the Solicitor General (the Ministry) approved the use of Conducted Energy Weapons
(CEWs) for tactical units, hostage rescue teams, preliminary perimeter control containment teams and qualified front–line
supervisors. Furthermore, In ________(month) ________(year), the Ministry announced that it would change the guidelines surrounding the use
of CEWs, and in November of that year the Ministry issued the revised guidelines titled “Revised Use of Force Guideline
and Training Standards to Support Expanded Conducted Energy Weapon Use”. Parts of these changes include allowing
police services to determine which officers are permitted to carry CEWs. The CEW is designed as a less–lethal weapon
and is a legitimate force option within the Ontario Use of Force Model.
The hand held CEW when applied directly, is specifically designed to gain control of a subject who is assaultive as defined
by the Criminal Code (CC). This includes threatening behaviour if the officer believes the subject intends and has the ability
to carry out the threat, or where the subject presents an imminent threat of serious bodily harm or death, which includes
suicide threats or attempts.
When CEW contact is made with a subject in Full Deployment, it delivers a metered and pulsed electrical current, which is
designed to result in involuntary muscle spasms and loss of motor control. This may cause a subject to become
incapacitated, permitting officers the opportunity to gain control of the subject.
Supervision
 Supervisory Officer attendance mandatory when a CEW has been used in Drive Stun Mode or Full Development
 Supervisory Officer notification mandatory when a CEW has been used in Demonstrated Force Presence, Drive
Stun Mode or in Full Deployment
 Communications Operator notification mandatory when a CEW has been used in Demonstrated Force Presence,
Drive Stun Mode, or in Full Deployment

A

Feb 2004

Aug 2013

1002
Q

When CEW contact is made with a subject in Full Deployment, it delivers a ________ and ________ ______ ______, which is
designed to result in involuntary muscle spasms and loss of motor control. This may cause a subject to become
incapacitated, permitting officers the opportunity to gain control of the subject.

A

a metered and pulsed electrical current,

1003
Q

CEWs provide officers with an additional tool to assist them in utilizing the appropriate level of force required when
necessary. The purpose of issuing CEWs is not to increase the use of force by officers, but rather to provide officers with
an additional option within the use of force continuum in an effort to reduce ________ and _____~_____ whenever possible.
Officers who are authorized by law to use force are criminally responsible for any excess thereof according to the nature
and quality of the act that constitutes the excess.

A

fatalities and serious injuries whenever possible.

1004
Q

The cew when applied directly, is used strictly to gain control of a subject who is at risk of _______ ______, not
to secure compliance of a subject who is merely resistant. This Procedure limits the deployment of the device to the more
serious of circumstances and in some instances prohibits its use.

A

risk of causing harm,

Full Deployment or Drive Stun Mode use should be considered an appropriate force option in relation to the Use of Force
Model, beginning at subject behavior considered

“assaultive”.

The use of the CEW on sensitive areas of the body should
be avoided. It should not be used on children, pregnant women or the elderly except under exceptional circumstances
wherein the use of other force options would reasonably be expected to cause greater potential injury.

Any time a CEW is activated, the date, time and duration of the firing is recorded in a microchip. This data will be downloaded
for analysis and audit purposes. The CEW has a built–in weapon management system to prevent misuse/abuse and protect
officers from unfounded allegations through documentation of usage.
Use of CEW

1005
Q

Full Deployment or Drive Stun Mode use should be considered an appropriate force option in relation to the Use of Force
Model, beginning at subject behavior considered “______”.

A

Assaultive

1006
Q

The use of the CEW on sensitive areas of the body should

be avoided. It should not be used on

A

children, pregnant women or the elderly except under exceptional circumstances
wherein the use of other force options would reasonably be expected to cause greater potential injury.

1007
Q

Any time a CEW is activated, the

A

date, time and duration of the firing is recorded in a microchip. This data will be downloaded
for analysis and audit purposes. The CEW has a built–in weapon management system to prevent misuse/abuse and protect
officers from unfounded allegations through documentation of usage.
Use of CEW

1008
Q

Use of CEW

Police officers may use a CEW as a force option

A

 to prevent themselves from being overpowered when violently attacked

 to prevent a prisoner being taken from police custody

 to disarm an apparently dangerous person armed with an offensive weapon

 to control a potentially violent situation when other use of force options are not viable

 for any other lawful and justifiable purpose

1009
Q

Prohibitions on Use of CEW
Police officers shall NOT use a CEW in Drive Stun Mode or Full Deployment on a subject who is

A

operating a motor vehicle, bicycle or other conveyance, except as a last measure to protect life

 subdued and under control

 known to have been in contact with flammable liquids, or in a flammable atmosphere (e.g. natural gas leak, drug
lab), except as a last measure to protect life, or

 in a precarious position or location where a fall will likely cause serious injury or death, except as a last measure to
protect life

 in handcuffs
Pursuant to Procedure 13–03 and 13–05, any apparent breach of this Procedure will be carefully considered on its merits
having regard to all the circumstances before discipline is commenced.

1010
Q

CEW Use Reporting Responsibilities
Any time a CEW is used as Demonstrated Force Presence, Drive Stun Mode, Full Deployment or accidental or negligent
discharges, a Use of Force Report and a TPS _______ shall be completed and submitted prior to the completion of the tour of
duty, unless engaged in approved training.

A

a TPS 584

1011
Q

Professional Standards Unit shall be notified, and commence an immediate investigation of any incident involving the use
of the CEW on ________ persons.

A

handcuffed persons.

1012
Q

When a CEW is utilized as a shared asset, the following shall apply

A

a Supervisor shall obtain from the secure CEW storage cabinet the number of CEW’s that are required for issue to
qualified CEW operators

 the Supervisor shall personally issue the CEW to the officer and record the serial number of the issued CEW

 the serial numbers of the CEW’s shall be entered on the unit parade sheets

 the officer receiving the CEW shall record the serial number in his/her memorandum book

 the officer utilizes the Asset Inventory and Management System (AIMS) to record the issuance of the CEW

 upon returning the CEW to a supervisory officer, the officer ensures that the CEW is unloaded and utilizes AIMS to
record the return of the CEW

1013
Q

When issued with a CEW shall

A

carry it in the approved holster on the support side, in a cross–draw fashion

 conduct a spark test at the beginning of each tour of duty while pointing the CEW into a firearm proving unit and
record the spark test in the memorandum book

 comply with other standards as detailed in Procedure 15–16

 submit a TPS 594 to the Unit Commander through the Officer in Charge

 when personally issued a CEW and when there is a subsequent change in the choice of storage election, notify the
Unit Commander of that change

When personally issued with a CEW shall store the CEW with the safety switch on ‘safe’, with the cartridges removed, in
the assigned firearm storage locker along with all of the cartridges.

1014
Q

When personally issued a CEW and electing to regularly store their CEW at their principal residence while off duty, rather
than at their assigned unit shall

A

be subject to the provisions of the Storage, Display, Transportation and Handling of Firearms by Individuals
Regulations (SOR/98-209) made under the Firearms Act (SDTH Regulations)

 transport the CEW directly to their principal residence

 immediately upon arrival at their principal residence ensure the CEW is stored with the safety switch on ‘safe’, and
the cartridges removed

CEW and issued cartridges will be stored in a securely locked container, receptacle or room that is
secure.

If this method is used, the CEW must be rendered inoperable using a secure locking device

CEW and issued cartridges will be stored in a securely locked vault, safe or room that has been
specifically constructed or modified for a restricted or prohibited firearm. If this method is used, the CEW
does not need to be rendered inoperable

The Service will not provide a CEW storage container for officers who elect to store a CEW at other than a Service facility.

1015
Q

Whenever a CEW is cycled, excluding spark testing, shall

A

ensure, if possible, that one or more additional officers are present during the CEW activation cycle
 record the particulars in the memorandum book

1016
Q

When the CEW is used as a Demonstrated Force Presence shall

A

notify a next level supervisor at the first available opportunity

 notify the communications dispatcher that there was a CEW “Display Only”, and confirm that Toronto Paramedic
Services (Paramedics) is not required

 complete and submit a Use of Force Report and a TPS 584 to the Officer in Charge prior to the completion of the
tour of duty

1017
Q

When the CEW is used in Drive Stun Mode or Full Deployment shall

A

announce to other officers on the scene that a CEW is going to be activated

 verbally caution the subject before use, when practicable

 immediately secure the subject, if safe to do so

 advise the subject that they have been subjected to a CEW and that the effects are short term

 notify the communications dispatcher that a CEW was used in “Drive Stun Mode” or “Full Deployment”

 request the attendance of Paramedics and monitor the subject until their arrival

 unless circumstances make it impossible, restrain the subject in a sitting position to promote easier and more
efficient breathing, monitoring them closely

 allow only Paramedics personnel or medical staff to remove the probes, when the skin has been punctured

1018
Q

Service personnel are authorized to remove the probes that are only attached to ________.

A

clothing.

1019
Q

When a CEW Full Deployment has occurred, or in the event of an accidental or negligent discharge, shall

 separate the cartridge from the probes by ______ the attached wires and carefully place fired probes into a sharps
container found in the Bio–Hazard Kit which is standard issue in all scout cars

A

Breaking

1020
Q

Probes that have penetrated a body should be considered a bio–hazard and safety precautions should be used.

A

 comply with disposal instructions contained in Procedure 08–06

 package the expended cartridge in a plastic property bag

 document the particulars on a TPS 649 including the deployed cartridge serial number and submit along with the
expended cartridge package to the Officer in Charge to obtain a replacement cartridge

1021
Q

Communications Dispatcher
Upon being advised that a CEW was Displayed only, or that there was an accidental/negligent discharge, shall

A

confirm that it was a Display Only or accidental/negligent discharge
 notify a field supervisor
 record in the text of the call
 notify a Communications supervisor

1022
Q

Communications dispatcher

Upon being advised that a CEW was deployed resulting in injury (Full Deployment, Drive Stun Mode or accidental/negligent
discharge) shall

A

notify Paramedics to attend, updating as required
 notify a field supervisor to attend (nearest available if necessary)
 notify the Communications Supervisor
 record in the text of the call

1023
Q

Communications Supervisor

Upon being advised that a CEW was displayed only, or that there was an accidental/negligent discharge, shall

A

 record the event number and officer’s badge number in the Unit Commander Morning Report (UCMR)

Upon being advised that a CEW was deployed resulting in injury (Full Deployment, Drive Stun Mode or accidental/negligent
discharge) shall

 monitor the event

 notify

 Toronto Police Operations Centre (TPOC) of all events, when there is no indication TPOC is aware of the event
- Officer in Charge of the division where the CEW use occurred of all events

 record the following in the UCMR

  • event number
  • subject officer(s) badge number(s)
  • type of deployment (FD/DSM/Display Only)
  • if there were any injuries, if so to the officer or subject

 ensure that all Communications dispatchers adhere to their policy regarding CEW’s

1024
Q

Supervisory Officer
When notified of a CEW being used in Drive Stun Mode or Full Deployment shall

A

 attend the scene immediately

 ensure immediate medical attention, if required

 comply and ensure compliance with the applicable sections of Procedure 15–01 and 15–02, as applicable

 notify the Officer in charge - The Communications Operational Supervisor with the event number, type of deployment, subject officer’s badge number and description of subject and officer injuries (if applicable)

  • Officer in Charge – TPOC
  • If the CEW use occurs in other than the police officer’s home unit shall ensure the Officer in Charge of
    the division where the CEW use occurred is notified of the use

 ensure the Use of Force Report, the TPS 584 and, if applicable, the TPS 105 are properly completed and submitted
to the Officer in Charge

 complete the officer’s portion of the Use of Force Report when an officer is incapable of doing so

1025
Q

Officer in Charge
Upon being notified of CEW use shall

A

ensure a description of the event is detailed in the UCMR

 ensure compliance with Procedure 15–01 and 15–02, as applicable

 ensure all reports including the Use of Force Report, the TPS 584 and, if applicable, the TPS 105 are properly
completed

 if the discharge is accidental or negligent, submit a TPS 901 to the Unit Commander prior to the completion of the
tour of duty

Whenever a CEW is used in Drive Stun Mode or Full Deployment, including accidental and negligent discharges, shall as
soon as practicable but prior to the completion of the tour of duty

 ensure arrangements have been made for the transport of the CEW to the Toronto Police College for download

 attach a hard copy of the Use of Force Report, TPS 584 and, if applicable, the TPS 105

 submit all relevant reports to the Unit Commander
When in receipt of the expended cartridge package and accompanying TPS 649 shall ensure

 the expended cartridge package and the TPS 649 are delivered to the Unit Commander for replacement approval

 where replacement has been approved, the TPS 649 and the cartridge package are transported to Toronto Police
College – Armament Office

1026
Q

Unit Commander/Senior Officer

When in charge of a unit where CEWs are authorized for use shall

A

 review and approve as required any TPS 649 requesting
- replacement equipment when required
- additional training requests are facilitated by the Toronto Police College
- ensure a TPS 594 is completed for each officer who is issued a CEW and the TPS 594 is placed in the
officer’s personnel file

Upon receipt of a TPS 105, TPS 584, Use of Force Report and hard copy CEW download shall

 review for accuracy and appropriateness of CEW use

 forward to the Use of Force Analyst – Toronto Police College as soon as practicable but no later than 72 hours after
CEW use

 if additional training is identified, document the particulars on a TPS 649 and forward to the Unit Commander –
Toronto Police College

1027
Q

Unit Commander Shall

Upon receipt of a TPS 105, TPS 584, Use of Force Report and hard copy CEW download shall

 review for accuracy and appropriateness of CEW use

 forward to the Use of Force Analyst – Toronto Police College as soon as practicable but no later than ______ hours after
CEW use

 if additional training is identified, document the particulars on a TPS 649 and forward to the Unit Commander –
Toronto Police College
Upon receipt of a TPS 901 shall review and take the appropriate action.

A

as practicable but no later than 72 hours after

1028
Q

Unit Commander – Toronto Police College
The Unit Commander – Toronto Police College shall ensure
CEW

A

the requirements for mandatory training prior to the issuance of a CEW

 the requirement for the Toronto Police College to maintain records of CEW training

The Unit Commander – Toronto Police College shall ensure

 a summary of CEW use involving Demonstrated Force Presence, Drive Stun Mode, Full Deployment or an
accidental or negligent discharge is presented to the Use of Force Analyst for review

 software and file storage requirements to retain usage data from the CEWs are maintained

 the Armament Officer conducts random download of the data from the Service–owned CEWs for audit purposes
When a CEW has been used and transported to the Toronto Police College shall ensure to

 download the data

 save the data to the respective officer’s folder, if personally issued

 save the data to the respective CEW’s folder, if a shared asset

1029
Q

Definitions

Accidental Discharge of a CEW means an

A

unintentional discharge of a Service CEW by a police officer that is not the
result of undue care and attention to the prescribed safe handling procedures.

1030
Q

Conducted Energy Weapon (CEW) means a weapon that

A

primarily uses propelled wires to conduct energy that affects
the sensory and/or motor functions of the central nervous system.

1031
Q

Conducted Energy Weapon Use means

A

Demonstrated Force Presence, Drive Stun Mode, Full Deployment, or an
unintentional discharge.

1032
Q

Demonstrated Force Presence (DFP) means that the conducted energy weapon is in an

A

un-holstered and displayed in the

presence of a subject with the intention to achieve behaviour compliance.

1033
Q

Drive Stun Mode (DSM) means when the

A

conducted energy weapon is placed in direct contact with the subject and the
current is applied without the probes being propelled.

1034
Q

CEW

Full Deployment (FD) means the

A

conducted energy weapon is used wherein the probes are fired at a subject and the
electrical pulse applied. In this mode, the device is designed to override the subject’s nervous system and affect both the
sensory and motor functions causing incapacitation.

1035
Q

Negligent Discharge of a CEW means an

A

intentional or unintentional discharge of a Service CEW by a police officer that
is the result of undue care and attention to the prescribed safe handling procedures.

1036
Q

Qualified in the Use of a CEW means a

A

police officer qualified by the Toronto Police College - Armament Section to use
a CEW and who has attended and passed CEW training before the 12-month expiry of the date of certification of the
previous year.

1037
Q

Subject (Conducted Energy Weapon) in reference to conducted energy weapon use

A

includes either a person or an

animal.

1038
Q

Suspect Apprehension Pursuit
Status: Amended Issued:
Rationale
The Province of Ontario has regulated that, before initiating a suspect apprehension pursuit, a police officer shall determine

A

whether the immediate need to apprehend or identify an individual in a fleeing motor vehicle or to identify the fleeing motor
vehicle outweighs the risk to public safety that may result from the pursuit.

Public safety is the paramount consideration factor in any decision to initiate, continue or abandon a suspect apprehension
pursuit. Public safety represents a factor which may change rapidly and shall be continually assessed. A suspect
apprehension pursuit shall be the choice of last resort and shall be considered only when other alternatives are unavailable
or unsatisfactory.

1039
Q

Supervision

In relation to a pursuit…. Notifications etc

A

 Pursuit Supervisor attendance mandatory to monitor when a pursuit is initiated
 Pursuit Supervisor notification mandatory when a pursuit is initiated

1040
Q

Procedure with regard to a pursuit

Public Safety

A

Public safety is the paramount consideration factor in any decision to initiate, continue or abandon a pursuit.

  1. Public safety represents a factor which may change rapidly and which shall be continually assessed.
  2. A police officer does not breach the code of conduct when the officer decides not to initiate or chooses to abandon a pursuit because the officer has reason to believe that the risk to public safety that may result from the pursuit
    outweighs the risk to public safety that may result if an individual in the fleeing motor vehicle is not immediately
    apprehended or if the fleeing motor vehicle or an individual in the fleeing motor vehicle is not identified.
  3. A pursuit shall be the choice of last resort and shall be considered only when other alternatives are unavailable or
    unsatisfactory.
  4. Before initiating a pursuit, a police officer shall determine whether in order to protect public safety, the immediate need to apprehend or identify an individual in the fleeing motor vehicle or the need to identify the motor vehicle
    outweighs the risk to public safety that may result from the pursuit.
  5. During a pursuit, a police officer shall continually reassess the determination to pursue and shall abandon the pursuit when the risk to public safety that may result from the pursuit outweighs the risk to public safety that may
    result if an individual in the fleeing motor vehicle is not immediately apprehended, or if the fleeing motor vehicle or
    an individual in the fleeing motor vehicle is not identified.
1041
Q

Criminal Offences with regard to pursuits

A
  1. A police officer may pursue or continue a pursuit where the police officer, prior to initiating a pursuit, has reasonable
    grounds to believe that a criminal offence has been committed or is about to be committed.
  2. The criminal offence (flight) described in ss. 249.1 of the Criminal Code is not justification to initiate a pursuit but is
    a charge available incidental to a pursuit that has been undertaken for another lawful reason.
  3. The criminal offence of dangerous operation of a motor vehicle arising out of the pursuit itself is not sufficient
    grounds to continue the pursuit.
1042
Q

Non – Criminal Offences

Relating to police pursuit

A

No pursuit shall be initiated or continued for a non–criminal offence if the identity of an individual in the motor vehicle
is known.
2. A pursuit for a non–criminal offence shall be abandoned once the motor vehicle is identified or an individual in the
fleeing motor vehicle is identified.

1043
Q

Responsibility for Safe Conduct

The responsibility for the safe conduct of a pursuit rests with the

A

individual police officer, the Communications Operator –
Communications Services, the pursuit supervisor and any other authorized person monitoring the pursuit.
Members are reminded that the Service has installed Automated Vehicle Location System (AVLS) equipment in all marked
vehicles that are equipped with a Mobile Workstation (MWS). This system was designed, purchased and installed to
enhance officer safety. AVLS uses the Global Positioning System (GPS) satellite network to determine the location, speed
and direction of a marked vehicle at a specific date and time. At designated intervals, the GPS data received by the AVLS
equipment is transmitted to and capable of being viewed using the Computer Aided Dispatch (CAD) system.
Public Safety Factors
Members shall continually assess the following factors when involved in or when monitoring a pursuit. These factors are
not in order of priority and shall be given equal consideration

1044
Q

individual police officer, the Communications Operator –
Communications Services, the pursuit supervisor and any other authorized person monitoring the pursuit.
Members are reminded that the Service has installed ______~______~_____~______ (AVLS) equipment in all marked
vehicles that are equipped with a Mobile Workstation (MWS). This system was designed, purchased and installed to
enhance officer safety. AVLS uses the Global Positioning System (GPS) satellite network to determine the location, speed
and direction of a marked vehicle at a specific date and time. At designated intervals, the GPS data received by the AVLS
equipment is transmitted to and capable of being viewed using the _______~_______~_______ (CAD) system.
Public Safety Factors
Members shall continually assess the following factors when involved in or when monitoring a pursuit.

A

Automated Vehicle Location System (AVLS)

Computer Aided Dispatch (CAD)

1045
Q

Suspect Apprehension Pursuit

Members shall continually assess the following factors when involved in or when monitoring a pursuit. These factors are
not in order of priority and shall be given equal consideration

A

nature and seriousness of the offence involving a suspect in the motor vehicle

 information on the occupants of the motor vehicle, if known, including whether they are armed, suspects in a violent
crime, or there is reason to believe they are about to commit a violent crime

 nature, condition and type of area (residential, industrial, playground, etc.)

 presence of pedestrians or other traffic

 time of day

 apparent age of the driver

 weather and road conditions

 manner in which the pursued motor vehicle is being operated

 presence in the pursued motor vehicle of individuals who are not suspects

 length of time and distance involved

 type of vehicles involved in the pursuit (motorcycle, car, truck)

 presence in the police vehicle of non–police passengers

 limits on the police officer’s ability to operate the police vehicle at the speeds reached during the pursuit

 availability of other means of apprehension

1046
Q

Suspect Apprehension Pursuit Restrictions

A
  1. A police officer in an unmarked motor vehicle shall not engage in a pursuit unless a marked motor vehicle is not
    readily available and the police officer believes that it is necessary to immediately apprehend an individual in the
    fleeing motor vehicle or to identify the fleeing motor vehicle or an individual in the fleeing motor vehicle.
  2. Motorcycle and all–terrain vehicle operators shall not engage in a pursuit.
  3. No more than 2 motor vehicles should be directly engaged in a pursuit unless authorized by the pursuit supervisor.
  4. Complete or partial roadblocks may only be used in extreme circumstances and must be authorized by a road
    supervisory officer and/or the pursuit supervisor.
  5. The following of a pursuit on a parallel route is prohibited unless directed by the pursuit supervisor.
1047
Q

Firearms Discharge
Discharging a firearm at a motor vehicle is an _________ method of disabling the vehicle. Discharging a firearm at a motor
vehicle may present a hazard to both the _______ and to the _______. Members are _________ from discharging a firearm at a
motor vehicle for the sole purpose of disabling the vehicle.

A

ineffective method of disabling the vehicle. Discharging a firearm at a motor
vehicle may present a hazard to both the officer and to the public. Members are prohibited from discharging a firearm at a
motor vehicle for the sole purpose of disabling the vehicle.

Members shall not discharge a firearm at the operator or occupants of a motor vehicle unless there poses an immediate
threat of death or grievous bodily harm to officers and or members of the public by a means other than the vehicle.
Members shall be cognizant that disabling the operator of the motor vehicle thereby disabling the control over the motor
vehicle may also present a hazard to both the officer and the public.
Except while in a motor vehicle, members shall not place themselves in the path of an occupied motor vehicle with the
intention of preventing its escape. Additionally, members should not attempt to disable an occupied vehicle by reaching into
it.
Pursuant to Procedure 13–03 and 13–05, any apparent breach of this Procedure will be carefully considered on its merits
having regard to all the circumstances before discipline is commenced.

1048
Q

Alternative to Pursuit

Prior to a pursuit, police officers shall consider the alternatives described in the Suspect Apprehension Pursuit Training
Manual developed by the Ontario Police College. These alternatives include

A
  1. strategic following
  2. follow–up investigation
  3. the Tandem Stop
  4. use of tire deflation devices, when available
  5. the use of a helicopter, when available
  6. strategic use of rear, side and combination methods for stopping vehicles
1049
Q

Methods of Terminating a Pursuit
During a pursuit, police officers and pursuit supervisors shall consider methods of terminating a pursuit as described in the
Suspect Apprehension Pursuit Training Manual developed by the Ontario Police College. These methods include

A

strategic pursuing

  1. abandoning
  2. use of tire deflation devices, when available
  3. rolling block
  4. stationary road block
  5. pinning
  6. intentional contact
1050
Q

Suspect Apprehension Pursuit

By doing so, the police officers’ “_______~______” will be reduced, allowing for better control of sensory and physical multi-tasking functions and offer the driver an opportunity to abandon the fleeing motor vehicle and flee on foot. Strategic pursuing
may be used until

A

target fixation

the driver stops voluntarily
 another termination method is employed, or
 the pursuit is abandoned.

1051
Q

When the fleeing motor vehicle is a large truck, bus, motorcycle, or off-road vehicle, use only the following methods to
terminate a pursuit

A

strategically pursue the fleeing motor vehicle with emergency equipment activated until the fleeing motor vehicle
stops, or
 abandon the pursuit.

)

1052
Q

Reporting of Pursuits
Following every pursuit, the police officer initiating the pursuit shall complete a TPS 348 prior to the completion of their tour
of duty. In addition, where no suspect has been apprehended, the police officer shall complete the applicable eReport prior
to the completion of their tour of duty.
For the purposes of pursuit reporting under Part “B” of the TPS 348, the police officer shall indicate in the required section

A

the specific reason for stopping the motor vehicle and justification for initiating the pursuit
 the justification for continuing the pursuit
 the risk to public safety throughout the pursuit

the names and employee numbers of the pursuit supervisor and the available road supervisor
 the summary of the report shall describe, in narrative format, a brief, chronological, synopsis of the events pertaining
to the pursuit, including the point where the fleeing motor vehicle and/or individuals in the fleeing motor vehicle
were identified. Personal identifiers, e.g. names of police officers, vehicle licence plate numbers etc., should not be
recorded in this section of the report

1053
Q

Police Officer
When a driver of a fleeing motor vehicle refuses to stop and circumstances dictate that a pursuit will not be initiated shall

A

advise Communications Operator – Communications Services (Communications Operator)
 prior to the completion of the tour of duty, complete
- the applicable sections of a TPS 348
- a TPS 227, if applicable
- the applicable eReports

1054
Q

When a driver of a fleeing motor vehicle refuses to stop and a pursuit is initiated shall

A

immediately advise the Communications Operator of the driver’s refusal
 assess the public safety factors and continuously update the Communications Operator with
 the description of the fleeing motor vehicle, speed, location, and direction of travel
 information on the nature and seriousness of the offence
 the presence of pedestrians or other traffic
 road and weather conditions
 the manner in which the fleeing motor vehicle is being operated
 any other public safety factors
 activate the emergency lights and siren, if equipped
 activate the In–Car Camera System (ICCS), if equipped
For the protection of the public and members, police officers shall not adjust the ICCS while actively engaged in
apprehending or pursuing a fleeing motor vehicle.
 comply with any directions given by the pursuit supervisor
A police officer may be held liable for any Criminal Code or Highway Traffic Act offence committed in relation to the pursuit.
 remain on the assigned channel, unless otherwise instructed by the Communications Operator
 advise the pursuit supervisor of any methods to be used to terminate the pursuit, when practicable

1055
Q

When initiating a pursuit while operating an unmarked motor vehicle shall

A

request a marked motor vehicle attend and engage in the pursuit
 immediately abandon the pursuit when a marked motor vehicle arrives and becomes engaged in the pursuit

1056
Q

When engaged in a pursuit where the risk to public safety outweighs the need to apprehend an individual in a fleeing motor
vehicle or the need to identify the fleeing motor vehicle or the need to identify an individual in the fleeing motor vehicle or
when ordered by a pursuit supervisor shall

A

 immediately abandon the pursuit
 bring the marked or unmarked motor vehicle to a safe stop
 turn off emergency equipment, if equipped
 advise the Communications Operator that the pursuit has been abandoned
 provide the last known direction of the fleeing motor vehicle, and, if not already done, the fleeing motor vehicle
description
 advise the Communications Operator of the current location and odometer reading of the vehicle
 prior to the completion of the tour of duty, complete a TPS348

 a TPS 227, if applicable
 the applicable eReports if the driver of the fleeing motor vehicle is not arrested

1057
Q

Pursuit Supervisor
When advised of a pursuit, in addition to complying with unit–specific policies, shall

A

assume control of the pursuit
 order additional police vehicles to assist, if required
 order unnecessary police officers to resume regular patrol, if required
 monitor the progress of the pursuit to ensure compliance with this Procedure and O. Reg. 266/10
 order and co-ordinate termination methods where time and circumstances permit
 authorize the use of approved methods of terminating the pursuit
 order the pursuit abandoned when it is determined that the risk to public safety that may result from the pursuit
outweighs the need to apprehend an individual in a fleeing motor vehicle or the need to identify the fleeing motor
vehicle or the need to identify an individual in the fleeing motor vehicle

1058
Q

Road Supervisory Officer

When advised of a pursuit shall

A

 monitor the communication
 advise the Communications Operator that he/she is monitoring
 order the pursuit abandoned, when appropriate and advise the pursuit supervisor accordingly
 assume the role of pursuit supervisor in the absence of an Operations Supervisor – Communications Services
At the conclusion of a pursuit shall
 ensure
 a TPS 348
 a TPS 227, if applicable
 the applicable eReports
are completed prior to the completion of the tour of duty
 review the TPS 348 and include comments in the appropriate section prior to the completion of the tour of duty
Upon receipt of a TPS 348 indicating that a pursuit was not initiated shall review the report and include comments in the
appropriate section prior to the completion of the tour of duty.

1059
Q

Pursuit Supervisor means a

A

communications supervisor or, if unavailable, a road supervisory officer.

1060
Q

Unmarked Police Vehicle in reference to pursuits, means

A

all vehicles, other than a marked police vehicle, that are owned
or operated by the Service. This includes vehicles commonly known as “stealth” vehicles and “clean top” vehicles.

1061
Q

Appearance Standards

The order of dress for uniform members include

A

 Uniform of the Day
 Formal
 Mess

1062
Q

Uniform of the Day

– Operational

A

To be worn by members during regular duties including court and when directed by the Chief of
Police. Includes seasonal variations.
With the permission of the Chief of Police, specialized units, including but not limited to
*Specialized Emergency Response – Emergency Task Force (ETF), Specialized Emergency
Response – Marine, Specialized Emergency Response – Police Dog Services, Emergency
Management & Public Order, the Chief’s Ceremonial Unit, and Traffic Services, may deviate from
the prescribed uniform due to the function being performed. Specialized Operations Command
will maintain a current listing of approved items of clothing and equipment for each specialized
unit.
Members performing specialized functions such as bicycle duties and motorcycle/ATV duties
may also deviate from the prescribed uniform, with the permission of the Chief of Police. (Refer
to Appendix E)
Each deviation from the standard uniform of the day must be requested in writing and authorized
by the Chief of Police.
*For ease of identification, the grey tactical uniform has been reserved for ETF only.
.

1063
Q

Warrants of Committal
A warrant of committal may be issued by the court upon the conviction of an accused for an offence. It directs peace officers
to arrest the named/described individual and generally, in

A

default of payment of monetary penalty set by the court, to serve
a period of time in jail.
Warrants of committal also include warrants issued for criminal convictions, small claims court warrants, federal/provincial
parole violations, Immigration and Refugee Protection Act and provincial matters such as the Family Responsibility Act, the
Trespass to Property Act, Safe Streets Act and the Highway Traffic Act. Persons arrested solely on warrants of committal
are not to be brought before the court. They are to be processed according to the instructions contained within the body of
the warrant.

1064
Q

Warrants of committal also include warrants issued for criminal convictions, small claims court warrants, federal/provincial
parole violations, Immigration and Refugee Protection Act and provincial matters such as the Family Responsibility Act, the
Trespass to Property Act, Safe Streets Act and the Highway Traffic Act. Persons arrested solely on warrants of committal
are not to _____________

A

be brought before the court.

They are to be processed according to the instructions contained within the body of
the warrant.

1065
Q

Suspect Apprehension Pursuit Restrictions

A
  1. A police officer in an unmarked motor vehicle shall not engage in a pursuit unless a marked motor vehicle is not
    readily available and the police officer believes that it is necessary to immediately apprehend an individual in the
    fleeing motor vehicle or to identify the fleeing motor vehicle or an individual in the fleeing motor vehicle.
  2. Motorcycle and all–terrain vehicle operators shall not engage in a pursuit.
  3. No more than 2 motor vehicles should be directly engaged in a pursuit unless authorized by the pursuit supervisor.
  4. Complete or partial roadblocks may only be used in extreme circumstances and must be authorized by a road
    supervisory officer and/or the pursuit supervisor.
  5. The following of a pursuit on a parallel route is prohibited unless directed by the pursuit supervisor.
1066
Q

Firearms Discharge

Discharging a firearm at a motor vehicle is an

A

ineffective method of disabling the vehicle. Discharging a firearm at a motor
vehicle may present a hazard to both the officer and to the public. Members are prohibited from discharging a firearm at a
motor vehicle for the sole purpose of disabling the vehicle.
Members shall not discharge a firearm at the operator or occupants of a motor vehicle unless there poses an immediate
threat of death or grievous bodily harm to officers and or members of the public by a means other than the vehicle.
Members shall be cognizant that disabling the operator of the motor vehicle thereby disabling the control over the motor
vehicle may also present a hazard to both the officer and the public.
Except while in a motor vehicle, members shall not place themselves in the path of an occupied motor vehicle with the
intention of preventing its escape. Additionally, members should not attempt to disable an occupied vehicle by reaching into
it.
Pursuant to Procedure 13–03 and 13–05, any apparent breach of this Procedure will be carefully considered on its merits
having regard to all the circumstances before discipline is commenced.

1067
Q

Alternative to Pursuit
Prior to a pursuit, police officers shall consider the alternatives described in the Suspect Apprehension Pursuit Training
Manual developed by the Ontario Police College. These alternatives include
1.

A
  1. strategic following
  2. follow–up investigation
  3. the Tandem Stop
  4. use of tire deflation devices, when available
  5. the use of a helicopter, when available
  6. strategic use of rear, side and combination methods for stopping vehicles
1068
Q

Methods of Terminating a Pursuit
During a pursuit, police officers and pursuit supervisors shall consider methods of terminating a pursuit as described in the
Suspect Apprehension Pursuit Training Manual developed by the Ontario Police College. These methods include

A
  1. strategic pursuing
  2. abandoning
  3. use of tire deflation devices, when available
  4. rolling block
  5. stationary road block
  6. pinning
  7. intentional contact
1069
Q

Police officers may only intentionally cause a marked or unmarked motor vehicle to come into physical contact with a fleeing
motor vehicle for the purposes of stopping it, where the police officer believes on

A

reasonable grounds that to do so is
necessary to immediately protect against the loss of life or serious bodily harm. In considering this action, police officers
shall assess the impact of the action on the safety of other members of the public and other police officers. It must be
remembered that impacts at relatively low speeds can cause the driver and passenger-side airbags to deploy and potentially
injure the occupants of the marked or unmarked motor vehicle. This manoeuvre should only be considered in areas of low
vehicular and pedestrian traffic, and executed at very low speeds.

1070
Q

Police officers may cause a marked or unmarked motor vehicle to come into physical contact with the fleeing motor vehicle
for the purposes of pinning the fleeing motor vehicle, if the

A

fleeing motor vehicle has lost control or collided with an object
and come to a stop and the driver of the fleeing motor vehicle continues to try to use it to flee. Police officers involved in a
pursuit with the assistance of additional police officers in marked or unmarked motor vehicles may attempt to safely position
their marked or unmarked motor vehicles in such a manner as to prevent the movement, either forwards or backwards, of
the fleeing motor vehicle.

1071
Q

As a termination method, ________ ______ is the primary driving mode during an active pursuit. The intent of this technique
is that by significantly increasing the distance between the marked or unmarked motor vehicle and the fleeing motor vehicle,
the fleeing driver will seize the opportunity to stop and abandon the fleeing motor vehicle. When using this technique police
officers shall

A

Strategic pursuing

 activate all emergency equipment
 follow the fleeing motor vehicle from a significantly increased distance.
By doing so, the police officers’ “_______~________” will be reduced, allowing for better control of sensory and physical multitasking functions and offer the driver an opportunity to abandon the fleeing motor vehicle and flee on foot. Strategic pursuing
may be used until
 the driver stops voluntarily
 another termination method is employed, or
 the pursuit is abandoned.
Strategic pursuing is the primary driving mode during a pursuit and fully-activated emergency equipment must be deployed.
Strategic pursuing is not to be utilized once a pursuit has been abandoned.

target fixation

1072
Q

When the fleeing motor vehicle is a large truck, bus, motorcycle, or off-road vehicle, use only the following methods to
terminate a pursuit

A

 strategically pursue the fleeing motor vehicle with emergency equipment activated until the fleeing motor vehicle
stops, or
 abandon the pursuit.
Reporting of Pursuits
Following every pursuit, the police officer initiating the pursuit shall complete a TPS 348 prior to the completion of their tour
of duty. In addition, where no suspect has been apprehended, the police officer shall complete the applicable eReport prior
to the completion of their tour of duty.
For the purposes of pursuit reporting under Part “B” of the TPS 348, the police officer shall indicate in the required section
 the specific reason for stopping the motor vehicle and justification for initiating the pursuit
 the justification for continuing the pursuit
 the risk to public safety throughout the pursuit

the names and employee numbers of the pursuit supervisor and the available road supervisor
 the summary of the report shall describe, in narrative format, a brief, chronological, synopsis of the events pertaining
to the pursuit, including the point where the fleeing motor vehicle and/or individuals in the fleeing motor vehicle
were identified. Personal identifiers, e.g. names of police officers, vehicle licence plate numbers etc., should not be
recorded in this section of the report

1073
Q

For the purposes of pursuit reporting under Part “B” of the TPS 348, the police officer shall indicate in the required section
 the specific reason for stopping the motor vehicle and justification for initiating the pursuit
 the justification for continuing the pursuit
 the risk to public safety throughout the pursuit

the names and employee numbers of the pursuit supervisor and the available road supervisor
 the summary of the report shall describe, in narrative format, a brief, chronological, synopsis of the events pertaining
to the pursuit, including the point where the fleeing motor vehicle and/or individuals in the fleeing motor vehicle
were identified. Personal identifiers, e.g. names of police officers, vehicle licence plate numbers etc., __________~________~______ ~_______in this section of the report
Pursuits Involving More Than One Police Service

A

should not be

recorded

1074
Q

Pursuits Involving More Than One Police Service
When there is more than one police service involved in the pursuit, the responsible supervisor is the supervisor in the
jurisdiction where the pursuit is ________ until the pursuit is handed over to the other police service.

Where a pursuit has
covered more than _____police service jurisdiction, the police service in the jurisdiction where the pursuit _______ shall ensure
co–ordination of a joint Fail to Stop Report.

A

Initiated

1

Began

1075
Q

Police Officer
When a driver of a fleeing motor vehicle refuses to stop and circumstances dictate that a pursuit will not be initiated shall
advise Communications Operator – Communications Services (Communications Operator)
 prior to the completion of the tour of duty, complete
- the applicable sections of a TPS ____
- a TPS 227, if applicable
- the applicable eReports
When a driver of a fleeing motor vehicle refuses to stop and a pursuit is initiated shall
 immediately advise the Communications Operator of the driver’s refusal
 assess the public safety factors and continuously update the Communications Operator with
 the description of the fleeing motor _____~_____~_____and _______of ______
 information on the nature and seriousness of the offence
 the presence of pedestrians or other traffic
 road and weather conditions
 the manner in which the fleeing motor vehicle is being operated
 any other public safety factors
 activate the emergency lights and siren, if equipped
 activate the In–Car Camera System (ICCS), if equipped
For the protection of the public and members, police officers shall not adjust the _____ while actively engaged in
apprehending or pursuing a fleeing motor vehicle.
 comply with any directions given by the _____~______
A police officer may be held liable for any Criminal Code or Highway Traffic Act offence committed in relation to the pursuit.
 remain on the assigned channel, unless otherwise instructed by the Communications Operator
 advise the pursuit supervisor of any methods to be used to terminate the pursuit, when practicable

A

348

vehicle, speed, location, and direction of travel

ICC

pursuit supervisor

1076
Q

When initiating a pursuit while operating an unmarked motor vehicle shall
 request a ______ motor vehicle attend and engage in the pursuit

 immediately abandon the pursuit when a _________ motor vehicle arrives and becomes engaged in the pursuit
When engaged in a pursuit where the risk to public safety outweighs the need to apprehend an individual in a fleeing motor
vehicle or the need to identify the fleeing motor vehicle or the need to identify an individual in the fleeing motor vehicle or
when ordered by a pursuit supervisor shall

A

Marked

Marked

 immediately abandon the pursuit
 bring the marked or unmarked motor vehicle to a safe stop
 turn off emergency equipment, if equipped
 advise the Communications Operator that the pursuit has been abandoned
 provide the last known direction of the fleeing motor vehicle, and, if not already done, the fleeing motor vehicle
description
 advise the Communications Operator of the current location and odometer reading of the vehicle
 prior to the completion of the tour of duty, complete
 a TPS 348
 a TPS 227, if applicable
 the applicable eReports if the driver of the fleeing motor vehicle is not arrested

1077
Q

Pursuit Supervisor

When advised of a pursuit, in addition to complying with unit–specific policies, shall

A

 assume control of the pursuit
 order additional police vehicles to assist, if required
 order unnecessary police officers to resume regular patrol, if required
 monitor the progress of the pursuit to ensure compliance with this Procedure and O. Reg. 266/10
 order and co-ordinate termination methods where time and circumstances permit
 authorize the use of approved methods of terminating the pursuit
 order the pursuit abandoned when it is determined that the risk to public safety that may result from the pursuit
outweighs the need to apprehend an individual in a fleeing motor vehicle or the need to identify the fleeing motor
vehicle or the need to identify an individual in the fleeing motor vehicle

1078
Q

Road Supervisory Officer

When advised of a pursuit shall

A

 monitor the communication
 advise the Communications Operator that he/she is monitoring
 order the pursuit abandoned, when appropriate and advise the pursuit supervisor accordingly
 assume the role of pursuit supervisor in the absence of an Operations Supervisor – Communications Services
At the conclusion of a pursuit shall
 ensure
 a TPS 348
 a TPS 227, if applicable
 the applicable eReports
are completed prior to the completion of the tour of duty
 review the TPS 348 and include comments in the appropriate section prior to the completion of the tour of duty
Upon receipt of a TPS 348 indicating that a pursuit was not initiated shall review the report and include comments in the
appropriate section prior to the completion of the tour of duty.

1079
Q

Unit Commander

Upon receipt of a TPS 348 shall

A

review the report, include comments in the appropriate section and forward to the Staff
Superintendent by the next business day.
Staff Superintendent/Director
Upon receipt of a TPS 348 shall review the report, include comments in the appropriate section and forward to Professional
Standards Support forthwith.

1080
Q

Abandon Pursuit means the ________ of a pursuit when police officers are no longer pursuing a fleeing motor vehicle
for the purpose of stopping or identifying the fleeing motor vehicle or an individual in the fleeing motor vehicle.
[Source: Police Services Act, O.Reg. 266/10, ss.1(2)]

A

discontinuation

1081
Q

Marked Vehicle means a Service vehicle used primarily by _______ officers that:
- is clearly marked with ______~_____~_____ decals along with the word “______” and is equipped with “overhead”
emergency lighting visible from _____ degrees and has a forward-facing electronic siren
- meets the minimum requirements as set out in the Highway Traffic Act for an emergency vehicle, as well as Ontario
Regulation 926 and Policing Standards Manual (Adequacy Standards) AI–008 for general patrol vehicles.

A

Uniformed

Toronto Police Service

police

360

1082
Q

Pursuit Supervisor means a _____~______ or, if unavailable, a ______~_____ officer.

A

communications supervisor

road supervisory

1083
Q

Suspect Apprehension Pursuit (Pursuit) occurs when a

A

police officer attempts to direct the driver of a motor vehicle to
stop, the driver refuses to obey the police officer, and the police officer pursues in a motor vehicle for the purpose of stopping
the fleeing motor vehicle, or identifying the fleeing motor vehicle, or an individual in the fleeing motor vehicle.
[Source: Police Services Act, O.Reg. 266/10, ss.1(1)]

1084
Q

Unmarked Police Vehicle in reference to pursuits, means all vehicles, other than a marked police vehicle, that are owned
or operated by the Service. This includes vehicles commonly known as “———” vehicles and “_______~____” vehicles.

A

as “stealth” vehicles and “clean top” vehicles.
15-16 Uniform, Equipment and Appearance Standards
Status: Amended Issued: R.O. 2020.0

1085
Q

Summer Dress

The summer dress options will be in effect during the period of ______to______

A

April 01 to October 31.

1086
Q

Members initiated in the Sikh religion may wear the 5 Kakaars or 5 Ks. These physical symbols of Khalsa are the Kesh,
Kanga, Kara, Kachhera and Kirpan (which will be no more than _______cm (_______) in length).

A

19.05 cm (7.5 inches)

1087
Q

Members of the Muslim faith may wear an issued ______ as part of their uniform. The ______ shall be worn in accordance with
Appendix F.

A

Hijab

1088
Q

Members of the ______ faith may wear a nose stud in accordance with their religious beliefs.

A

Hindu

1089
Q

Aboriginal members may deviate from the prescribed standards of appearance and wear their hair ______ as part of their
spiritual practice. _____ shall be kept in a neat manner.

A

braided, Braids

1090
Q

15-17 In-Car Camera System

The In–Car Camera System (ICCS) is a multifaceted tool that can:

A

 enhance public trust and police legitimacy;
 enhance public and police officer safety;
 enhance the commitment to bias-free service delivery by officers to the public;
 provide a tool to facilitate early resolution of complaints; and
 provide improved evidence for investigative, judicial and oversight purposes; and
 provide information as to the effectiveness of Service procedures and training
The Service is committed to maintaining the public trust by delivering professional and unbiased policing at all times. The
ICCS is a valuable tool in remaining accountable to the community and maintaining its trust.

1091
Q

Supervision

Supervisory Officer _______ mandatory when malfunction, damage or theft of an ICCS occurs

A

notification

1092
Q

Procedure
Objection to Being Recorded

Officers may encounter situations where individuals object to being audio and/or video recorded. If the recording is occurring
while in a _______~_____, officers shall continue to record in accordance with this Procedure
Incidents of a Sensitive Nature
Officers assigned to, or operating a Service vehicle equipped with an ICCS must be cognizant of the impact video recording
may have on persons involved in incidents of a sensitive nature. In circumstances where the person is being captured on
ICCS video, an officer may temporarily deactivate the ICCS, or adjust the camera view, while taking appropriate steps to
address the situation, and reactivate the ICCS after having done so. Any deactivation of the ICCS video recording function,
arising out of a reasonable concern for the dignity of a person, must be in accordance with this Procedure by noting the
reason for the decision in a memorandum book, and, if practical, by recording an audible statement prior to.
Pursuant to Procedure 13–03 and 13–05, any apparent breach of this Procedure will be carefully considered on its merits
having regard to all the circumstances before discipline is commenced.p

A

public place

1093
Q

Member

Upon receiving a request for an ICCS recording from a member of the public shall direct the individual to the

A

Access and

Privacy Section of Records Management Services – Information Access.

1094
Q

ICC section/ Police Officer

Police officers shall not

A

 operate an ICCS equipped vehicle without having completed the prescribed training
 adjust the ICCS while actively engaged in apprehending or pursuing a fleeing motor vehicle, for the safety of
members and the public
 modify or attempt to modify any permanent settings or installed components of the ICCS

1095
Q

When assigned to a Service vehicle that is equipped with an ICCS shall, at the beginning of the shift, check if the ICCS is
functioning properly by activating the system and creating a brief recording to ensure that:

A

 both cameras are capable of recording video
 the wireless microphones are capable of remotely activating the system and recording audio
 the fixed rear microphone is capable of recording audio
 the camera lens and the windshield are free of debris that may obscure the camera
 the camera is locked in position facing the front of the Service vehicle
The front camera shall remain facing the front of the Service vehicle, except in circumstances where it is necessary to
modify the position to record a specific event.
 the system plays back both audio and visual recordings
After completing the check detailed in item 3 shall record the results in the memorandum book.

1096
Q

ensure that the ICCS is not activated during

A

 investigative discussions or enquiries between police personnel
 situations that reveal police investigative techniques

1097
Q

When supervising personnel assigned to vehicles equipped with an ICCS shall

A

 conduct a review of each officer’s ICCS recordings at least once per month to
- assist with supervision
- ensure the ICCS is functioning properly
- determine whether the ICCS is being operated in accordance with procedure and prescribed training
- ensure that officers are classifying ICCS recordings appropriately for retention purposes
- identify material that may be appropriate for training
- determine additional training needs, as appropriate
Ensure supervisory reviews of each officer’s ICCS recordings are conducted at least once per month, or CWW cycle, as
applicable.
 review ICCS recordings, where applicable, to assist in the resolution of a public complaint in compliance with
Procedure 13–02
 record the results in the Unit Commander Morning Report (UCMR) and memorandum book

1098
Q

Supervisory
When attending an incident where a Service vehicle is equipped with an ICCS, after assessing the circumstances, may
direct an officer to

A

deactivate the ICCS, when appropriate.
When investigating a Service vehicle collision that does not fall under the SIU Mandate shall ensure that
 if the vehicle is drivable, it is returned to its home unit for ICCS uploading
 if the vehicle requires towing, that it is towed to the appropriate Service garage for ICCS uploading
 the investigating supervisor shall ensure
 the ICCS video has been successfully uploaded to the system
 in circumstances where the upload has not been successful, the HELP desk is notified forthwith
Where the event involves an audio/video recording captured by an ICCS shall ensure the recording is appropriately
classified for retention purposes.
Where a Service vehicle has been involved in a collision that has caused the vehicle engine to stop, shall ensure the vehicle
is not restarted.

1099
Q

Chief’s Special Investigations Unit (SIU) Liaison Officer means a

A

uniform senior officer of the Toronto Police Service
designated by the Chief of Police to act as the main liaison with the SIU in all matters relating to SIU investigations. The
Chief’s SIU Liaison Officer oversees the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designate Cadre and Professional Standards Support SIU
Liaison Section while in the field.

1100
Q

In car camera

Deactivate means a process

A

which causes the In-Car Camera to stop capturing audio and/or video recordings.

1101
Q

Digital Video Asset Management System (DVAMS)

A

means a networked automated video solution that creates, stores,
manages, and distributes video evidence via the Video Services Unit. DVAMS assets can be viewed and disclosure ordered
from any workstation on the Toronto Police Service network.

1102
Q

In-Car Camera System (ICCS) means

A

any in–car recording equipment that captures audio and visual signals, and may
also be referred to as a Mobile Video Recording System.

1103
Q

In-Car Camera System (ICCS) Technician means a

A

Toronto Police Service member trained in the operational use and
repair of In–Car Camera Systems. NOTE: Some technicians may not be trained to repair an ICCS, but specialize in
duplicating methods, storage and retrieval methods and procedures, and possess a working knowledge of video forensics
and evidentiary procedures.

1104
Q

Special Investigations Unit (SIU) Mandate pursuant to Part VII PSA means that the SIU is legislated to investigate the

A

circumstances of serious injury or death that may have resulted through criminal offences committed by a police officer.
The death or serious injury is in relation to a citizen, another police officer or other member of the Service. The SIU mandate
may be invoked for deaths or serious injuries that occur in circumstances where there has been police engagement. For
example, but not limited to injuries or death occurring:
- in the course of making an arrest
- in the course of a suspect apprehension pursuit
- while in police custody
- while in the hospital following apprehension or police custody; or
- allegations of sexual assault.

1105
Q

A police officer may continue the arrest (summary, dual, indictable 553 offences) of a person where the public interest is
not satisfied or for any indictable offence other than dual procedure and 553 indictable offences. The criteria for satisfying
the ‘public interest’ are set out in s. _______ CC.

A

497

1106
Q

Positional Asphyxia
Members should be aware that certain restraint positions (i.e. ______\_____ might compromise heart and lung functions
increasing the risk of death. Unless circumstances make it impossible, persons should be restrained in a sitting position
while being closely watched. Use of the sitting position permits easier breathing and cardiac function while affording good
positional control over the individual.

A

stomach down)

1107
Q

Excited Delirium
Excited delirium is a condition that can be caused by ______ or ______ intoxication, ________ illness or a combination of
both. Symptoms displayed by persons suffering from the condition may include any combination of

A

drug or alcohol

psychiatric

 abnormal tolerance to pain
 abnormal tolerance to pepper spray
 acute onset of paranoia
 bizarre or aggressive behaviour
 disorientation
 hallucinations
 impaired thinking
 panic
 shouting
 sudden calm after frenzied activity
 sweating, fever, heat intolerance
 unexpected physical strength
 violence towards others.
1108
Q

Due to their inclination to violence and extreme exertion, persons exhibiting the symptoms of excited delirium are often
________ for their own protection and the protection of others. Members should be cognizant of positional asphyxia when
dealing with persons exhibiting the symptoms of excited delirium and, unless circumstances make it impossible, restrain
the person in a sitting position as noted above.
Persons exhibiting the symptoms of excited delirium must always be treated as suffering from a ______~_____ and
once secured, be transported to hospital for examination.

A

Restrained

medical emergency

1109
Q

if an arrest involves an arrest warrant, check the ______~______~______(—-)note any previous arrest number and case number

A

Master Name Index (MNI);

1110
Q

In December ______, the Supreme Court of Canada made a ruling in the case of R. v. Golden, which directly impacted on
the search of person incident to arrest.
The lawful authority for searching a person comes from _____ or ____ law. Officers conducting searches must be able
to articulate their authority and grounds for doing so. Information has been included in this Procedure that will assist officers
in properly assessing the appropriate type of search to be conducted, and identify some of the risks that must be addressed
(see Appendix B). In the absence of clear direction in the form of legislation, the courts have expressed some concerns
with “routine police department policy applicable to all arrestees”. As a result, although this Procedure outlines possible risk
factors, and places an obligation on police officers to address them, the decision as to what type of search is appropriate
must be assessed on a case–by–case basis.
The Toronto Police Service (Service) agrees with the courts that clear legislative prescription as to when and how strip
searches should be conducted would be of assistance to the police and to the courts.

A

2001

statute or common

1111
Q

Medical Orders

Health Protection and Promotion Act gives the

A

Medical Officer of Health
(MOH) having jurisdiction the authority to apply for a court order to compel the named person to be detained for treatment.
The order is specific to the named person, a named hospital and the police service in the jurisdiction where the application
is made. Unless otherwise specified in the order, the effective radius for medical orders is restricted to the jurisdiction of
the applicant MOH.
The West Park Healthcare Centre, located at 82 Buttonwood Avenue (in 12 Division), is the only medical facility in Ontario
for treatment and control of contagious, virulent or infectious disease.
02-19 Report to a Justice
Status: Amendment Pending Issued: R.O. 2020.01.03–0001 Rep

1112
Q

Child abductions
Officer in Charge

)
When requesting an AMBER Alert based on the criteria outlined in this Procedure shall

A

 contact the TPOC with as much of the following information as possible, keeping in mind that additional
supplementary information can be provided as it becomes available

 abducted person’s name

 abducted person’s age

 abducted person’s description (and photograph if available)

 location and time of the person’s abduction

 description of the suspect

 description of vehicle and licence plate of the suspect

 advise the Unit Commander
- The Duty Senior Officer – TPOC (Duty Senior Officer) will contact the Chief of Police, or designate. The
Chief of Police or designate will make the final decision if an AMBER Alert will be initiated. If approved, the
Duty Senior Officer will initiate the Alert through the TPOC.

 ensure supplementary information is added to the original eReport, detailing all action taken
Once it has been determined that the child has been located and is safe shall

 if an AMBER Alert has been initiated, advise the TPOC to cancel the Alert

 ensure the Located/Found section of the Missing Persons details page is completed

 ensure the information is removed from the RCMP Missing Child Registry, if applicable

1113
Q

Form 1 MHA means an Application by

A

Physician for Psychiatric Assessment signed by a doctor within 7 days of examining
the person, giving any person authority to take the person named on the application to a psychiatric facility. A Form 1 is
valid for 7 days from and including the day it was signed.

1114
Q

Form 2 MHA means a

A

Justice of the Peace Order for Examination directing police officers to take the person in custody to
an appropriate psychiatric facility where a physician may order the person detained for examination. A Form 2 is valid for
7 days from and including the day it was signed.

1115
Q

Form 9 MHA means an Order for

A

Return of an elopee issued by a psychiatric facility which authorizes a police officer to
return the person without their consent to the psychiatric facility. A Form 9 is valid for a period of 1 month after the person
is absent without leave.

1116
Q

Form 47 MHA means an Order for

A

Examination issued by the physician who issued the person a Community Treatment
Order (CTO) and
a) Has reasonable cause to believe the person has failed to comply with the conditions under the CTO
b) the CTO subject or substitute decision–maker has withdrawn consent to the CTO and the subject fails to permit
the physician to review their condition within 72 hours and the physician believes the subject may cause harm or
suffer deterioration.
A Form 47 authorizes a police officer to take that person into custody and return them to the physician promptly and is valid
for a period of 30 days.

1117
Q

Person in Crisis means a person who

A

suffers a temporary breakdown of coping skills but often reaches out for help,
demonstrating that they are in touch with reality. Once a person in crisis receives the needed help, there is often a rapid
return to normalcy.

1118
Q

When a member is involved in a service vehicle collision (SVC) and they are determined to be at fault, the member may be
subject to the following
 criminal/provincial charges

A

disciplinary action
 driving assessments/driver development training
 revocation of their Blue Card.

1119
Q

Traffic Services Officer

When investigating a reportable SVC shall

A

 conduct the investigation in compliance with Procedure 07–01
 consult with the attending supervisory officer
 complete the officer information on the SRLD401 as follows
 the member’s address 40 College Street, Toronto Ontario M5G 2J3
 the member’s telephone number 416-808-2222
 the vehicle registration and insurance information as contained on the respective documents
The SRLD401 shall be completed using the Versadex built-in electronic eMVA xForm and Quickscene diagramming
applications.

1120
Q

The SRLD401 shall be completed using the Versadex built-in electronic eMVA xForm and

____________ diagramming
applications

——(more bullets points)

A

Quickscene diagramming
applications.
 complete the eReport including all scanned notes and submit to the supervisory officer prior to reporting off duty,
unless authorized by the Officer in Charge
When investigating a non-reportable SVC shall

 comply with item 6 with the exception that no SRLD401 is required

 complete field notes with diagram or memorandum book notes with same attention to detail as any other reportable
collision investigation

 complete an eReport and include the following information

 date, time and location of incident

 brief synopsis of circumstances

 description and estimated value of damage

 scan all notes into eReport

1121
Q

Supervisory Officer

 When notified that a reportable or non-reportable SVC has occurred in the City of Toronto shall

A

 promptly attend the scene to provide assistance and conduct an internal investigation

 notify the respective Officer in Charge

 ensure the collision is investigated in compliance with this Procedure and Procedures 04–21, 07–01, 13–16 and
15–17, as applicable

 ensure all witness statements and other evidence is gathered prior to reporting off duty, or make arrangements for
this to be completed as soon as possible

 if the Service vehicle is equipped with an in–car camera system (ICCS) video, review the video and

 if the SIU mandate has been or may be invoked, comply with Procedures 13–16 and 15–17, if applicable

if required for court or training purposes, request a copy of the ICCS video evidence from the Property and
Video Evidence Management Unit (PVEMU) by e–mail; indicating date, time and fleet number, as soon as
practicable

 conduct an internal investigation to determine if any of the following apply in relation to the involved member 
 criminal offence
 provincial offence 
 conduct issue
 training requirement
 no further action required 

 complete a TPS 559 for each Service vehicle involved, include the circumstances of the SVC and complete the
Supervisor’s Determination section

 ensure the damage is recorded on the appropriate Vehicle Damage Report in the unit file

 send a copy of the SRLD401 or eReport to the Unit Commander – Fleet & Materials Management (FLT) forthwith

When in receipt of a SVCR shall review for completeness, accuracy and investigative integrity and submit to the Officer in

1122
Q

Supervisory Officer attendance mandatory;

A

 suicide, possible sudden death, unnatural sudden death, suspicious death or suspected homicide
 sudden unexpected death, apparent suicide or accident where the only witness or person present at the time of
death or the finding of the body is an intimate partner, past or present

mandatory for Level 2 and 3 searches

mandatory for all robberies

  • all domestic violence calls
  • when the suspect/accused/victim is a member of this Service
  • when the suspect/accused is a member of another police service

Sexual Assault

upon receiving a complaint of a suspected child physical or sexual abuse

abuse of an elderly or
vulnerable adult

Child Abductions

there is information that a suspected EDP is
armed or may be armed with a weapon

Supervisory Officer and Traffic Services Officer attendance mandatory for collisions involving a Service Vehicle

for any incident of workplace violence

for any incident of workplace harassment

 Naloxone is administered
 a member is critically injured

 when responding to a Level 2 or 3 Incident

when attending a bomb or explosion call

upon confirming a situation requires the attendance of the ETF

upon becoming aware of an incident that might necessitate a school
Lockdown, Hold and Secure or Shelter in Place

SIU INCIDENTS

Use of force when firearm is discharged

Supervisory Officer attendance mandatory when less lethal shotgun is discharged

a CEW has been used in Drive Stun Mode or Full Development

Pursuit Supervisor attendance mandatory to monitor when a pursuit is initiated

 suicide, possible sudden death, unnatural sudden death, suspicious death or suspected homicide
 sudden unexpected death, apparent suicide or accident where the only witness or person present at the time of
death or the finding of the body is an intimate partner, past or present

Supervisory Officer attendance mandatory for Level 2 and 3 searches

1123
Q

Fleeing Suspect

A peace officer, and every person lawfully assisting the peace officer, is justified in using force that is

A

intended or is likely
to cause death or grievous bodily harm to a person to be arrested, if

a) the peace officer is proceeding lawfully to arrest, with or without warrant, the person to be arrested;
b) the offence for which the person is to be arrested is one for which that person may be arrested without warrant;
c) the person to be arrested takes flight to avoid arrest;

d) the peace officer or other person using the force believes on reasonable grounds that the force is necessary for
the purpose of protecting the peace officer, the person lawfully assisting the peace officer or any other person
from imminent or future death or grievous bodily harm; and
e) the flight cannot be prevented by reasonable means in a less violent manner.
[Authority: CC, ss. 25(4)]

1124
Q

SIU Investigative Interviews

The SIU will communicate all requests directly to the

A

Chief of Police. The scheduling of all investigative interviews requested
by the SIU shall be arranged through the PSS - SIU Liaison Section.

1125
Q

The PSS - SIU Liaison Section shall direct all officers in relation to the SIU requests. Should the SIU contact an officer
directly, the officer shall immediately

A

notify the PSS - SIU Liaison Section.
In accordance with s. 25(2) of the SIUA, Witness Officials, when properly designated as such, shall attend for an
investigative interview with the SIU and shall answer all reasonable questions immediately, or within 24 hours if appropriate
grounds for delay exist.
A police officer’s preference for a particular counsel is not a justifiable excuse for unreasonable delay in attending interviews
or for providing the required notes.

1126
Q

Siu

A police officer’s preference for a particular counsel is not

A

a justifiable excuse for unreasonable delay in attending interviews
or for providing the required notes.

1127
Q

Searches of persons shall be conducted keeping in mind that the safety of

A

Service members, the person being searched,

and the public are paramount. All searches of the person should be conducted thoroughly and in a methodical manner.

1128
Q

Searches of the person shall not be conducted in an

A

abusive fashion or be conducted to intimidate, ridicule or induce
admissions. Regardless of what type of search is undertaken, the dignity and the privacy of a person must always be given
consideration.

1129
Q

Prohibited Grounds means the protected grounds under the

A

Ontario Human Rights Code for which a person cannot
discriminate. These include: age, ancestry, citizenship, colour, creed, disability, ethnic origin, family status, gender
expression, gender identity, marital status (including single status), place of origin, race, receipt of public assistance (in
housing only), record of offences (in employment only), sex (including discrimination based on pregnancy and
breastfeeding), and sexual orientation.

1130
Q

When no contact of a discharged “sock” round is made with a person, the SIU is

A

still required to investigate any discharge
of a firearm at a person by an official, regardless of whether serious injury or death occurred;

 collect the discharged “sock” round(s) and casing(s) when no longer required for any immediate investigations, or
by the Special Investigations Unit (SIU)

 document the particulars on a TPS 649 and submit to the Toronto Police College – Armament Section for proper
disposal and issuance of replacement rounds

When contact is made of a discharged “sock” round with a person, the SIU is still required to investigate any discharge of
a firearm at a person by an official, regardless of whether serious injury or death occurred;
 collect and preserve the discharged “sock” round(s) and casing(s) for a minimum of 90 days in order to maintain
integrity of any future investigations, and when no longer required for immediate investigations, or by the Special
Investigations Unit (SIU)
 document the particulars on a TPS 649 and provide the document to the Toronto Police College – Armament
Section for issuance of replacement rounds
 comply with procedure 09-03 and complete a TPS 403 and TPS 405 when collecting and preserving “sock” round(s)
and casing(s)

1131
Q

When contact is made of a discharged “sock” round with a person, the SIU is still required to investigate any discharge of
a firearm at a person by an official, regardless of whether serious injury or death occurred;

A

 collect and preserve the discharged “sock” round(s) and casing(s) for a minimum of 90 days in order to maintain
integrity of any future investigations, and when no longer required for immediate investigations, or by the Special
Investigations Unit (SIU)
 document the particulars on a TPS 649 and provide the document to the Toronto Police College – Armament
Section for issuance of replacement rounds
 comply with procedure 09-03 and complete a TPS 403 and TPS 405 when collecting and preserving “sock” round(s)
and casing(s)

1132
Q

Search of a person without Warrant is ________ _____ unreasonable under s. _____ of the Charter. The onus is on the officers
conducting and authorizing a search to demonstrate that the search is justified in law, necessary and reasonable. Searches
conducted simply as a matter of routine or “______ ______” is not justified in law. However, for safety reasons, except
in extenuating circumstances, all persons under arrest must be searched prior to being placed in a police vehicle, prior to
being brought into a police station, and prior to being placed in a police cell.
Stronger grounds are required as the level of intrusiveness of a search increases. A Protective search and Frisk search

A

prima facie unreasonable under s. 8 of the Charter.

“standard procedure”

1133
Q

Chief’s Special Investigations Unit (SIU) On-Call Designated Authority means a member of the

A

cadre of on-call Toronto
Police Service uniform senior officers that acts as the designated authority and manages the SIU event in the field on behalf
of the Chief.

1134
Q

Affiant means a

A

police officer who swears to an affidavit, commonly used when requesting a search warrant before a
Justice.

1135
Q

Police Officer
Where there are reasonable grounds to believe that a person under arrest has secreted weapons or evidence in a body
cavity shall

A

 consult with the Officer in Charge
 escort the person to the hospital
 comply with Procedure 03–06
 request that the person remove the item in a controlled area of the hospital and with a medical professional present,
if possible
 if the person is unable or unwilling to remove the item and consents to a search
- ensure that the search is conducted by a qualified medical practitioner
- remain with the person while the search is taking place (same gender officers only, or if the person has
self-identified as trans or gender diverse, in compliance with Appendix C)
- advise the Officer in Charge of the results
 where the person refuses a Body Cavity search by a medical practitioner, and the item has not been removed
 advise the Officer in Charge
 restrain the person and hold in isolation pending a Show Cause Hearing
 continuously monitor the person to ensure their safety and the safety of Service members until recovery of
the item or substance is made
When a Body Cavity search has been completed shall complete a Body Cavity Search Template in compliance with item
6.

1136
Q

Officer in Charge

An Officer in Charge of a unit where persons are detained shall ensure

A

the decision to search a person has been evaluated based on reasonable and probable grounds and all risk factors,
including those found in Appendix B
 all arrested parties are advised, on camera, of the level of search to be performed and the manner and location in
which it will be carried out
 a Frisk search must be completed prior to any Strip search being conducted
 when applicable, all Frisk searches must be audio and video recorded. If not, the reason shall be documented
accordingly
 searches are conducted appropriately and the required Booking and Search Template has been completed for all
Strip and Body Cavity searches
 every effort is made to provide persons who do not speak English or, who by reason of disability have difficulty
communicating
 with the services of an interpreter in compliance with Procedure 04–09, or
 other person who can assist the person in understanding the process
 prisoners’ property is handled in compliance Procedures 01–03 and 09–06, as applicable
 when an item of religious significance is removed from a person that the item is treated with respect and handled
appropriately in compliance with Appendix D
 assessments regarding the retention of assistive devices are made on a case-by-case basis taking into
consideration all risk factors, including those contained in Appendix B, and all available accommodation options
 when it is determined that a person with a disability requiring the aid of an assistive device cannot be
accommodated, the reasons for the determination are clearly articulated in the memorandum book, including all
accommodation options considered
Note: Staff Sergeants shall book prisoners and authorize Strip Searches, unless at a Central lock-up where a
designate can be appointed

1137
Q

Assistive/Prosthetic Device means a device used to

A

replace, compensate for, or improve the functional abilities of people
with disabilities or for trans or gender diverse persons to affirm gender identity. Assistive device includes a broad range of
items such as mobility and visual/hearing aids, orthotics/prosthetics, speech devices, medical supplies, environmental
controls and respiratory devices. Prosthetics used to express gender identity include: breast forms, chest binders, gaffs,
packers, prosthetic penises and wigs.

1138
Q

Gender: the set of

A

socially classified behaviours, attitudes and norms associated with and roles of men, women, trans
people, non-binary people and more. Encompasses gender identity, a person’s internal sense of being a man, woman,
both or neither.

1139
Q

Define; Non-binary gender

A

identities outside of the expected binary of men and women.

1140
Q

What is;

identities outside of the expected binary of men and women.

A

Non binary

1141
Q

Any time a CEW is activated, the _____, _____ and _______ of the firing is recorded in a microchip. This data will be downloaded
for analysis and audit purposes. The CEW has a built–in weapon management system to prevent misuse/abuse and protect
officers from unfounded allegations through documentation of usage.
Use of CEW

A

date, time and duration

1142
Q

The right to search as an incident to a lawful arrest is found in common law, and has been upheld by the Supreme Court,
as long as the search is conducted for a valid objective and is not conducted in an abusive fashion.

A

 Cloutier v. Langlois (Supreme Court of Canada) (1990)
 R. v. Flintoff (Ontario Court of Appeal) (1998)
 R. v. Coulter (Ontario Court of Justice) (2000)
 R. v. Golden (Supreme Court of Canada) (2001)
 R. v. Clarke, Heroux and Pilipa (Ontario Superior Court of Justice) (2003)
 R. v. Mann (Supreme Court of Canada) (2004)
 R. v. McGuffie (Ontario Court of Appeal) (2016)
 R. v. MacPherson (Ontario Native Council on Justice) (2018)
 R. v. Tonkin (Ontario Superior Court of Justice) (2020)

1143
Q

As an incident to arrest a police officer may search for

A

 weapons
 anything that could cause injury (including drugs and alcohol)
 anything that could assist in a person’s escape
 evidence

1144
Q

Strip Searches
In _______, the Supreme Court of Canada, in the matter of R. v. ______, while upholding the common law right to search a
person who had been lawfully arrested, placed restrictions on police officers contemplating Strip searches.
In light of this decision, the Toronto Police Service has adopted the following official policy in regard to Strip searches of
persons who are in custody, incident to arrest.
When a person has been lawfully arrested and transported to a police facility, an assessment of the risk factors shall be
conducted. Where reasonable grounds exist to conduct a Strip search, a Strip search shall be conducted. Where reasonable
grounds do not exist for a Strip search, a Frisk search shall only be conducted. (A Strip search may be conducted if
reasonable grounds are established as a result of a Frisk search first.)
Risk Factors
Officers contemplating a Strip search of a person shall consider all the circumstances, including but not limited to
 the details of the current arrest
 the history of the person
 any items already located on the person during a Protective or Frisk search
 the demeanour or mental state of the individual
 the risks to the individual, the police, or others, associated with not performing a Strip search
 the potential that the person will come into contact with other detainees, creating an opportunity for the person to
hand off contraband, weapons, etc…to another prisoner (R. v. Coulter)
In addition to any factors being considered pertaining to the individual person, the following set of circumstances represents
the heightened safety concerns that are common to all persons held for a Show Cause hearing
 lodged in a cell awaiting transportation
 direct contact with other prisoners during transportation and lodging, creating the potential for conflict and/or
weapons/contraband being passed from one person to the next
 unsupervised while being transported in a prisoner transportation wagon
 lodged in court cells with other prisoners and prisoners arriving directly from the correctional system
 transportation, lodging, escorting of prisoner at court conducted by unarmed court officers
 direct contact with booking officers, court officers, correctional officers, lawyers, and other court staff who are
unarmed and have an expectation that every prisoner has been thoroughly searched to ensure officer, prisoner and
public safety
 the duty to protect prisoners while in custody and their expectation that while in custody their safety is not
compromised
 the Officer in Charge cannot know the background/history/state of mind of all the prisoners that will be brought into
the system on any given day, but is required to ensure their protection
All persons who are held in custody pending a Show Cause hearing are deemed to be entering the prison population. In
assessing the appropriate type of search, the Officer in Charge shall take into account the heightened safety concerns
created by this situation.
Members shall consult with the Officer in Charge prior to conducting a Strip search at a police station.
Prohibitions
The Supreme Court has ruled that Strip searches in the field will only be justified where there is a demonstrated necessity
and urgency to search for weapons or objects that could be used to threaten the safety of the accused, the arresting officers
or other individuals. In this case, officers would have to show why it would have been unsafe to wait and conduct the search
at the police station.

A

When a person has been lawfully arrested and transported to a police facility, an assessment of the risk factors shall be
conducted. Where reasonable grounds exist to conduct a Strip search, a Strip search shall be conducted. Where reasonable
grounds do not exist for a Strip search, a Frisk search shall only be conducted. (A Strip search may be conducted if
reasonable grounds are established as a result of a Frisk search first.)
Risk Factors
Officers contemplating a Strip search of a person shall consider all the circumstances, including but not limited to
 the details of the current arrest
 the history of the person
 any items already located on the person during a Protective or Frisk search
 the demeanour or mental state of the individual
 the risks to the individual, the police, or others, associated with not performing a Strip search
 the potential that the person will come into contact with other detainees, creating an opportunity for the person to
hand off contraband, weapons, etc…to another prisoner (R. v. Coulter)

1145
Q

In addition to any factors being considered pertaining to the individual person, the following set of circumstances represents
the heightened safety concerns that are common to all persons held for a Show Cause hearing

A

 lodged in a cell awaiting transportation
 direct contact with other prisoners during transportation and lodging, creating the potential for conflict and/or
weapons/contraband being passed from one person to the next
 unsupervised while being transported in a prisoner transportation wagon
 lodged in court cells with other prisoners and prisoners arriving directly from the correctional system
 transportation, lodging, escorting of prisoner at court conducted by unarmed court officers
 direct contact with booking officers, court officers, correctional officers, lawyers, and other court staff who are
unarmed and have an expectation that every prisoner has been thoroughly searched to ensure officer, prisoner and
public safety
 the duty to protect prisoners while in custody and their expectation that while in custody their safety is not
compromised
 the Officer in Charge cannot know the background/history/state of mind of all the prisoners that will be brought into
the system on any given day, but is required to ensure their protection
All persons who are held in custody pending a Show Cause hearing are deemed to be entering the prison population. In
assessing the appropriate type of search, the Officer in Charge shall take into account the heightened safety concerns
created by this situation.
Members shall consult with the Officer in Charge prior to conducting a Strip search at a police station.
Prohibitions
The Supreme Court has ruled that Strip searches in the field will only be justified where there is a demonstrated necessity
and urgency to search for weapons or objects that could be used to threaten the safety of the accused, the arresting officers
or other individuals. In this case, officers would have to show why it would have been unsafe to wait and conduct the search
at the police station.

1146
Q

Risk Factors

Officers contemplating a Strip search of a person shall consider all the circumstances, including but not limited to

A

 the details of the current arrest

 the history of the person

 any items already located on the person during a Protective or Frisk search

 the demeanour or mental state of the individual

 the risks to the individual, the police, or others, associated with not performing a Strip search

 the potential that the person will come into contact with other detainees, creating an opportunity for the person to
hand off contraband, weapons, etc…to another prisoner (R. v. Coulter)

1147
Q

Strip searches shall not be conducted in the field for the sole purpose of ______~_______When a Strip search must
be conducted in the field, it will be done in a private area with only the searching officers able to view the person being
searched, where possible. When a Strip search must be conducted in the field, the searching officers shall immediately
notify the Officer in Charge upon their arrival at the police station.
Strip searches shall not be videotaped. Any benefit to videotaping the search is outweighed by the potential of causing
unnecessary embarrassment to the person being searched. Further, in cases where a searching area has video equipment
installed, the person being searched will be advised that the search is not being videotaped.
Body Cavity Searches
Body Cavity searches shall not be performed by any member of the Toronto Police Service.
Where there are reasonable grounds to believe that a person under arrest has secreted weapons or evidence in a body
cavity, the person shall be immediately transported to a medical facility for treatment.
The person may consent to having the item or substance removed by a qualified medical practitioner. If the person is not
willing to have the medical practitioner assist with the removal, they shall be restrained and held in isolation pending a Show
Cause Hearing. The person shall be continuously monitored to ensure their safety and the safety of members of the Service
until recovery of the item or substance is made.

A

preserving evidence.

1148
Q

When a Strip search must be conducted in the field, the searching officers shall immediately
notify the ________~_______upon their arrival at the police station.

A

Officer in Charge

1149
Q

The term trans refers to people with

A

diverse gender identities and expressions that differ from their assigned sex at birth.

1150
Q

Gender Expression is how a person

A

publicly presents their gender. This can include behaviour and outward appearance
such as dress, hair, make-up, body language and voice. A person’s chosen name and pronoun are also common and
important ways of expressing gender.

1151
Q

Gender identity is each person’s

A

internal and individual experience of gender. It is their sense of being a woman, a man,
both, neither, or anywhere along or beyond the gender spectrum. A person’s gender identity may be the same as or different
from the typical pairing with their birth-assigned sex. Gender identity is fundamentally different from a person’s sexual
orientation

1152
Q

Trans includes but is not limited to people who identify as

A

transgender, trans woman (someone assigned male at birth who
knows themself to be a woman), trans man (someone assigned female at birth who knows themself to be a man),

nonbinary, gender non-conforming, gender variant or gender queer. Some people may consider two-spirit to be a trans identity.

Trans persons may or may not make a social transition, have surgery, use prosthetic devices or take prescription
medications (such as hormone therapies), to affirm their gender identity. They may or may not have identity documents
that reflect their lived identity.

1153
Q

non-binary, gender non-conforming, gender variant or gender queer. Some people may consider two-spirit to be a trans identity.

Are included in the definition of a

A

Trans persons

1154
Q

searches are conducted appropriately and the required Booking and Search Template has been completed

A

for all

Strip and Body Cavity searches

1155
Q

Persons in custody section

. A member shall never apply a police _________ or other similar device to any videotape, DVD/CD and/or the associated storage case.

A

Seal

1156
Q

Accused Young Persons

A young person under 18 years of age may be lodged in a divisional cell only

A

 to prevent injury or to protect others from aggressive behaviour and
 when there is no adult present in the cells, OR

when there is an adult present in the cells and there is adequate space to isolate the young person from the adult.

1157
Q

Prisoner’s Property
In order to maximize the safety of prisoners held in police custody and the Service members assigned to their care, it is the
practice of the Toronto Police Service that the following property be removed from every prisoner

A

 valuable property

 evidence

 implements of escape

 offensive weapons as defined in the Criminal Code

 items which could be used as a ligature including belts, ties, and shoelaces

 items which could be used to cause damage to property including matches, lighters, combs, keys and other sharp
objects

 prescription and over the counter medications

 tobacco products
- With respect to assistive/prosthetic devices, comply with the Duty to Accommodate sections below

1158
Q

Duty to Accommodate Persons with Disabilities

The Service has a duty to accommodate persons with disabilities under the

A

Ontario Human Rights Code and the
Accessibility for Ontarians with Disabilities Act. Therefore, persons with a disability requiring the aid of an assistive device
should be permitted to keep their device while in custody.
When required, any infringement of a person’s right to be accommodated must be minimal in nature, and no more than is
necessary to achieve the desired objective.

1159
Q

Duty to Accommodate Gender Identity and Gender Expression

Section 1 of the Ontario Human Rights Code states “

A

Every person has a right to equal treatment with respect to services,
goods and facilities, without discrimination because of race, ancestry, place of origin, colour, ethnic origin, citizenship, creed,
sex, sexual orientation, gender identity, gender expression, age, marital status, family status or disability.”

1160
Q

Member
When transporting a person in custody shall
 using only those handcuffs, leg irons and other restraining devices authorized by the _______~___~_______ , place the
person in handcuffs using the approved manner and utilize the double–lock mechanism where possible in
order to

A

Chief of police

 prevent the escape of a person in custody
 control the violent activities of a person in custody
 when handcuffs are not used, be prepared to justify this decision
Keeping in mind officer and public safety, officers may use discretion when determining whether to handcuff an individual
as it may not be practical or necessary in all circumstances (e.g. due to a person’s medical condition, age, disability,
pregnancy, or frailty)
 not leave the prisoner unattended
 place the person in the rear of the police vehicle

1161
Q

Where the police vehicle has no screen, the person shall be placed in the right rear seat. If an escort is available, the escort
shall occupy the left rear seat.

A

 allow one (1) prisoner per vehicle (wagons excepted), when possible, comply with Appendix E when transporting
trans person
 permit only those police officers involved in the investigation inside the vehicle with an arrested person
 ensure prisoners and civilians (e.g. witnesses) are not transported in the same police vehicle
 prior to departure, advise the communications operator of the destination, the gender identity and age of the
person, and the odometer reading
 advise the communications operator of the odometer reading upon arrival
When requested by another member to transport a person in custody to a police station shall
- record the following information in the memorandum book
 arresting officer’s name
 reason for the arrest and continued detention
 requesting member’s name, badge number, rank and unit
 person’s name and charge
 any other pertinent information relating to the person or to the arrest
- provide the requesting member with their name, rank, badge number and unit

1162
Q

Upon determining the detention of the person is not required shall

A

 release the person in compliance with the appropriate release procedures in Chapter 1
 when the person in custody is a young person, ensure a parent, legal guardian, adult relative, adult friend or
spouse is notified without delay and requested to attend the station

1163
Q

Oic with regard to lodging persons in cells

individuals suspected of having suicidal or violent tendencies or serious medical conditions are more closely

A

monitored and checked as frequently as possible

1164
Q

When a prisoner claims to be a methadone patient shall ensure that such persons are informed that their prescribed
dosage can only be obtained

A

 following release from custody, or

 if remanded in custody, by request to corrections staff and after corrections staff has consulted with the
prescribing doctor.

When the prisoner complains of symptoms associated with the non-receipt of their prescription, shall ensure

 medical advice (i.e. Telehealth Ontario) is sought, or the person is transported to a hospital for assessment by a
doctor for short term health risks

 while in police custody, such persons are not transported for treatment at any place other than a hospital

 if the person is transported to a hospital, that staff are advised the purpose of the visit is not to receive their
prescribed dosage

 the results are noted in the crown brief, the Arrest Booking/Cell Management screen and the Prisoner
Transportation Report

1165
Q

If an incident occurs in an area being monitored and recorded by the DAMS shall

A

 ensure that assistance is immediately rendered and that the incident is dealt with in the appropriate manner

 once the incident has been resolved, and it is determined that the recording should be retained, notify PVEMU to
retrieve and preserve the relevant security recording

 ensure the incident, along with a notation that the recording has been preserved, is made in the appropriate
Arrest Booking/Cell Management screen and the UCMR

1166
Q

Court Cells means cells used during those hours in which the courts are sitting. A person shall be lodged in a court cell
when:

A

 being held for a court appearance;

 awaiting transportation to a detention facility;

 ordered into custody by the court.

1167
Q

Divisional Cells means cells that may be used for short term detention of a person in custody when:

A

 being processed, or waiting to be processed, or to ensure the safety of the person and/or members;
 awaiting transportation to a central lock–up;
 being held for return by an outside agency.

1168
Q

Lock–Up means an assigned division used to detain a person in custody:

A

 when the person is held for a Show Cause hearing, or Judicial Interim Release where the bail court is closed
 when outside of admitting hours stipulated in Procedure 03–03
 in any other circumstances where detention is authorized and necessary.
See Appendix C for a list of assigned lock–ups.

1169
Q

Member – Prisoner Care & Control for

A

the purposes of prisoner transportation, care and control, includes a police officer,
court officer and custodial officer.

1170
Q

Police Cells means

A

divisional cells, central lock–ups and court cells used for the secure detention of persons in custody. An
interview room is not a police cell.

Police officer

Prior to lodging a person in police cells shall
 take the person before the Officer in Charge and advise of any pertinent information relating to the person or to the
arrest including, but not limited to

 known or suspected suicidal tendencies

 violent tendencies

 serious medical conditions

 assistive devices

 safety concerns

 injuries

 emotional disturbance, any known mental illness or developmental disability

 medication, or whether any medication has been administered

 impairment due to alcohol or drugs

1171
Q

Police Vehicle – Prisoner Transportation for the purposes of

A

prisoner transportation, includes marked and unmarked

vehicle owned or operated by the Service, that has the capacity to transport a driver and two or more passengers.

1172
Q

When considering the need for further medical attention, the Officer in Charge should be cognisant of some circumstances
which may impact on the health of the individual

A

 where a drug that is not designed to be swallowed has been swallowed by an individual (i.e. for the purpose
of concealing or transporting), or held in the mouth in such a way that the drug is exposed (e.g. no wrapper,
or damaged wrapper)

 where the individual cannot, declines or fails to recall what substances (whether prescribed or non–prescribed),
quantity, or when the substances were taken

 where the quantity of drugs taken suggests a possible overdose (i.e. more than prescribed)

 where any drug has been taken in conjunction with alcohol

 where the individual is acting irrationally or aggressively, appears ill, is complaining of pains, nausea, etc., or
reports feeling differently than other times when they have taken the same drug

 where cocaine has been used by the person, and the person has had to be physically restrained, or has
exerted themself physically (e.g. foot pursuit, struggle, etc.)

 where the prisoner exhibits an unexplained change in behaviour (e.g. becomes aggressive, lethargic, sleepy,
etc.)

1173
Q

The following services are available at no cost to assist the Officer in Charge in making a determination as to whether a
prisoner is in need of further medical treatment. These services may be used where the Officer in Charge requires further
information (e.g. effects of drug interaction) to complete their assessment of the individual

A

Telehealth Ontario (1–866–797–0000, TTY 1–866–797–0007) – provides quick easy access to a qualified
health professional (registered nurse) who can assess the symptoms of the prisoner and offer advice as to
whether the individual is in need of immediate hospital care. Depending on the number of people making use
of this service, a representative may have to return your call. When leaving a message, for faster service,
ensure you identify yourself as a police officer seeking advice regarding a prisoner who has taken a drug prior
to arrest.

 Ontario Regional Poison Information Centre – SickKids Hospital (416–813–5900 or 1–800–268–9017, TTY
416–597–0215 or 1–877–750–2233) – can provide information regarding drug interactions, and potential
overdose information. If the concern to be addressed deals only with an interaction or potential overdose, call
this service directly; otherwise contact Telehealth Ontario first.
- When there is a delay in receiving the required information from the above mentioned services, the prisoner
shall be continuously monitored until the information requested is received and the Officer in Charge has made
a final determination whether to accept the individual at the police facility.

1174
Q

Any person who has or is suspected of having taken a drug prior to being arrested, and is accepted at a police facility shall
be monitored more closely, and the results of those checks recorded, until such time as the Officer in Charge is satisfied
that the individual is not at risk. Individuals who have taken hard drugs such as cocaine, heroin, etc., shall be monitored
more closely for at least ______ hours from the time when the drug was taken.

A

3

If at any time, the prisoner’s condition changes, or there is a concern regarding the health of the person, members shall
notify the Officer in Charge who shall re–evaluate their condition.
Individuals with violent or suicidal tendencies shall be lodged in a separate cell whenever practicable and their behaviour
closely monitored.
Prisoners housed in divisional cells or lock–ups should be placed opposite each other where possible. This can provide an
opportunity for one prisoner to give early warning of illness, suicide, or self–injury involving another prisoner

1175
Q

Unexpected deaths of intoxicated individuals may occur as a result of a condition called _______~______~______

A

obstructive sleep apnea.

The
consumption of alcohol or alcohol in combination with central nervous system depressants (e.g. narcotics, barbiturates,
etc.) can frequently produce a deep sleep accompanied by loud snoring.
Snoring is not an indicator of consciousness. It indicates only that a person is breathing. Individuals who are intoxicated or
who exhibit very loud or disrupted snoring must be closely monitored and awakened frequently in order to determine if their
state of sobriety is improving over time.

1176
Q

Alcohol Withdrawal Syndrome (AWS) is characterized by physical and mental symptoms that can occur after a person
discontinues consuming high doses of alcohol. Symptoms of AWS may appear within _____~____ hours after a person’s last
consumption of alcohol. AWS more commonly affects those with a history of alcoholism and/or those who have experienced
problems with alcohol withdrawal in the past.
Symptoms can depend upon the ______ of ________ consumed, _______ of consumption, and the _______ of consumption
prior to discontinuance. Determining a “_____~______” as to a person’s last consumption of alcohol is important in assessing
the onset of AWS.
Symptoms can range from mild to severe and include:

Mild Symptoms

tremors (trembling or quivering)

 anxiety

 sleep disturbance (insomnia)

 sweating (diaphoresis)

 over responsive reflexes (hyperreflexia)

 nausea/vomiting

Mild symptoms can occur within _____ hours after discontinuance and should subside within _____ hours.

Moderate Symptoms

 intensified Mild Symptoms

 rapid breathing (tachypnea)

 racing heart rate (tachycardia)

 agitation

Moderate symptoms can occur within ___~____ hours after discontinuance and should subside within _____ hrs.
Severe Symptoms

 severely intensified Mild and/or Moderate Symptoms

 hallucinations

 seizures

 disorientation

 abnormally high fever (hyperthermia)

Severe symptoms can occur within ____ hours after discontinuance and/or after a decrease in consumption of alcohol and
can cause a person’s condition to deteriorate to a very serious condition known as delirium tremens (DTs).

Symptoms of DTs usually occur____~_____ hours after discontinuance and include:

 profoundly intensified Mild, Moderate, and/or Severe Symptoms
If left untreated,

DTs can result in death.
- The time frames for the onset of AWS symptoms have been generalized.

Symptoms occurring outside of the time frames (before and after) must still be considered (e.g. Seizures may present between____~_____ hours after a person’s last consumption of alcohol).

The decision as to whether to send a prisoner to the hospital should be based upon the Officer in Charge’s assessment of the circumstances and observations made. Where a prisoner displays or reports symptoms of AWS as a result of disclosed or suspected alcohol use/abuse, further medical advice shall be sought and/or the prisoner shall be transported
to the hospital for a medical examination.

A

6 – 12

amount of alcohol consumed, frequency of consumption, and the duration of consumption

time-stamp

Mild 24-48
Moderate 24-36, within 48
Severe after 48

DT systems 48 – 72

12 – 60

1177
Q

Intoxicated individuals who lapse into sleep should be placed lying on their _____ with the head angled forward (recovery
position) whenever possible.

A

Side

1178
Q

Symptoms of DTs usually occur ____~____ hours after discontinuance and include:
 profoundly intensified Mild, Moderate, and/or Severe Symptoms

A

48-72

1179
Q

If left untreated, DTs can result in ___.

-

A

Death

1180
Q
Mild Symptoms of AWS
 tremors (trembling or quivering)
 anxiety
 sleep disturbance (insomnia)
 sweating (diaphoresis)
 over responsive reflexes (hyperreflexia)
 nausea/vomiting
Mild symptoms can occur within \_\_\_\_ hours after discontinuance and should subside within \_\_\_\_ hours.
Moderate Symptoms
 intensified Mild Symptoms
 rapid breathing (tachypnea)
 racing heart rate (tachycardia)
 agitation
Moderate symptoms can occur within \_\_\_\_\_~\_\_\_\_\_ hours after discontinuance and should subside within \_\_\_\_ hrs.

Severe Symptoms
 severely intensified Mild and/or Moderate Symptoms
 hallucinations
 seizures
 disorientation
 abnormally high fever (hyperthermia)
Severe symptoms can occur within _____ hours after discontinuance and/or after a decrease in consumption of alcohol and
can cause a person’s condition to deteriorate to a very serious condition known as delirium tremens (DTs).

Symptoms of DTs usually occur _____ – _____ hours after discontinuance and include:
 profoundly intensified Mild, Moderate, and/or Severe Symptoms
If left untreated, DTs can result in death.

A

24, 48

24-36, 48

48

48-72 (DT’s)

1181
Q

Intoxicated individuals who lapse into sleep should be placed

A

lying on their side with the head angled forward (recovery

position) whenever possible.

1182
Q

Excited delirium is a condition that can be caused by drug or alcohol intoxication, psychiatric illness or a combination of
both. Symptoms displayed by individuals suffering from this condition may include any combination of

A

abnormal tolerance to pain

 abnormal tolerance to pepper spray

 unexpected physical strength

 violence towards others

 shouting

 sweating, fever, heat intolerance

 sudden calm after frenzied activity

 bizarre or aggressive behaviour

 impaired thinking

 disorientation

 acute onset of paranoia

 hallucinations

 panic

1183
Q

Individuals exhibiting the symptoms of excited delirium must always be treated as

A

suffering from a medical emergency and

once secured, be transported to hospital for examination.

1184
Q

Because of their inclination to violence and extreme exertion, individuals exhibiting the symptoms of excited delirium are
often

A

restrained for their own protection and the protection of others.
Members should be cognizant of positional asphyxia when dealing with persons exhibiting the symptoms of excited delirium
and, unless circumstances make it impossible, restrain the person in a sitting position as noted in item K.

1185
Q

Members shall not inject any medication into a prisoner, and under no circumstances shall a medication container be given
to the prisoner. Requests for injectable insulin, transition related hormones and similar medications require treatment by a
physician.
- This prohibition does not apply to epinephrine auto-injectors (e.g. EpiPen and Twinject). In accordance with this
Procedure, prescription and over the counter medications shall be removed from every prisoner. However, when a
person taken into custody has in their possession an epinephrine auto-injector, which has been prescribed for them,
and experiences a severe allergic reaction (anaphylaxis), they shall

A

be immediately provided with their epinephrine
auto-injector to self-administer. Where a person is unable to self-administer the auto-injector, a member shall
administer it to them in accordance with the instructions on the device and/or approved First Aid training. The person
shall be transported to the hospital by Toronto Paramedic Services (Paramedics) immediately following the
injection.
Any member accidentally injected with epinephrine not prescribed for them, shall be immediately transported to a
hospital.

1186
Q

If prescription medication is in ______~_____, the prisoner may be handed the appropriate dosage in compliance with this
Procedure.

A

Pill Form

1187
Q

Methadone is a synthetic opioid used as a replacement therapy for narcotic addiction. Treatment is obtained only by
prescription and the prescribed dosage varies between individuals. The short–term (_____ – _____ hours) effects of abstinence
from methadone by a patient are not life–threatening, although the patient may show signs of anxiety.

A

24-36 hours

1188
Q

Individuals who bring a prescribed dosage of liquid methadone with them into custody (called a ‘______’) shall not be given
the medication. The risk of an adulterated sample being brought into custody presents too great a health danger to allow
such dosages to be consumed by prisoners.

A

Carry

1189
Q

Pregnant persons who require methadone treatment should be treated at

A

hospital regardless of the dispensed form of
methadone. The Officer in Charge should make arrangements where possible for the issue of a prescription by the
originating physician.

1190
Q

All methadone brought into custody shall be

A

taken from the prisoner’s possession. Where lawful authority to possess the
methadone is established, a clearly labelled and sealed ‘carry’ will be refrigerated and returned to the prisoner upon release
from custody. Where lawful authority to possess the sample is not established, or the ‘carry’ is in an unlabelled or unsealed
container, it——?? It stops here

1191
Q

Trans persons may or may not make

A
a social transition, have surgery, use prosthetic devices or take 
prescription medications (such as hormone therapies), to affirm their gender identity. They may or may not have identity 
documents that reflect their lived identity.
1192
Q

When interacting with trans persons, officers shall be sensitive to needs and concerns without jeopardizing ______ and
________ _______.
In order to best address the specific needs or concerns of each person, each case must be assessed individually. To that
end, the Officer in Charge shall determine the best possible course of action in order to respect the dignity of the person
being lodged or transported.

A

Officer and prisoners safety

1193
Q

This Procedure only applies to an attempt by a police officer to collect identifying information by asking an individual, in a
face-to-face encounter, to identify themself or to provide information for the purpose of identifying the individual, and
includes such an attempt whether or not identifying information is collected, only if that attempt is done for the purpose of

A

(Give him the card)

 inquiring into offences that have been or might be committed; and/or
 inquiring into suspicious activities to detect offences; and/or
 gathering information for intelligence purposes.

Notwithstanding the above, this Procedure does not apply to an attempt by a police officer to collect identifying information
from an individual when
 investigating an offence the police officer reasonably suspects has been or will be committed;
 the individual is legally required to provide the information to a police officer (e.g. during a traffic stop or trespass
investigation);
 the individual is under arrest or is being detained;
 the police officer is engaged in a covert operation;
 the police officer is executing a warrant, acting pursuant to a court order or performing related duties; or
 the individual is employed in the administration of justice or is carrying out duties or providing services that are
otherwise relevant to carrying out the police officer’s duties.

1194
Q

Oic; When releasing a person shall make every effort to ensure the safety of that person given the

A

age, gender or condition of

the person and the time and location of release.

1195
Q

Procedure
The focus of police efforts for the purpose of bail hearings and detention orders must be the _______ of the ______ and the
protection of the ______~______.

A

Safety victim, general publi

1196
Q

Case Manager

If an accused person is presently before the courts shall

A

 ensure the case manager at the unit managing the outstanding charge is notified of the new arrest, court date and
location

 ensure compliance with Procedure 02–01, as appropriate

 ensure the items contained in the brief include a notation of the previous charge, court date and form of release

 if the accused person is currently before the courts in another jurisdiction, notify the agency managing the case via
CPIC of the date, time and location of the bail hearings for the new charges

 ensure compliance with Procedure 05–11 for any breach of bail or non–compliance with conditional release
If there is an outstanding warrant for the accused person in another jurisdiction, and the agency managing the charges
indicates they will return the accused to that jurisdiction shall

 ensure compliance with the applicable sections of Procedure 02–01

 include a TPS 178 and a copy of the warrant in the Confidential Crown Envelope (crown envelope)
When seeking a detention order shall ensure

 compliance with Procedure 12–01

 opposition to bail is clearly noted and the grounds for continued detention are set out in the brief

 when preparing the brief, a TPS – PS – Show Cause template has been completed in accordance with the format
found in Appendix A

a separate eReport containing the case manager’s recommended release conditions is included within the brief in the event a Justice decides that a detention order is not appropriate (see Appendix B for Guidelines for Bail
Conditions)
-

The case manager should request an adjournment to the bail hearing when there are unfinished aspects
of the investigation pertaining to bail and indicate an approximate time required to complete the
investigation. Under ss. 516(1) of the CC, a Justice may adjourn these proceedings (Form 19) for a
maximum of 3 clear days unless the accused person consents to a lengthier adjournment.

 the victim is informed of the right to attend the bail hearing and consideration is given to calling the victim to testify
at the bail hearing to present evidence when appropriate

 compliance with Procedure 05–21, including the search and seizure provisions of the CC in cases involving
violence, weapons, threats, intimidation or where there are concerns for the safety of the victim, witnesses or the
accused person
 consideration is given to seeking an Order of Weapons Prohibition under ss. 515(4.1) for the offences listed in ss.
515(4.1) (a) through (d)
 consideration is given to seeking an Order of Non–Communication under ss. 515(12) or 516(2), as appropriate
 consideration is given to requesting a psychiatric examination where there are grounds to believe, that except for
the commission of a criminal act, the accused person acted in a manner that would require apprehension by a
police officer under the Mental Health Act
 consideration is given to seeking the assistance of Detective Operations – Sex Crimes – Behavioural Assessment
section for a formal risk assessment in cases where there are concerns about the safety of the victim or witnesses
 permission is sought from the Unit Commander, the detective sergeant or the Officer in Charge to attend the bail
hearing for serious offences or at the request of the Crown and to co–ordinate any witnesses being called

1197
Q

Case Manager
When seeking a detention order

Where in the opinion of the case manager/investigator, the victim is believed to be at heightened risk due to the release of
the accused shall ensure

A

 the top section of a TPS 483 is completed and inserted in the Crown Brief
 the outside of the Crown Brief is marked “Victim Notification” to alert Court Services that victim notification is
required should the accused meet or be granted bail

1198
Q

Case Manager

When seeking a judicial interim release shall ensure

A

 compliance with Procedure 12–01

 appropriate conditions are recommended in the event the accused person is released, focusing on restricting the
behaviour of the accused person to ensure the safety of the victim and/or the public. Release conditions must be
directly related to one of the grounds (primary, secondary or tertiary) outlined in ss. 515(10) CC. (See Appendix B
for Guidelines for Bail Conditions)
-

Organized Crime Enforcement – Bail & Parole is the only police facility to be designated for the purpose
of having an accused person report to police. This unit is open between 0900 and 2100 hours, Monday
through Friday, except on statutory holidays.

 compliance with Procedure 05–21 including the search and seizure provisions of the CC in cases involving violence,
weapons, threats, intimidation or where there are concerns for the safety of the victim, witnesses or the accused
person

 if the accused person has access to firearms and other weapons in the course of their employment, the employer
is promptly notified of any prohibition order arising from the bail hearing

 consideration is given to using Procedure 17–04 to provide victim and public notifications, particularly in cases
involving domestic violence, intimidation, and criminal harassment

 the victim is informed of the right to attend the bail hearing and consideration is given to calling the victim to testify
at the bail hearing to present evidence when appropriate

 if the accused person is a young person, a YCJA Parent is served on the appropriate person
When notified that bail has been granted to the accused shall

 ensure that the conditions of release are communicated personally to the victim as soon as possible

Bail conditions shall be communicated personally to the victim as close as possible to the time bail is
granted and not delayed until the time the accused person is actually released. It is not sufficient to
simply leave a message or letter outlining the release conditions at the victim’s address. The conditions
contained on the release documents shall be reported to the victim. However, actual copies of the
release documents are not to be given to the victim by the police.

ensure the victim is notified of the next court date
 ensure the victim is advised to engage in a safety plan, including the use of 9-1-1 in emergency situations, and is
referred to Victim Services Toronto for safety planning information
 ensure the victim is advised to contact the Ministry of Attorney General’s Victim/Witness Assistance Program
 ensure the victim is advised of the option of registering with the Ministry of the Attorney General Victim Support
Line for release notification from a detention facility, if applicable
 monitor all court appearances of the accused person for potential variances to the original bail conditions
 if bail variances have been granted to the accused person, notify the victim as soon as possible of these changes

1199
Q

Case Manager

Upon completion of any notification of bail conditions to the victim shall ensure

A

 that proper notations of the date, time, person contacted and other details, including attempts made to notify the
victim are
 added as supplementary information to the original eReport
 made in the
 memorandum book or case book
 TPS 483, if applicable
 the Officer in Charge is notified of all results related to victim notification

1200
Q

Domestic Violence Investigator
The DVI shall be responsible for ensuring the needs of the victim are met, effective management of the crime scene,
including the gathering of evidence and ensure that a thorough and comprehensive investigation is conducted.
When investigating a domestic violence occurrence shall
 conduct a thorough and complete investigation
 if the victim requires or requests medical attention, ensure the services of a DVCC are offered

A

Read this entire thing pg 92

1201
Q

Sex Crimes – Behavioural Assessment Section to assist the victim in
developing a personal safety plan

What section is this in??

A

Domestic Violence Investigator

Shall pg92.

Read the entire section

1202
Q

What is this in relation to

in high risk cases, consider placing both the victim and accused in the CPIC ‘Special Interest to Police’ (SIP)
category by submitting a completed TPS 227 according to the instructions on the form
- The SIP category exists in CPIC to capture a wide range of information, including “persons who are
dangerous to themselves or others” including, but not restricted to domestic situations. All SIP entries must
include the specific reason (e.g. Dangerous Person – Domestic Violence) and should contain a caution for
“Family Violence”.

A

Domestic Violence Investigator

The DVI shall

1203
Q

ensure that two copies of a DVRM/ODARA are completed and included in the crown envelope for the first court
appearance

A

Domestic Violence Investigator

The DVI shall. Pg 93

1204
Q

Domestic Violence Investigator
The DVI shall. Pg 93

When in receipt of a Domestic Violence report and the suspect has not been arrested shall

A

ensure a further investigation is promptly conducted

 lay charges where reasonable grounds exist and submit a TPS 227 with the eReport number

 where reasonable grounds exist and the suspect has not been arrested/charged within 24 hours of the offence,
consider obtaining a warrant in compliance with Procedure 02–01

 complete a Warrant Application Supplementary via eReport and enter the suspect’s information onto CPIC in the
“WANT” category indicating that an arrest warrant is pending, if applicable
The entry will be removed from CPIC after two business days if the warrant is not received.

 if no charges are laid, add supplementary information to the original eReport explaining the reasons for such a
decision

1205
Q

Domestic Violence Investigator
The DVI shall. Pg 93

When in receipt of a Domestic Incident report where no reasonable grounds exist relative to a charge shall

A

 review all of the circumstances, including the responses to the ‘Risk Factor’ questions
 generate a FIP entry on CPIC if the incident contains information that should be made available to the Office of the
Chief Provincial Firearms Officer
- The Firearms Act s. 5 (http://laws-lois.justice.gc.ca/eng/acts/F-11.6/FullText.html) indicates the types of
offences/incidents which justify a FIP. The FIP database in CPIC flags an individual applying for a firearms
licence. Such a flag is not an automatic refusal to issue a licence, but assists in the initial screening process
or a subsequent review of the licence file by the Chief Firearms Officer.

1206
Q

Domestic Violence Investigator
The DVI shall. Pg 93

When in receipt of a Domestic Incident report where no reasonable grounds exist relative to a charge shall

A

 review all of the circumstances, including the responses to the ‘Risk Factor’ questions
 generate a FIP entry on CPIC if the incident contains information that should be made available to the Office of the
Chief Provincial Firearms Officer
- The Firearms Act s. 5 (http://laws-lois.justice.gc.ca/eng/acts/F-11.6/FullText.html) indicates the types of
offences/incidents which justify a FIP. The FIP database in CPIC flags an individual applying for a firearms
licence. Such a flag is not an automatic refusal to issue a licence, but assists in the initial screening process
or a subsequent review of the licence file by the Chief Firearms Officer.
Detective Sergeant

1207
Q

Unit Commander

Where a Service member is a suspect/accused in a domestic violence case shall

A

 notify the appropriate Unit Commander, or if absent, the Duty Senior Officer of the circumstances surrounding the
incident

 comply with Procedure 13–08 or 13–10 when considering suspending the member

 ensure the assistance of the EFAP, Victim Services Toronto and other community agencies are offered to the victim

 ensure the suspect/accused is informed of the assistance available from the EFAP
Where a member of another police service is a suspect/accused shall notify their Unit Commander, or if absent, the Duty
Senior Officer of the circumstances.

1208
Q

Unit Commander/ Duty Senior Officer – Toronto Police Operations Centre

The Unit Commander, or in their absence, the Duty Senior Officer shall be responsible for ensuring all proper notifications
are made when a member of a police service is a suspect or an accused.
When notified a member of this Service is a suspect/accused shall

A

 immediately advise PRS of the circumstances

 for a matter involving a police officer, ensure compliance with Chapter 13 regarding conduct complaints

 for all members, comply with Procedure 13–08 or 13–10 when considering suspension

 ensure the assistance of the EFAP, Victim Services Toronto and other community agencies are offered to the victim

ensure the suspect/accused is informed of the assistance available from the EFAP

 where appropriate or requested, ensure appropriate arrangements are made in the workplace to ensure there is no direct contact between the victim and the suspect/accused
When notified a member of another police service is a suspect/accused shall ensure

 the Duty Officer of their service is contacted as soon as practicable

 information is provided about the matter including

 details of the incident

 condition and status of the victim

 charges laid, if applicable

 whether bail is being opposed

 date, time and location of the first court appearance, if applicable
Definitions

1209
Q

Domestic

Bona Fide Reasons means

A

 a victim or witness who may possibly require or may seek admission into the Provincial Witness Protection Program;

 a Crown Attorney is requesting information for disclosure purposes;

 the information is necessary to prove essential elements of an offence, or;

 investigations where the circumstances make it clear that it is essential to public or officer safety and security to
ascertain the immigration status of a victim or witness.

1210
Q

Child in Need of Protection means a

A

child that can be apprehended as being in need of protection as defined in s.125 (1)
of the Child, Youth and Family Services Act.

1211
Q

Criteria Offence – Ontario Major Case Management means the following major cases:

A

 homicides as defined in subsection 222(4), Criminal Code, and attempts;

 sexual assaults, and all attempts (for the purpose of this standard, is deemed to include sexual interference, sexual
exploitation and invitation to sexual touching);

 trafficking in persons as defined in section 279.01, 279.011 or 279.04, Criminal Code, and attempts as defined in 
section 24(1) Criminal Code;

 occurrences involving non-familial abductions and attempts;

 missing person occurrences, as outlined in the Ontario Major Case Management Manual;

 occurrences suspected to be homicide involving found human remains;

 criminal harassment cases in which the offender is not known to the victim; and,

 any other types of cases designated as a major case pursuant to this Ontario Major Case Management Manual.
[Source: Ontario Major Case Management Manual]

1212
Q

Dominant Aggressor means the individual who has been the

A

principal abuser, and not necessarily the person who initiated
the violence that resulted in the attendance of police.

1213
Q

Victim means:

A

 a person to whom harm was done or who suffered physical or emotional loss as a result of the commission of the
offence; and
 where the person described in paragraph (a) is dead, ill or otherwise incapable of making a statement referred to
in subsection (1), includes the spouse or common-law partner or any relative of that person, anyone who has in
law or fact the custody of that person or is responsible for the care or support of that person or any dependant of
that person.
[Source: Criminal Code, 722(4)]

1214
Q

Victim/Witness Assistance Program (VWAP) means the program operated by the (

A

Ontario) Ministry of the Attorney
General. Services are provided on a priority basis to the most vulnerable victims and witnesses of violent crime; such as
domestic violence, child abuse, sexual assault, homicide and hate crime. Families of traffic fatality victims are also eligible.
Services begin once police have laid charges and continue until the court case is concluded.

1215
Q

The Domestic Violence Risk Management – Ontario Domestic Assault Risk Assessment (DVRM/ODARA) is a report that
shall be completed for all domestic violence occurrences.

A

 Only an accredited DVI, who has received the ODARA training and received a certificate from Waypoint Health
Center shall complete the DVRM/ODARA

 Should be used as a tool to assist officers, supervisors and Crowns in managing domestic violence investigations
and identifying risk factors that may exist in a domestic violence case

 Victim participation in completing the DVRM is optimal and strongly encouraged

 every effort should be made to improve relationships, build trust with the victim and promote victim
participation,

 however, an uncooperative or incapacitated victim does not preclude you from completing the report, as
other sources of information are available

 It is important that the accredited DVI conducting the investigation understands the purpose of each question and
is able to assess and manage risk. They must make sure the victim has a good understanding of the question in
order to get the required information.

 The DVRM/ODARA must be completed and in the crown brief for the bail hearing
Safety

1216
Q

When initiating a pursuit while operating an unmarked motor vehicle shall
 request a _____~_____~____ attend and engage in the pursuit
 immediately abandon the pursuit when a _______~_____~____ motor arrives and becomes engaged in the pursuit
When engaged in a pursuit where

A

Marked motor vehicle

1217
Q

When engaged in a pursuit where the risk to public safety outweighs the need to apprehend an individual in a fleeing motor
vehicle or the need to identify the fleeing motor vehicle or the need to identify an individual in the fleeing motor vehicle or
when ordered by a pursuit supervisor shall
 immediately ________ the pursuit
 bring the ________ or ______ motor vehicle to a safe stop
 turn off _________ equipment, if equipped
 advise the Communications Operator that the pursuit has been __________
 provide the last known direction of the fleeing motor vehicle, and, if not already done, the fleeing motor vehicle
_________
 advise the Communications Operator of the current location and odometer reading of the vehicle
 prior to the completion of the tour of duty, complete
 a TPS 348

A

When engaged in a pursuit where the risk to public safety outweighs the need to apprehend an individual in a fleeing motor
vehicle or the need to identify the fleeing motor vehicle or the need to identify an individual in the fleeing motor vehicle or
when ordered by a pursuit supervisor shall
 immediately abandon the pursuit
 bring the marked or unmarked motor vehicle to a safe stop
 turn off emergency equipment, if equipped
 advise the Communications Operator that the pursuit has been abandoned
 provide the last known direction of the fleeing motor vehicle, and, if not already done, the fleeing motor vehicle
description
 advise the Communications Operator of the current location and odometer reading of the vehicle
 prior to the completion of the tour of duty, complete
 a TPS 348

1218
Q

When a person in custody has gender-affirming personal items or gender-affirming prosthetics on their person or in their
possession shall:

  • assess whether to ________ the person to keep their gender affirming item or gender-affirming prosthetic

Assessments regarding the retention of gender-affirming personal articles including gender-affirming prosthetics
shall be made on a _____~__~_____ basis complying with 1.9.2 Standards of Conduct considering all risk factors,
including those contained in 01-02 Appendix B, 01-02 Appendix C and Appendix E. All available accommodation
options shall be considered when making an assessment.
- permit the person to keep their item/device to the point of undue hardship

 if allowing the person to retain the item, make the appropriate notation in the ________~_______ screen

Upon determining that a person in custody _______ be accommodated, shall clearly articulate the reasons for the
determination in the memorandum book and the ________] and ________ Template, including all accommodation
options considered
 if removing the item from the person, do so in compliance with Procedure 01-02 Appendix C and Appendix E
When notified in accordance with items 18 and 25 that a decision regarding a person’s accommodation while in custody
requires reassessment, due to a change in circumstances, shall
 reassess the situation accordingly

A

assess whether to permit the person to keep their gender affirming item or gender-affirming prosthetic
- Assessments regarding the retention of gender-affirming personal articles including gender-affirming prosthetics
shall be made on a case by case basis complying with 1.9.2 Standards of Conduct considering all risk factors,
including those contained in 01-02 Appendix B, 01-02 Appendix C and Appendix E. All available accommodation
options shall be considered when making an assessment.
- permit the person to keep their item/device to the point of undue hardship
 if allowing the person to retain the item, make the appropriate notation in the Property screen

pon determining that a person in custody cannot be accommodated, shall clearly articulate the reasons for the
determination in the memorandum book and the Booking and Search Template, including all accommodation
options considered
 if removing the item from the person, do so in compliance with Procedure 01-02 Appendix C and Appendix E
When notified in accordance with items 18 and 25 that a decision regarding a person’s accommodation while in custody
requires reassessment, due to a change in circumstances, shall
 reassess the situation accordingly

1219
Q

When removing personal property from persons in custody shall ensure
 prior to removing the property, the person is informed of the _________ concerns that require its removal

 the property is removed, inventoried and secured in a property bag in compliance with Procedures 01–02, 09–01
and 09–06
- The property bag may remain _________ for investigative purposes providing it is in a _________ location, but must be
sealed prior to transport. The ________ property bag shall accompany the prisoner through the justice system.
 the person’s money is counted and other property are inventoried aloud and on camera in the presence of the
individual
 all money and property are recorded in the Property screen
 the person signs the Property form, as directed in Procedure 09–06
 the property is inventoried on camera as it is returned to the person upon their release from custody
When a person in custody has an item of religious signific

A

When removing personal property from persons in custody shall ensure
 prior to removing the property, the person is informed of the safety concerns that require its removal
 the property is removed, inventoried and secured in a property bag in compliance with Procedures 01–02, 09–01
and 09–06
- The property bag may remain unsealed for investigative purposes providing it is in a secured location, but must be
sealed prior to transport. The sealed property bag shall accompany the prisoner through the justice system.
 the person’s money is counted and other property are inventoried aloud and on camera in the presence of the
individual
 all money and property are recorded in the Property screen
 the person signs the Property form, as directed in Procedure 09–06
 the property is inventoried on camera as it is returned to the person upon their release from custody
When a person in custody has an item of religious signific

1220
Q

Officer in Charge – Central Lock–up

When receiving a prisoner to be held pending transportation to Bail Court shall ensure

A

 the crown envelope is completed in compliance with Procedure 12–01
 compliance with Procedure 01–03
 the accused person is fingerprinted prior to transport to court in compliance with Procedure 01–07
 the completed crown envelope court calendar arrive at court for the first appearance

1221
Q

Detective Sergeant

Upon receipt of a completed TPS 483 and/or release documents from the Officer in Charge shall

A

 review the completed documents

 ensure the original documents are forwarded to the appropriate case manager

1222
Q

Warrant in the First Instance
A peace officer, who believes that an offence has been committed by a person not yet apprehended, may seek a warrant
in the first instance upon presentation of an Information to a Justice. The Justice must be given reasonable grounds to
believe that it is in the public interest that a warrant be issued.
The ‘public interest’ may include

A

 the accused has fled
 the accused is evading capture
 danger to the public
 danger to the victim and/or witnesses
 nature and/or seriousness of the offence
 all attempts to locate the suspect have been exhausted
Persons arrested on a warrant in the first must be presented to the court for a bail hearing unless the warrant was ________
by the issuing Justice authorizing the release of the arrested person by an Officer in Charge. The Officer in Charge retains
the discretion to release when the warrant is _______.

Endorsed

1223
Q

Warrants of Committal
A warrant of committal may be issued by the court upon the conviction of an accused for an offence. It directs peace officers
to arrest the named/described individual and generally, in default of ________ of _________ penalty set by the court, to serve
a period of time in jail.
Warrants of committal also include warrants issued for criminal convictions, small claims court warrants, federal/provincial
parole violations, Immigration and Refugee Protection Act and provincial matters such as the Family Responsibility Act, the
Trespass to Property Act, Safe Streets Act and the Highway Traffic Act. Persons arrested solely on warrants of committal
are not __________. They are to be processed according to the instructions contained within the body of
the warrant.
Members executing a Warrant of Committal shall also comply with Procedure 02–02.

A

Payment of monetary

not to be brought before the court

1224
Q

Bench Warrants
A bench warrant is an arrest warrant in Form _______ issued by a Justice having jurisdiction when an accused has failed to attend
court
 when directed by _______~______~_____~_______, Entered Before an Officer in
Charge, Judicial Interim Release, or
 when directed by the court to return on a subsequent date
When a person is arrested pursuant to a Superior Court bench warrant, the __________________~~~~~

A

7

Summons, Appearance Notice, Promise to Appear, Recognizance

the Superior Court Liaison Detective shall be
advised forthwith by telephone, voicemail or TPS eFax of the following information

 name of the accused
 date of birth
 charge
 date of issue of the bench warrant
In the case of a bench warrant issued for drug charges, the person must be taken to Old City Hall Courts for a show cause
hearing.
Bench Warrants – Fail to Appear or Additional Charge Being Laid
If a “Fail to Appear” or additional charge is laid in relation to the execution of a bench warrant issued by the Superior Court
of Justice (Superior Court), the new charge will be heard in the Ontario Court of Justice (OCJ). However, the individual
must appear at the Superior Court on the bench warrant before any other court appearances for new or additional charges.
In circumstances where the Superior Court is not sitting, a remand to the next sitting date of the Superior Court shall be
sought at the bail hearing.
Members shall make a prominent notation on the confidential crown envelope (crown envelope) to ensure that the person
is not released until appearances have been made in both courts. A TPS 178 shall be completed and given to a court officer
at the OCJ.

1225
Q

Case managers shall advise the Liaison Detective at 361 University Avenue by ___________or _______ of the execution of
a Superior Court bench warrant at the time of processing.
When a Superior Court bench warrant is issued, the Liaison Detective at 361 University Avenue shall advise the _______~_______ in the division in which the original charges were laid.
In the case of a person appearing on Toronto Police Service (Service) charges but also wanted on a warrant held by another
jurisdiction, a TPS _____ shall be completed and given to a court officer at the Superior Court.

A

telephone or TPS eFax

Advise the warrant officer

178

1226
Q

A surety warrant is issued when the person who is acting as surety appears before a Justice and requests ______ from the
obligations of being a surety. Upon issue of a surety warrant by the Justice, the accused can be arrested and a new bail
hearing must be held on the original charges. The original Information must be obtained and taken to court for the
commencement of the new bail hearing.
If the accused is show caused at the court where the warrant originated, a clerk from Court Services will retrieve the
Information. If the accused is show caused at a court other than where the original Information is held, the ______~_______
shall arrange to obtain the Information and bring it to court.

A

Relief

Arresting unit

1227
Q

Material Witness Warrants
Material witness warrants are issued by a Justice for the apprehension of a witness who is _______ service of a subpoena
or has not appeared in court after being served a _________ (s. 698 and 705 CC). No _______is ______as a result of the warrant
being issued. Following an arrest, a bail hearing must be held to determine if the witness should be released until required
to appear and give evidence.
A person arrested solely for a material witness warrant shall not be ________.

A

Evading

subpoena

charge is laid

charge is laid

1228
Q

Immigration Warrants
Under section A55(1) of the __________and _______~______act, a Canada Border Services Agency (CBSA)
officer may issue a warrant for the arrest and detention of a _______~~~~~~whom the officer has
reasonable grounds to believe is inadmissible and is a danger to the public or is unlikely to appear for ___________, for an
________ hearing, for removal from Canada or at a proceeding that could lead to the making of a removal order by the
Minister under subsection A44(2) of the IRPA.
When an inadmissible individual fails to comply with a CBSA officer’s request to appear at an enforcement office for reasons
such as receipt of a _____~_____~_____~_____(PRRA) determination or to enforce their removal from Canada at a port
of entry, the CBSA officer may issue a warrant for the arrest and detention of the individual. After a full investigation, if the
individual cannot be located, a Canada–wide warrant for their arrest is entered on the Canadian Police Information Centre
(CPIC) system, which is accessible to all law enforcement agencies and ultimately gives their officers the authority to arrest
on the CBSA’s behalf.

A

Immigration and Refugee Protection Act (IRPA)

permanent resident or a foreign national

Examination, admissibility

pre–removal risk assessment

1229
Q

Family Responsibility Arrest Warrants
The Family Responsibility Office (FRO) is a centralized enforcement program mandated to enforce _______ and _____ court orders in the Province of Ontario. Staff from the FRO may commence and conduct proceedings on behalf of support
recipients in the family court to ensure ________and _______ support payments are made, including conducting a Default
Hearing under s.41 of the Family Responsibility and Support Arrears Enforcement Act (FRSAEA).
If a support payor fails to attend a FRSAEA Default Hearing, the court may issue a warrant for arrest (Form 32B) under s.
41(7) of the FRSAEA. The warrant of arrest directs officers to take the named person to court so that a Justice can issue
an undertaking to appear (Form 131) to the person, directing them to attend a later court date.
When a support payor is arrested on this type of warrant, the person may be taken to the ________ court, or if the court is not
sitting, brought before a _______ of the Peace as soon as possible to be dealt with according to law.

A

Child and spousal

child and spousal

Family

Justice

1230
Q

FRSAEA

A

Responsibility and Support Arrears Enforcement Act

1231
Q

For provincial matters, a _______to______~_______ is required by the Provincial Offences Act (POA) for property
seized under the authority of a search warrant, or when property is seized without warrant during the performance an
officer’s duties under a ______~______~_____, and where no procedure for dealing with the seized thing is otherwise
provided by law.
All applications for the detention of property seized shall be made to a Justice at the appropriate court location between
(_____hint…. Times and days etc—-)

A

Return To Search Warrant (TPS 130)

Provincial Offences Statute

0900 and 1600 hours, Monday to Friday (weekends and statutory holidays excluded).

1232
Q

Disposition of Property
The police officer may elect to manage seized property in the following manner
 return the property to the ______~_____, if no charges have been laid and there is no dispute as to who is lawfully
entitled to possession of the thing seized
 hold for ________~______, where charges are pending or no charges laid and includes abandoned property
 _______~________of seized property where charges are laid and the seized property is required for further
investigation, preliminary inquiry, trial or other proceeding
The police officer shall consult with a _______~_______for direction on the return of property which was seized as evidence,
prior to returning any property to the lawful owner.

A

lawful owner

further investigation

continued detention

crown attorney f

1233
Q

Retention of Found Property
Police officers are advised that found property is governed by the Police Services Act (PSA). The following are guidelines
for retention:
 found bikes: _______ consecutive days
 all other general property: ____ consecutive days
Finders of property listed above are able to claim the found property within a ____ consecutive day grace period, provided the
retention period has expired and the lawful owner cannot be ascertained.

A

30

90

7

1234
Q

Members who may file a Report to a Justice (Form 5.2)
When a search warrant had been executed, the officer completing the Form 5.2 and attending a Report to a Justice Hearing
may include:

A
 affiant of the search warrant
 case manager
 exhibits officer
 seizing officer.
In addition, when property is seized without warrant, a common informant may file the Form 5.2 under the conditions outlined 
in item 3.
1235
Q

Asset Forfeiture / Offence – Related Property
In all instances where property, including cash, is seized as proceeds of crime or offence–related property, officers shall
contact the _____~____~____~_____~____~____ as soon as
possible. When seizing property as proceeds of crime or offence–related, the corresponding ______ forms must be
completed and inserted into the ______~_____.
The Asset Forfeiture section will co–ordinate and provide expertise in cases involving the seizure of monies and other
assets obtained through criminal activity. The Asset Forfeiture section may also participate in cases where the investigating
unit is unable to provide the necessary resources to conduct the proceeds investigation. Officers shall comply with
Procedure 05–15.

A

Organized Crime Enforcement – Financial Crimes – Asset Forfeiture (Asset Forfeiture section)

forfeiture

crown envelope

1236
Q

Detective Operations – Forensic Identification Services – Large Seizures
Officers from Detective Operations – Forensic Identification Services (FIS) who have large seizures at major crime scenes
shall submit an ______\~_____to the case manager listing all property seized. The case manager shall ensure that a Form 5.2
is subsequently completed and filed in court.

A

exhibit list

1237
Q

Continued Detention Order
Once seized property has
 been entered as an _______ at a preliminary inquiry, trial or other legal proceeding or
 where charges are laid
an Order for Continued Detention is ____~_____ required.
The detention of seized property where no charges are laid shall not exceed ____ months from the date of seizure.
When further detention of the seized property is required beyond the ______month period, a TPS 143 shall be completed.
The cumulative period of detention shall not exceed ______ from the date of the seizure.
All applications for the continued detention of seized property shall be made before a Justice in the court location where
the search warrant was ______ and/or the Form ______ was filed.
In circumstances where it is necessary to detain property beyond ______, an application for continued detention shall be
made before a Superior Court Justice. Such applications will be made through the Office of the Crown Attorney. Legal
Services (LSV) is available to provide assistance and direction to the case manager on this process.

A

Exhibit

no longer

3

3

1 year

Issued

5.2

1 year

1238
Q

Forfeiture Order
In order to lawfully dispose of seized property at the completion of a case, it is essential to have the applicable Forfeiture
Orders placed inside the crown envelope during the initial investigation.

Member
After seizing property with or without warrant, the police officer seizing the property shall
 complete the applicable Form ____
 place the paperwork into the_____~____

When property has been seized as a result of the execution of a search warrant and
 charges laid, or
 no charges laid, or
 charges are pending
 whenever possible, the police officer who obtained the search warrant and the officer signing the Form 5.2 with
warrant shall be the ______ person
 the Report to a Justice Hearing shall be made before a Justice in the ________ court location where the search warrant
was ______

Officers may use a common informant to file the Form 5.2 when property has been seized without a warrant and
 the accused is held for a show cause hearing
 the accused is released on a Form 9 or Form 10
 charges are laid and/or proceeding by way of a Criminal Summons
 charges are pending.
Items 2 and 3 also governs when property is seized for further investigation and charges are pending.

There is no requirement to complete a Form 5.2 when _______ property is seized without warrant and
 no arrest is made or charges laid, or
 there are no charges pending.

In the case of a telewarrant shall file the Form 5.2 in the ______ jurisdiction where the search warrant was executed.
When a court officer seizes property during a tour of duty shall comply with

A

5.2

crown envelope

Same

Same

Issued

Abandoned

In the case of a telewarrant shall file the Form 5.2 in the __same ___ jurisdiction where the search warrant was executed.

1239
Q

When attending a Report to a Justice Hearing shall
 comply with Procedure 04–21
 complete an crown envelope in compliance with Procedure 12–01. Mark in ______ on the front ‘______to a _________
and insert a copy of
 the search warrant and appendices
 the_____ from the eReport outlining
 the _______ of the search
 the date and time of the search and seizure
 the accused name, a list of charges laid, or the name of the suspect, if known and a list of charges pending
 the connection between any _____~_____and charges laid or _______ ______
 the _______ of property seized, including the reason any property is required to be held
 when a search warrant was executed, complete a Form 5.2 with warrant, and appendices if applicable,
forthwith
 when property is seized without warrant, complete a Form ____ ______~____ or form ______

make 2 copies of the Form 5.2 and note at the top of each form which is the original and which are the
copies

A

Red

Report to a Justice’

Synopsis

Location

property seized and charges laid or charges pending

Disposition

5.2 without warrant or Form 5.2 without Warrant
– Common Informant, and appendices if applicable, forthwith

When appearing before a Justice, in addition to the above items listed in the crown envelope, may be asked to produce
 the original search warrant and appendices, if applicable
 a copy of the original Information to Obtain a Search Warrant (Information), if applicable
 the seized property when directed by a Justice
Where it is not feasible to transport the seized property to the courthouse shall photograph or videotape the evidence.
 Drugs and dangerous materials shall not be taken to court.
 The Information, or a copy thereof, shall not be filed with the Court or placed in the crown envelope

1240
Q

Once the Justice and the member have signed and dated the Form 5.2 and copies shall
 file the original signed Form _____ at the ______, attached to the______~_____ if applicable
 place _____ copy of the signed Form 5.2 into the crown envelope to ensure it will be available for disclosure within _____
days for Federal cases and _____ days for all other cases, from date of charge, if applicable
 send ______ copy of the signed Form 5.2 to the Case Manager via inter–departmental mail, if applicable
 e-mail all the information on the Form 5.2 to the _______&______~_____~______unit (____) and the
Case Manager, if applicable, using the Form 5.2 E-mail Template to: Report to a Justice – PPB/TPS
- The Form 5.2 E-mail Template can be saved then e-mailed to the _ _ _ _ _.
 comply with Appendix A
After seizing property under the authority of the POA shall comply with applicable items 2 to 9, substituting TPS _____ for the
Form 5.2, as applicable.

A

5.2, Court, original Information,

1

14, 28

1 copy

Property & Video Evidence Management Unit (PVEMU)

Emailed to PVEMU

130

1241
Q

If a Justice refused to sign a Form 5.2 or recognize the common informant status shall
 request that the ________ be given on record
 notify the _____~______by e-mail of the refusal, and request that the seizing officer attend in person to file the
Form 5.2
 complete a TPS ______ outlining the date and time, court location, name of the Justice and the circumstances, and
submit to the ______~_____through the next level supervisor

A

Reason

case manager

Tps649

Unit Commander

1242
Q

Case Manager
When property has been seized as a result of a multi–jurisdictional and/or joint forces operation shall ensure a Form ______ is
completed and filed before a Judge.
 The Form ______ is not contained in TPS Forms. Officers shall refer to the CC for the appropriate wording.

A

5.3

1243
Q

The Case Manager
When in receipt of an e-mail notice from a_______~_____ indicating that a Justice has_________ to sign a Form 5.2 or
recognize the _______~_______ status shall ensure
 the______~_______ attends a Report to a Justice Hearing, as soon as practicable
 the _______ ________ submits a TPS 649 to their Unit Commander indicating the date, time, court location, name
of the Justice and circumstances

A

common informant

refused

refused

common informant

seizing officer

1244
Q

Where a Forfeiture Order is required shall ensure

Receipt one to read

A

 at the time the charges are laid, the original applicable Forfeiture Order and 1 copy, (both shall be left blank) are
included in the crown envelope
 a copy of the applicable property reports are appended to each Forfeiture Order and placed inside the crown
envelope
 the forfeiture section on the back of the crown envelope is completed in full
 the crown prosecutor is made aware that a Forfeiture Order form is in the crown envelope prior to the trial and
sentencing of the accused
- The Ministry of the Attorney General will ensure that Crown Prosecutors are made aware of their obligation
under the Criminal Code to request forfeiture of property seized prior to sentencing, if applicable to the case.
Once the Justice has signed the Forfeiture Order, the prosecutor is required to place the form in a drop box
located in the Detective Sergeant’s office at the courthouse.
At the conclusion of the sentencing, if forfeiture of the property is not granted, shall ensure the Property Disposition Inquiry
(PDI) application on the TPS Network is updated, indicating the disposition of all property.
Where an application for an Order for Continued Detention of property seized is required shall
 give notice to the court by completing a TPS 141, in triplicate, no later than 30 days prior to the expiration of the
current Order for Detention, ensuring the next available Hearing date is used
 serve a copy of the TPS 141 at least 3 business days (weekends and statutory holidays excluded) before the date
of the Hearing on the
 person from whom the property was seized, or
 lawful owner of the seized property, when ascertainable, or
 the parent, adult relative or other adult (refer to Youth Criminal Justice Act), when a young person has been
served with a “Notice of Hearing”
 if a search warrant was issued, provide the following documents to the court location where the search warrant was
issued and/or the Form 5.2 was filed, at least 2 days prior to the Hearing date
 a copy of the original crown envelope, containing
 a copy of the original search warrant and appendices, if applicable
 a copy of the original TPS 143
 a copy of the synopsis from the eReports outlining
 the location of the search
 the date and time of the search
 the accused name and a list of charges laid, or the name of the suspect and a list of charges pending, if
known
 the connection between any property seized and charges laid or charges pending
 the reason the property needs to be held
 appear before the Justice at the court with
 a copy of the TPS 141
 the original search warrant crown envelope containing the above mentioned documents, if applicable and,
 a TPS 143, in duplicate
 a copy of the original Form 5.2 and appendices, if applicable

1245
Q

The Ministry of the Attorney General will ensure that Crown Prosecutors are made aware of their obligation
under the Criminal Code to request forfeiture of property seized ________ to__________, if applicable to the case.
Once the Justice has signed the Forfeiture Order, the prosecutor is required to place the form in a_____~______
located in the ______~_______office at the courthouse.

A

prior to sentencing

Drop box

Detective sergeant’s

1246
Q

At the conclusion of the sentencing, if forfeiture of the property is not granted, shall ensure the Property Disposition Inquiry
(PDI) application on the TPS Network is updated, indicating the disposition of all property.

Where an application for an Order for Continued Detention of property seized is required shall
 give notice to the court by completing a TPS 141, in triplicate, no later than _____ days prior to the expiration of the
current Order for Detention, ensuring the next available Hearing date is used
 serve a copy of the TPS 141 at least _____ business days (weekends and statutory holidays excluded) before the date
of the Hearing on the
 person from whom the property was seized, or
 lawful owner of the seized property, when ascertainable, or
 the parent, adult relative or other adult (refer to Youth Criminal Justice Act), when a young person has been
served with a “Notice of Hearing”
 if a search warrant was issued, provide the following documents to the court location where the search warrant was
issued and/or the Form 5.2 was filed, at least _____ days prior to the Hearing date
 a copy of the original crown envelope, containing
 a copy of the original search warrant and appendices, if applicable
 a copy of the original TPS 143
 a copy of the synopsis from the eReports outlining
 the ______ of the search
 the date and time of the search
 the accused name and a list of charges laid, or the name of the suspect and a list of charges pending, if
known
 the connection between any ______~______ and ______~_____ or_____~_____

 the reason the property needs to be held
 appear before the Justice at the court with
 a copy of the TPS _____
 the original search warrant crown envelope containing the above mentioned documents, if applicable and,
 a TPS _____, in duplicate
 a copy of the original Form 5.2 and appendices, if applicable

after the TPS 143 has been signed by the Justice, e-mail all the information to PVEMU and the case
manager, if applicable, using the Form 5.2 E-mail Template to: Report To Justice – PPB/TPS
 The Form 5.2 E-mail Template can be saved then e-mailed to the PVEMU.

A

30

3

2 days

Location

property seized and charges laid or charges pending

141

143

after the TPS 143 has been signed by the Justice, e-mail all the information to PVEMU and the case
manager, if applicable, using the Form 5.2 E-mail Template to: Report To Justice – PPB/TPS
 The Form 5.2 E-mail Template can be saved then e-mailed to the PVEMU.

1247
Q

Where an Order for Continued Detention is required beyond____~_____ shall consult with the Office of the Crown Attorney
prior to making an application before a _____~______~____.
 Legal Services is available to provide assistance and direction to the case manager.
After the Order for Continued Detention beyond ______ _______ has been signed by the Justice shall e-mail the information on
the Order for Continued Detention of property seized to ________ using the Form 5.2 E-mail Template to: Report To Justice
– PPB/TPS.

A

12 months

Superior Court Justice

12 months

PVEMU

1248
Q

Detective Sergeant (Crown Liaison) – Court Services
 The Crown Liaison in each court location shall ensure
 a TPS _____~_____ is available for crown prosecutors to place the signed ________ Orders
 all received ________Orders are forwarded to the Unit Commander –_______ prior to the completion of
their tour of duty

A

drop box

Forfeiture

Forfeiture

PVEMU

1249
Q

Common Informant the purposes of court disclosure means a divisional_______ officer, or an on-duty designate, or a _____~____who is a sworn peace officer, during the lawful execution of their duties.
_______~_____ may only act as a Common Informant for the purposes of bringing a Form 5.2 before a
Justice when property has been seized and the accused has been show caused (first appearance only)
and the Form 5.2 is completed correctly and is in the crown envelope at the time the accused is being held
for a show cause hearing.

A

Warrant

court
officer

Court officers

1250
Q

Continued Detention means the detention of property beyond the initial___~_______ from the date of seizure.

A

3 months

1251
Q

Justice means a

(

A

Justice of the Peace or a Provincial Court Judge

1252
Q

Peace Officer – Report to Justice for the purposes of filing a Report to Justice means a

A

police officer, or a court officer who

is a sworn peace officer.

1253
Q

Property means any

A

article and/or document found by, seized by, surrendered to, or intended to be surrendered to a
Service member.

1254
Q

Seized Property means a thing, including

A

informational material, seized from a person and/or place, with or without a
warrant, by a peace officer without that person’s consent.

1255
Q

Seizing Officer means a

A

peace officer who has seized property, either with or without a search warrant, and includes a
court officer during the lawful execution of their duties.

1256
Q

Death investigations

Supervisory Officer attendance mandatory for

A

suicide,

possible sudden death,

unnatural sudden death,

suspicious death or suspected homicide

 sudden unexpected death, apparent suicide or accident where the only witness or person present at the time of
death or the finding of the body is an intimate partner, past or present

1257
Q

Death investigations

Supervisory Divisional Detective attendance mandatory for

A

 death of a child under 5

 sudden unexpected death of a child

 unnatural sudden death

 sudden unexpected death, apparent suicide or accident where the only witness or person present at the time of
death or the finding of the body is an intimate partner, past or present

1258
Q

Death investigations

Supervisory Officer notification mandatory for

A

 attempt suicide

 unable to confirm/establish identity of the deceased person

 unable to determine next of kin

 unable to notify next of kin in person

 request by another police service to notify next of kin

1259
Q

Pronouncing Death
No person, except a qualified medical practitioner, has the authority to pronounce a person dead. The only exceptions are
where:

A

 death appears obvious due to decomposition, decapitation, transection, gross rigor mortis, gross outpouring of
cranial or visceral contents, or a grossly charred body, or

 a base hospital physician has declared death through consultation with an on–scene paramedic.

Any person who has not been pronounced dead by a qualified medical practitioner or does not fall within the above noted
exceptions must be treated as a living patient.

Toronto Paramedic Services (Paramedics) will respond in all cases to render
medical assistance as required but will not transport individuals pronounced or obviously dead.
A deceased person will only be transported by Paramedics away from public view when a body removal service is not
readily available.

Deceased persons will not be transported in the same vehicle as a living patient.

Officers are reminded to remain vigilant for the possibility of foul play in every circumstance where there is:
 a sudden, unexpected death, and
 also present at the time of death or the finding of a body, a partner, and particularly a partner with whom the
deceased had or may have had an intimate relationship, recent or remote.

1260
Q

Office of the Chief Coroner
The Coroner will be notified and requested to attend in all cases of unnatural sudden death. The Coroner will be responsible
for pronouncing death in the absence of another qualified medical practitioner and will authorize the removal of the body.
The Coroner may be consulted in cases of sudden death by______ causes at the discretion of the______~_____

A

natural

investigating officer.

1261
Q

Death investigations

After pronouncement of death, the body should not be_______or ______ without the direction of the_______.

However, it
may be possible to allow the family early access and/or movement of the body following the initial discussion with the
Coroner regarding the circumstances of death.

A

Touched or moved

Coroner

1262
Q

Death of a Child Under Five Years of Age
Every sudden unexpected death of a child or the death of a child under 5 years of age must be actively investigated as
_______, and premature conclusions should not be made regarding the cause and manner of death until a thorough
investigation has been completed. Officers shall comply with the applicable sections of Procedure 05–01 when conducting
such investigations.

A

suspicious

1263
Q

Identification of the Deceased
The investigator heading an investigation, or a police officer designated by the investigator, shall attend the morgue and be
physically present when a deceased is identified under the following circumstances:

A

 homicide, suspected homicide or other related criminal offences

 cases where the investigating officer has requested the presence of another officer

 cases where an inquest has been or is likely to be called

 when the Coroner believes it is necessary due to the nature of the case, or the condition of the person doing the
identification.

If the identification of the deceased can not be determined at this time, shall ensure that the Missing Person Unit (MPU) is
notified via the global e-mail address at MissingPersons.

1264
Q

Identification of the Deceased
The investigator heading an investigation, or a police officer designated by the investigator, shall attend the morgue and be
physically present when a deceased is identified under the following circumstances:
________,_______~_____ or other related criminal offences
 cases where the investigating officer has requested the_______of ______~________

 cases where an______ has been or is likely to be called
 when the Coroner believes it is necessary due to the nature of the case, or the condition of the person doing the
identification.

If the identification of the deceased can not be determined at this time, shall ensure that the_______~_____~____ is
notified via the global e-mail address at____________.

A

homicide, suspected homicide

presence of another officer

inquest

Missing Person Unit (MPU)

MissingPersons

1265
Q

Health & Safety Practices during Post Mortem Examinations

Officers directed to attend and obtain the results of the post mortem examination should be aware that admittance into the
post mortem examination room is determined by the________ of the Facility and will be granted only to those who
have an essential need to be present, including:

 officers from Detective Operations – _______~________~______who are directly related to the case being
autopsied and have a need for ________ and evidence collection

a police officer who has direct information regarding the case and needs to be present for investigative reasons.
Access will be granted only to officers who have an ______, _______ or ______ Need to be present

Attendance should be restricted to the________~_______ period only unless there is a pertinent, reasonable need to be
present through the entire post mortem examination. An office has been set–up exclusively for officers to await the
examination results.

A

Medical Director

Forensic Identification Services (FIS)

Photographs

police officer

operational, investigative or educational (by appointment only) need to

external examination

1266
Q

Death investigations

First Police Officer
The first police officer to arrive at the scene shall be responsible for

A

offender management (if applicable), preservation of
the evidence and the crime scene while awaiting the arrival of an appropriate investigator.
When responding to an attempt suicide, a possible sudden death or an unnatural sudden death shall attend the scene
promptly.
Upon arrival at the scene shall
 designate a line of approach to the victim that allows for the least contamination possible
 take charge of the scene until the arrival of a supervisory officer
 in the absence of a doctor or Paramedics personnel
 assess the vital signs and responsiveness of the victim
 administer first–aid if signs of life are present while using the universal precautions as detailed in Procedure
08–07
 ensure the victim receives immediate medical attention
 request additional assistance as required
 request the attendance of a supervisory officer
 pending the arrival of a supervisory officer, assign officers to complete necessary tasks
 advise Paramedics and Toronto Fire Services (TFS) personnel of medical and suicide attempt details
 if the body has been moved, make note of the original position and any items moved to gain access to the body
 ensure the communications operator is advised of the details of the incident
 conduct a Person Query, including a CPIC and Canadian Firearms Registry On–line (CFRO) check
 determine whether any of the individuals involved in the occurrence own, possess or have access to a firearm,
ammunition, firearms certificate, registration certificate, permit, licence or authorization and comply with Procedure
05–21
 Officer and public safety is compromised when firearms are left in a deceased’s dwelling and may come
into the possession of an unlicensed person and/or person untrained to properly handle firearms.
 ensure a police officer accompanies the victim to hospital

Additional Police Officers
When responding to an attempt suicide, a possible sudden death or an unnatural sudden death shall
 attend the scene promptly
 in the absence of a supervisory officer take direction from the first police officer
Police Officers
Upon discovering
 the death of a child under 5 years of age
 the sudden unexpected death of a child
 a suspicious death or suspected homicide, which may include
 an unexplained or unknown cause of death
 found human remains
 obvious or suspected foul play
 any other suspicious circumstances
 shall treat the death as suspicious and comply with Procedure 05–01.

1267
Q

Members initiated in the Sikh religion may wear the 5 Kakaars or 5 Ks. These physical symbols of Khalsa are the Kesh,
Kanga, Kara, Kachhera and Kirpan (which will be no more than in ___________ in length). The Kesh (uncut hair)
shall be worn in accordance with Appendix F.
The Kesh (uncut hair) to be covered by a police issued Dastar (turban), wrapped in the members preferred manner with
the issued rank specific coloured uniform band/stripe attached to the Dastar (turban)

A

19.05 cm (7.5 inches)

1268
Q

Any jewellery or non–issued articles lost, stolen, damaged or destroyed shall not be repaired or replaced at the expense of
the Service, except when otherwise authorized by the _____~_____~____

A

Chief Administrative Officer.

1269
Q

(CPLC)

A

Community Police Liaison Committee (CPLC) means a divisional committee that represents all segments of the
community.

1270
Q

Car Camera System
Status: Amended Issued: R.O. 2021.01.27-0065 Replaces: R.O. 2020.01.03-0001
Rationale
The In–Car Camera System (ICCS) is a multifaceted tool that can:

A

 enhance public trust and police legitimacy;

 enhance public and police officer safety;

 enhance the commitment to bias-free service delivery by officers to the public;

 provide a tool to facilitate early resolution of complaints; and

 provide improved evidence for investigative, judicial and oversight purposes; and

 provide information as to the effectiveness of Service procedures and training
The Service is committed to maintaining the public trust by delivering professional and unbiased policing at all times. The
ICCS is a valuable tool in remaining accountable to the community and maintaining its trust.

1271
Q

The In–Car Camera System (ICCS) is a multifaceted tool that can:

 enhance _____~____and _____~_____
 enhance _________and______~____ safety;
 enhance the commitment to_____~_____ service delivery by officers to the public;
 provide a tool to facilitate early_______ of complaints; and
 provide improved______ for ______, judicial and oversight purposes; and
 provide information as to the effectiveness of Service_______and ______

A

public trust and police legitimacy;

Public and police officer

bias-free

resolution

evidence for evidence

procedures and training

1272
Q

Chief’s Administrative Investigation

Service investigations within this category will be conducted through PSS to determine issues related

A

to the policies of, or
services provided by, the Service and the conduct of involved police officers.
Subject Officials, Witness Officials or any other member of the Service shall provide the assigned investigator with a copy
of their notes, and shall make themselves available for an interview, when directed.

1273
Q

Office of the Chief Coroner

The Coroner will be notified and requested to attend in all cases of

A

unnatural sudden death. The Coroner will be responsible
for pronouncing death in the absence of another qualified medical practitioner and will authorize the removal of the body.

1274
Q

The Coroner may be consulted in cases of sudden death by _________~______ at the discretion of the investigating officer.

A

Natural causes

1275
Q

After pronouncement of death, the body should not be touched or moved without the direction of the ________. However, it
may be possible to allow the _______ early access and/or movement of the body following the initial discussion with the
________ regarding the circumstances of death.

A

Coroner

Family

Coroner

1276
Q

Death of a Child Under ______ Years of Age
Every sudden unexpected death of a child or the death of a child under _____ years of age must be actively investigated as
suspicious, and premature conclusions should not be made regarding the cause and manner of death until a thorough
investigation has been completed.

A

Five

18

1277
Q

Identification of the Deceased
The investigator heading an investigation, or a police officer designated by the investigator, shall attend the morgue and be
_________ present when a deceased is identified under the following circumstances:

A

physically

 homicide, suspected homicide or other related criminal offences

 cases where the investigating officer has requested the presence of another officer

 cases where an inquest has been or is likely to be called

 when the Coroner believes it is necessary due to the nature of the case, or the condition of the person doing the
identification.

If the identification of the deceased can not be determined at this time, shall ensure that the Missing Person Unit (MPU) is
notified via the global e-mail address at MissingPersons.

1278
Q

Health & Safety Practices during Post Mortem Examinations
Officers directed to attend and obtain the results of the post mortem examination should be aware that admittance into the
______~_____~______ room is determined by the _______~_______ of the Facility and will be granted only to those who
have an essential need to be present, including:

A

post mortem examination

Medical Director

officers from Detective Operations – Forensic Identification Services (FIS) who are directly related to the case being
autopsied and have a need for photographs and evidence collection

 a police officer who has direct information regarding the case and needs to be present for investigative reasons.
Access will be granted only to officers who have an operational, investigative or educational (by appointment only) need to
be present.

1279
Q

First Police Officer
The first police officer to arrive at the scene shall be responsible for _______~_______ (if applicable), ________ of the _________ and the crime scene while awaiting the arrival of an appropriate investigator.

A

offender management

preservation of
the evidence

1280
Q

When responding to an attempt suicide, a possible sudden death or an unnatural sudden death shall attend the scene
_________.
Upon arrival at the scene shall
 designate a ________ of _______ to the victim that allows for the least ___________ possible
 take charge of the scene until the arrival of a _______~_______
 in the absence of a doctor or Paramedics personnel
 assess the ______~_____and responsiveness of the victim
 administer ______~______ if signs of life are present while using the universal precautions as detailed in Procedure
08–07
 ensure the victim receives immediate _______~______
 request additional assistance as required
 request the attendance of a ________ officer
 pending the arrival of a _______ officer, assign officers to complete necessary tasks
 advise Paramedics and Toronto Fire Services (TFS) personnel of medical and suicide attempt details
 if the body has been moved, make note of the _________~\_______and any items moved to gain access to the body
 ensure the communications operator is advised of the details of the incident
 conduct a Person Query, including a CPIC and Canadian Firearms Registry On–line (CFRO) check
 determine whether any of the individuals involved in the occurrence ______,_______ or have access to a ________,
_________, _________~______,_______~_______~________ and comply with Procedure
05–21
 Officer and public safety is compromised when _________ are left in a deceased’s dwelling and may come
into the possession of an unlicensed person and/or person untrained to properly handle firearms.
 ensure a police officer accompanies the victim to hospital
Additional Police Officers
When responding to an attempt suicide, a possible sudden death or an unnatural sudden death shall
 attend the scene promptly
 in the absence of a _________ officer take direction from the ______ police officer

A

promptly

Line of approach

contamination

supervisory officer

vital signs

first–aid

medical attention

supervisory

supervisory

original position

own, possess or have access to a firearm, ammunition, firearms certificate, registration certificate, permit, licence

Firearms

Supervisory

First

1281
Q

Police Officers
Upon discovering
 the death of a child under ______ years of age
 the sudden unexpected death of a _____
 a suspicious death or suspected ________, which may include
 an unexplained or unknown cause of death
 found ______~______
 obvious or suspected foul play
 any other suspicious circumstances
 shall treat the death as suspicious and comply with Procedure 05–01.

A

5

Child

Homicide

human remains

1282
Q

Upon discovering a sudden unexpected death, apparent suicide or accident where the only witness or person present at
the time of death or the finding of the body is an intimate partner, past or present shall
 remain vigilant for the possibility of _________~______
 request the attendance of a _________ officer and a divisional detective

A

foul play

supervisory

1283
Q

When investigating an unnatural sudden death shall
 request the attendance of a _________officer and a ________~________
 request the attendance and confirmation of notification of the _____
 leave the body undisturbed when death has been pronounced or where death appears obvious due to
decomposition, decapitation, transection, gross rigor mortis, gross outpouring of cranial or visceral contents, or a
grossly charred body
The Coroner will determine when the body will be ________.
 promptly notify the Coroner, Paramedics and hospital personnel if a properly completed ______ form relating to
organ donation is located

 record all relevant details in the memorandum book, including the

 circumstances relating to the finding of the body

 position and description of the body

 physical characteristics of the scene

 description of the _______ to and from the body

 personal information on the deceased, including but not limited to
 name, address, date and place of birth
 occupation, marital status
 personal physician and medical history
 Ontario Health / other insurance card, Welfare number, Social Insurance Number
 name, address, occupation and relationship of next of kin
 name, address, phone number and occupation of
 the person finding the body
 all other persons present
 any persons who have left the scene
 method of _______, if applicable
 text of any suicide _______or ______~_____ if applicable
 any relevant information obtained from witnesses and other persons on scene
 canvass the immediate area for any witnesses, where appropriate
 notify the Supervisory Officer if the identification of the deceased cannot be determined
 request the attendance of an FIS investigator, where applicable
A Scenes of Crime Officer (SOCO) may only be assigned to examine crime scenes at the discretion of the Officer ___ ~ ______~______

A

supervisory officer and a divisional detective

Coroner

Removed

Consent

Approach

suicide

note or criminal writing,

1284
Q

A SOCO shall not be assigned to death investigations involving
 the sudden, unexpected death of a _____
 the death of a child under _____ years of age
 a suspicious death or suspected _______.
When a death occurs on TTC property, an FIS Investigator or a ______ (with approval from FIS) will ______ the scene.
 request FIS to fingerprint and photograph the deceased if
 any outstanding _______~_______exist

 an active criminal record is found

 the identification of the deceased is in question

 if an outstanding warrant exists, or a document relating to bail or parole is found, notify the respective unit or police
service

 if in a public place, ensure the area is cleaned of blood, bodily fluids, etc., when necessary
- Either TFS or Toronto Transportation Services may be able to assist.

A

child

5

homicide

SOCO photograph

criminal warrants

1285
Q

When investigating a death where the deceased is found in a bathtub shall record in the memorandum book any of the
following information that apply

A

 the approximate depth and temperature (e.g. hot, cold or room temperature) of any water present in the bathtub
 the position of the body (e.g. supine, prone or some other position)
 which end of the bathtub the head was positioned
 whether the body is wet or dry, including the hair
 whether the head is submerged at least up to and including mouth and nose
 whether the fingers and/or feet show signs of prolonged immersion
 whether there is evidence of froth in the mouth or nose
 whether the water stopper is engaged
 whether there is evidence to suggest that the deceased may have fallen into the bathtub.
- A finding of drowning is rarely based on definitive autopsy findings. Information from the initial responder is
therefore often critical in these cases in determining the cause and manner of death.

1286
Q

These are associated to;

 ensure the electrical power is turned off before approaching the track level
 comply with Procedure 10–10
 make every effort to restore subway service as soon as practicable
Undue subway delays cause safety concerns and a tremendous inconvenience to the TTC and the public.

A

When investigating a fatal vehicle collision shall also comply with

1287
Q

When investigating a death on TTC property, upon the direction of the ______ shall
 obtain a _______ from under the platform, place the body and any dismembered parts on the ______ and remove
from public view only after
 the _________ has authorized the removal of the body, and
 the scene has been _________, and
 a supervisor or detective has been consulted and authorized the removal of the body
 if the body must be moved prior to the scene being ________, outline the position of the body
Unless otherwise directed, there is no requirement to await the arrival of a ________ prior to removing the body.
All subway platforms have rooms available, out of public view, where the body may be removed at the ________ direction.
This permits the _____ a timely return to service and protects the sensibilities of the public. These rooms also allow for
temporary storage of the remains until such time as body removal services are available.
 ensure the area is clear before arranging for the _______~_____to be restored

A

Coroner

stretcher

stretcher

Coroner

photographed

photographed

detective

Coroner’s

TTC

electrical power

1288
Q

When investigating an attempt suicide/suicide by apparent gas poisoning (natural gas, carbon monoxide, etc.) shall
 ensure that no person in the immediate area uses any item which may cause

A

unintentional ignition, such as an
open flame, cigarette, electric switch, doorbell, cellular telephone or portable radio, etc.
 if it is safe to do so

turn off the source of the gas
 remove the victim to fresh air
 conduct a search of the location for other persons and remove them to safety
When there are concerns that a hazard continues to exist shall
 evacuate all persons in compliance with Procedure 10–09
 request assistance to evaluate the hazard
 not remain in the area
- The TFS, local utilities, and the Ministry of the Environment are equipped to remove such hazards.
 consider the notification and attendance of the Emergency Management & Public Order – Explosive Disposal Unit
(EDU) in compliance with Procedure 10–08

1289
Q

When investigating an attempt suicide/suicide by drug overdose or ingestion of poison shall
 exercise extreme caution and comply with Procedure 08-06
- ______ is a powerful ______~_____that is highly toxic and potentially lethal in small doses. As it
may be skin permeable, proper handling of suspected _______ is essential to minimizing potential
health risks for members.
 refrain from handling any container containing a poison until advised that it is safe to do so
 collect evidence in compliance with Procedure 04–21
 consult with ______ to determine if any items are to be removed from the scene
 when seizing prescription and controlled substances on behalf of the ________ or in relation to a criminal
investigation, complete the applicable eReport including, where possible
 names of the ________ located at death scene
 prescription number
 prescribed to (patient name)
 dosage instructions
 name of the pharmacy where the prescription was filled
 date of the prescription
 name of the prescribing physician
 number of pills, vials or patches, etc. prescribed and remaining
- Medications should not be taken to ______~______ units or ______~______~______ units
unless specifically requested by the pathologist, and only following a case–by–case consideration.

_______ shall not be placed in the body bag or otherwise sent with the body.
 comply with Procedures 02–19 and 09–04 when seizing illicit drugs/substances, prescription and controlled
substances pursuant to the Coroners Act, Controlled Drugs and Substances Act or the Food and Drugs Act, as
applicable

A

Fentanyl

synthetic opioid

fentanyl

FIS

Coroner

medication

Forensic Pathology Units or hospital–based pathology units,

Medications

1290
Q

When investigating an attempt suicide or death by gunshot shall

 comply with Procedure 05–21
 if the firearm must be _____ for safety reasons, ensure detailed notes are completed regarding the condition of the
firearm, including the _______ of the action, safety, and any ammunition
 when seizing any firearm, ensure the firearm is rendered _____ and the firearm, ammunition and any ejected
ammunition components are handled in compliance with Procedure 09–03

A

Moved

position

Safe

1291
Q

When investigating a death involving suspected sabotage or tampering of food, drugs, cosmetics or medical devices shall
also

A

Health Canada, Consumer Product Safety.

Consumer products may include such things as: children’s playthings and equipment; flammable items; sports equ

1292
Q

When investigating a death attributed to consumer products shall notify ______~______,______~_____~______

Consumer products may include such things as: children’s playthings and equipment; flammable items; sports equipment;
household and garden items; dangerous household chemical products; and charcoal products.

A

Health Canada, Consumer Product Safety.

1293
Q

When the apparent cause of death is hanging shall remove the person in such a manner as to _______the_____ whenever
possible.

A

preserve the knot,

1294
Q

When the death is apparently caused by jumping or being thrown from a height shall
 search the area for articles of _______, property or identification which may have fallen from the body
 search the area for _____~_____, if applicable
 search the location from which the person jumped

A

clothing

body parts

1295
Q

When the Coroner has ordered an autopsy shall
 except in cases of homicides and criminally suspicious deaths, ______ the ______ and_________ of the _______
for any illicit drugs or drug related paraphernalia

 if any illicit drugs or drug related paraphernalia are located, ensure the items are seized in accordance with
Procedures 02–19, 04–21, and 09–04, as applicable
-

These items create a high-risk situation for all involved and must never accompany the body sent for
_______~______~_______, except in cases of homicides and criminally-suspicious deaths.
 remain with the body until the removal service has attended
 record in the memorandum book the
 presence or absence of any valuables, including jewellery
 exact position of the jewellery on the body
 details of the removal of the body
 maintain continuity by accompanying the body to the morgue or applying a TPS 214 to the body bag prior to removal
to the morgue
- Bodies should always be transported and stored in the __________ (face up) position pending post mortem
examination to avoid introducing artefacts which may obscure post mortem findings.

A

Search pockets and clothing

post-mortem examination

Supine

1296
Q

Supervisor When notified of an unnatural sudden death shall
 take ____ of the scene
 provide assistance and direction to the police officers at the scene
 ensure a police officer ________ the body to the hospital
 request/assign further assistance, as required
 ensure the attendance of
 a ______~_______
 the ________
 a ____ investigator
 ensure a police officer _______ the body to the hospital
 advise the ________~_______of all pertinent information
 ensure a police officer has been assigned to notify the next of kin, if necessary
- Whenever possible, notification of next of kin should be made by a _____ officer in lieu of a
constable.

A

charge

accompanies

divisional detective

Coroner

FIS

accompanies

Officer in Charge

supervisory

1297
Q

Supervisor When dealing with
 the death of a child under ____ years of age
 the sudden unexpected death of a _____
 a suspicious death or suspected _______, which may include
 an unexplained or unknown cause of death
 found ______~______
 obvious or suspected ______ _____
 any other suspicious circumstances
shall treat the death as suspicious and ensure compliance with Procedure 05–01.
When notified of a sudden unexpected death, apparent suicide or accident where the only witness or person present at the
time of death or the finding of the body is an intimate partner, past or present shall
 remain _______ for the possibility of foul play
 ensure the attendance of a ________~______

A

5

Child

homicide

human remains

foul play

Vigilant

_____~______

1298
Q

Detective – Division
The divisional investigator shall be responsible for ensuring effective management of the scene, the thoroughness of the
investigation, and that the appropriate notifications are made.
When notified of an unnatural sudden death shall
 attend the scene and co–ordinate the investigation
 ensure the attendance of FIS personnel, as required
 ensure that valuables seized for safekeeping are handled in compliance with Procedure 09–01
 provide direction concerning the return of valuables to the next of kin
 confer with the attending Coroner and obtain a copy of the _______~______

 provide the following information to the Coroner before leaving the scene

A

Coroner’s warrant;

 original eReport number;
 identification of deceased and method of confirmation, if known;
 name, address, phone number and relationship of next of kin, if known; and
 name, badge number and a contact phone number of assigned investigator
- It is imperative that the Coroner is provided with a contact number of the assigned investigator in the
event that additional information is required from the Service prior to the autopsy being conducted.
 ensure identification of the deceased person is confirmed, if possible
 add supplementary information to the original eReport listing
 method of identification confirmation; and
 name, address and phone number of the person making the identification

1299
Q

Divisional detective
when the Coroner has ordered an autopsy, ensure the following reports are completed and forwarded to the
Coroner’s Office prior to the Post Mortem Examination
 applicable eReports
 _______ Police Report
- The ________ Police Report was developed by the _______ of the ______~_____ and shall be
completed, in addition to the applicable eReport, for any _______ sudden death where the _____ has_______ an ________.

 maintain continuity by ensuring
 a TPS _____ is applied to the body bag prior to removal to the morgue, or
 a police officer ________ the body to the morgue
 ensure an officer attends and obtains the results of the Post ________~________then adds the supplementary
information to the original eReport
 consider and exercise, where applicable, all powers of search and seizure, with and without warrant, relating to
weapons, firearms, ammunition, explosives and the related licences, certificates or permits

 notify Organized Crime Enforcement – Integrated Gun & Gang Task Force when ______ are or may be a factor
 notify the MPU via the global e-mail address at MissingPersons
- The MPU is available as a resource in all _______~_______~_____ investigations that will provide
direction, guidance, follow-up and support.

The MPU will also ensure all relevant information is
entered on the National Centre for Missing Persons and Unidentified Remains (NCMPUR) website.

A

Preliminary

Preliminary

Office of the Chief Coroner

unnatural

Coroner
has ordered an autopsy.

214

accompanies

Mortem Examination

firearms

unidentified human remains

1300
Q

Divisional detective

When dealing with
 the death of a child under 5 years of age
 the sudden unexpected death of a child
 a suspicious death or suspected homicide, which may include
 an unexplained or unknown cause of death
 found human remains
 obvious or suspected foul play
 any other suspicious circumstances
shall treat the death as ________ and ensure compliance with Procedure 05–01.

A

suspicious

1301
Q

Divisional detective

When in receipt of a request to release a suicide note to the next of kin shall consult with

A

Records Management Services

(RMS) – Information Access – Access and Privacy Section on the appropriate course of action.

1302
Q

.The _______ will also ensure all relevant information is

entered on the National Centre for Missing Persons and Unidentified Remains (NCMPUR) website.

A

The MPU

1303
Q

Divisional detective
When the deceased cannot be readily identified shall
 request that FIS _________ and______the deceased
 consider the use of the FIS _______~______ to complete a reconstructed image for a media release
 request that the_______ have a dentist complete an OPC 105
 ensure the OPC 105 is scanned and attached to the original eReport
 ensure the eReport number is forwarded to RMS – Operations (RMS – Ops) for inclusion in the CPIC Dental
Characteristics file
 consider contacting FIS regarding the completion of ______~____~_____~_____ forms and the gathering
of samples for DNA analysis and comparison
 continue efforts to locate and notify the _____~____~____
 ensure identification is made by a relative, a close friend or a person who knows the deceased in the presence of
a morgue official

A

fingerprint and photograph

Forensic Artist

Coroner

Interpol Disaster Victim Identification

next of kin

1304
Q

Officer in Charge Death investigations
The Officer in Charge is responsible for ensuring an appropriate uniform response and, in the absence of the detective
sergeant, an appropriate investigative response.
When notified of a suicide where there exists a suicide note or criminal writing shall ensure the suicide note, and any other
writings made by the deceased relevant to the investigation are
________ and ______ to the original eReport
 transmitted to the Office of the ____~_____by ___~____, along with a copy of the completed eReports.

A

scanned and attached

Chief Coroner by TPS eFax

1305
Q

Oic Death investigations
When notified of an unnatural sudden death shall ensure
 detective personnel are assigned and attend the scene
 a copy of the completed eReport and _______~_______~_______ are forwarded by TPS eFax to the Office of the
Chief Coroner as soon as practicable, and prior to the post mortem examination
 if involving a _______~______, notify Intelligence Services – Strategic Assessment and Analysis Section
-

Landed Immigrants should be considered foreign nationals as they remain citizens of the country from
which they emigrated.

A

Preliminary Police Report

Foreign national

1306
Q

Death investigations
Oic

if involving a foreign national, notify

A

Intelligence Services – Strategic Assessment and Analysis Section
- Landed Immigrants should be considered foreign nationals as they remain citizens of the country from
which they emigrated.

1307
Q

Investigator – Detective Operations – Forensic Identification Services

When investigating the sudden unexpected death of a child under 18 years of age, shall

A

 attend the scene and autopsy

 comply with Procedure 05–01

1308
Q

Compassionate messages police officer

if the deceased person is or appears to be of Aboriginal ancestry contact the

A

Community Partnerships and
Engagement Unit (CPEU) – Aboriginal Peacekeeping section by telephone or by e–mail at “Aboriginal
Peacekeeping” for assistance in locating next of kin
- Additional assistance can be obtained from members of First Nations across Canada or from social
agencies dealing with Aboriginal issues. The web link to social agencies within the City of Toronto is
available on the CPEU – Aboriginal Peacekeeping webpage on the Internet.
 add supplementary information to the original eReport, including the Sudden Death Deta

1309
Q

Compassionate message supervisor Shall

Notification of a death as a result of a motor vehicle collision shall be the responsibility of the ______~______ Supervisor. Unless deemed inappropriate,

notification of a death as a result of a homicide shall
be made by an investigating officer from Detective Operations – Homicide.
Upon receiving a request for notification of a next of kin outside the jurisdiction of the Service shall
 contact a supervisor at the appropriate police service and provide the information listed in item 44
 if the initial contact is by telephone, follow with a CPIC message or e–mail and include the information listed in
item 44

A

Traffic
Services

Providing a written request to back–up a telephone request will reduce the likelihood of incorrect
information being conveyed to the next of kin.

1310
Q

Homicide Investigation means an investigation led by Detective Operations - Homicide (Homicide) into the circumstances
surrounding a sudden death where there is:
 obvious or suspected _____~_____
 the cause of death cannot be _____,
 found ______~______
 any other ________ circumstance.

A

foul play,

explained

human remains,

suspicious

1311
Q

Primary Investigator means the investigator assigned by the

______~_____~\_____ in every threshold major case
investigation to perform the functions and responsibilities of the primary investigation function. The Primary Investigator
shall have the knowledge, skills, and abilities to perform the function; shall have successfully completed the ______~_____~_____~______ course or equivalent, as defined by the Ontario Police College.
[Source: Ontario Major Case Management Manual]
Sudden Death means an unexpected death that is instantaneous or occurs within minutes or hours from any cause other
than violence.

A

Major Case Manager

Ontario Major
Case Management Course

1312
Q

Missing Persons
Status: Amended Issued: R.O. 2020.09.25-0942 Replaces: R.O. 2020.02.12-0109
Rationale
Missing person occurrences are a high-risk area of policing, and must be given appropriate levels of priority and resources
from the outset. Each missing person occurrence reported to the Toronto Police Service (Service) shall/will be treated as
an investigation, given the potential that _________ may be uncovered at a later date.

A

criminality

1313
Q

This Procedure provides direction to members outlining both the responsibility and clearly defined guidelines for the
reporting of missing persons, the co-ordination of search activities, the required investigation, and subsequent follow-up.
Supervision
 Supervisory Officer attendance mandatory for Level _____ and ____ searches
 Supervisory Officer notification mandatory for all missing person investigations

A

2 and 3

1314
Q

Procedure
A missing person is a person where both the following circumstances exist with respect to the person:
 The persons ________ are unknown and,
- the person has not been in contact with people who would likely be in contact with the person, or
- it is reasonable in the circumstances to fear for the person’s _______ because of the circumstances
surrounding the person’s absence or because of any other prescribed considerations.

A

Whereabouts

safety

 A member of a police force is unable to locate the person after making reasonable efforts to do so.
When someone is reported as missing or lost to the Service, a full missing person eReport shall be taken in all instances
and completed in accordance with this Procedure.
All reports of missing persons are accepted at the time that they are made and given full consideration and attention
regardless of:
 where the missing person resides;
 where the reportee resides;
 the reportee’s relationship to the missing person;
 the length of time the person has been missing; or
 the missing person’s age, sex, race, citizenship, ethnic origin, religion, sexual orientation, gender identity, gender
expression, belief, social standing, disability or lifestyle.

1315
Q

There are 3 levels of investigative response to missing person cases. This is determined with information collected on the
TPS ______ and TPS ______. These forms are an investigative aid that will be used to assist responding officers, supervisors
and the Officer in Charge in assessing the level of risk, and determining the appropriate level of investigative response that
is required.

A

260 and 260a

1316
Q

All cases of missing persons where circumstances indicate a strong possibility of ______ _______ meet the criteria as a Major Case
pursuant to the Ontario Major Case Management Manual. Therefore, an accredited Major Case Manager shall lead the
investigation.

A

foul play

30

1317
Q

Missing person cases, where it has yet to be determined whether foul play is involved and the individual remains
unaccounted for _____ days after being reported missing, shall be deemed a ______~______pursuant to the Ontario Major Case
Management Manual for the purpose of utilizing the Ministry approved software (_______).

In cases where ______~______is suspected or unusual circumstances are encountered the collection of _____ will be conducted
under the direction of Detective Operations – Forensic Identification Services (FIS).

A

30

Major Case

PowerCase

foul play

DNA

1318
Q

Missing persons;

A citizen requesting information about another citizen’s whereabouts either electronically or by telephone shall be directed
to the _______in _______. The ______in______ shall determine whether it is appropriate to release the requested information.
If the reportee and missing person are or have been involved in an intimate relationship, members shall comply with
Procedure 05–04.

A

Officer in Charge

Officer in Charge

1319
Q

Missing Persons Act
The Missing Persons Act came into effect on __________. This legislation will assist police officers investigating missing
person occurrences by providing them with the ability, in certain circumstances, to:
 obtain a _______~______ for a person or entity to produce records that would assist in locating a missing person;
 obtain a _______~______ to allow entry onto a premises to locate a missing person; and
 make an _______~______ for records without judicial authorization.
If it is determined that a search warrant or, in _______ circumstances, an urgent demand for records may further the
investigation, police officers shall comply with the relevant direction contained in this Procedure.

A

July 1, 2019

court order

search warrant

urgent demand

exigent

1320
Q

Missing Persons Unit (MPU)
The Missing Persons Unit (MPU) is the centralized unit for the Service that will ensure a consistent process and investigative
response for all occurrences of persons missing in the City of Toronto, or _______~______~_____~______~_____. This
includes both newly reported and historic cases of missing persons and unidentified human remains. The availability of the
MPU will ensure:

A

on the way to/from the City of Toronto

 standardized investigations and a consistent process of review across the Service;
 collaboration of all partners to leverage all available resources that may be utilized as a resource for investigative
assistance, information and community mobilization;
 all relevant information is entered on the National Centre for Missing Persons and Unidentified Remains (NCMPUR)
website;
 our commitment to a victim-centered approach to all missing person occurrences (victim support/management);
and
 continuity and consistency of file management.
The MPU is available to all members of the Service as a resource that is:
 available to provide direction, guidance, follow-up and support for missing person investigations;
 designated by the Chief to coordinate, manage and report on the use of urgent demands for records outlined in
section 8 of the Missing Persons Act.

1321
Q

National Missing Persons DNA Program

A

The National Missing Persons DNA Program (NMPDP) is designed to be utilized as an additional resource with ongoing
missing person investigations. The NMPDP is a joint effort of the National Centre for Missing Persons and Unidentified
Remains (NCMPUR) and the National DNA Data Bank (NDDB).
Each person’s DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) is unique to them and it can be used to identify a missing person’s remains or
their blood at a crime scene. The DNA of a missing person can be collected from personal items containing their saliva,
blood, skin cells or sweat, as outlined in Appendix A. These types of personal items are often lost even with the short
passage of time and, as a result, should be collected in the early stages of a missing person investigation.

1322
Q

Missing Persons Unit (MPU)
The Missing Persons Unit (MPU) is the centralized unit for the Service that will ensure a consistent process and investigative
response for all occurrences

A

of persons missing in the City of Toronto, or on the way to/from the City of Toronto. This

includes both newly reported and historic cases of missing persons and unidentified human remains. The availability of the
MPU will ensure:

 standardized investigations and a consistent process of review across the Service;

 collaboration of all partners to leverage all available resources that may be utilized as a resource for investigative
assistance, information and community mobilization;

 all relevant information is entered on the National Centre for Missing Persons and Unidentified Remains (NCMPUR)
website;

 our commitment to a victim-centered approach to all missing person occurrences (victim support/management);
and

 continuity and consistency of file management.

Oic The MPU is available to all members of the Service as a resource that is:
 available to provide direction, guidance, follow-up and support for missing person investigations;
 designated by the Chief to coordinate, manage and report on the use of urgent demands for records outlined in
section 8 of the Missing Persons Act.

1323
Q

National Missing Persons DNA Program
The National Missing Persons DNA Program (NMPDP) is designed to be utilized as an additional resource with ongoing
missing person investigations. The NMPDP is a joint effort of the

A

National Centre for Missing Persons and Unidentified

Remains (NCMPUR) and the National DNA Data Bank (NDDB).

1324
Q

National Missing Persons DNA Program
The National Missing Persons DNA Program (NMPDP) is designed to be utilized as an additional resource with ongoing
missing person investigations. The NMPDP is a joint effort of the ________ for _______~_______ and _______~______(X X X X X X ) and the ________XXX______~______ (XXXX).

A

Centre for Missing Persons and Unidentified
Remains (NCMPUR

National DNA Data Bank (NDDB)

1325
Q

Level 2 and Level 3 searches shall be conducted using the Incident ______~\_______ as defined in Chapter
10, Appendix A.

A

Management System

1326
Q

Reporting
When a person has been reported missing to the Service, officers shall utilize the ______~_______~_____~____~_____ by
contacting RMS – Ops via telephone to generate the required missing person eReport. This process will simplify data entry
requirements for officers, and ensure the missing person is entered onto CPIC immediately.

A

Missing Person Phone-In process by

1327
Q

Under no circumstances will the report of a missing person be entered as an ‘______’.

A

Incident

1328
Q

Level one search police officer

provide the reportee with the telephone number of the ______~______of the division where the missing person
resides

A

Detective Sergeant

1329
Q

provide notice to any person whose information was produced pursuant to an _______~_______, which includes

 description of the information the officer accessed; and contact information for the requesting officer
The notice may be provided ________ or in ________. If the notice is provided _______, the officer shall provide a written copy
of the notice upon the person’s request.

A

urgent demand

Verbally or in writing

Verbally

1330
Q

Level 3 Search Manager – Emergency Management & Public Order
The Search Manager is responsible for co–ordinating the search for the missing person.
Upon being notified by the Duty Inspector of the implementation of a Level 3 search and investigative response shall
 ensure a ______~_____is established and attend the Command Post when required
 maintain _______ with the Incident Commander
 co–ordinate the Level 3 search aspect of the incident
 implement unit-specific policies regarding Level 3 searches

A

Command Post

Liaison

1331
Q

Re level three states

Emergency Management & Public Order provides search management support. The overall
responsibility for the search and its investigation remains with the ______.

A

division

1332
Q

Detective Sergeant level 3 missing Operations

When the missing person is not located within _____ days of being reported missing and there is no new evidence, explanation
or circumstances indicating that the occurrence should not be cancelled shall ensure

A

30

 the status of the original eReport remains open
 request is made to have the missing person’s dentist complete a RCMP 1667
- At the discretion of the Detective Sergeant, the RCMP 1667 may be completed before the 30–day period
has passed.
 supplementary information is added to the original eReport for inclusion in the CPIC Dental Characteristic File and
submit with the RCMP 1667
 an investigative chronology is created and maintained
 regular investigative follow–up until the missing person is located or a sufficient conclusion is established
 the occurrence is re-assigned when the lead investigator leaves the unit
 in cases where foul play is suspected, an electronic ViCLAS Report/eBooklet is completed in accordance with
Procedure 05-19
 the requirements of the Ontario Major Case Management Manual are met pursuant to the use of the Ministry
approved software (PowerCase)

1333
Q

Level 1 Missing Person Search means the level of search implemented when a person is reported missing and there are
no _______~_______. At this level, there are minimal concerns regarding the issue of foul play or the infirmity or
limitations of the missing person.

A

extenuating circumstances.

1334
Q

Level 2 Missing Person Search means the level of search when a missing person is:
 under _____ years and judged likely to be incapable of caring for themselves;
 ________ challenged;
 over _____ years of age or infirm, or;
 there is evidence of ______~______

A

16

mentally

65

foul play.

1335
Q

Level 3 Missing Person Search means the level of search implemented when the Level 1 and Level 2 missing person
searches are ineffective or if the situation, due to the _________~______ necessitates that this level be initiated
immediately.

A

extenuating circumstances,

1336
Q

Missing Persons Search Page means a web page located on the _______~_____~_____ used to publish information and
pictures regarding missing persons investigations that have proceeded to a Level _____ search.

A

Service Internet site

3

1337
Q

Missing Persons Search Page means a web page located on the Service _____ site used to publish information and
pictures regarding missing persons investigations that have proceeded to a Level___ search

A

Internet

3

1338
Q

A member may only submit a request for access to a restricted record

A

 for the purpose of an ongoing police investigation involving
 preservation of life and/or preventing bodily harm or death
 homicides and attempts,

sexual assaults, and all attempts (for the purpose of this standard, is deemed to include sexual interference,

sexual exploitation and invitation to sexual touching),
 occurrences involving abductions and attempts,
 missing person occurrences, where circumstances indicate a strong possibility of foul play,
 occurrences suspected to be homicide involving found human remains,
 criminal harassment cases in which the offender is not known to the victim,
 occurrences involving a firearm or discharge of a firearm, and/or
 gang related investigations;
 in connection with legal proceedings or anticipated legal proceedings
 including instances where crown advice is that it is relevant to R. v. Stinchcombe, (1991) and other
disclosure obligations;
 for the purpose of dealing with a complaint under Part V of the PSA or for the purpose of an investigation or inquiry
under clause 25 (1)(a) of the PSA;
 in order to prepare the annual report described in subsection 14 (1) or the report required under section 15 of O.
Reg. 58/16;
 for the purpose of complying with a legal requirement; or
 for the purpose of evaluating a police officer’s performance.
No member of the Service shall use any Historical Contact Data or Regulated Interaction Report as a basis for classifying
an individual as “known to police”.

1339
Q

Target Policing means the

A

targeting of offenders or offences within a specific time period and/or a specific geographic
area.

1340
Q

Guidelines for Divisional Crime Management
Status: Amended Issued: R.O. 2020.01.03–0001 Replaces: R.O. 2016.02.08-0158
There are four key steps in establishing the Crime Management Process at the divisional level. Their purpose is to ensure
a high level of integration, co–ordination and focus of divisional resources:
1. Long–term strategic planning and evaluation to set direction for the division

  1. Short–term/daily tactical planning and evaluation to adjust and react as required
  2. Integrated Role for Divisional CPLCs

4.Targeted Debriefing of All Prisoners
Where practicable, persons in custody will be debriefed as to information they may provide on any of the crime
problems set as a divisional priority.
04-18 Appendix G – Duties of a P

A

1Detective Sergeant
Rep from all sectors of the unit unit including Commander., cplc
Team meets 1:4 yearly
Strategies approved by the Chief and Command may be added
Crimes Analyst provides A profile sheet

  1. Meet regularly, Tactical Deployment plans, short term strategies and results, local intel on active criminals
  2. Partner in the crime management process
  3. Debriefed
1341
Q

Criteria Offence – Ontario Major Case Management means the following major cases:

A

 homicides as defined in subsection 222(4), Criminal Code, and attempts;
 sexual assaults, and all attempts (for the purpose of this standard, is deemed to include sexual interference, sexual
exploitation and invitation to sexual touching);
 trafficking in persons as defined in section 279.01, 279.011 or 279.04, Criminal Code, and attempts as defined in
section 24(1) Criminal Code;
 occurrences involving non-familial abductions and attempts;
 missing person occurrences, as outlined in the Ontario Major Case Management Manual;
 occurrences suspected to be homicide involving found human remains;
 criminal harassment cases in which the offender is not known to the victim; and,
 any other types of cases designated as a major case pursuant to this Ontario Major Case Management Manual.
[Source: Ontario Major Case Management Manual]

1342
Q

Rationale
Robberies of all types are violence acts capable of escalating without notice. These incidents pose a serious danger to
______~_______and ________ _______~\________While the initial investigation of all robbery incidents is the responsibility of the _______~______~______, the Detective Operations
– Hold-up Squad (HUS) will take the lead and provide co-ordination throughout the Service for all robberies within their
mandate. These include all robberies involving;

A

victims, witnesses

and responding police officers.

of the local police division,

the financial institutions,

armoured cars,

retail businesses,

home invasions
committed with firearms or offensive weapons,

money deposits, and carjacking’s committed with firearms or offensive
weapons.

1343
Q

Robbery

This procedure was developed to meet the Police Services Act, O. Reg. 3/99, Adequacy and Effectiveness of police
Services to ensure
a) The _______ of responding officers
b) The _______ of the public
c) A thorough investigation, and
d) The collection and ________ of evidence in the approved manner.
Supervision

A

Safety

protection

preservation

1344
Q

Robberies

Supervisory Officer
The supervisory officer shall be responsible for the quality and thoroughness of the uniform response.
When notified of a robbery shall
 attend at the scene ______
 take charge of all ______~_____~______
 assign ______~______~______
 ensure the ________ in ______is notified of all particulars
 ensure the HUS are notified of all particulars, if the robbery falls within their mandate
 ensure police officers comply with the applicable sections in this Procedure

A

forthwith

uniformed police officers

sufficient police officers

Officer in Charge

1345
Q

Robberies / supervisor

When notified that a GPS tracking device has been activated, or available in a vehicle taken in a carjacking shall
 ensure the _______ station is contacted to obtain GPS tracking information
 __________ the tracking information, as appropriate
 ensure the attending divisional investigator and the ______ are notified

A

Monitoring

communicate

HUS

1346
Q

Officer in Charge – Division
The divisional Officer in Charge is responsible for ensuring an appropriate uniform response, and in the absence of the
detective sergeant, an appropriate investigative response.
Upon being notified of a robbery shall
 if confirmed hold-up, notify (X X X X )
 ensure the particulars are recorded in the (X X X X ) as required

Upon receiving an eReport for a robbery occurrence shall ensure
 compliance with Procedure 17–01
 all involved police officers have ~~~~~~~~~~~~~to the original eReport prior to
the completion of their tour of duty
 the eReport number is provided to the ~~~~~~~~~~
Detective – Detective Operations – Hold-Up

A

Toronto Police Operations Centre (TPOC)

Unit Commanders Morning Report (UCMR

scanned and attached all memorandum book notes

Unit Analyst – HUS

1347
Q

The investigator from the HUS shall take charge of the investigation and seize all surveillance recordings.
When attending the scene shall, in addition to complying with unit specific policies
 take charge of the investigation
 seize and ______~_______any hold–up note to FIS – Documents
 seize or make arrangements for seizure and pick up all _______~\_____
 consult with the attending supervisory officer and/or divisional investigator regarding _______~______information
obtained, as applicable

A

hand–deliver

surveillance recordings

GPS tracking

1348
Q

Domestic Violence
Status: Amended Issued: R.O. 2021.04.23-0317 Replaces: R.O. 2020.01.03-0001
Rationale
The Toronto Police Service (Service) recognizes that domestic violence is a serious social problem, and is not limited or
restricted by marital status, sexual orientation, occupation, vulnerability, age or gender. The Service also views domestic
violence as a ________ crime.

A

preventable

1349
Q

Domestic violence

The goal of the Service is to
 reduce the incidence of domestic violence and homicide in the community through \________And _______
 thoroughly investigate all domestic violence and domestic incidents, and bring offenders to _______ wherever
possible
 enhance the safety of victims through prompt action including referrals to other ______~_____
 build effective partnerships with community support agencies to ensure a victim focussed response.

A

education and enforcement

Justice

community partners

1350
Q

Supervision
 Supervisory Officer attendance ______
- all domestic violence calls
- when the suspect/accused/victim is a member of this Service
- when the suspect/accused is a member of another police service

 Supervisory Officer notification mandatory

 Domestic Violence Investigator (DVI) or Officer in Charge _________ mandatory when attending or investigating
domestic violence and a supervisor is unable to ______
 Divisional Investigative office _______~_______where reasonable grounds exist and the suspect has left the
scene

A

mandatory

Notification, attend

mandatory notification

1351
Q

Procedure
Calls for Service
Domestic violence and domestic incident calls for service shall be treated with the same priority as other ________~______
calls. The safety of the victim and dependents requires prompt and efficient response to all calls and the Service shall
respond even when the original call for service is ______.

A

life threatening

cancelled

1352
Q

Domestic violence

Victims and Witnesses without Legal Status
Victims and witnesses of crime shall not be asked their immigration status, unless there are ______~\_____ reasons to do so.

A

bona fide

1353
Q

Charges
Police officers shall fully document their response to every domestic violence and domestic incident call, regardless of
whether a criminal offence has been committed or a charge laid/an arrest made. Charges shall be laid in all cases where
reasonable grounds exist, and the decision to lay charges shall not be influenced by factors such as
 ______~_____ of the parties
 disposition of ~~~~~~~~~
 victim’s _________ to attend court
likelihood of obtaining a ______
 denials of violence despite ______~______
 fear of ______ by the accused
 occupation of the victim/accused
 immigration status of the parties.

A

marital status

previous calls for police service

unwillingness

conviction

contrary evidence

reprisals

1354
Q

The Preliminary Police Report was developed by the Office of the Chief Coroner and shall be completed, in addition to the
applicable eReport, for the death of a child under

A

5 years of age, and forwarded to the Coroner’s Office prior to the post
mortem examination.
 if the Homicide investigator is not attending, follow the instructions of the divisional detective
 submit all seized evidence in compliance with Procedure 04–21 and the applicable procedures in Chapter 9
 complete the memorandum book notes in compliance with Procedure 13–17
 complete the TPS 303 and TPS 466, as applicable
 scan and attach the memorandum notes and any hardcopy reports to the original eReport
 provide the original eReport number to the
 other attending officers who may need to add supplementary information
 Officer in Charge
 divisional detective
 Investigator – FIS
 Major Case Manager – Detective Operations – Homicide
 Investigator – CYAC, as applicable
 obtain permission from the Major Case Manager/Divisional Detective prior to reporting off duty

1355
Q

The DVRM/ODARA must be completed and in the ~~~~~~~~~

A

crown brief for the bail hearing

Safety

1356
Q

Safety
Recognizing that the safety of victims, witnesses and police officers is a priority due to the high risk inherent in domestic
situations, officers must use extreme caution when responding to domestic violence and domestic incident calls. A minimum
of 2 officers shall be dispatched to all domestic violence and domestic incident related calls for service. Officers shall remain
at the scene until satisfied that the safety risk to the victim is minimized. The first officer to arrive on scene should be
prepared to _____ prior to the arrival of a backup officer in _____ circumstances.

A

Act

emergent

1357
Q

Domestic Violence Investigator
The DVI shall be responsible for ensuring the needs of the victim are met, effective management of the crime scene,
including the gathering of evidence and ensure that a thorough and comprehensive investigation is conducted.
When investigating a domestic violence occurrence shall
 conduct a thorough and complete investigation
 if the victim requires or requests medical attention, ensure the services of a _____ are offered

 when interpreting services are required, ensure the services of the _____ are utilized or comply with Procedure 04–
09 where MCIS is unable to assist
 ensure 9–1–1 recordings are reviewed and consider preserving them as evidence, where applicable
 comply with Chapter 2 when considering the use of search warrants to gather evidence
 in cases involving threshold offences as defined in the Ontario Major Case Management Manual, consult with the
_______~_______~_____concerning designation of the offence as a Major Case
 whenever possible, obtain an _______~______~______from the victim, using the R. v B.(K.G.) guidelines
and comply with Procedures 04–32 and 12–08, as applicable
 explain to the victim the charge and the nature of the proceedings against the accused
 ensure a charge is laid where ______~______~_______
 ensure ________ of the victim’s injuries, the scene and/or evidence are made available for the _____~______
wherever possible
 make every effort to determine a ______~_______ before considering charging both parties
 when both parties are charged, cross reference the two cases on each confidential crown envelope (crown
envelope)
 comply with Procedure 05–11 where there has been a breach of bail conditions or failure to appear at court, and
notify the victim
 comply with Procedure 05–27 when conducting any domestic related criminal harassment investigations
 comply with Procedure 06–07 when investigating breaches of restraining orders issued under the Family Law Act
and Children’s Law Reform Act and ensure
 DVRM/ODARA is completed
 the top right hand corner of the information is marked “DV”
 the box entitled ‘Domestic’ in the ‘Incident Type’ section of the crown envelope has been checked off
 all charges are clearly noted in the crown envelope as ‘Domestic’ in origin and the top border of the crown
envelope is boldly marked in red
 consider commencing show cause proceedings as appropriate, making particular note of any _______~\______
shown by the accused
 consider requesting a non–communication order under ss. 515(12) CC where a detention order is being sought
 whenever possible, consult with the ______ when determining required bail conditions
 if the accused is granted bail, ensure the conditions of release, or any change in conditions of release are
communicated to the victim as soon as possible rather than delay until the accused is actually released
 ensure a copy of the bail conditions are maintained in the case file
 where applicable, consider and exercise all powers of search and seizure, with and without warrant, relating to
weapons, firearms, ammunition, explosives and the related authorizations, licences, certificates and permits
 consider contacting all persons known to police who may provide the accused access to firearms or related
authorizations, licences, certificates or permits
 notify Organized Crime Enforcement – Integrated Gun & Gang Task Force when firearms are or may be a factor
 conduct a Firearms Interest Police (FIP) check on CPIC
 consider applying for a prohibition order or seeking a revocation where reasonable grounds exist to believe it is not
desirable in the interests of safety for the offender to possess weapons
 where possible, ensure that injuries sustained by the victim are photographed a second time 48 to 72 hours after
the initial incident
 consult with Detective Operations – Sex Crimes – Behavioural Assessment Section to assist the victim in
developing a personal safety plan
 consider contacting Victim Services Toronto on behalf of the victim to initiate the Victim Quick Response Program
- Please restrict your advice to the victim about the services Victim Services Toronto “can” provide and refrain
from committing to what they will provide. The decision remains with Victim Services Toronto.
- consider warning other known intimate partners of an abuser of the potential for abuse in compliance with Procedure
17–04
- if the offender has an open case with another division or another police service, share and co–ordinate current case
information with the case manager from that division or police service, as applicable
- in high risk cases, consider placing both the victim and accused in the CPIC ‘_____~_____~_____(XXX)
category by submitting a completed TPS 227 according to the instructions on the form
- The SIP category exists in CPIC to capture a wide range of information, including “persons who are
dangerous to themselves or others” including, but not restricted to domestic situations. All SIP entries must
include the specific reason (e.g. Dangerous Person – Domestic Violence) and should contain a caution for
“Family Violence”.

A

DVCC

MCIS

divisional Detective Sergeant

electronically recorded statement

reasonable grounds exist

photographs

bail hearing,

dominant aggressor

stalking behaviour

victim

Special Interest to Police’ (SIP)

1358
Q

Medical Oversight
Section 27 of the ~~~~~~~~~~~act states that controlled medical acts, such as administering
Naloxone nasal spray to a person experiencing an opioid overdose, may only be performed by persons who are not
physicians if a physician has delegated that authority to them.

A

Regulated Health Professions Act (RHPA)

1359
Q

Domestic violence

if it is determined that the offender is at risk of re–offending or breaching conditions of release, peace bond or probation
order, ensure that appropriate resources are dedicated to investigate the matter immediately
 encourage the victim to complete a _____~______~______nt at the appropriate stage of the court process in
compliance with Procedure 04–24

A

Victim Impact Statement

1360
Q

Domestic Violence Investigator

if it is determined that the offender is at risk of re–offending or breaching conditions of release, peace bond or probation
order, ensure that appropriate resources are dedicated to investigate the matter immediately
 encourage the victim to complete a Victim Impact Statement at the appropriate stage of the court process in
compliance with Procedure 04–24
 where possible, notify the victim of any known court dates, with a follow–up call prior to the court appearance
 direct a victim requesting that charges be withdrawn to the ______~\_____~______
 where possible, notify the victim and the original police officer once final disposition of the case is obtained
 consider making application to the ________~_______~______~_____ (WARP) in compliance with
Procedure 04–37, when applicable
 ensure
 the box entitled ‘Domestic’ in the ‘Incident Type’ section of the crown envelope has been checked off
 all charges are clearly noted in the brief as ‘Domestic’ in origin (e.g. Assault – Domestic), and the top border
of the crown envelope is boldly marked in red
 that in cases where the accused is a young person, the top border of the crown envelope is also boldly
marked in ______
 ensure that two copies of a DVRM/ODARA are completed and included in the crown envelope for the first court
appearance
 ensure the top right hand corner of the information is marked “DV”
When in receipt of a Domestic Violence report and the suspect has not been arrested shall
 ensure a further investigation is promptly conducted
 lay charges where reasonable grounds exist and submit a TPS 227 with the eReport number
 where reasonable grounds exist and the suspect has not been arrested/charged within 24 hours of the offence,
consider obtaining a warrant in compliance with Procedure 02–01
 complete a Warrant Application Supplementary via eReport and enter the suspect’s information onto CPIC in the
“WANT” category indicating that an arrest warrant is pending, if applicable
The entry will be removed from CPIC after two business days if the warrant is not received.
 if no charges are laid, add supplementary information to the original eReport explaining the reasons for such a
decision
When in receipt of a Domestic Incident report where no reasonable grounds exist relative to a charge shall
 review all of the circumstances, including the responses to the ‘Risk Factor’ questions
 generate a FIP entry on CPIC if the incident contains information that should be made available to the Office of the
Chief Provincial Firearms Officer
- The Firearms Act s. 5 (http://laws-lois.justice.gc.ca/eng/acts/F-11.6/FullText.html) indicates the types of
offences/incidents which justify a FIP. The FIP database in CPIC flags an individual applying for a firearms
licence. Such a flag is not an automatic refusal to issue a licence, but assists in the initial screening process
or a subsequent review of the licence file by the Chief Firearms Officer.
Detective Sergeant
Detective sergeants are responsible for ensuring an appropriate investigative response, that domestic violence
investigations are conducted by accredited domestic violence investigators and that a thorough and comprehensive
investigation is conducted.
When in charge of a divisional detective office shall ensure
 a minimum of one DVI accredited detective is assigned to oversee all domestic violence investigations in the
division
- each DVI has completed the DVRM/ODARA training and has received a certificate
 domestic violence investigations are assigned to a qualified DVI who will be able to initiate the investigation
expeditiously
 a TPS 426 is completed, filed electronically at the division

A

Crown Attorney’s Office

Witness Assistance and Relocation Program

blue

DVRM/ODARA

1361
Q

Sexual Assault Care Centres (SACC)
Prior to transporting or attending the Women’s College Hospital Sexual Assault Care Centre (SACC), officers must contact
the 24 hour on-call switchboard number at 416-323-6400 and press “0”. The operator will then transfer officers to the oncall SACC nurse.
- There is no longer an ~~~~~~~~~~~~~. If the victim is injured, has consumed
drugs or alcohol, they cannot been seen through Women’s College and will have to attend one of the nearby
Hospitals. Women’s College is closed on weekends from Friday at 2300hrs until 0730hrs on Mondays. Between

A

Emergency Department at Women’s College Hospital

1362
Q

There is no longer an Emergency Department at Women’s College Hospital. If the victim is injured, has consumed
drugs or alcohol, they cannot been seen through Women’s College and will have to attend one of the nearby
Hospitals. Women’s College is closed on weekends from Friday at 2300hrs until 0730hrs on Mondays. Between
2000hrs Friday evening and Monday 0730hrs, they are fully mobile, providing service to the 7 emergency
departments in Toronto –

A

Mount Sinai,

Toronto General Hospital,

Toronto Western Hospital,

Michael Garron Hospital,

St. Joseph’s Health Centre,

Sunnybrook Health Sciences Centre and

St. Michael’s Hospital.

The SACC
nurse can be reached by telephone and will arrange to see the victim at the above noted hospitals.

Women’s College SACC operates under the “Acute Mandate” and shall be contacted for all sexual assault victims where
the offence occurred within the previous 12 days.
Name of Facility Location Age of Victim
The Scarborough Hospital (Birchmount Campus) 3030 Birchmount Rd. 12 years and older

SickKids Hospital 555 University Ave. under 18 years

Women’s College Hospital 76 Grenville St. 14 years and older

Trillium Health Centre – Mississauga Hwy 10/Queensway any age

1363
Q

Divisional Sexual Assault Investigator shall attend the _______, where the victim is located or any additional ____ deemed
necessary and take charge of the investigation without delay.

A

Scene

Location

1364
Q

Bona Fide Reasons means
 a victim or witness who may possibly require or may seek admission into the ____~_____~_____~____
 a Crown Attorney is requesting information for _____ purposes;
 the information is necessary to prove essential elements of an offence, or;
 investigations where the circumstances make it clear that it is essential to public or officer safety and security to
ascertain the ______~_______ of a victim or witness.

A

Provincial Witness Protection Program;

disclosure

immigration status

1365
Q

Criteria Offence – Ontario Major Case Management means the following major cases:

A

 homicides as defined in subsection 222(4), Criminal Code, and attempts;

 sexual assaults, and all attempts (for the purpose of this standard, is deemed to include sexual interference, sexual
exploitation and invitation to sexual touching);

 trafficking in persons as defined in section 279.01, 279.011 or 279.04, Criminal Code, and attempts as defined in 
section 24(1) Criminal Code;

 occurrences involving non-familial abductions and attempts;

 missing person occurrences, as outlined in the Ontario Major Case Management Manual;

 occurrences suspected to be homicide involving found human remains;

 criminal harassment cases in which the offender is not known to the victim; and,

 any other types of cases designated as a major case pursuant to this Ontario Major Case Management Manual.
[Source: Ontario Major Case Management Manual]

1366
Q

Domestic Violence means any ____~\____or______ harm caused, or attempted, between persons involved
in an intimate relationship including:

A

physical, sexual or psychological

 assault;

 murder;

 sexual assault;

 threatening;

 harassment;

 intimidation;

 unlawful interference with personal liberty;

 any other criminal offence;

 offences under other statutes, such as the Family Law Act, Children’s Law Reform Act, etc.;

 but does not include child abuse investigations.

1367
Q

Victim Quick Response Program means a program administered by

A

Victim Services Toronto that provides quick financial
assistance to victims of homicide, attempted murder, serious physical assault, domestic violence, sexual assault and hate
crime in the immediate aftermath of a crime.

1368
Q

Victim/Witness Assistance Program (VWAP) means the program operated by the (_____~______of the _____
General. Services are provided on a priority basis to the most vulnerable victims and witnesses of violent crime; such as
domestic violence, child abuse, sexual assault, homicide and hate crime. Families of traffic fatality victims are also eligible.
Services begin once police have laid charges and continue until the court case is concluded.
05-05 Sexual Assault

A

Ontario) Ministry of the Attorney
General.

Services are provided on a priority basis to the most vulnerable victims and witnesses of violent crime; such as
domestic violence, child abuse, sexual assault, homicide and hate crime. Families of traffic fatality victims are also eligible.
Services begin once police have laid charges and continue until the court case is concluded.
05-05 Sexual Assault

1369
Q

Who can.

request the assistance of the Detective Operations – Sex Crimes (Sex Crimes) through the Toronto Police Operations
Centre (TPOC) once the preliminary investigation has been conducted.

A

Only the Officer in Charge, the divisional sexual assault investigator, or in their absence, a divisional investigator, may
request the assistance of the Detective Operations – Sex Crimes (Sex Crimes) through the Toronto Police Operations
Centre (TPOC) once the preliminary investigation has been conducted.

1370
Q

Divisional Sexual Assault Investigator
Divisional sexual assault investigators shall be responsible for investigations that do not fall within the mandate of Sex
Crimes. Historical ______~______assaults, and those where the suspect is known will generally be handled by the divisional
sexual assault investigators.
 When investigating complaints of _____ sexual assault, officers are reminded to be sensitive to the possibility
that the person reporting the incident may be experiencing a wide range of victim anxiety reactions including
symptoms of Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) and other symptoms of crisis or distress. These reactions
may have a significant impact on the dynamics of the investigation including the interview with the person who has
experienced the sexual assault.
 As with recent sexual assault investigations, the MO field in eReport shall be completed for historical sexual
assaults.

A

familial sexual

historical

1371
Q

A divisional sexual assault investigator shall be assigned as the lead investigator in all sexual assault cases except
 where the victim is under _____ years of age, a ____~____~_____investigator shall conduct the investigation in
compliance with Procedure 05–06
 when the incident arises out of a domestic situation as defined in Procedure 05–04, a _____~______investigator
(XXX) shall be assigned as the lead investigator but shall work in conjunction with an accredited sexual assault
investigator
 when the incident involves child pornography or child luring as defined in Procedure 05-24, the ____~______
Section (CES) shall be notified and will assume control over the investigation.
 when the incident involves human trafficking for the purpose of exploiting persons or facilitating their exploitation
for a sexual and/or forced labour ____~______~_____~______(HTET) purpose as defined in Procedure 05-31, the shall be notified.

A

16, child sexual abuse

domestic violence

Child Exploitation

Human Trafficking Enforcement Team
(HTET)

1372
Q

Notification and Assignment of Detective Operations – Sex Crimes
Sex Crimes shall be notified of any sexual assault where, it is determined:
 the offender is _____
 there is ongoing risk to the _______
 the occurrence involves an offence under s. ~~~~~~long ~~~~~
 there are ______~____or_____~_____
 the occurrence involves multiple sexual acts, the use of _____,______or______of a ______ by the offender
 the offender _____ the offence in any manner
 the offender removes or keeps any personal item from the victim
 the offender uses _______ by having the victim engage in prompted dialogue
 the offender uses a con or ruse, including dating services and the internet, to lure the victim

the sexual assault is linked to another sexual assault occurrence

 to be a criminal offence, by an unknown offender, where sexual assault appears to have been the motive

A

unknown

272 or 273 of the CC (sexual assault with a weapon, sexual assault
causing bodily harm, wounds, maims, disfigures or endangers life)

multiple victims or multiple suspects

restraints, bondage or wearing of a disguise

Records

Scripting

1373
Q

CYAC

Physical assaults when the victim is under the age of ____ years and the suspect is a known adult
 sexual offences when the victim is under the age of ______ years, the suspect is known and the offences are not within
the mandate of the Sex Crimes investigative office
 occurrences entitled Child in Need of Protection or Child

A

16

18

1374
Q

Child & Youth Advocacy Centre (CYAC)

Child abuse section)

The Team shall be responsible for informing the school principal, as soon as practicable, of the following

A

 when parents have been informed of an interview conducted without their prior notification
 if the investigation is delayed, indicating when the interview is expected to occur
 the appropriate time that school personnel may resume contact with one or both parents
 if the child is placed in the care of the CAS
 whether child protection proceedings will be commenced
 whether a criminal charge will be laid
 the existence and terms of any court orders regarding access or contact with the child
 any other information deemed necessary.

1375
Q

Symptoms of DTs usually occur _____ – _____ hours after discontinuance and include:
 profoundly intensified Mild, Moderate, and/or Severe Symptoms
If left untreated, DTs can result in death.

A

48-72

1376
Q

Child Abuse
Status: Amended Issued: R.O. 2020.01.03-0001 Replaces: R.O. 2019.03.05-0182
Rationale
This Procedure sets out the responsibilities of police officers during child abuse investigations, including sexual and physical
abuse cases, and the responsibilities of the first officers on scene, supervisory officers, and investigators.
Child abuse investigations shall be conducted in accordance with
 the “

A

Protocol for Joint Investigations of Child Physical and Sexual Abuse: Guidelines and Procedures for a Co–
ordinated Response to Child Abuse in the City of Toronto”;
 the Toronto Police Service Criminal Investigation Management Plan;
 the Ontario Major Case Management Manual, where applicable;
 the Chief Coroner’s memorandum on the protocol for the investigation of sudden and unexpected deaths in children
under 5 years of age; and
 the Chief Coroner’s memorandum on the protocol to be followed during the investigation of a sudden and/or
unexpected death of any child under 1 year of age (See R.O. 2012.12.31–1557).
Supervision
 Supervisory Officer attendance mandatory upon receiving a complaint of a suspected child physical or sexual abuse
 Officer in Charge notification mandatory upon receiving a complaint of a suspected child physical or sexual abuse
Child & Youth Advocacy Centre (CYAC)
The CYAC is a section of Detective Operations – Sex Crimes (Sex Crimes). The CYAC promotes the protection of victims;
provides advocacy, treatment and ongoing support.

1377
Q

Child Abuse
Status: Amended Issued: R.O. 2020.01.03-0001 Replaces: R.O. 2019.03.05-0182
Rationale
This Procedure sets out the responsibilities of police officers during child abuse investigations, including sexual and physical
abuse cases, and the responsibilities of the first officers on scene, supervisory officers, and investigators.
Child abuse investigations shall be conducted in accordance with
 the “

A

Protocol for Joint Investigations of Child Physical and Sexual Abuse: Guidelines and Procedures for a Co–
ordinated Response to Child Abuse in the City of Toronto”;
 the Toronto Police Service Criminal Investigation Management Plan;
 the Ontario Major Case Management Manual, where applicable;
 the Chief Coroner’s memorandum on the protocol for the investigation of sudden and unexpected deaths in children
under 5 years of age; and
 the Chief Coroner’s memorandum on the protocol to be followed during the investigation of a sudden and/or
unexpected death of any child under 1 year of age (See R.O. 2012.12.31–1557).

1378
Q

Supervision
 Supervisory Officer attendance _______ upon receiving a complaint of a suspected child _______or _______abuse
 Officer in Charge ______ mandatory upon receiving a complaint of a suspected child physical or sexual abuse

A

mandatory, physical or sexual abuse

notification

1379
Q

Health & Safety Practices during Post Mortem Examinations

Access will be granted only to officers who have an ________,________or editorial (by appointment only) need to be present.

A

operational, investigative or educational

1380
Q

Child abuse

Any child or youth should be taken to ANY hospital emergency department (ER) immediately if the following exist

A

 concerns of possible head injury or fracture

 child is complaining of severe pain in the extremities

 lack of movement, headache, vomiting, not feeding, dizziness, scalp swelling

 inconsolable crying in an infant or excessive sleeping.

 be guided by the Centre for Forensic Sciences (CFS) Police Submission Guidelines for the Sexual Assault 
Examination Kit (SAEK) (Appendix B) and the following, as appropriate
1381
Q

Child abuse pg104

Prepubertal
(under _____

within ______ hours* advise the victim/parent the importance of attending a hospital for
medical evaluation to gather potential forensic evidence

after ______ hours* contact SCAN to discuss if the victim/family require medical attention

Pubertal Adolescents
(_____~_____)
within ______ days advise the victim/parent the importance of attending a hospital for
medical evaluation to gather potential forensic evidence

after ______ days contact SCAN to discuss if the victim/family require medical attention

*consider potential to gather forensic evidence up to _____ days since incident if suspected penile penetration of vagina

A

Prepubertal
(under 12)

within 72 hours* advise the victim/parent the importance of attending a hospital for
medical evaluation to gather potential forensic evidence

after 72 hours* contact SCAN to discuss if the victim/family require medical attention

Pubertal Adolescents
(12 – 18)
within 12 days advise the victim/parent the importance of attending a hospital for
medical evaluation to gather potential forensic evidence

after 12 days contact SCAN to discuss if the victim/family require medical attention

*consider potential to gather forensic evidence up to 12 days since incident if suspected penile penetration of vagina

1382
Q

Sexual Assault Care Centres (SACC)
Prior to transporting or attending the Women’s College Hospital Sexual Assault Care Centre (SACC), officers must contact
the 24 hour on-call switchboard number at 416-323-6400 and press “0”. The operator will then transfer officers to the oncall SACC nurse.
- There is no longer an Emergency Department at Women’s College Hospital. If the victim is injured, has consumed
drugs or alcohol, they cannot been seen through Women’s College and will have to attend one of the nearby
Hospitals. Women’s College is closed on weekends from Friday at 2300hrs until 0730hrs on Mondays. Between

A

2000hrs Friday evening and Monday 0730hrs, they are fully mobile, providing service to the

7 emergency
departments in Toronto –

Mount Sinai, 
Toronto General Hospital, 
Toronto Western Hospital, 
Michael Garron Hospital, 
St. Joseph’s Health Centre, Sunnybrook Health Sciences Centre and 
St. Michael’s Hospital. 

The SACC nurse can be reached by telephone and will arrange to see the victim at the above noted hospitals.

Women’s College SACC operates under the “Acute Mandate” and shall be contacted for all sexual assault victims where
the offence occurred within the previous 12 days.

The Scarborough Hospital (Birchmount Campus) 3030 Birchmount Rd. 12 years and older

SickKids Hospital 555 University Ave. under 18 years

Women’s College Hospital 76 Grenville St. 14 years and older

Trillium Health Centre – Mississauga Hwy 10/Queensway any age

1383
Q

prior to attending SickKids ER or SCAN, the investigator shall notify the SCAN on-call clinician through the
switchboard 416-813-7500
 an on-call member of SCAN will collaborate with the investigator to determine if immediate transportation
to _________er or ______ is required
 the phone consultation will facilitate planning next steps and determine if the victim ought to be ______
before or after the medical exam
 with the noted timelines to collect evidence in mind, this collaboration will enhance efficiencies of the
investigation and reduce wait times of officers upon arrival at _______er or ______
 if transportation by ambulance is not necessary, consider the use of an ________ vehicle when transporting the
victim to a hospital
 to reduce the necessity for the victim to recount the incident, accompany the victim to the treatment facility, and
where operationally possible, wait for the victim until the completion of the medical examination at the hospital
 in cases of child sexual assault, request the victim postpone ______ whenever possible until after the medical
examination, but if _________ is necessary advise the victim to avoid wiping the ______ area or to save the tissue for
later submission with the sexual assault kit
 advise the victim not to bathe or change their clothes until after the medical examination. If clothes are to be
changed, ensure clothes are ______ for later submission with the sexual assault kit
 secure the crime scene and preserve all physical evidence in compliance with Procedure 04–21
 request that a supervisory officer attend the scene of the offence, where the victim is located, or any additional
location deemed necessary

obtain personal information regarding the identities of all involved parties, from official documents if possible, to 
ensure accuracy (i.e. correct date of birth, spelling of name, maiden name, etc.)
 notify the appropriate \_\_\_\_\_ and document all referrals in their memorandum book and the applicable eReport if a 
suspicion exists that a child may be in \_\_\_\_\_\_\_of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ under the CYFSA 

Child, Youth and Family Services Act (CYFSA)

 conduct a Person Query, including a CPIC and Canadian Firearms Registry On–line (CFRO) check
 determine if the suspect/accused owns, possesses or has access to _______~_______~______~______ or
the related authorizations licences, certificates or permits and comply with Procedure 05–21
 consider using the search and seizure provisions contained in S. 117 CC to minimize any subsequent risk to the
victim
 obtain the information outlined in Chapter 5, Appendix A to help determine whether reasonable grounds exist to
believe there is a threat to safety
 complete the applicable eReport in consultation with the designated investigator ensuring to record
 all notifications made and attendance or non–attendance of ______ personnel
 the applicable information outlined in Chapter 5, Appendix A
A _____~______~_____(XXX) entry will be auto-generated from the eReport entry and uploaded to CPIC. The XXX
database in CPIC flags an individual applying for a firearms licence who has committed, or threatened to commit, an act of
violence. Such a flag is not an automatic refusal to issue a licence, but assists in the initial screening process or subsequent
review by a Chief Firearms Officer.
 complete the applicable MO Detail page

A

SickKids ER or SCAN

interviewed

SickKids ER or SCAN

Unmarked

voiding

voiding

genital

Seized

cas

need of protection

weapons, firearms, ammunition, explosives

supervisory

Firearms Interest Police (FIP)

1384
Q

Officer in Charge
The Officer in Charge is responsible for ensuring an appropriate uniform response, and in the absence of the detective
sergeant, an appropriate investigative response.
Upon receiving notification of a case of suspected child physical or sexual abuse, or circumstances where child abuse
cannot be ruled out, shall

A

 contact the CYAC to request a designated investigator
 ensure the eReport number is
 distributed in accordance with unit policy
 provided to the divisional detective office where the offence took place, if applicable.
At the time of booking a prisoner and before considering release, shall ensure
 all reasonable inquiries have been made into the possession by an accused of weapons, firearms, ammunition,
explosives, authorizations, licences, permits, certificates, Firearms Acquisition Certificate, etc.
 such items are surrendered before release to enhance the safety of the victim
Definitions

1385
Q

Child Abuse no person having charge of a child shall

A

 inflict abuse (physical, sexual or sexual exploitation) on the child; or

by failing to care and provide for or supervise and protect the child adequately,
- permit the child to suffer abuse or
- permit the child to suffer from a mental, emotional or development condition that, if not remedied, could
serioiusly impair the child’s development.
[Source: Child, Youth and Family Services Act ss.136 (1)(2)]

1386
Q

Child in Need of Protection means a child that can be _________ as being in need of protection as defined in s.125 (1)
of the Child, Youth and Family Services Act.

A

apprehended

1387
Q

Child Physical Abuse where the circumstances could be a violation of the Criminal Code and/or render the child in need
of protection under the Child, Youth and Family Services Act, and where the alleged abuser (whether adult or child) has
responsibility for the care of the child victim.

Child Physical Abuse refers to an offence where a child is victimized by an
abuser and includes all of the following:

A

 physical assaults,

emotional abuse, or neglect

occurrences when the victim is under 18 years of age and the
suspect is a caregiver, parent or a person in a position of trust or authority;

 abductions when the victim is under the age of 16 years of age;

 occurrences entitled Child in Need of Protection or Child Left Unattended

 homicides when the victim is under the age of 18 years and the suspect is a caregiver, parent, or person in a
position of trust or authority

 physical offences when the victim is under the age of 18 years and there are clear developmental differences
between the victim and the suspect.

1388
Q

Child Sexual Abuse means the use of a child by an adult for sexual purposes, whether or not consent is alleged to have
been given, which could be a violation of the Criminal Code and/or could place a child in need of protection under the Child,
Youth and Family Services Act. Child sexual abuse can include:

A
 incest; 
 acts of exposure; 
 sexual touching; 
 sexual intercourse; 
 sexual molestation; 
 inappropriate sexual language; 
 sexual harassment; 
 exhibitionism; 
 exploitation of child for pornography or prostitution.
1389
Q

Designated Child Abuse Investigator means a specially trained police officer who is responsible for the criminal
investigation of

A

child sexual and physical abuse cases.

1390
Q

Designated Children’s Aid Society Worker means a trained

A

Children’s Aid Society specialist who is responsible for the
child protection investigation and the protection of the child.

1391
Q

Primary Investigator means the investigator assigned by the

A

Major Case Manager in every threshold major case
investigation to perform the functions and responsibilities of the primary investigation function. The Primary Investigator
shall have the knowledge, skills, and abilities to perform the function; shall have successfully completed the Ontario Major
Case Management Course or equivalent, as defined by the Ontario Police College.
(Source: Ontario Major Case Management Manual)

1392
Q

Team (Child Abuse Investigation) means a designated

A

Child Abuse Investigator and a Children’s Aid Society specialist,
who shall conduct interviews together and communicate at every stage of the investigation.

1393
Q

Hate / Bias Crime
Status: Amended Issued: R.O. 2020.01.03-0001 Replaces: R.O. 2019.06.20-0553
Rationale
The impact of crime motivated by hate or bias is far–reaching; extending beyond the _____ and emotional trauma suffered
by the victim and encompassing other members of the targeted group. Such crimes often heighten the isolation and
vulnerability of the victim group and can cause severe stress for all members of the community. If unchecked, these crimes
can result in escalating

A

physical

social tensions between different groups that can destroy communities.
An appropriate police response to hate/bias crime goes beyond law enforcement and must convey a strong message of
our respect for, and commitment to, a diverse society. The commitment of the Toronto Police Service (Service) to the
community is based upon valuing the equality and dignity of every person.
Supervision
Supervisory Officer notification mandatory when dispatched to the scene of a hate/bias crime

1394
Q

Procedure
For the purposes of this procedure, hate/bias crimes and hate propaganda will be reported as ______ offences. Where
the procedure indicates a ‘hate/bias crime’, offences under the ‘Hate Propaganda’ sections of the CC shall be substituted
where appropriate.

A police officer shall be _______ to every report of hate/bias crime or hate propaganda.

The Service is committed to the investigation of hate/bias crime and to assuming a leadership role in the co-ordination of a
strong police and community response. In addition, the Service is committed to working closely with all segments of the
community to provide education programs on hate/bias crime and hate propaganda.
The investigation of hate/bias crime is the responsibility of the

A

separate

dispatched

divisional detective office but Intelligence Services – Hate
Crime (INT – Hate Crime) will provide assistance and expertise to all investigations and prosecutions for these crimes. It
will also maintain an information base of hate/bias occurrences and arrests to assist divisional analysts and investigators.
Intelligence Division – Hate Crime will also assist in developing public education programs in partnership with other
members of the Service and the community.
Intelligence Services – Hate Crime will be the central focus for the dissemination of information and support to divisional
hate crime investigation co–ordinators, other police services, government agencies and the community.

1395
Q

Supervisory Officer

Upon being notified of an incident suspected to be a hate/bias crime shall

A

 attend the scene whenever possible
 assign sufficient police officers to ensure a thorough investigation is conducted
 ensure all evidence is dealt with in compliance with Procedures 04–21, 04–30 and 09–01
 request the attendance of investigators from the divisional detective office, Detective Operations – Forensic
Identification Services, INT – Hate Crime and Victim Services Toronto, as appropriate
 ensure compliance with Procedure 04–31, if required

assure the victim and the community that the Service will fully investigate the occurrence and assist the community
in taking measures to prevent any repetition of the offence
 advise the Officer in Charge of all relevant facts

1396
Q

Detective

Upon initiating an investigation of a hate/bias crime shall

A

 ensure the divisional co–ordinator is advised of significant aspects of the investigation
 ensure the relevant eReport numbers are provided to the divisional co–ordinator and INT – Hate Crime
 where applicable, consider and exercise all powers of search and seizure, with and without warrant, relating to
weapons, firearms, ammunition, explosives and the related licences, certificates or permits
 when firearms are or may be a factor
 notify Organized Crime Enforcement – Integrated Gun and Gang Task Force
 comply with Procedure 05–21
When an arrest results from an investigation shall
 ensure that information on the hate/bias aspect of the crime, is noted in the eReport and the top of the report clearly
indicates ‘hate/bias crime’
 in cases involving stalking, threatening or harassing behaviour, and where there is an identifiable target and serious
potential for violence, consult with the divisional detective sergeant regarding consultation with Detective
Operations – Sex Crimes – Behavioural Assessment Section (BAS)
 consider contacting all persons known to police who may provide the accused access to firearms or related licences,
certificates or permits
 consider applying for a prohibition order or seeking a revocation where reasonable grounds exist to believe it is not
desirable in the interests of safety for the offender to possess weapons

1397
Q

Officer in Charge
Upon being notified of a hate/bias crime shall ensure

A

detective personnel attend the scene as required

 in cases involving bodily harm or major property damage, the Unit Commander and INT – Hate Crime, are notified
promptly

 compliance with Procedures 17–01 and 17–08, if applicable

 the relevant eReport numbers are provided to the divisional detective sergeant

 the particulars are recorded in the Unit Commanders Morning Report (UCMR), as required

When booking a prisoner, and before considering release, shall ensure all reasonable inquiries have been made into the

possession by an accused of weapons, firearms, authorizations, permits, Firearms Acquisition Certificate, etc., and that
such items are surrendered before release to enhance victim safety.

Detective Sergeant
Upon being notified of a hate/bias crime shall
 review the circumstances to determine if further action is required
 ensure the eReport number is provided to
 INT – Hate Crime
 the divisional co–ordinator to permit referral of the involved persons to community based agencies
If further investigation is not warranted or a charge is not supported shall
 add supplementary information to the original eReport detailing the reasons for the decision
 ensure the victim and INT – Hate Crime are advised of the decision
If further investigation is warranted shall
 assign the appropriate resources to the investigation including assistance from INT – Hate Crime
 ensure all evidence is dealt with in compliance with Procedures 04–21, 04–30 and 09–01
In all cases where a charge is supported shall ensure
 the investigation is completed in compliance with the applicable Service Governance
 evidence is submitted for expert examination, if necessary
 compliance with Procedure 17–04, if applicable

1398
Q

Hate crimes

When would a detective

consult with the divisional detective sergeant regarding consultation with Detective
Operations – Sex Crimes – Behavioural Assessment Section (BAS)

A

in cases involving stalking, threatening or harassing behaviour, and where there is an identifiable target and serious potential for violence

1399
Q

Detective Sergeant

Upon being notified of a hate/bias crime shall

A

 review the circumstances to determine if further action is required
 ensure the eReport number is provided to
 INT – Hate Crime
 the divisional co–ordinator to permit referral of the involved persons to community based agencies
If further investigation is not warranted or a charge is not supported shall
 add supplementary information to the original eReport detailing the reasons for the decision
 ensure the victim and INT – Hate Crime are advised of the decision
If further investigation is warranted shall
 assign the appropriate resources to the investigation including assistance from INT – Hate Crime
 ensure all evidence is dealt with in compliance with Procedures 04–21, 04–30 and 09–01
In all cases where a charge is supported shall ensure
 the investigation is completed in compliance with the applicable Service Governance
 evidence is submitted for expert examination, if necessary
 compliance with Procedure 17–04, if applicable

the victim is informed of developments in the investigation
 at the conclusion of any court proceeding
 supplementary information is added to the original eReport, indicating the disposition of the case
 INT – Hate Crime is advised of the disposition
When an arrest has been made in a hate/bias crime case involving stalking, threatening or harassing behaviour; and where
there is an identifiable target and serious potential for violence shall contact the BAS for advice, referral or an assessment
of risk, if appropriate.

1400
Q

Divisional Hate Crime Investigation Co-ordinator
When designated by the Unit Commander shall

A

consult and liaise with other divisions and INT – Hate Crime
 track all hate crime cases to ensure proper application of the increased sentencing provisions of ss. 718.2 CC
 follow up on all hate crime occurrences to ensure victims are provided access to appropriate police and community
based resources
 provide information and training to divisional personnel on hate crime matters
 maintain a unit specific file on hate crime occurrences
Upon receipt of an eReport for a hate/bias crime shall ensure
 appropriate referrals are made to community based agencies to assist in resolving/defusing the incident
 a TPS 228 is completed to place the address on the Special Address System, if appropriate
 supplementary information is added to the original eReport, outlining the action taken and any resolution achieved
 INT – Hate Crime is advised of any supplementary information

1401
Q

Unit Commander
When in charge of a division shall appoint a divisional hate crime investigation co–ordinator.
Upon being advised of a hate/bias crime shall ensure

A

 a thorough investigation is completed
 liaison is maintained and assistance sought from
 INT – Hate Crime
 Victim Services Toronto, as applicable
 Community Partnerships and Engagement Unit
 outside agencies, as applicable
When appropriate, meet with the victim and the affected community to address any concerns

1402
Q

Hate/Bias Crime means a criminal offence committed against a _______ or ________ that is motivated by hate, bias, or
prejudice based on the victim’s race, national or ethnic origin, language, colour, religion, sex, age, mental or physical
disability, sexual orientation, or gender identity or expression, or on any other similar factor.
This is found in s. 718.2 of the Criminal Code, which contains increased sentencing provisions for the aggravating
circumstances.

A

Person or property

1403
Q

Hate Propaganda means any communication that advocates or promotes _______ against any identifiable group or makes
statements that are likely to promote hate against any identifiable group because of colour, race, religion, national or ethnic
origin, age, sex, sexual orientation, gender identity or expression, or mental or physical disability.

A

genocide

1404
Q

Hate Propaganda means any communication that advocates or promotes _________ against any identifiable group or makes
statements that are likely to promote hate against any identifiable group because of colour, race, religion, national or ethnic
origin, age, sex, sexual orientation, gender identity or expression, or mental or physical disability.

Hate propaganda offences are found in s. 318 and 319 of the Criminal Code. Advocate genocide and wilful promotion of
hatred require the permission of the _______~______ to proceed with prosecution.
Public incitement of hatred does not require the consent of the ______~______

A

genocide

Attorney General

Attorney General.

Intelligence Services – Hate Crime will liaise with the Ministry of the Attorney General and advise the respective detective
office when a decision by the Attorney General has been made concerning the commencement of legal proceedings in
cases of hate propaganda.
 These definitions are provided to clarify the difference in victim groups between a criminal offence motivated by
hate and the more limited definition relating to hate propaganda. The differences are particularly important when
the increased sentencing provisions for aggravating circumstances are applied to hate crimes using the expanded
definition in s. 718.2 CC.

1405
Q

 Supervisory Officer ______~______ when using the authority of ss.117.02(1) or ss.117.04(2) of the Criminal
Code to search for firearms, offensive weapons, ammunition or explosive substances

A

Mandatory attendance

1406
Q

Procedure
Organized Crime Enforcement – Integrated Gun & Gang Task Force (IGGTF) is responsible for the identification and arrest
of criminal ________ and the identification, arrest and dismantling of any gang, criminal organization, or crime group or its
members responsible for violent criminal activity within the community, primarily focusing on illegal firearms, drugs and
crimes of violence. The IGGTF operates 24 hours, seven days a week.

The IGGTF – Firearms Enforcement Unit (FEU) is mandated to identify and take enforcement action against persons
involved in the ________~_______ of firearms, ammunition and explosives.

This includes the offences of smuggling, trafficking
and the possession of “______~_____”.

A

gunmen

illegal movement

crime guns

1407
Q

Firearms Enforcement Unit – Firearms Investigation & Analysis Unit (FIAU) will ________ firearm investigations and ensure
that there is a standard process for investigation and accountability. FIAU screens all _____, _______ and ______
seized by the Service. FIAU will designate if firearms are criminal or non-criminal. Firearms deemed to be criminal will be
examined, which includes verifying, forensic testing, test firing and Integrated Ballistics Identification System (IBIS) testing.
Examiners also provide expert testimony in court. All firearms, ammunition, projectiles and casings brought into the custody
of the Service will be screened through the Detective at FIAU or their designate.
Members of FIAU are available to assist with all enquiries concerning possession of a firearm licence, authorization to
transport, authorization to carry or permits held by an individual. They are also available to assist with investigations
involving weapons seizures, illegally possessed firearms and investigations relating to businesses in the City of Toronto
involving the use, sale and storage of firearms and related products. Beyond regular business hours, an FEU/FIAU member
can only be contacted through the on-call IGGTF.

A

Streamline

firearms, ammunition and casings

1408
Q

IGGTF will attend scenes/units to debrief arrested persons in ______ of/or _________related officers.

Intelligence –Gang Unit will attend units to de–brief known _______~_____.

In addition, all firearms and ammunition seized during an investigation will either be:
 seized by members of IGGTF if they attended the scene/division
 submitted by investigating officer to the divisional DLMS in compliance with Procedure 09–03;
 seized on scene by Forensic Identification Services (FIS)
and forwarded to FIAU for testing and further investigation, as required.

The IGGTF shall be notified and will attend all firearm–related homicide scenes. The IGGTF investigator shall consult and
assist……

A

possession of/or firearm related offences

gang members.

Specialized Criminal Investigations – Homicide, as required.
This Procedure is in two parts

1409
Q

Supervisor officer

When notified by an officer that the safety of a source may have been compromised as a result of the source’s identity
having been revealed shall

A

 ensure that the Controller and the Unit Commander are notified forthwith
 notify the detective sergeant

1410
Q

When in receipt of a request to release a suicide note to the next of kin shall consult with

A

Records Management Services

(RMS) – Information Access – Access and Privacy Section on the appropriate course of action.

1411
Q

Pediatric Death Review Committee (PDRC)

PDRC – Child Welfare must review all cases of deaths involving children and youth when the child, the youth or their family
was receiving, or had received, the services of a ______~______~_____or ______~______~_____ society within
12 months of the death. The PDRC – Child Welfare panel includes ____._____~_____,______s~_____,______From The ______ of the _______, ____and representatives from _______,______ organizations across the province; and is chaired by
the Regional ______~_______ for the Province of Ontario.

A

Children’s Aid Society (CAS)

Indigenous child wellbeing

police officers, crown attorneys, senior staff from the
Office of the Chief Coroner and representatives from Child Welfare

Chief Coroner

1412
Q

Pediatric Death Review Committee (PDRC)

PDRC – Medical reviews the deaths of children where issues or concerns pertaining to the medical diagnosis or provision
of care have been identified. These cases are done on a discretionary basis and are referred by the relevant Regional
Supervising Coroner. The PDRC – Medical panel includes _______expert’s,_______~_______, senior staff from the office of the ______~_____ and is also chaired by the Regional _______~_____for the province of Ontario.

A

paediatric experts, forensic pathologists, senior staff from the
Office of the Chief Coroner

Chief Coroner

1413
Q

Hate Propaganda means any communication that advocates or promotes genocide against any identifiable group or makes
statements that are likely to promote hate against any identifiable group because of colour, race, religion, national or ethnic
origin, age, sex, sexual orientation, gender identity or expression, or mental or physical disability.

Hate propaganda offences are found in s. 318 and 319 of the Criminal Code. Advocate genocide and wilful promotion of hatred require the permission of the…….

A

Attorney General to proceed with prosecution.

Public incitement of hatred does not require the consent of the Attorney Genera

1414
Q

Missing persons level 3

The Duty Inspector is responsible for ensuring that sufficient resources are made available, the applicable _______ _______ of
_______ is advised and determine, after consultation, whether to escalate or de–escalate physical search operations.

A

Deputy chief of police

1415
Q

If the alleged offender is a school employee, consideration must be given by the ______~_______ or designate of the
investigating unit as soon as practicable of notifying the respective _______ of _______ or designate, responsible individual
or body. School officials shall be advised not to interview or advise the alleged offender prior to the police interview.

A

Unit Commander

Director of Education

1416
Q

Firearms enforcement unit / firearms investigation and analysis unit FIAU

Bullet points your words

A

Crimes guns

Streamline Firearms investigations

Screens all Firearms, ammo, and casings

Determine if guns are criminal or non criminal.

Provide testimony in Court

1417
Q

In addition, all firearms and ammunition seized during an investigation will either be:
 seized by members of IGGTF if they attended the scene/division
 submitted by investigating officer to the divisional DLMS in compliance with Procedure 09–03;
 seized on scene by Forensic Identification Services (FIS)
and forwarded to FIAU for testing and further investigation, as required.
The IGGTF shall be notified and will attend all firearm–related homicide scenes. The IGGTF investigator shall consult and
assist Specialized Criminal Investigations – Homicide, as required.
This Procedure is in two parts

A

 seized by members of IGGTF if they attended the scene/division
 submitted by investigating officer to the divisional DLMS in compliance with Procedure 09–03;
 seized on scene by Forensic Identification Services (FIS)
and forwarded to FIAU for testing and further investigation, as required.
The IGGTF shall be notified and will attend all firearm–related homicide scenes. The IGGTF investigator shall consult and
assist Specialized Criminal Investigations – Homicide, as required.
This Procedure is in two parts

1418
Q

ALL firearm trace submissions shall be submitted by _____ only.

A

FIAU

Firearms Investigation & Analysis Unit (FIAU) means the part of the Organized Crime Enforcement – Integrated Gun &
Gang Task Force – Firearms Enforcement Unit, responsible for the verification, testing and tracing of all seized firearms
and related components including crime scene evidence. FIAU consists of firearm experts who testify in all levels of court,
as required. The unit can also assist with expert opinion with respect to video/image analysis and coded language
investigations.

1419
Q

Firearms Investigation & Analysis Unit (FIAU) means the part of the

A

Organized Crime Enforcement – Integrated Gun &
Gang Task Force – Firearms Enforcement Unit, responsible for the verification, testing and tracing of all seized firearms
and related components including crime scene evidence. FIAU consists of firearm experts who testify in all levels of court,
as required. The unit can also assist with expert opinion with respect to video/image analysis and coded language
investigations.

1420
Q

CFS Evidence Web-Submission System
All submissions to the Centre for Forensic Sciences (CFS) are now made through the CFS Evidence Web-Submission
System. Service members will

A

submit evidence forms online via the interactive web application; obtain submission approval,
packaging labels and track submission status. The system requires all evidence to undergo an online pre-submission
review, resulting in notification of which items are approved for submission to CFS.
- ALL firearm submissions for testing shall be completed through FIAU only

1421
Q

Supervisory Officer
When attending an incident relating to a firearm offence shall
-

A

assume responsibility for the safe and efficient search of the premises

  • ensure all powers of search and seizure have been considered
  • ensure appropriate units have been notified (e.g. IGGTF, FIS, ETF)
  • All submissions for testing shall be completed through FIAU.
1422
Q

Incident Commander
When attending a School Lockdown, Hold and Secure or Shelter in Place shall first comply with Procedure 10–01.
Upon conclusion of the incident, shall

A

 notify the Operations Supervisor – Communications Services (Operations Supervisor)
 request the Operations Supervisor to notify
 the Officer in Charge
 Emergency Management & Public Order
 the TPOC
Officer in Charge

1423
Q

CLRA

A

ensure that any Children’s Law Reform Act (CLRA) Order of Apprehension is immediately entered on CPIC

1424
Q

Divisional detective Shall

in a case of a stranger involved abduction, contact the on–call _______,_____~______~_______
The INT can assist by providing expertise relating to telephone intercepts and other investiga

A

Detective Sergeant – Intelligence Services (INT)

1425
Q

When is this

 ensure compliance with Procedures 05–06 and the Child Abuse Protocol, where applicable

A

Detective at division shall ensure re Child abductions

1426
Q

Oic
Det
Pc
And even Sgt are indicated to notify

Ensure _____~______ has been notified when circumstances indicate a non Parental or stranger involved abduction

A

ensure Sex Crimes

1427
Q

The Duty Senior Officer – TPOC (Duty Senior Officer) will contact the ______of _______,or _______. The
______of______ or designate will make the final decision if an AMBER Alert will be initiated. If approved, the
Duty Senior Officer will initiate the Alert through the TPOC.

(Then it’s faxed to opp)

A

Chief of Police, or designate

Chief of Police

Upon authorization from the Chief of Police or designate to initiate an AMBER Alert, shall ensure
 a Ontario Amber Alert – Request for Activation is completed with as much information as possible, keeping in mind
that additional supplementary information can be provided at a later time as it becomes available
 the Ontario Amber Alert – Request for Activation is forwarded by facsimile or electronic mail to the Duty Officer –
OPP GHQ, requesting the activation of an AMBER Alert
 The RCMP Missing Child Registry can be accessed by calling toll free to 1–877–318–3567. The automated system
will assist investigators in notifying federal law enforcement agencies in both Canada and the U.S. including all
border points.
Once it has been determined that either the child has been located and is safe, or the duration time of the AMBER Alert
has expired and no extention has been requested, shall
 ensure the Duty Office – OPP GHQ is notified
 ensure supplementary information is added to the original eReport, detailing all action taken
Definitions

1428
Q

Investigator – Detective Operations – Sex Crimes

Upon being notified of a possible abduction of a person under the age of 18, in addition to unit specific policies shall

A

 immediately liaise with the on–call Homicide investigators

 ensure supplementary information is added to the original eReport, detailing all action taken

1429
Q

When win sex crimes immediately liaise with the on–call Homicide investigators

A

Upon being notified of a possible abductions of a Person under 18

1430
Q

Upon authorization from the Chief of Police or designate to initiate an AMBER Alert, shall ensure
 a Ontario Amber Alert – Request for Activation is completed with as much information as possible, keeping in mind
that additional supplementary information can be provided at a later time as it becomes available
 the Ontario Amber Alert – Request for Activation is forwarded by facsimile or electronic mail to the ____~~~~~~~~~_____
 The _____ Missing Child Registry can be accessed by calling toll free to 1–877–318–3567. The automated system
will assist investigators in notifying federal law enforcement agencies in both Canada and the U.S. including all
border points.

Once it has been determined that either the child has been located and is safe, or the duration time of the AMBER Alert
has expired and no extention has been requested, shall
 ensure the Duty Office – OPP GHQ is notified
 ensure supplementary information is added to the original eReport, detailing all action taken
Definitions

A

Duty Officer –
OPP GHQ, requesting the activation of an AMBER Alert

RCMP

1431
Q

Duty Senior Officer – Toronto Police Operations

Once it has been determined that either the child has been located and is safe, or the duration time of the AMBER Alert
has expired and no extention has been requested, shall
 ensure the Duty Office – _______ is notified
 ensure supplementary information is added to the original eReport, detailing all action taken
Definitions

A

OPP GHQ

1432
Q

Parental Abduction means the unlawful removal of a child by a parent, guardian, or any other person having lawful care
or charge of a person under the age of _______ whether or not there is a custody order in relation to that child made by a
court, with the intent to deprive a parent, guardian, or person having lawful care or charge of the person.
Restraining Order means an order of the Court (Ontario Court of Justice), which restrains one parent from having contact
with the other parent and/or children. This could also include restraining both parents from having contact with their children.
Royal Canadian Mounted Police (RCMP) Missing Child Registry means the n

A

fourteen

1433
Q

Restraining Order means an order of the Court (Ontario Court of Justice), which restrains one parent from having contact
with the other parent and/or children. This could also include restraining _____ parents from having contact with their children.

A

Both

1434
Q

Search Management Team means the team from Emergency Management & Public Order (EM&PO), supported by the
________ division, responsible for co–ordinating a Level ____ search for a missing person.

A

requesting

3

1435
Q

The Mental Health Act (MHA) provides for the _______,______,______and ______ of emotionally disturbed
persons.

This Procedure addresses situations where officers observe verbal cues, behavioural cues or other behaviours
that provide them with reasonable cause to believe a person is apparently suffering a mental disorder.

A

control, apprehension, detention and treatment

1436
Q

Section ______ MHA – Action by Police Officer
Section _____ of the MHA states that
Where a police officer has reasonable and probable grounds to believe that a person is acting or has acted in a disorderly
manner and has reasonable cause to believe that the person,
(

A

17

has threatened or attempted or is threatening or attempting to cause bodily harm to himself or herself;
(b) has behaved or is behaving violently towards another person or has caused or is causing another person to fear
bodily harm from him or her; or
(c) has shown or is showing a lack of competence to care for himself or herself,

1437
Q

and in addition the police officer is of the opinion that the person is apparently suffering from mental disorder of a nature or
quality that likely will result in,
 serious bodily harm to the person;
 serious bodily harm to another person; or
 serious physical impairment of the person,
and that it would be dangerous to proceed under section ____ (Justice of the Peace Order for Examination, Form ____), the
police officer may take the person in custody to an appropriate place for examination by a physician.

There is no longer a requirement for a police officer to actually observe the person’s behaviour and may use information
obtained from a third party in order to form reasonable and probable grounds for apprehension. Police officers should obtain
and record as much information as possible in situations involving third party reports and request that the complainant sign
the officer’s memorandum book.

A

16

2

1438
Q

Section ____ MHA – Duty to Remain and Retain Custody
Section ___ of the MHA directs
 A police officer or other person who takes a person in custody to a psychiatric facility shall ____ at the facility and
retain custody of the person until the facility takes custody of him or her in the prescribed manner.

A

33

33

remain

1439
Q

Form 47 MHA means an Order for Examination issued by the physician who issued the person a Community Treatment
Order (CTO) and
a) Has reasonable cause to believe the person has failed to comply with the conditions under the CTO
b) the CTO subject or substitute decision–maker has withdrawn consent to the CTO and the subject fails to permit
the physician to review their condition within _____ hours and the physician believes the subject may cause harm or
suffer deterioration.
A Form 47 authorizes a police officer to take that person into custody and return them to the physician promptly and is valid
for a period of ____ days.

A

72

Form 47 MHA means an Order for Examination issued by the physician who issued the person a Community Treatment
Order (CTO) and
a) Has reasonable cause to believe the person has failed to comply with the conditions under the CTO
b) the CTO subject or substitute decision–maker has withdrawn consent to the CTO and the subject fails to permit
the physician to review their condition within 72 hours and the physician believes the subject may cause harm or
suffer deterioration.
A Form 47 authorizes a police officer to take that person into custody and return them to the physician promptly and is valid
for a period of 30 days.
Mental Disorder means any disease or disability of the mind.
[Source: Mental Health Act, ss. 1(1)]
A person suffering from a mental disorder may have to live with a long–term breakdown of coping skills including perception,
decision making and problem solving abilities.
Person in Crisis means a person who suffers a temporary breakdown of coping skills but often reaches out for help,
demonstrating that they are in touch with reality. Once a person in crisis receives the needed help, there is often a rapid
return to normalcy.
Physician means a legally qualified medical practitioner.
[Source: Health Protection and Promotion Act, ss. 1(1)].
Psychiatric Facility means a facility for the observation, care and treatment of persons suffering from a mental disorder
and designated as such by the regulation contained in the Mental Health Act. See Procedure 06-04, Appendix B for a list
of designated psychiatric facilities.

1440
Q

Service Vehicle Collision – Responsibility for Investigation
Members shall comply with Procedure 07–01 which outlines the responsibility for collision investigations.
A supervisory officer and a .—— officer shall attend the scene and assume the responsibility for all SVC investigations.
Subject to availability, the attending supervisory officer shall be from ____.

A

TSV

Subject to availability, the attending supervisory officer shall be from ____. TSV

1441
Q

Unit Commander – Involved Member

When in receipt of a SVCR that has been reviewed by TSV shall

A

 review to ensure compliance with applicable procedures
 ensure the appropriate action is taken, which may include
 consideration for repetitive behaviour
 recommendation for a driving assessment and/or driver development training
 initiating criminal or provincial charges
 commencing an internal complaint in compliance with the applicable procedures contained in Chapter 13
 ensure that a copy of the SRLD401 has been sent to FLT
 ensure repairs are made to the Service vehicle in a timely manner
 review SVCR for completeness, accuracy and systemic integrity
 if concurring with the report, email a copy of the TPS 559 and SRLD401 for
 all not–at–fault, property damage only SVCR to Professional Standards Support – Analysis and Assessment
(PSIS Analyst) (the original is retained on unit file and copy on member’s file per retention schedule)
 all other collisions, (including at–fault collisions, personal injury collisions, and pursuit–related collisions) to
the involved member’s Staff Superintendent / Director
 if not concurring with the report and/or errors/omissions are identified ensure corrections are made in a timely
manner and, once corrected, forward to the TSV Unit Commander (Designate) – SVC Review

1442
Q

Service Vehicle Collision (SVC)

A

means a vehicle collision involving a Toronto Police Service vehicle where involvement
is direct or indirect.

1443
Q

Service Vehicle Collision Reduction Committee (SVCRC) means a panel consisting of, but not limited to, the Unit
Commander and/or Designate from:

A

 Professional Standards Support
 Traffic Services
 Toronto Police College
with the mandate to monitor Toronto Police Service vehicle collisions for trend analysis, problem identification, quality
assurance and training issues, and report its findings to the Chief of Police.

1444
Q

Dates to know

A

The Missing Persons Act came into effect on July 1, 2019. This legislat

Cloutier v. Langlois (Supreme Court of Canada) (1990)
 R. v. Flintoff (Ontario Court of Appeal) (1998)
 R. v. Coulter (Ontario Court of Justice) (2000)
 R. v. Golden (Supreme Court of Canada) (2001)
 R. v. Clarke, Heroux and Pilipa (Ontario Superior Court of Justice) (2003)
 R. v. Mann (Supreme Court of Canada) (2004)
 R. v. McGuffie (Ontario Court of Appeal) (2016)
 R. v. MacPherson (Ontario Native Council on Justice) (2018)
 R. v. Tonkin (Ontario Superior Court of Justice) (2020)

A member of a police force is unable to locate the person after making reasonable efforts to do so.
[Source: Missing Person Act, 2018]

tion Reports & Historical Contact Data
As of January 1, 2017, all Historical Contact Data shall be classified as restricted. Access to any Regulated Interaction
Report collected in accordance with this Procedure shall be restricted 5 years after the date it was submitted to the Service’s
records management system.

1445
Q

Child abuse investigations shall be conducted in accordance with

A

 the “Protocol for Joint Investigations of Child Physical and Sexual Abuse: Guidelines and Procedures for a Co–
ordinated Response to Child Abuse in the City of Toronto”;

 the Toronto Police Service Criminal Investigation Management Plan;

 the Ontario Major Case Management Manual, where applicable;

 the Chief Coroner’s memorandum on the protocol for the investigation of sudden and unexpected deaths in children
under 5 years of age; and

 the Chief Coroner’s memorandum on the protocol to be followed during the investigation of a sudden and/or
unexpected death of any child under 1 year of age (See R.O. 2012.12.31–1557).

1446
Q

Protection Services for ____ and ____ Year olds

On, _____ January 01, Ontario increased the age of protection to include all children under the age of 18 years.

Children who are ____ or ____ years old, who believe they are in need of protection may be eligible to enter into the new

Voluntary Youth 
Services Agreement (VYSA), see
A

2018

16 and 17

1447
Q
Voluntary Youth 
Services Agreement (VYSA), 

What is it??

A

On, 2018 January 01, Ontario increased the age of protection to include all children under the age of 18 years. Children
who are 16 or 17 years old, who believe they are in need of protection may be eligible to enter into the new Voluntary Youth
Services Agreement (VYSA), see Appendix C.
Police Officer

1448
Q

The EFAP provider will only breach client confidentiality when required by law, such as

A

 when records are _______ by a court of law
 when there is suspicion that a ______ is or may be in need of protection from current or potential physical abuse,
sexual abuse, emotional abuse, or neglect
 when there is a need to intervene to prevent serious ______ to an individual or others
 when there is a need to report a _____~______ where there is reason to believe that they are not working in
accordance with the standards of the Regulated Health Professions Act

 when records are subpoenaed by a court of law
 when there is suspicion that a child is or may be in need of protection from current or potential physical abuse,
sexual abuse, emotional abuse, or neglect
 when there is a need to intervene to prevent serious harm to an individual or others
 when there is a need to report a health professional where there is reason to believe that they are not working in
accordance with the standards of the Regulated Health Professions Act

1449
Q

Upon becoming aware that another member may be experiencing a problem shall

A

 refrain from ________ a person who is suffering a problem
 encourage the member to seek assistance ________ before work performance or safety is affected
 provide support and encouragement to assist the member and/or family in accessing ______ support
 refer to Procedure 08–04 in the event of a traumatic critical incident

 refrain from diagnosing a person who is suffering a problem
 encourage the member to seek assistance voluntarily before work performance or safety is affected
 provide support and encouragement to assist the member and/or family in accessing EFAP support
 refer to Procedure 08–04 in the event of a traumatic critical incident

1450
Q

Supervisor
Upon becoming aware of a member who requests assistance for a problem shall

A

advise the member of all options available for assistance, including the EFAP provider
 permit the member the _______ to call the EFAP provider, subject to operational requirements
 follow–up as necessary with the member for support and ______
 refer to Procedure 08–04 in the event of a traumatic critical incident

advise the member of all options available for assistance, including the EFAP provider
 permit the member the opportunity to call the EFAP provider, subject to operational requirements
 follow–up as necessary with the member for support and encouragement
 refer to Procedure 08–04 in the event of a traumatic critical incident

1451
Q

Employee and Family Assistance Program (EFAP) Liaison/Critical Incident Response Team (CIRT) Coordinator
means the member designated by the EFAP Committee to:

A

 liaise with
- the EFAP provider and its CIRT,
- the Toronto Police Operations Centre, Officer in Charge and/or unit commander, and the CIRT/Peer
Support Volunteers (PSVs), and;

  • work with CIRT/PSVs, the EFAP provider, and/or _________ Services to co–ordinate defusing and
    debriefing sessions.

Psychological

1452
Q
Family – Employee and Family Assistance Program for the purposes of using the services of the Employee and Family 
Assistance Program (EFAP) provider includes:
A

 a spouse or partner from a same sex or opposite sex relationship;
 dependent children.

1453
Q

Procedure
In the normal course of their duties, members are involved in events that meet the definition of “traumatic critical incident”.

A

Serious ______~_______and ______~______s are two examples of such routine events. More catastrophic events occur less
frequently and may increase the potential for members to experience symptoms of critical incident stress.
Keeping in mind that any event has potential to interfere with a member’s ability to function ________ or ________;
supervisors, officers in charge and unit commanders must assess each traumatic critical incident to determine the
appropriate level of support for members involved. The determination of whether or not the Critical Incident Response
Team (CIRT) / Peer Support Volunteer (PSV) is immediately contacted will be dependent on the assessment by the officer
in charge in consultation with the Toronto Police Operations Centre (TPOC). However, the CIRT/PSV must be contacted
in all instances in which the member has _______~________ support. Additionally, supervisors, officers in charge and
unit commanders MUST ensure an Injured on Duty Online Report is completed for all members involved in an event and
submitted in compliance with Procedure 08–03.

Serious traffic collisions and sudden deaths are two examples of such routine events. More catastrophic events occur less
frequently and may increase the potential for members to experience symptoms of critical incident stress.
Keeping in mind that any event has potential to interfere with a member’s ability to function professionally or personally;
supervisors, officers in charge and unit commanders must assess each traumatic critical incident to determine the
appropriate level of support for members involved. The determination of whether or not the Critical Incident Response
Team (CIRT) / Peer Support Volunteer (PSV) is immediately contacted will be dependent on the assessment by the officer
in charge in consultation with the Toronto Police Operations Centre (TPOC). However, the CIRT/PSV must be contacted
in all instances in which the member has requested immediate support. Additionally, supervisors, officers in charge and
unit commanders MUST ensure an Injured on Duty Online Report is completed for all members involved in an event and
submitted in compliance with Procedure 08–03.

1454
Q

For Traumatic Critical incidents

The wording for the Injured on Duty Report under the section “Nature and Area of Injury(ies)” shall be: “

A

Traumatic Critical

Incident”.

1455
Q

Officer in Charge / Civilian Equivalent

Upon becoming aware of a traumatic critical incident taking place shall

A

 provided a copy of the Critical Incident Stress Handout (Appendix A)

Many other pg 132 but this one stood out

1456
Q

the Critical Incident Stress Handout is made available when ;

A

Unit Commander
Upon becoming aware that a traumatic critical incident has taken place shall ensure the TPOC is immediately consulted
any time a member requests immediate support

Officer in Charge / Civilian Equivalent
Upon becoming aware of a traumatic critical incident taking place shall

1457
Q

Who notifies CIRT/PSV

Upon becoming aware of a traumatic critical incident taking place shall respond to the unit’s request in consultation with the
unit commander or the officer in charge of the involved unit. If assessment of the incident has determined that the CIRT
must be activated, the TPOC shall

A

Officer in Charge – Toronto Police Operations Centre
Upon becoming aware of a traumatic critical incident taking place shall respond to the unit’s request in consultation with the
unit commander or the officer in charge of the involved unit. If assessment of the incident has determined that the CIRT
must be activated, the TPOC shall
 immediately notify
 the on–call CIRT/PSV using the on-call roster at the TPOC
 the EFAP Liaison/CIRT Coordinator, during business hours
 the Duty Senior Officer – TPOC
 an on–call member of the Senior Officers Organization and/or Toronto Police Association, whichever is
appropriate
 comply with Procedure 13–16, where appropriate

1458
Q

PSV’s ate not

A

Counsellors.

Peer Support Volunteer (PSV) means a Service member trained in trauma response measures and available on-call to
provide ongoing assistance and support to members and their families after becoming involved in a traumatic critical
incident. PSVs are qualified to lead defusing sessions. PSVs are not counsellors. The PSVs will assist members to seek
professional treatment, if required.

1459
Q

Traumatic Critical Incident means any incident during which a member experiences, witnesses, or is confronted with

A

serious injury, death, or mass casualties; any incident in which the member’s life has been imperilled or threatened; or any
situation which is recognized at the time to have the potential to significantly interfere immediately or at a later time with a
member’s ability to function professionally or personally.

1460
Q

Considerations
The Officer in Charge, supervisor, EFAP Liaison/CIRT Coordinator, CIRT/PSV and/or the Toronto Police Operations Centre
(TPOC), as required, should consult with the unit commander of the affected unit as early as possible on the best course
of action.
Consideration should be given to addressing the following areas, as required

A

 scheduling of the mandatory defusing and debriefing sessions for involved members

 personal safety issues

 communication between family and the Service

 transportation of immediate and extended family

 spouse’s needs
 child care

financial needs
 home maintenance

 pet care

 assistance from the Senior Officers Organization and Toronto Police Association

1461
Q

Restricted Duties (Substance Abuse) for the purposes of a _________ seeking help for a substance abuse problem, means
work that is_____ to permit a member with a disability to work in accordance with limitations imposed by the Medical
Advisor – Wellness – Medical Advisory Services.
Sick Benefits means sick leave accrued in accordance w

A

Member

modified

1462
Q

The Toronto Police Services Board (Board) and the Toronto Police Service (Service) are committed to providing all its
members with a workplace that is safe. The________~_____&_____~_____ legislates that workers are provided
a safe workplace. This procedure outlines for members what constitutes workplace violence and the process for reporting
workplace violence. Members reporting workplace violence, including……..

A

Occupational Health & Safety Act (OHSA)

domestic violence, are protected from reprisal.

1463
Q
The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_(four letters) requires the employer to assess the risk of workplace violence that may arise from the nature of the workplace, 
the type of work or the conditions of work. The assessment shall take into account
A

The OHSA

 circumstances that would be common to similar workplaces
 circumstances specific to the workplace, and
 any other prescribed element.

1464
Q

Workplace violence

Officer in Charge / Designate
The Officer in Charge shall ensure
 members are made aware of how to immediately ________ assistance if workplace violence occurs
 any complainant or witness is protected from reprisal and comply with Procedure 13–18
 the workplace is not _____or ______

A

summon

toxic or poisoned

When notified of a member refusing to work as a result of a workplace violence incident shall
 ensure the member remains available and in a safe place for the purposes of an investigation, if applicable

Upon becoming aware of, or ought reasonably to be aware of, violence which may occur in the workplace, and would likely
expose a member to physical injury, shall take every reasonable precaution necessary for the protection of the member.

Reasonable precaution necessary for the protection of the member may include the re–assignment to reasonable
alternative duties.

1465
Q

Domestic Violence means any physical, sexual or psychological harm caused, or attempted, between persons involved
in an intimate relationship including:

A

 assault;
 murder;
 sexual assault;
 threatening;
 harassment;
 intimidation;
 unlawful interference with personal liberty;
 any other criminal offence;
 offences under other statutes, such as the Family Law Act, Children’s Law Reform Act, etc.;
but does not include child abuse investigations.

1466
Q

Workplace Harassment
Supervision
 Supervisory Officer attendance mandatory for any incident of workplace harassment
 Supervisory Officer, Officer in Charge and Unit Commander notification mandatory for any incident of workplace
harassment
Procedure
The Service is committed to the delivery of police services that are fair, respectful, unbiased, and in line with the OHSA and
its provisions that are designed to protect workers from workplace harassment. The definition of workplace harassment
under the OHSA is broader than the definition contained in the____~_____~_____~_____ (Code).

A

Ontario Human Rights Code

1467
Q

Supervisor

Upon becoming aware of any incident of workplace harassment shall

A

 maintain confidentiality

 report any incident of workplace harassment to the Officer in Charge

 commence an investigation

 speak to the member initiating the complaint in private

 when gathering evidence comply with Procedure 04–21, if applicable

 when the harassment is domestic related comply with Procedure 05–04, if applicable

 when the harassment includes a prohibited ground under the Code, also comply with Procedure 13–14, if applicable

 if an arrest is made, comply with Procedure 01–01

 when a member requires counselling, including counselling which is gender and culturally specific, comply with
Procedure 08–01

 take all reasonable precautions necessary for the protection of the member

1468
Q

Workplace Sexual Harassment means engaging in a course of________ comment or conduct against a worker in a
workplace because of

A

vexatious

sex, sexual orientation, gender identity or gender expression, where the course of comment or
conduct is known or ought reasonably to be known to be unwelcome, or making a sexual solicitation or advance where the
person making the solicitation or advance is in a position to confer, grant or deny a benefit or advancement to the worker
and the person knows or ought reasonably to know that the solicitation or advance is unwelcome.

1469
Q

Fentanyl
Fentanyl is a powerful_______ opioid that is highly toxic and potentially lethal in small doses. The potency and toxicity of
fentanyl varies significantly, as it is sometimes combined with other powdered illicit narcotics and cutting agents. As it can
be ______~_______, proper handling of suspected fentanyl and fentanyl analogues is essential to minimizing health risks to
involved members.

Members shall seek immediate medical attention, in compliance with Procedure 08–06, if they feel ill and note any of the
following symptoms:

A

synthetic

skin permeable

 irregular and or shallow difficult breathing, 
 confusion, 
 seizures, 
 dizziness, 
 excessive drowsiness, 
 headaches, 
 pinpoint pupils, or
 nausea/vomiting.
1470
Q

Medical Oversight
Section 27 of the Regulated Health Professions Act (RHPA) states that controlled medical acts, such as_______
Naloxone nasal spray to a person experiencing an opioid overdose, may only be performed by persons who are not_______ if a physician has delegated that authority to them.

The Service has obtained a medical______ from a physician in order for designated members to be able to administer Naloxone to members of the public experiencing an overdose.

This medical delegation stipulates that all members being
issued Naloxone shall maintain a current Standard First Aid certification. Failure to maintain a Standard First Aid
certification shall result in the requirement for those members to return their Service issued Naloxone kit.

The Naloxone Tracking Form text template shall be used to track Naloxone use. Any member that attends an opioid-related
overdose shall complete this text template in the related eReport forthwith, regardless of whether Naloxone was
_______or______

A

administering

physicians

delegation

administered or not.

1471
Q

Unit Commander
When in command of members that have been issued a Naloxone kit shall ensure
 the members have successfully completed the Naloxone training program as required by the TPC
 the members complete Standard First Aid training at least once every ______ months
 compliance with item 2
When a member’s Standard First Aid certification expires, shall ensure that their Service issued Naloxone kit is returned to
FLT – Hanna.

A

36

1472
Q

the members complete Standard First Aid training at least once every ______ months

A

36

1473
Q

Current studies indicate the risk of occupational exposure to Cannabis for Service members is low. Second and third hand
smoke is not likely to create a reportable exposure and impairment due to the length of time and conditions required for any
effects to be realized. Studies have shown that it can take upwards of _______
hours of continuous exposure in an unventilated space where multiple smokers are actively smoking to show second hand absorption.

A

4

1474
Q

Fitness for Duty Assessments
Fitness for duty assessments of Service members are the responsibility of MAS. No medical information will be disclosed
to a member’s Unit Commander, however MAS will share information related to an absence or return to work abilities.
Factors that may impact a member’s fitness for duty include

A

illness, injury, fatigue, mental stress, alcohol and drug use.

1475
Q

Cannabis
Unlike alcohol, which eliminates from the body at a constant rate, compounds found in cannabis such as
tetrahydrocannabinol (THC) are metabolically complex and are released from the body at variable rates. THC is responsible
for the way the _____and____ respond to cannabis.

Factors such as _______ of cannabis use and body fat levels cause
people to metabolize THC differently and, dependent on the person, THC can stay stored in the body’s fat deposits for up
to _____ days after cannabis was last ingested.

The Service places the highest value on the protection of life and the safety of its members and the public, and relies on
members to perform their job tasks free from impairment. Because cognitive impairment from cannabis use can persist for
up to 28 days after the initial intoxicating effects, there exists a risk of potential harm to the public and other Service members
post-consumption of cannabis.
In accordance with Standards of Conduct 1.25, members shall not:
________ cannabis while at work, and/or use recreational cannabis while at work, on duty, on call, or in uniform; or

 for a minimum of 28 days prior to attending work.

The Service will endeavour to accommodate all members who require the use of medically-prescribed or authorized
cannabis, in compliance with Procedure 08–13.

Members who knowingly contravene Standards of Conduct 1.25 shall be subject to discipline in accordance with Chapter
13 of Procedures.

A

brain and body

Frequency

28

possess

1476
Q

Unit Complaint Coordinator

When determining that an OIPRD conduct complaint cannot be resolved by an informal resolution shall

A

 provide the respondent officer with a TPS ______ outlining the substance of the complaint

 record the particulars of the notification to the officer in their memorandum book, if applicable

 consult with _____~_____&____~_____ regarding an alleged violation of a prohibited ground under the
Human Rights Code

 conduct an investigation and maintain detailed notes

 ensure all evidence is collected in compliance with Procedure 04–21

 if applicable, direct the respondent and witness officers to
 provide a TPS 217, and/or
 attend an investigative interview

 direct the officers to provide additional information as required

 notify the Unit Commander of all side issues, where they exist, and initiate a separate TPS 901 for each, and comply
with Procedure 13–03 as appropriate
 liaise with PRS – Complaints Administration to ensure the timely conclusion of complaint investigations
 complete a ______ Day Investigation Status Update Form 004-0306 OIPRD and submit electronically within ____ calendar
days to the OIPRD Liaison Officer
 prepare an Investigative Report 004-0309 OIPRD and submit electronically within ______ days to the Unit Commander
When required to facilitate a local resolution shall

 provide the respondent officer with a TPS 649 outlining the substance of the complaint
 record the particulars of the notification to the officer in their memorandum book, if applicable
 consult with Equity, Inclusion & Human Rights regarding an alleged violation of a prohibited ground under the
Human Rights Code
 conduct an investigation and maintain detailed notes
 ensure all evidence is collected in compliance with Procedure 04–21
 if applicable, direct the respondent and witness officers to
 provide a TPS 217, and/or
 attend an investigative interview
 direct the officers to provide additional information as required
 notify the Unit Commander of all side issues, where they exist, and initiate a separate TPS 901 for each, and comply
with Procedure 13–03 as appropriate
 liaise with PRS – Complaints Administration to ensure the timely conclusion of complaint investigations
 complete a 45 Day Investigation Status Update Form 004-0306 OIPRD and submit electronically within 35 calendar
days to the OIPRD Liaison Officer
 prepare an Investigative Report 004-0309 OIPRD and submit electronically within 90 days to the Unit Commander
When required to facilitate a local resolution shall

1477
Q

Procedure
The Chief of Police (Chief) hereby authorizes the following personnel the power of suspension granted to the Chief under
the PSA

A

 any Deputy Chief of Police
 all Uniform Senior Officers
 all officers permanently assigned to Professional Standards (PRS)
 the Officer in Charge of a unit

1478
Q

the Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms (Charter) generally and, in particular, the S. ____ protection against
arbitrary detention and the S. ____ right to equal treatment under the law;

A

9

15

1479
Q

he Human Rights Code (HRC) of Ontario generally and, in particular, the S. ____ freedom from discrimination based
on race, place of origin, age, colour, ethnic origin, gender identity or gender expression;

A

1

1480
Q

The disciplinary actions available in a substantiated complaint for a civilian member are:
 ________ reprimand
 ________ reprimand
 ________ without pay
 ________ without pay pending recommendation for termination.
Civilian members may not utilize time banks as an alternative to a suspension without pay.
In accordance with the principles of progressive discipline, assessed disciplinary penalties shall increase for subsequent
offences and subsequent penalties shall not regress in severity. However, in exceptional circumstances, and only following
consultation with and advice from

A

Verbally

written

suspension

suspension

1481
Q

Special Review
Where a supervisor identifies the performance of a member that is less than satisfactory and the work performance
deficiency cannot be corrected through discussion, guidance or training, the supervisor shall record the deficiency on a
TPS 955.
A Special Review is a two–part process. The initial part involves an _______ between the member and the unit commander.
This initial meeting is intended to ensure that management practices or accommodation factors are not the root cause of the reported deficiency.

Where it is established that a supervisor or manager failed to provide adequate or necessary training or equipment, or failed
to establish or communicate a work performance standard, an internal complaint shall be initiated against the supervisor or manager in compliance with the applicable procedures in Chapter 13.

The second part of the Special Review will be initiated where it is identified that the work performance deficiency is a persistent situation attributable to the individual member. A meeting between the unit commander, the assigned supervisor
and the member will be held to

A

interview

 develop a plan for corrective action

 profile the time frame for improvement

 detail the specific standard to be met

 explain the possible disciplinary ramifications if the standards are not met.

The time frame for a Special Review is 90 calendar days. Additional review periods may be added where the member has demonstrated an effort to comply, but has not sufficiently met the threshold level, or the supervisor was unable to fully observe the conduct of the member as a result of injury or illness.

The additional review periods will be in increments of 30 calendar days, to a maximum of 90 calendar days.

No Special Review shall be initiated until the member has received a copy of the specific standard to be met and has been informed of the disciplinary consequences if the standard is not met.

1482
Q

The following outcomes are possible at the conclusion of a Special Review

A

Member meets standard:
TPS 955 is concluded and placed in the unit personnel file until 2 full years have passed without further negative reports.

Member fails to meet standard:
If a police officer is unable to meet the standard, a TPS 901 will be generated and the internal complaint process will be
initiated in compliance with Procedure 13–03.
If a civilian member is unable to meet the standard, a TPS 931 will be generated and the civilian disciplinary process will
be initiated in compliance with Procedure 13–09.

1483
Q

The second part of the Special Review will be initiated where it is identified that the work performance deficiency is a
persistent situation attributable to the individual member. A meeting between the unit commander, the assigned supervisor
and the member will be held to

A

 develop a plan for corrective action

 profile the time frame for improvement

 detail the specific standard to be met

 explain the possible disciplinary ramifications if the standards are not met.

1484
Q

The time frame for a Special Review is _____ calendar days. Additional review periods may be added where the member has
demonstrated an effort to comply, but has not sufficiently met the threshold level, or the supervisor was unable to fully
observe the conduct of the member as a result of injury or illness. The additional review periods will be in increments of _____
calendar days, to a maximum of _____ calendar days.
No Special Review shall be initiated until the member has received a copy of the specific standard to be met and has been
informed of the disciplinary consequences if the standard is not met.

A

90

30

90

1485
Q

Ontario Human Rights Code
The Human Rights Code prohibits actions that discriminate based on a prohibited ground in a protected social area.
The following are the Human Rights Code prohibited grounds:

A
 Age;
 Ancestry; 
 Colour; 
 Race;
 Citizenship;
 Ethnic origin;
 Place of origin;
 Creed;
 Disability;
 Family status;
 Marital status (including single status);
 Gender Identity; 
 Gender expression;
 Receipt of public assistance (in housing only);
 Record of offences (in employment only);
 Sex (including pregnancy and breastfeeding); and
 Sexual orientation.

The following are the Human Rights Code protected social areas:
 Accommodation (housing)
 Contracts
 Employment
 Goods, services and facilities
 Membership in vocational associations and trade unions

1486
Q

Detention Facility means any

A

central lock–up and/or booking hall.

1487
Q

Moderate symptoms can occur within ____~_____ hours after discontinuance and should subside within ____ hrs.

A

24 – 36

48

1488
Q

Community Patrol means the performance of general policing duties in the community by officers assigned to a
combination of

A

general and directed patrol, targeted and problem oriented policing initiatives.

1489
Q

Community Police Liaison Committee

Define it

A

CPLC) means a divisional committee that represents all segments of the
community.

1490
Q

Ontario Human Rights Commission (OHRC) means an independent government agency that provides leadership for the
promotion, protection and advancement of human rights and builds partnerships across the human rights system (but…..

A

does

not receive Human Rights Code complaints).

1491
Q

Divisional Sexual Assault Investigator

When investigating complaints of historical sexual assault, officers are reminded to be sensitive to the possibility
that the person reporting the incident may be experiencing a wide range of victim ______ reactions including
symptoms of ______~\______~_____~____ and other symptoms of crisis or distress. These reactions
may have a significant impact on the dynamics of the investigation including the interview with the person who has
experienced the sexual assault.

 As with recent sexual assault investigations, the ______ field in eReport shall be completed for historical sexual
assaults.

A

anxiety

Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)

 As with recent sexual assault investigations, the MO field in eReport shall be completed for historical sexual
assaults.

1492
Q

All complaints of abuse of an elderly or vulnerable adult shall be_______in _____ by a police officer. This includes those
at (places)_______

An occurrence report
shall be submitted for each police response to a complaint of abuse of an elderly or vulnerable adult.
Supervisory Officer

A

attended in person

retirement homes, long-term care homes, residential care facilities or any other institutional settings.

1493
Q

Designated Operator for the purposes persons in custody means any ____ designated as an audio/video operator with
an understanding of how to operate the equipment.

A

Member

1494
Q

mpliance with
 the Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms (Charter) generally and, in particular, the S. _____ protection against
arbitrary detention and the S. ____ right to equal treatment under the law;
 O. Reg. 58/16;
 the Human Rights Code (HRC) of Ontario generally and, in particular, the S. 1 freedom from discrimination based
on race, place of origin, age, colour, ethnic origin, gender identity or gender expression;
 the Municipal Freedom of Information and Protection of Privacy Act (MFIPPA) generally and in particular, with Part
II of the MFIPPA; and

A

9

15

1495
Q

Alternative Dispute Resolution means

A

mediation, conciliation, negotiation or any other means of facilitating the resolution
of issues in dispute by a third party off site meeting.

1496
Q
  1. Which statement is true about prisoner transport?
    A) Prior to departure, advise the communications operator of the destination, age of the person, and the odometer reading
    B) Prior to departure, advise the communications operator of the address, the gender expression and age of the person, and the odometer reading
    C) Prior to departure, advise the communications operator of the destination, the gender identity and age of the person, and the odometer reading
    D) Prior to departure, advise the communications operator of the address, age of the adult, and the odometer reading
    E) No need to tell dispatch anything.
  2. Who shall ensure when an arrest ha
A

C

C) Prior to departure, advise the communications operator of the destination, the gender identity and age of the person, and the odometer reading

1497
Q
141. Who shall ensure when an arrest has been made, consideration is given to the public interest in deciding to continue the detention of an arrested person.
A) Police officer
B) Officer
C) Officer in Charge
D) Supervisory office
E) Supervisor
142. Who shall be respon
A

C

Oic

1498
Q
142. Who shall be responsible for ensuring the Hold-Up Squad and FIS/SOCO are notified to attend and take charge of the investigation (HOLD-UPS AND ROBBERIES IN THEIR MANDATE) until the arrival of the HUS?
A) First officer on scene
B) Supervising Officer
C) Supervisor
D) Divisional Investigator
E) Officer in Charge
A

D

Divisional investigator

1499
Q
148. In case of death in police custody, who shall notify the Officer in Charge – Toronto Police Operations Centre (TPOC)?
A) Staff Sergeant
B) Officer in Charge (OIC)
C) Supervisory officer
D) Booking Sergeant
E) SIU
149. Sex
A

C) Supervisory officer

1500
Q
  1. Ontario Human Rights Commission (OHRC) receives Human Rights Code complaints.
    A) TRUE B) FALS
A

False

1501
Q
  1. In accordance with the Police Services Act, (PSA) the Chief of Police may suspend a police officer from duty without pay where the police officer is suspected of, or charged with, an offence under a law of Canada or of a province or territory, or is suspected of misconduct under the PSA.
    A) TRUE
    B) False
A

False

Technically because it didn’t go on to say “sentenced to a term of imprisonment”

In accordance with the Police Services Act, (PSA) the Chief of Police may suspend a police officer from duty with pay where
the police officer is suspected of, or charged with, an offence under a law of Canada or of a province or territory, or is
suspected of misconduct under the PSA. If a Chief of Police, Deputy Chief or other police officer is convicted of an offence
and sentenced to a term of imprisonment, the Chief of Police or Police Services Board, as the case may be, may suspend
him or her without pay, even if the conviction or sentence is under appeal.
Procedure

1502
Q

Gender _______ is how a person _______ ______ their gender. This can include behaviour and outward appearance
such as dress, hair, make-up, body language and voice. A person’s chosen name and pronoun are also common and
important ways of expressing gender.

A

Gender Expression

Publicly presents

1503
Q

Gender_______ is each person’s internal and individual experience of gender. It is their sense of being a woman, a man,
both, neither, or anywhere along or beyond the gender spectrum. A person’s gender identity may be the same as or different
from the typical pairing with their birth-assigned sex. Gender identity is fundamentally different from a person’s sexual
orientation
Trans includes but is not limited to people who identify as transgender, trans woman (someone assigned male at birth who
knows themself to be a woman), trans man (someone assigned female at birth who knows themself to be a man), nonbinary, gender non-conforming, gender variant or gender queer. Some people may consider two-spirit to be a trans identity.
Trans persons may or may not make a social transition, have surgery, use prosthetic devices or take prescription
medications (such as hormone therapies), to affirm their gender identity. They may or may not have identity documents
that reflect their lived identity.

A

identity

1504
Q

Trans includes but is not limited to people who identify as transgender, trans______ (someone assigned male at birth who
knows themself to be a_______),

trans_______ (someone assigned female at birth who knows themself to be a ____),

nonbinary,

gender non-conforming,

gender variant or

gender queer. Some people may consider

two-spirit to be a trans identity.

Trans persons may or may not make a_______ transition, have surgery, use prosthetic devices or take prescription
medications (such as hormone therapies), to affirm their gender identity.

They may or may not have identity_____
that reflect their lived identity.

A

woman, woman

Man, man

social

documents

1505
Q
  1. Search of Persons (01-02); Officer in Charge notification mandatory;
    A) after conducting a search at the station
    B) before conducting a search at the station
    C) while conducting a search at the station
    D) no need to notify
    E) only when you find something cool
  2. In a Traumatic Critical Inci
A

A

Supervision
Officer in Charge notification mandatory
 after conducting a search at the station
 regarding grounds and circumstances (Strip search)
 there are reasonable grounds to believe the person under arrest has secreted weapons or evidence in a body cavity

1506
Q

Supervision. Search of Persons

Officer in Charge notification mandatory

A

 after conducting a search at the station
 regarding grounds and circumstances (Strip search)
 there are reasonable grounds to believe the person under arrest has secreted weapons or evidence in a body cavity

1507
Q
160. Who shall commence an investigation upon becoming aware of, or ought reasonably to be aware of workplace violence or threat of workplace violence, including domestic violence or violence which may occur in the workplace, and would likely expose any member to physical injury?
A) Any member
B) Supervisor
C) Officer in Charge
D) Unit Commander
E) PRS
161. Which sect
A

B

Supervisor

1508
Q
171. The right to search as an incident to a lawful arrest is found in common law, and has been upheld by the Supreme Court, as long as the search is conducted for a valid objective and is not conducted in an abusive fashion. Which case law supports this?
A) R.v. Feeney
B) Cloutier v. Langlois
C) R.v. Golden
D) R.v. Flintoff
E) R.v
A

B

1509
Q
Who shall make every effort to determine a dominant aggressor before considering charging both parties in a domestic violence situation?
A) First officer on scene
B) Supervisory Officer
C) Officer
D) Domestic Violence Investigator
E) Investigator
A

D

1510
Q
who shall make every effort to determine a dominant aggressor before considering charging both parties in a domestic violence situation?
A) First officer on scene
B) Supervisory Officer
C) Officer
D) Domestic Violence Investigator
E) Investigator
A

D

1511
Q
  1. The ETF shall be notified for incidents involving emotionally disturbed persons, including suicide intervention.
    A) TRUE
    B) FALSE
A

A

1512
Q

On, 2018 January 01, Ontario increased the age of protection to include all children under the age of _____ years. Children
who are
_____or _____years old, who believe they are in need of protection may be eligible to enter into the new Voluntary Youth
Services Agreement (VYSA), see Appendix C.

A

18

olds

1513
Q
188. In case of a potential child abduction, who is responsible for notifying TPOC?
A) Supervisory Officer
B) Supervisor
C) Sergeant on Scene
D) Officer in Charge
E) Detective Sergeant
A

D

1514
Q
193. In a confirmed hold-up, who shall notify TPOC?
A) Supervisory Officer
B) Member
C) Officer
D) Divisional Investigator
E) Officer in Charge - Division
A

E

1515
Q
  1. In which case is Supervisor attendance NOT mandatory?
    A) Suicide
    B) Possible sudden death
    C) Unable to notify next of kin in person
    D) Unnatural sudden death
    E) Suspected homicide
A

C

1516
Q
  1. Who conducts the investigation when there is a death in police custody?
    A) SIU and Detective Operations - Homicide (Homicide) will conduct parallel investigations
    B) SIU
    C) Detective Operations - Homicide (Homicide)
    D) CIB
    E) All of the above
A

A

1517
Q

Who conducts the investigation when there is a death in police custody?
A) SIU and Detective Operations - Homicide (Homicide) will conduct parallel investigations
B) SIU
C) Detective Operations

A

A

1518
Q
203. Who assess the effectiveness of the Service’s training, practices and associated Service Governance, and report its findings to the Senior Management Team (SMT)?
A) Use of Force Committee
B) Toronto Police College
C) Incident Review Committee
D) Governance and Procedure Unit
E) Ontario Standards and Practices Com
A

C

1519
Q
208. \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is responsible for consulting with the investigating officer and contacting the Chief of Police or designate to receive authorization to activate an AMBER Alert when appropriate.
A) Officer in Charge
B) OIC
C) Unit Commander
D) Duty Senior Officer
E) TPOC
A

D

1520
Q

__________ is a condition that can be caused by drug or alcohol intoxication, psychiatric illness or a combination of both.

a) Delirium Tremens
b) Alcohol Withdrawal
c) Excited delirium
d) Positional Asphyxia

A

C

1521
Q

______________ requires the Toronto Police Service (Service) to collect, analyze and publicly report on data related to the race of those individuals with whom Service members interact.
a) 81 recommendations by Toronto Police Board
b) Toronto Police Procedures and Governance
c) Race based data collection, analysis and Public reporting
d) Action Plan: The Way Forward
2

A

C

1522
Q

Accused young persons must be fingerprinted and photographed prior to being lodged atanylock–up for young persons._________ will transport young persons for this purpose and will determine, on a case by case basis, which adult central lock-up will be used for this function.

a. OfficerinCharge
b. Booker
c. DistrictSpecialConstable
d. Court Services

A

D

1523
Q

Officer in Charge Upon receipt of
 A licence, registration certificate, authorization or other document enabling the acquisition or possession of a firearm or a weapon, or
 Travel documents, including passport from an accused person surrendering these items as part of bail conditions shall
Notifythe_____________ thattheaccusedpersonhascompliedwiththeapplicable bail conditions
a) Arresting officer
b) Case Manager
c) Detective Sergeant
d) Crown Attorney
02-01 Arrest Warrants

A

B

1524
Q

What is defined as any article and/or document found by, seized by, surrendered to, or intended to be surrendered to a Service member?

a) Abandoned Property
b) Informational Material
c) Surrendered Property
d) Property

A

D

1525
Q

According to Category D, If the reportee is situated outside the city of Toronto, and the missing person is a resident of the city of Toronto, who is responsible for the initial report?

a) Division reportee resides
b) Division Missing Person Last Known to Be
c) TPOC to determine
d) Division Missing Person resides

A

D

1526
Q

What is defined as the national registry created and maintained by the Royal Canadian Mounted Police (RCMP) to compile data on missing and abducted children. The Toronto Police Service supports the registry and encourages officers to forward pertinent information to the RCMP to assist in matters of both parental and non – parental abduction?
a) National Missing Children’s Operations (NMCO)
b) RCMP 1667
c) National Center for Missing Persons and Unidentified Remains (NCMPUR)
d) Missing Persons Unit
04-14 Regulated Interactions

A

A

1527
Q

Officer in Charge of Toronto Police Operations Center, when notified of a death in police custody shall notify the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority and the appropriate ___________?
a) Deputy Chief of Police
b) Chief of Police
c) Staff Superintendent – East, West & Field Services
d) Staff Superintendent – Professional Standards
11

A

A

1528
Q

What is an operational philosophy requiring local police –community partnerships that prioritize and solve problems in order to enhance safety, prevent crime, maintain order, and enforce the law?

a) Intelligence led policing
b) Crime Prevention
c) Problem oriented policing
d) Community Policing

A

D

1529
Q

What is defined as the act of upholding community standards, using both informal community activities and law enforcement to create a safer environment, and an improved quality of life?

a) Community Policing
b) Order Maintenance
c) Quality of Life
d) Problem oriented policing

A

B

1530
Q

A Supervisory officer, when notified by an officer that the safety of a source may have been compromised as a result of the source’s i dentity having been revealed shall notify whom?

a) Officer in Charge
b) Detective Sergeant
c) Staff Sergeant
d) Detective

A

B

1531
Q

The Preliminary Police Report was developed by the Office of the Chief Coroner and shall be completed, in addition to the applicable eReports, for a death of a child under 5 years of age. Following the post mortem examination, a Preliminary Autopsy Findings Reportwillbecompletedbythe___________ andforwardedtotheinvestigator.

a) Coroner’s office
b) Office of Chief Coroner
c) Pathologist
d) Regional Chief Coroner

A

C

1532
Q

Police officers shall fully document their response to every domestic violence and domestic incident call, regardless of whether a criminal offence has been committed or a charge laid/an arrest made. Charges shall be laid in all cases where reasonable grounds exist, and the decision to lay charges shall not be influenced by factors such as following EXCEPT:

a) Immigration status of parties
b) Disposition of previous calls for service
c) Victim unwillingness to attend court
d) Accused unwillingness to attend court

A

D

1533
Q

Detective Sergeant, when in charge of a divisional detective office shall ensure in cases involving high risk offenders the use of_______________is considered as part of a high risk offender management strategy.

a) EMPO – Drone Program
b) Physical surveillance
c) Victim Services Program
d) Ankle monitor Program – Bail & Parole

A

B

1534
Q

_______________ is designated as the Service liaison with other police services regarding Service member–involved domestic violence occurrences outside the City of Toronto, and shall be responsible for submitting a TPS 901.

a) Professional Standards
b) Unit Complaints Coordinator, at applicable unit
c) Corporate Risk Management
d) Unit Commander

A

A

1535
Q
  1. Where a member of another police service is a suspect/accused shall notify their ______________ or if absent the____________ ofthecircumstances.
    a) Officer in Charge or if absent the Unit Commander of applicable unit
    b) Officer in Charge or if absent the Unit Commander of PRS
    c) Unit Commander or if absent the Duty officer
    d) Applicable Duty Inspector of if absent the Superintendent of applicable unit
A

C

1536
Q

When notified of an unnatural sudden death shall ensure
 detective personnel are assigned and attend the scene
 a copy of the completed eReport and Preliminary Police Report are forwarded by TPS eFax to the Office of the
Chief Coroner as soon as practicable, and _____ to the post mortem examination
 if involving a foreign national, notify Intelligence Services – Strategic Assessment and Analysis Section
- Landed Immigrants should be considered foreign nationals as they remain citizens of the country from
which they emigrated.

A

Prior

1537
Q

Restricted Source means a person who has been

A

restricted by Intelligence Services – Covert Operations – Source
Management (CO–SMS). Such a person shall not be used as such by any officer unless designated by the Controller.

1538
Q

Toronto Emergency Management Program Committee (TEMPC) means a committee comprised of the Mayor and key
representatives from local boards,

A

city agencies, and other agencies and organizations, responsible for the overall
management of

Level 3 – Disaster Incidents.

During these emergencies, this group is collectively responsible for the
direction and co–ordination of emergency response operations within the City.

1539
Q

Unified Command means a team of people representing involved agencies with responsibility for the incident, which jointly
provide management

A

direction to an incident through a common set of incident objectives and strategies established at the
command level. [Source: U.S. Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA)]

1540
Q

Incident Commander Cadre (ICC) means Toronto Police Service

A

Senior Officers who have been trained as incident
commanders and are available 24/7 on an on–call basis and may be activated through the Inspector – Emergency
Management & Public Order (EM&PO).

1541
Q

Pursuit

Non – Criminal Offences

A
  1. No pursuit shall be initiated or continued for a non–criminal offence if the identity of an individual in the motor vehicle
    is known.
  2. A pursuit for a non–criminal offence shall be abandoned once the motor vehicle is identified or an individual in the
    fleeing motor vehicle is identified.
1542
Q

Organized Crime Enforcement – Bail & Parole is the only police facility to be designated for the purpose
of having an accused person report to police. This unit is open between_____to______ hours, Monday
through Friday, except on statutory holidays.

A

0900 and 2100

1543
Q

Upon discovering the death of an infant (less than 1 year of age) shall, in addition to item 4, use Appendix B as a reference
to record at–scene information in the memorandum book.

  • The Investigation Questionnaire for Sudden Unexpected Deaths in Infants in Appendix B was
    developed by the

Office of the _____~_____ and is completed by the Coroner,

except where the death of an infant is a confirmed homicide in which case it will be completed by police.

Information recorded by the first police officer on scene may assist the investigation by ensuring that
critical information is captured immediately and not overlooked, lost or forgotten.

A

Chief Coroner

1544
Q

Crime and Disorder Management
Status: Amended Issued: R.O. 2020.04.06-0340 Replaces: R.O. 2020.01.03-0001
Rationale
Intelligence led policing consists of a number of components including

A

crime management, disorder resolution, problem
oriented policing, targeted policing and directed patrol.

Community Policing is an operational philosophy requiring local
police–community partnerships that prioritize and solve problems in order to enhance safety, prevent crime, maintain order,
and enforce the law.

1545
Q

Supervisory Officer

When assigning officers to community patrol activities shall

A

 promote and implement crime management initiatives to respond to identified crime, public disorder and road safety
problems, including repeat calls for service and repeat victimization

 use crime analysis for identifying areas or issues requiring directed patrol, targeted enforcement, problem–oriented
policing, or community–based crime prevention initiatives

 where possible, work with municipalities, school boards, businesses, community organizations and members of the
public to address crime, public disorder and road safety problems

 assist in developing appropriate strategies, based on the analysis of crime, calls for service, public order, criminal
intelligence and road safety

 encourage officers to document the intelligence information on crimes, active criminals and disorder issues in the
applicable eReports

 ensure patrol officers are provided with relevant information in order to undertake the type of activity to which they
have been assigned

 ensure appropriate measurements of each activity are recorded by each officer assigned

 ensure the use of directed patrol, targeted enforcement and other initiatives to respond to high crime or high
occurrence locations and serial occurrences

 notify the Officer in Charge when crime management initiatives are utilized

 ensure both local and Service–wide crime prevention initiatives are brought to the attention of all relevant members

 encourage officers to provide crime prevention information or referral to the community wherever possible during
the course of duty

1546
Q

. The Preliminary Police Report was developed by the Office of the Chief Coroner and shall be completed, in addition to the applicable eReports, for a death of a child under 5 years of age. Following the post mortem examination, a Preliminary Autopsy Findings Reportwillbecompletedbythe___________ andforwardedtotheinvestigator.

a) Coroner’s office
b) Office of Chief Coroner
c) Pathologist
d) Regional Chief Coroner

A

C

Pg

1547
Q

When investigating the death of an infant (less than 1 year of age) shall, in addition to item 22,
 use Appendix _____, as applicable, as a reference to record at–scene information in the memorandum book
 complete Appendix ____if the death of an infant is a confirmed homicide and forward to the ______~_____prior to
the post mortem examination
- The Investigation Questionnaire for Sudden Unexpected Deaths in Infants in Appendix _____ was developed
by the Office of the _______~_____and is completed by the Coroner, except where the death of an infant is
a confirmed_______ in which case it will be completed by police.
Officer in Charge

A

B

B

Coroner’s Office

B

homicide

1548
Q

All allegations arising from a domestic violence situation in which the suspect/accused is a member of another police service
shall be reported in a timely manner to the ________~_______of that police service by the________~______ of the Service division
handling the investigation, or by the_____~_____-______ – Toronto Police Operations Centre (Duty Senior Officer).

A

Duty officer

Unit Commander (oic tells him)

Pc-sgt-oic-unit Commander-

1549
Q

Supervisory Officer

 When notified that a reportable or non-reportable SVC has occurred in the City of Toronto shall

A

promptly attend the scene to provide assistance and conduct an internal investigation

 notify the respective Officer in Charge

 ensure the collision is investigated in compliance with this Procedure and Procedures 04–21, 07–01, 13–16 and
15–17, as applicable

 ensure all witness statements and other evidence is gathered prior to reporting off duty, or make arrangements for
this to be completed as soon as possible

 if the Service vehicle is equipped with an in–car camera system (ICCS) video, review the video and

 if the SIU mandate has been or may be invoked, comply with Procedures 13–16 and 15–17, if applicable

if required for court or training purposes, request a copy of the ICCS video evidence from the Property and
Video Evidence Management Unit (PVEMU) by e–mail; indicating date, time and fleet number, as soon as
practicable

 conduct an internal investigation to determine if any of the following apply in relation to the involved member

 criminal offence

 provincial offence

 conduct issue

 training requirement

 no further action required

 complete a TPS 559 for each Service vehicle involved, include the circumstances of the SVC and complete the
Supervisor’s Determination section

 ensure the damage is recorded on the appropriate Vehicle Damage Report in the unit file

 send a copy of the SRLD401 or eReport to the Unit Commander – Fleet & Materials Management (FLT) forthwith

When in receipt of a SVCR shall review for completeness, accuracy and investigative integrity and submit to the Officer in Charge prior to reporting off duty.

1550
Q

send a copy of the SRLD401 or eReport to the Unit Commander – Fleet & Materials Management (FLT) forthwith

A

Supervisory Officer

 When notified that a reportable or non-reportable SVC has occurred in the City of Toronto shall

1551
Q

Supervisor
Upon becoming aware that a member has been involved in a traumatic critical incident or is showing signs and symptoms
of critical incident stress shall

 immediately notify the _____~_____ of the affected member’s unit or civilian equivalent

 ensure an Injured on Duty Online Report is completed and submitted in compliance with Procedure 08–03

The wording for the Injured on Duty Report under the section “Nature and Area of Injury(ies)” shall be: “_____~_____~____

 participate in the assessment of the incident with the _____in ______ to determine the appropriate level of support
for the member

 provide support and ongoing encouragement to assist the member

A

Officer in Charge

Traumatic Critical
Incident”.

officer in charge

1552
Q

When the source of the workplace violence is external to the Service shall
 comply with and ensure compliance with Procedure 08–10
 ensure compliance with item 9
 ensure the applicable_______ are completed prior to the completion of the tour of duty
 ensure the applicable ______ numbers are provided to the involved member’s Unit Commander and the Unit
Commander – _______~_____prior to the completion of the tour of duty

A

eReports

eReports

Professional Standards

1553
Q

Emergency Preparedness Committee (EPC) is a committee, chaired by the Staff Superintendent –_____~_____~_____, comprised of subject matter experts from every command pillar within the Toronto Police Service
(Service). The EPC focus is on mitigation, preparedness planning, response and recovery; ensuring appropriate planning,
investigative and response capabilities are available within the Service.

A

Public Safety

Operations

1554
Q

Uniform Internal Complaint Intake / Management

Unit Commander
The Unit Commander shall

A

 appoint a police officer with the minimum rank of sergeant/detective as the Unit Complaint Co-ordinator (UCC), if
applicable

 ensure a supervisor is assigned to review the UCC e–mail daily for notice of new complaints, if applicable
When notified of a police officer who is the subject of an internal conduct complaint shall

 comply with procedure 13-08 when immediate suspension is required

 ensure a TPS 901 is initiated and immediately forwarded with any attachments to PRS – Complaints Administration
Upon receipt of a TPS 901 from PRS – Complaints Administration involving a police officer who is the subject of an internal
conduct complaint shall
 ensure

 an investigating supervisor is assigned to investigate the complaint

 a Report of Investigation is completed within 120 days

 consider consulting Equity, Inclusion & Human Rights if the complaint relates to the Human Rights Code

Upon receipt of a completed Report of Investigation shall

review the Report of Investigation and any recommendations from the investigating supervisor

 consider consulting with Equity, Inclusion & Human Rights if the complaint relates to the Human Rights Code

 adjudicate to determine if the complaint is unsubstantiated or substantiated

When determining that the internal conduct complaint is unsubstantiated shall notify the subject officer of the decision on a
TPS 649.

When determining that the internal conduct complaint is substantiated shall

 resolve the complaint informally, or

 impose disciplinary action
When resolving the internal conduct complaint informally shall ensure

 details of the internal informal resolution are recorded on the TPS 901

 the subject officer signs the TPS 901

 the TPS 901 is forwarded to PRS – Complaints Administration

 if the complaint relates to the Human Rights Code, a copy of the TPS 901 is forwarded to Equity, Inclusion & Human
Rights
When imposing disciplinary action shall

 comply with Procedure 13-04 if deemed less serious, or

 comply with Procedure 13-05 if deemed serious

1555
Q

Unit Commander

Upon being advised of an internal conduct complaint which, due to its complexity or where the reputation of the Service
may be severely impacted in a negative manner, shall consult with the Unit Commander – ______~____.

A

Professional Standards

1556
Q

Unit Commander

When notified that a side issue has been identified shall ensure the TPS 901 is forwarded to PRS –______~______

At the conclusion of the investigation, if the subject officer’s conduct constitutes misconduct and unable to serve a TPS 951
within the 6 month time period shall
 consult with Professional Standards Support – Prosecution Services

 prepare a Board Report detailing

 the name and particulars of the subject officer on which a notice of hearing is to be served

 a summary of the investigation

 the reason for the delay in service of a notice of hearing in relation to the 6 month time period stipulated
in the PSA

 provide PRS – Complaints Administration with a copy of the Board Report

A

Complaints

Administration

1557
Q

A performance appraisal shall be completed for probationary constables at the conclusion of Compressed Work Week
(CWW) cycle 1 and 2 by the assigned ______~______and at the conclusion of CWW cycle 3, 5, 7 and ____ by the assigned supervisory officer with appropriate review and comment by the Unit Commander at each stage.

One of the performance
appraisals of a probationary constable shall be completed by the_____~_____unit supervisor where the
probationary constable completes their two CWW cycles

A

9

Community Response Unit

1558
Q

Former Police Constables of the Service who did not continue as a police officer and have been rehired will undergo a
performance appraisal after the completion of the _____th CWW cycle or the equivalent of ____ months to determine appropriate
classification as per Procedure 14–30 Appendix A. This is to be effective at the commencement of the _____ CWW.
Sergeant/Detective

A

5th

6 months

1559
Q

Where a court order, subpoena, or prosecutor’s request for disclosure of the Use of Force Report is received, such request
shall be directed to______~_______.

Where the request is made under the

Municipal Freedom of Information & Protection of Privacy Act

and not by a court order, subpoena, or prosecutor’s request for disclosure, such request shall be directed to
the

Coordinator – Records Management Services –______and _______~_______

A

Legal Services

Access and Privacy Section.

1560
Q

Member
Upon receiving a request for an ICCS recording from a member of the public shall direct the individual to the _______and _______~______ of _______Management Services – Information Access.
Police Officer

A

Access and

Privacy Section of Records

1561
Q

Additional Training

The Unit Commander of a member who has been identified with a training issue shall submit a TPS 649 to the

Unit Commander – Toronto Police College (TPC) detailing the issue.

The TPC shall be responsible for liaising with a Unit Commander recommending individual training for a member, and shall schedule the required training in accordance with
unit specific guidelines.

Final determination on individual training will be made by the Unit Commander – ______???.

A

– TPC.

1562
Q
  1. In___________, theMinistryoftheSolicitorGeneral(theMinistry)approvedtheuse of Conducted Energy Weapons (CEWs) for tactical units, hostage rescue teams, preliminary perimeter control containment teams and qualified front–line supervisors.
    a) August 2013
    b) June 2002
    c) January 2004
    d) February 2004
A

D

1563
Q
  1. When a member wants to recommend a new article of clothing or equipment or a change to a current article of clothing or equipment, including specializ ed units/functions, shall
    a) Forward the TPS 649 to the Officer in Charge for approval
    b) Forward the TPS 649 to the Unit Commander for approval
    c) Forward the TPS 649 to the Supervisory officer for approval
    d) Forward the TPS 649 to Unit Commander – Fleet and Materials for approval
    15-17 In Car Camera System
A

B

1564
Q

Pregnant persons who require methadone treatment should be

A

treated at hospital regardless of the dispensed form of
methadone.

The Officer in Charge should make arrangements where possible for the issue of a prescription by the
originating physician.

1565
Q

All methadone brought into custody shall be taken from the prisoner’s possession. Where lawful authority to possess the
methadone is established, a clearly labelled and sealed ‘_______’ will be refrigerated and returned to the prisoner upon release
from custody.

Where lawful authority to possess the sample is not established, or the ‘_______’ is in an_________ or______
container, it

A

Carry

carry

unlabelled or unsealed

1566
Q

Methadone is a synthetic opioid used as a replacement therapy for narcotic addiction. Treatment is obtained only by
prescription and the prescribed dosage varies between individuals.

The short–term (____~_____ hours) effects of abstinence
from methadone by a patient are not ______~\______, although the patient may show signs of______.
Individuals who bring a prescribed dosage of liquid methadone with them into custody (called a ‘______’) shall not be given
the medication.

The risk of an adulterated sample being brought into custody presents too great a health danger to allow
such dosages to be consumed by prisoners.

Requests by persons in custody for prescribed methadone in tablet form shall be handled in accordance with items 19, 20
and 21 of Procedure 01–03

A

24-36

Life threatening

Anxiety

carry

1567
Q

Unit Commander – Emergency Management & Public Order

When notified of a Level 3 – Disaster Incident shall notify the

A

 Staff Superintendent – Public Safety Operations

 Staff Superintendent – Detective Operations

 Staff Superintendents – East Field, West Field and Field Services
Definitions

1568
Q

Public agent

112

A

public agent means

(a) any of the following persons in the course of their duties or for the purposes of their employment:
(i) peace officers,
(ii) persons training to become police officers or peace officers under the control and supervision of a police force or a police academy or similar institution designated by the federal Minister or the lieutenant governor in council of a province,
(iii) persons or members of a class of persons employed in the public service of Canada or by the government of a province or municipality who are prescribed to be public officers by the Regulations Prescribing Public Officers, and
(iv) chief firearms officers and firearms officers, and
(b) an individual acting on behalf of, and under the authority of, a police force or a department of the Government of Canada or of a province. (agent public