Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

SFP > SFP > Flashcards

SFP Flashcards

1
Q

Definition of funnel plot

A

a scatterplot of treatment effect (e.g. OR on x axis) against a measure of study precision (e.g. SEM on y axis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Definition of forest plot

A

graphical display of estimated results from a number of scientific studies addressing the same question

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Definition of standard deviation

A

measure of amount of variation or dispersion of a set of values

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Definition of per-protocol analysis

A

only subjects who completed the entire protocol are included in the analysis of a randomised clinical trial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Definition of intention to treat analysis:

A

all subjects randomised are included in the analysis regardless of whether they completed the study

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Definition of clinical equipoise

A

state of genuine uncertainty on relative value of two interventions being compared in a trial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Definition of MHRA Yellow Card scheme

A

provides early warning that safety of a medicine or medical device may require further investigation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Definition of standard error

A

SD / square root of (N)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Definition of null hypothesis

A

hypothesis that there is no significant difference between specified populations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Definition of type I error

A

falsely rejecting a null hypothesis that is true in the population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Definition of type II error

A

failing to reject null hypothesis that is false in the population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Definition of power

A

probability of picking up a significant difference, if there is one

1 – probability of Type II error

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Definition of p-value

A

probability of event happening by chance = wrongful rejection of the null hypothesis = type 1 error

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Definition of confidence interval

A

range within which the true answer will lie 95% of the time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Definition of a priori

A

pre-specifying end-points & outcomes of a study to reduce reporting bias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Definition of surrogate endpoint

A

variable relatively easily measured that predicts a distant outcome of the intervention being tested

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Definition of composite outcome

A

combination of two or more outcomes into single endpoint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Definition of Cohen’s kappa coefficient

A

statistic used to measure inter-rater reliability for qualitative variables

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Definition of confounder

A

variable that influences both exposure & outcome in triangular fashion, causing a spurious association not demonstrating causality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Definition of selection bias

A

systematic differences between baseline characteristics of groups due to selective recruitment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Definition of performance bias

A

systematic differences in care provided to different study groups other than the intervention of interest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Definition of detection bias

A

systematic differences between groups in how outcomes are determined

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Definition of recall bias

A

systematic error that occurs when participants do not remember previous events or experiences accurately or omit details

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Definition of attrition bias

A

type of selection bias due to systematic differences in the number & way participants are lost from a study between study groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Definition of publication bias

A

when the outcome of a researfch study biases the decision to publish or otherwise distribute it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Definition of absolute risk

A

probability that an event will occur

number of events/total number of people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Definition of absolute risk reduction

A

difference in rate of events between 2 groups

ARR = AR (C) – AR (T)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Definition of relative risk

A

risk ratio = relative likelihood of an event occurring in the treatment vs control group throughout study period

RR = AR (T) / AR (C)

cumulative risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Definition of relative risk reduction

A

reduction in rate of outcome in treatment group vs. control group

RRR = ARR / AR (C)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Definition of number needed to treat

A

number of pts needed to treat to prevent 1 additional bad outcome, e.g. death, stroke

NNT = 1 / ARR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Definition of hazard rate

A

probability of the event occurring in the next time interval divided by the length of that time interval

time-sensitive = instantaneous risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Definition of hazard ratio

A

relative likelihood of an event occurring in the treatment vs control group at any given point

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Definition of logistic regression

A

statistical analysis method to predict a binary outcome, such as yes or no, based on existing independent variables

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Definition of linear regression

A

regression model that estimates relationship between one independent variable and one dependent variable using a straight line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Definition of chi-squared test

A

hypothesis test to determine whether observed frequencies are significantly different to expected frequencies if the null hypothesis was true

categorical variables

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Definition of t-test

A

hypothesis test to determine whether means of two groups are significantly different from each other

continuous variables

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Definition of ANOVA

A

hypothesis test to determine whether means of three or more groups are significantly different from each other

continuous variables

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Definition of log-rank test

A

hypothesis test to compare the survival distributions of two samples

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Definition of Kaplan Meier curves

A

probability of survival curves for categorical values

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Definition of Cox proportional hazards regression analysis

A

survival analysis for both quantitative & categorical variables, which can simultaneously assess the effect of several risk factors on survival time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Meningitis/encephalitis treatment

A

IV broad-spectrum ABx:
o ceftriaxone 2g OD (Gram +ve)
o aciclovir 10 mg/kg/8 hrs (viral)
o amoxicillin 2g/4 hrs (Listeria)

IV dexamethasone 10 mg/6 hrs within 4 hrs of ABx if meningococcal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Wernicke’s encephalopathy treatment

A

IV pabrinex 2-3 pairs TDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Opiate overdose treatment

A

IV naloxone 0.4-2 mg/min intervals

can be given intranasally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Paracetamol overdose treatment

A

acetylcysteine algorithm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

BDZ overdose treatment

A

IV flumazenil ONLY if airway compromise, risk of seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Kings College criteria for transplant after paracetamol overdose

A
  • acidosis pH <7.35
  • INR >6.5 or PT >100
  • creatinine >300
  • Grade III/IV encephalopathy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Causes of reduced GCS

A

Metabolic/systemic
- poisoning, e.g. CO, alcohol, tricyclics
- hypo- & hyperglycaemia
- hypoxia, hypercapnia
- septicaemia, hypovolaemia
- hypothermia
- myxoedema
- electrolyte imbalance, AD, SIADH
- hepatic/uraemic encephalocapthy

Neurological
- trauma
- infection meningo-encephalitis, malaria, typhoid
- tumour: 1° or 2°
- vascular: stroke, haemorrhage
- epilepsy: non-convulsive SE, post-ictal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

qSOFA score

A

qSOFA score
* GCS < 15
* RR > 22
* SBP < 100 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Sepsis antibiotics

A

EITHER: piperacillin w tazobactam (Tazocin) 4.5 g/6 hrs

OR

ceftriaxone 2g OD (Gram +ve) PLUS
amikacin 15 mg/kg OD (Gram -ve) PLUS
metronidazole 500 mg/8 hrs (anaerobic)

CONSIDER vancomycin 15 mg/kg/8 hrs if MRSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

post-seizure care

A

monitor post-ictal phase
first-fit clinic
DVLA 6 months driving ban

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Berkson bias

A

study sample taken from a sub-population

e.g. health-conscious people are more likely to join a trial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Bradford Hill criteria

A

group of nine principles used in establishing evidence of a causal relationship between an exposure & an event

include strength, consistency, specificity, temporality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Definition of sepsis

A

organ dysfunction caused by host response to infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Definition of septic shock

A

sepsis + lactate > 2mmol/L OR vasopressor dependence to maintain MAP > 65 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Mean arterial pressure

A

MAP = DBP + 1/3 (SBP-DBP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Anaphylaxis medications

A

IM adrenaline 500 mcg
IV chlorpheniramine 10 mg
IV hydrocortisone 200 mg
PO cetirizine 10 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Definition of anaphylaxis

A

severe, life-threatening type I hypersensitivity reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Moderate asthma

A

PEF 50-75%
sPO2 > 92
RR < 25
HR > 110

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Acute severe asthma

A

PEF 33-50 %
RR > 25
HR > 110
unable to complete sentences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Life-threatening asthma

A

33-92-CHEST
PEF < 33%
sPO2 < 92%
cyanosis
hypotension
exhaustion
silent chest
tachycardia + arrhythmia
altered GCS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Near fatal asthma

A

increased CO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Asthma medications

A

nebulised salbutamol 5 mg / 15-20 mins
nebulised ipratropium bromide 0.5mg
PO prednisolone 40 mg or IV hydrocortisone 100 mg
IV magnesium sulphate 2g
theophylline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Diagnostic criteria of COPD

A

FEV1 <80% predicted value
FEV1/FVC < 70%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Classification of COPD

A

GOLD criteria

mild: FEV1 >= 80%
moderate: FEV1 50-80%
severe: FEV1 30-50%
very severe: FEV1 <30%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

COPD medications

A

nebulised salbutamol 5 mg
nebulised ipratropium bromite 0.5mg
PO prednisolone 30 mg or IV hydrocortisone 100 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

COPD ITU referral criteria for ventilation

A

pH < 7.25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Pneumothorax treatment algorithm

A

discharge: 1° < 2 cm
observe: 2° < 1 cm
aspirate: 1° > 2cm, 2° 1-2 cm
chest drain: 2° > 2cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

CURB 65

A

score 1: outpatient
score 2: inpatient
score 3+: urgent + ITU

C – confusion
U – urea > 7 mmol/L
R – RR > 30/min
B – SBP < 90 or DBP < 60
65 – age > 65

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

CAP medications

A

IV co-amoxiclav 1.2g/8 hrs

AND

IV clarithromycin 500 mg/12 hrs

consider IV vancomycin 15 mg/kg/8 hrs if MRSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

CAP organisms

A

S. pneumoniae
H. influenzae
M. pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

HAP medications

A

piperacillin w tazobactam (Tazocin) 4.5 g/6 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

HAP organisms

A

Gram -ve, Pseumonas, anaerobes

73
Q

Aspiration pneumonia medications

A

IV metronidazole 500 mg/8 hrs

AND

IV ceftriaxone 2g OD

74
Q

Aspiration pneumonia organisms

A

anaerobes, S. pneumoniae

75
Q

Pulmonary embolism medications

A

DOAC
PO rivaroxaban 15 mg OD or PO apixaban 10 mg OD

otherwise SC fondaparinux treatment dose OD (weight-dependent)

76
Q

focal oligaemia distal to PE

A

Westermark’s sign

77
Q

Cardiogenic shock medications

A

dobutamine 2.5-10 mcg/kg/min

78
Q

Absolute C/Is thrombolysis

A

prvs IC haemorrhage
ischaemic stroke < 6 mths
cerebral malignancy, AVM
recent trauma/head injury
GI bleeding
known bleeding disorder
aortic dissection

79
Q

Causes of PE

A

DVT

acquired coagulopathy: OCP, HRT, pregnancy, malignancy, surgery/trauma, infection

inherited coagulopathy: factor V Leiden, factor C or S deficiency, antiphospholipid syndrome

80
Q

Classification of acute MI

A

Killip classification
Class I: no evidence of HF
Class II: mild to moderate HF
Class III: pulmonary oedema
Class IV: cardiogenic shock

81
Q

Acute MI medications

A

IV morphine 5-10 mg
IV metoclopramide 10 mg
high-flow O2 if sPO2 < 94 %
sublingual nitrates if raised BP
PO Aspirin 300 mg
STEMI: PO ticagrelor 180 mg or clopidogrel 300 mg or prasugrel 60 mg (PCI)

NSTEMI: SC fondaparinux 2.5 mg

82
Q

Definition of STEMI

A

STE >1mm in contiguous limb leads
STE >2mm in contiguous chest leads
>1mm ST depression + dominant R in V1-3
new LBBB

83
Q

MI medications on discharge

A

Clopidogrel 75 mg
Aspirin 75 mg OD
Bisoprolol 2.5 mg OD
Ramipril (ACEi)/nifedipine (CCB)
Atorvastatin 80 mg OD

84
Q

ACS risk assessment

A

GRACE score

85
Q

Acute HF medications

A

IV furosemide 80 mg
IV diamorphine 5 mg
IV metoclopramide 10 mg
high-flow O2, consider NIV
SL or IV nitrates

86
Q

Score used for diagnosis of HF

A

Framingham criteria

87
Q

Causes of different types of HF

A

LHF: hypertension, valve disease, MI
RHF: LHF, pulmonary hypertension, MI
high output: sepsis, anaemia, thyrotoxicosis

88
Q

Causes of AF

A

idiopathic
cardiac: valve disease, HF, MI
systemic: alcohol, thyrotoxicosis, infection
respiratory: PE

89
Q

Risk assessment of AF

A

CHA2DS2VAS score for risk of stroke
HASBLED or ORBIT score for risk of bleeding

90
Q

CHA2DS2VAS score

A

C cardiac failure
H hypertension
A2 age > 75
D diabetes
S2 stroke/thromboembolism/TIA history
V vascular disease history
A age 65-74
S sex female

91
Q

Acute AF medications

A

SC enoxaparin 40 mg
rhythm control: PO flecainide 50 mg
rate control: PO bisoprolol 2.5 mg

92
Q

Anticoagulation in AF

A

non-valvular: DOAC
valvular: warfarin

93
Q

Reversal of anticoagulation

A

DOAC – andexanet alfa
heparin – protamine sulphate
Warfarin – Vit K or PCC
dabigatran – idarucizumab

94
Q

Investigations of upper GI bleed

A

erect CXR
AXR
OGD
gastrograffin contrast CT
CT CAP
Doppler US

95
Q

Variceal bleed medications

A

IV terlipression 2 mg/6hrs

post-endoscopy
PO propanolol 40 mg
IV omeprazole 80 mg

96
Q

Upper GI risk stratification

A

Glasgow-Blactchford score for initial mortility
Rockall score for post-endoscopy rebleeding

97
Q

Emergencies to rule out in acute abdomen

A

pancreatitis
cholecystitis
ruptured gastric ulcer
appendicitis
bowel obstruction/perforation
ruptured AAA
aortic dissection
ectopic pregnancy
ovarian torsion

98
Q

Acute pancreatitis score

A

Glasgow-Imrie score

99
Q

Antiemetic medications

A

IV metoclopramide 10 mg
IV ondansetrom 4 mg

100
Q

Colitis severity score

A

Truelove & Witt’s score
blood in stool, or >6 stools/day AND 1+ of
* T > 37.8°C
* HR > 90
* Hb < 105g/L
* ESR > 30 mm/hr

101
Q

C diff medications

A

PO metronidazole 400 mg or PO vancomycin 125 mg

102
Q

IBD exacerbation medications

A

IV hydrocortisone 100 mg
immunosuppressants to induce remission

103
Q

Stages of AKI

A

Stage 1: <0.5ml/kg/hr for 6 hrs
Stage 2: <0.5ml/kg/hr for 12hrs
Stage 3: <0.3 ml/kg/hr for 24hrs, anuria/12 hrs

104
Q

Indications for dialysis

A

refractory hyperkalaemia
refractory metabolic acidosis
pulmonary oedema
end-organ complications
poisoning

105
Q

UTI medications

A

women: PO nitrofurantoin 50 mg QDS
men: IV ciprofloxacin 400 mg BD

106
Q

Benign prostatic hyperplasia medications

A

alpha blocker: tamsulosin
5 alpha reductase inhibitor: finasteride

107
Q

Medications that can cause urinary retention

A

TCA
anticholinergics
opioids

108
Q

Kernig’s sign

A

pain on passive knee extension w hips flexed

109
Q

Brudzinski’s sign

A

pain on passive hip flexion w neck flexed

110
Q

Meningo-encephalitis medications

A

IM benzylpenicillin 1.2g
IV ceftriaxone 2 g BD
IV aciclovir 10 mg/kg
IV amoxicillin 2 g/4hrs
IV dexamethasone 10 mg/6hrs

111
Q

C/Is to LP

A

↑ICP
local infection
coagulopathy

112
Q

Meningitis prophylaxis

A

PO ciprofloxacin 500 mg

113
Q

Causes of seizures

A

epilepsy
metabolic: hypoglycaemia, hypoxia, electrolyte imbalance
drugs: AED, alcohol
intracranial: infection, ischaemia, haemorrhage

114
Q

Seizure medications

A

IV lorazepam 4 mg/5 mins
IV phenytoin 15 mg/kg
IV levetiracetam
RSI

115
Q

Causes of syncope

A

systemic: hypoglycaemia, dehydration
neurological: vasovagal, seizure
cardiac: postural hypotension, arrhythmia, aortic stenosis

116
Q

Management of raised ICP

A

urgent intubation by anaesthetist
hyperventilate
IV mannitol 0.25 mg/kg over 20 mins
therapeutic hypothermia
IV dexamethasone 10 mg if tumour

117
Q

Signs of raised ICP

A

loss of retinal vein pulsation
Cushing’s response
Cheyne-Stokes breathing

118
Q

Indications for CT head < 1 hr

A

initial GCS < 13
GCS < 15 after 2 hrs
seizure
vomiting > 1
focal neurology
signs of skull fracture
anticoagulation

119
Q

Alcohol withdrawal medications

A

PO chlordiazepoxide reducing regiment over 7-10 days
IV pabrinex 2-3 pairs TD
200 ml 10% dextrose

120
Q

Management of haemorrhagic stroke

A

bleed Neurosurgery SpR
BP control w IV labetolol
reverse anticoagulation

121
Q

Differentials to stroke

A

hypoglycaemia
partial seizure, Todd’s paresis
hemiplegic migraine

122
Q

Stroke medications

A

(following CT head)
PO aspirin 300 mg for 14 days + omeprazole 40 mg
long-term PO clopidogrel 75 mg

123
Q

Supportive measures for stroke

A

SALT assessment
NIHSS tool & PT/OT

124
Q

Definition of acute confusional state

A

Change or fluctuation in:
Cognition: attention, confusion
Perception: hallucinations, paranoia
Activity: hyper or hypoactivity

125
Q

Assessment score for delirium

A

4AT score

126
Q

Causes of delirium

A

pain
infection
metabolic: hypoxia, hypoglycaemia, B12 deficiency, dehydration, electrolyte imbalance
outflow: constipation, urinary retention
medications & toxins

127
Q

Rapid tranquilisation

A

PO lorazepam 0.5 mg
PO haloperidol 1 mg

128
Q

DKA definition

A

pH < 7.30
glucose > 11 mmol/L
ketones > 3 mmol/L

129
Q

DKA medications

A

rehydration: 1L over 1hr, then 2 hrs etc.
add 40 mmol K+ to from second bag of saline
50 U insulin at 0.1 U/kg/hr
add 10% glucose at 125 mL/hr once glucose < 14 mmol/L
continue with fixed-rate long-acting insulin
restart SC insulin w at least 1-2 hrs overlap

130
Q

DKA medications

A

rehydration: 1L over 1hr, then 2 hrs etc.
add 40 mmol K+ to from second bag of saline
50 U insulin at 0.1 U/kg/hr
add 10% glucose at 125 mL/hr once glucose < 14 mmol/L
continue with fixed-rate long-acting insulin
restart SC insulin w at least 1-2 hrs overlap

131
Q

DKA supportive measures

A

nutrition: NG tube if drowsy or vomiting, keep NBM for at least 6 hrs
DKA prophylaxis
DAFNE course
Diabetes sick day rules

132
Q

Transfusion reactions

A

mild allergic
febrile non-haemolytic
ABO incompatibility
TACO
TRALI

133
Q

Hyperkalaemia ECG features

A

tall-tented T waves
loss of P waves
widened QRS
sine waves -> VF

134
Q

Causes of hyperkalaemia

A

reduced excretion: renal, endocrine (Addison’s), drugs (ACEis, ARBs)

release from cells: rhabdomyolysis, acidosis, TLS

increased intake: iatrogenic

135
Q

Management of hyperkalaemia

A

IV 10% calcium gluconate 10 ml if ECG changes
200 ml 10% glucose + 10U insulin over 15-20 mins
nebulised salbutamol 5 mg

136
Q

Treatment for TLS

A

rasburicase

137
Q

Definition of haemorrhagic shock

A

blood loss causing a SBP < 90mmHg or HR > 110bpm

138
Q

Stages of shock

A

Stage 1: up to 750ml, BP normal, HR <100
Stage 2: 750-1500ml, BP normal, HR>100
Stage 3: 1500-2000ml, SBP <100, HR >120
Stage 4: >2000ml, SBP <100, HR >140

139
Q

Major haemorrhage medications

A

Packed red blood cells
FFP
reverse anticoagulation
tranexamic acid

140
Q

Components of capacity

A

understand
retain
weigh up
communicate

141
Q

Rib fractures mortality score

A

Battle score

142
Q

Signs & symptoms of thyrotoxic crisis

A

sweating, tachycardia, pyrexia
agitation
D&V

143
Q

Treatment of thyrotoxic crisis

A

IV propanolol 60 mg/4-6hrs
PO carbimazole 20 mg/6 hrs
Lugol’s iodine
IV hydrocortisone 100 mg/6 hrs
IV paracetamol & tepid sponging

144
Q

Causes of thyrotoxic crisis

A

infection
trauma
radioiodine treatment

145
Q

Signs & symptoms of myxoedema coma

A

hypothermia
hyporeflexia
hypoglycaemia
bradycardia
psychosis

146
Q

Treatment of myxoedema coma

A

IV liothyronine (T3)
IV hydrocortisone 100 mg/6 hrs if pituitary or adrenal insufficiency
correct hypoglycaemia
warming blankets

147
Q

Treatment of Addisonian crisis

A

rapid IV fluid rehydration: 500 ml 0.9% saline
IV 100 mg hydrocortisone/6 hrs
correct hypoglycaemia
correct hyperkalaemia

148
Q

Causes of Addisonian crisis

A

iatrogenic: stopping steroid
trauma/surgery
infection
infiltration
hypopituitarism
autoimmune polyendocrine syndrome

149
Q

Analgesia for renal colic

A

PR diclofenac 75-150 mg

150
Q

Acute management of urinary tract calculi

A

if obstruction: ureteroscopy + JJ stent
if infection: percutaneous nephrostomy + tazosin 4.5 g TDS

151
Q

General management of urinary tract calculi

A

< 5 mm -> conservative
< 10 mm -> medical expulsion therapy, e.g. tamsulosin
> 10 mm or obstruction -> surgical, e.g. ESWL

152
Q

Definition of HHS

A

hyperglycaemia >30mmol/L
osmolality >320 mosmol/kg
no ketonaemia <3 mmol/L
no acidosis pH >7.3

153
Q

ABC of trauma

A

ATOM FC
Airway obstruction
Tension pneumothorax
Open pneumothorax
Massive haemothorax
Flail chest
Cardiac Tamponade

154
Q

Management of SVT

A

Valsalva manoeuvre
Carotid sinus massage

Adenosine: fast IV 6mg, then 12mg, then a further 12mg if no improvement
C/I: asthma, COPD, HF, heart block, severe hypotension

Alternative: IV verapamil (CCB) 5-10mg

155
Q

Management of SVT

A

Valsalva manoeuvre
Carotid sinus massage

Adenosine: fast IV 6mg, then 12mg, then a further 12mg if no improvement
C/I: asthma, COPD, HF, heart block, severe hypotension

Alternative: IV verapamil (CCB) 5-10mg

156
Q

Management of VT

A

IV Amiodarone hydrochloride 300mg over 20-60 mins
then 900mg over 24 hours via central line

157
Q

Management of Torsades de Pointes

A

IV magnesium sulphate 2g over 10 mins

158
Q

Management of VF/pulseless VT

A

CPR & DC cardioversion
IV adrenaline 1 mg every 5 mins

159
Q

ECG changes in hypokalaemia

A

prolonged PR
ST depression
small or inverted T waves
prominent U waves

160
Q

Definition of correlation coefficient

A

how closely 2 continuous variables move with each other

161
Q

Types of correlation coefficient

A

parametric: Pearson’s R
non-parametric: Spearman’s rank correlation Rho

162
Q

Definition of receiver-operating characteristic (ROC) curve

A

graphical plot showing diagnostic ability of a binary classifier as its discrimination threshold varies

163
Q

ROC curve axes

A

X axis: 1-specificity (false +ves)
Y axis: sensitivity (true +ves)

164
Q

Funnel plot axes

A

X axis: study outcome, e.g. OR
Y axis: study precision, e.g. SEM

165
Q

Colon cancer screening UK

A

FIT test every 2 years in 60-74 years

166
Q

Breast cancer screening UK

A

Mammogram every 3 years on 50-71 years

167
Q

Cervical cancer screening UK

A

Smear test every 3 years from 25 years

168
Q

Definition of systematic review

A

review which identifes, appraises & synthesizes all evidence that meets pre-specified eligibility criteria for a specific research question

169
Q

Definition of meta-analysis

A

statistical analysis that combines results of multiple scientific studies

170
Q

Definition of RCT

A

comparison outcomes of group receiving intervention with control group

171
Q

Definition of Cohort study

A

groups classified based on exposure followed up prospectively to analyse outcomes

172
Q

Definition of Case-control study

A

groups classified based on outcome and analysed retrospectively regarding exposure

173
Q

Definition of Cross-sectional study

A

survey of a defined population at a single point in time

174
Q

Biases in SR & MA

A

Publication bias
Language bias
Duplicate data
Heterogeneity - statistical, clinical, methodological
Outdated studies

175
Q

Measure of forest plot heterogeneity

A

I squared

176
Q

Initial Upper GI bleeding score

A

Glasgow-Blatchford
> 8 -> ITU

177
Q

Post-endoscopy Upper GI bleeding score

A

Rockall
<3 -> low risk of rebleeding

178
Q

Targets for MHP

A

Hb > 80
INR < 1.5
Fibrinogen levels > 1.5g/L
Plts > 75

179
Q

Adult safeguarding investigations

A

skeletal survey
ophthalmological examination
bloods: coagulation
CXR
CT head

SFP (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions