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SFDC ADM 211 > SFDC ADM 211 - Content by Adam Frank > Flashcards

SFDC ADM 211 - Content by Adam Frank Flashcards

1
Q

An administrator notices there are too many duplicate records, numerous sharing rules, and a large number of manually shared records. This situation may be a symptom of…
A. a role hierarchy that has too few roles
B. a sharing model that is too public.
C. a sharing model that is too private.
D. object permissions on profiles that are too restrictive.

A

C
With a private sharing model, users can’t see if records already exist in the system and create new ones that they can see. Also, IT receives many requests for additional access to users as well as users individually sharing records.

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2
Q

In Salesforce Territory Management, a territory hierarchy is different from a role hierarchy in that it…
A. grants login access to all users in a territory.
B. supports assigning users to multiple territories.
C. automatically assigns users to sales teams in the territory.
D. gives users in a territory full edit access to all accounts in that territory.

A

B
Territory hierarchy is about assigning users to opportunities.
Role hierarchy is about broadening visibility to records up the chain of command so managers can see records owned by their subordinates

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3
Q

An administrator wrote a field update action for a workflow rule on a field that is hidden via Field-Level Security. When the workflow rule triggers, what happens to the data in the hidden field?
A. The field will fail to update and remain in its original state.
B. The field is updated, even though it is hidden.
C. The field will only update if the rule was triggered by a time-based trigger.
D. The field will only update if the user has “Modify All Data” enabled in the profile.

A

B
Workflow rules run whether or not the end user is able to see the field.

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4
Q

A developer wants to create a mashup to display a contact’s location using Google Maps. Which of the following is not a necessary step in developing this mashup?
A. Deciding on the parameters needed for submission.
B. Creating an S-control to pass the URL to Google Maps.
C. Creating a URL with merge fields to pass to Google Maps.
D. Coding the HTML/JavaScript in an S-control to retrieve the results.

A

D

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5
Q

A company called Universal Containers would like to track bugs within Salesforce. The company needs to track the bug’s severity and type as well as its status and description. Bugs should be related to Cases, but the bug’s owner will be different than the owner of the case. How can the Universal Containers administrator meet these requirements?
A. Create a section on the case page layout
B. Create a field on cases
C. Create a custom object for bugs and relate it to cases
D. Create a relationship between the standard bug object and the standard case object

A

C
The relationship would be established using a lookup to the cases object so that independent ownership can be established. It will also allow the related bugs to be visible as a related list on the cases screen.

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6
Q

A company currently uses the standard Salesforce product and pricebook objects. Is it possible for this company to publish product and pricebook information to its corporate Web site so customers in different regions see the correct product catalog with prices in the local currency?
A. Yes, with the Customer portal.
B. No, it is not possible to present multicurrency data.
C. Yes, by building a custom integration following the X-to-Web design pattern.
D. No, it is not possible to present data stored in standard objects other than cases and solutions to a Web site.

A

C
X-to-web enables any standard or custom object to be published into any website.

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7
Q

Describe the use cases for Delegated Administration

A

Create /edit users and reset passwords
Create default sales teams
Create personal groups for users
Assign users to specified profiles
Login as a user who has granted login access
Manage custom objects
They help to assign routine admin tasks to others
Take the weight off of other Application

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8
Q

What are the two keys to setting up Territory Management?
Select all that apply:
A. Enable customizable forecasting
B. Advanced currency management
C. Have an Active Sandbox
D. Marketing User permission enabled

A

A,C

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9
Q

List the order in which automation features trigger when a user saves a record

A
  1. System Validation Rules
  2. All Apex BEFORE Triggers
  3. Custom Validation Rules
  4. All Apex AFTER triggers
  5. Assignment Rules (leads/cases)
  6. Auto-Response (leads/cases)
  7. Workflow Rules
  8. Escalation Rules (cases)
  9. Post-commit logic (Parent Roll-up Summary fields triggers all of the above on the parent object)
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10
Q

List the commonly used API calls

A

Create (also known as Insert)
Update
Upsert
Delete
Undelete
Query
Retrieve

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11
Q

True of False?
A Salesforce object can exist independent of an application.

A

True

You do not have to create a custom tab or assign a custom object to an application.

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12
Q

True or False?
Validation rules are executed for fields that are stored in the object but not part of the displayed page layout.

A

True

Validation rules are executed for all fields on an object regardless of whether or not they are displayed on the page layout.

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13
Q

What is the maximum number of objects that can be associated in a custom report type?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. You can’t create custom report types for multiple objects

A

D
You can add up to four objects to a custom report type.
However, some of the object combinations you choose may not be able to reach that limit.

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14
Q

What are some of the limitations of a Developer org?

A

20 MB of file and 20 MB of data
5000 API call/24 hours
Partner & Customer Portal
Mobile & Platform Licenses

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15
Q

True or False?
The Excel Connector a supported product?

A

False

The excel connector is not supported by SFDC

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16
Q

What happens to the record you specify as the loser during a merge?
A. The record will go to the recycle bin for 30 days.
B. The record will be immediately deleted
C. The record will be stored in a hidden object called “merge data”
D. The record will be stored on the winning record so you can see the audit history

A

A

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17
Q

What happens to any field level data related to a losing record during a record merge?

A

If the field is not populated on the winning record, the data will be brought over from the losing record.

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18
Q

What programming skill sets are required to implement Apex triggers?
Select all that apply:
A. AJAX
B. Object-oriented programmer
C. HTML

A

B,C

AJAX is required knowledge for S Controls, not APEX.

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19
Q

True or False?
You can use the Data Loader to extract attachments.

A

False

The data loader can only be used to delete documents, not extract or export.

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20
Q

What is the total number of personal tags allowed per user?
A. 100
B. 200
C. 300
D. 400
E. 500
F. Unlimited

A

E

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21
Q

True or False?
Personal tags can be viewed by Admins

A

False

Although Admins can enable both public and private tags, Admins can only see public tags

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22
Q

How do admins enable users to view tags?
Select all that apply:
A. Enable Private Tags
B. Enable Public Tags
C. Add Tags to page layouts
D. All of the above

A

D

Click Your Name | Setup | Customize | Tags | Tag Settings.
Select Enable Personal Tags and Enable Public Tags to allow users to add personal and public tags to records. Deselect both options to disable tags.
Specify which objects and page layouts should display tags in a tag section at the top of record detail pages. The tag section is the only way that a user can add tags to a record.
For example, if you only select account page layouts, users in your organization can only tag account records. Additionally, if you only select account page layouts for personal tags and not public tags, users can only tag account records with personal tags.
Click Save.

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23
Q

What do you need to be aware of when overriding a standard button?

A

Overriding a standard button may disable some features like in-line editing

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24
Q

How many letters do you have to enter for the auto-complete to work?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

A

A

Auto complete will begin to auto prompt on the first keystroke.

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25
Q

What objects will auto-complete?
Select all that apply:
A. Account
B. Contact
C. User
D. Custom object lookups

A

A,B,C,D

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26
Q

True or False?
You can package standard objects.

A

False

Only custom objects can be packaged.

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27
Q

When is it appropriate to use packaging vs the metadata API?
A. When moving an entire app from one environment to another
B. If you have made changes to an appexchange App
C. If you share an app in a more casual setting

A

A,B,C

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28
Q

Where can you find the Force.com IDE tool?
A. Setup | Create | Apps
B. Setup | Create | Packages
C. Setup | Develop | Tools
D. Setup | Develop | API

A

C

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29
Q

When creating a report based on a Report Type that is a custom object, what happens if you later delete the custom object?
A. The report type remains
B. The report type is deleted
C. The report type and all related reports are deleted
D. The report type is deleted but all existing reports remain

A

C

When you delete a custom report type, any reports based off it will also be deleted. Furthermore, any dashboard components created from a report based off of a deleted custom report type display an error message when viewed.

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30
Q

What are the 4 steps in authenticating users when they log into Salesforce?

A
  1. If the user’s login is from a browser that includes a Salesforce cookie, the login is allowed. The browser will have the Salesforce cookie if the user has previously used that browser to log in to Salesforce, and has not cleared the browser cookies.
  2. If the user’s login is from an IP address in your organization’s trusted IP address list, the login is allowed.
  3. If the user’s login is from neither a trusted IP address nor a browser with a Salesforce cookie, the login is blocked.
  4. Whenever a login is blocked or returns an API login fault, Salesforce must verify the user’s identity using a temporary verification code sent to the user’s email account.
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31
Q

Where do I add IP addresses to the trusted set?
A. Setup | Administration Setup | Security Controls | Network Access
B. Setup | Administration Setup | Company Information
C. Setup | Administration Setup | Users | Profiles
D. Setup | Company Information

A

A

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32
Q

Describe the difference between a lookup and a master-detail relationship?

A

Lookup: Creates a relationship that links this object to another object. The relationship field allows users to click on a lookup icon to select a value from a popup list. The other object is the source of the values in the list.
Master-detail: Creates a special type of parent-child relationship between this object (the child, or “detail”) and another object (the parent, or “master”).

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33
Q

Describe the properties and considerations for Master Detail Relationship records/fields

A

The relationship field is required on all detail records.
Once the value of the relationship field has been saved, it cannot be changed.
The ownership and sharing of a detail record are determined by the master record.
When a user deletes the master record, all detail records are deleted.
You can create rollup summary fields on the master record to summarize the detail records.

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34
Q

If a new validation rule is created and there is data already stored that violates the rule, when will Salesforce catch the problem?
A. Immediately
B. When the record is first viewed
C. When the record is edited
D. When the record is edited, then saved
E. The record is not affected because it was created before the creation of the validation rule.

A

D.When the record is edited, then saved.

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35
Q

What are the two questions that you should ask yourself when trying to decide how to set Organization Wide Default permissions for an object?
Select all that apply:
A. Who is the most restricted user?
B. Are there objects that should not be viewed/edited by a user?
C. How often will users change roles?
D. Who is the least restricted user?

A

A,B

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36
Q

Who are the three types of users that can grant sharing privileges on a given record?
Select all that apply
A. Owner
B. Anyone higher in the role hierarchy
C. Systems admin
D. Group Members
E. Executives

A

A,B,C

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37
Q

True or False?
If you are granted access to a record through manual sharing or sharing rules, you can share the record to someone else

A

True

But only if granted Full Access to the record.

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38
Q

True or False?
The system administrator profile can be modified to restrict permissions to view and modify data

A

False

System Administrator is a Standard profile and cannot be modified.

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39
Q

How can you create a separate dashboard for each user and have it only visible to that user?

A

Clone the dashboard and put it in a separate folder that is only accessible to that user.

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40
Q

Which are the four pillars of Salesforce success?
Select all that apply:
A. Apps
B. Force.com Platform
C. Marketing Clout
D. Community
E. Appexchange

A

A,B,D,E

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41
Q

Which of the following are standard salesforce applications?
Select all that apply:
A. Sales
B. Call Center
C. Marketing
D. Social Media
E. HR mgmt

A

A,B,C

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42
Q

List the “clicks” and “code” options at the ‘User Interface’ level.

A

Clicks: Apps, Tabs, Page Layouts, Record Types.
Code: S-Controls, Web Controls, Visualforce

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43
Q

List “clicks” and “code” options at the ‘Business Logic’ level.

A

Clicks: Workflow, Validation Rules, Assignment Rules.
Code: S-Controls, Web Controls, Apex, Web Services API

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44
Q

List “clicks” and “code” options at the ‘Data Model level’.

A

Clicks: Objects, Fields, Relationships.
Code: Web Services API

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45
Q

Where are Salesforce’s web services capabilities defined? (2 answers)
A. Company Infomration
B. Subscription Agreement
C. WSDL
D. API Documentation

A

C,D

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46
Q

Describe some features within web services.

A
  1. 30+ operations (methods) supported
  2. Numerous entities (objects) supported
  3. SOQL (Sforce Object Query Language)
  4. SOSL (Sforce Object Search Language)
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47
Q

List some of the most commonly used API calls.

A
  1. Query (Export)
  2. Retrieve
  3. Create (Insert)
  4. Update
  5. Upsert
  6. Delete
  7. Undelete
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48
Q

True or False?
The API fully respects the security and access protocols configured through Force.com builder.

A

True

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49
Q

What is an S-Control?
A. A custom field that has dependent states
B. A custom web page not hosted by SFDC
C. Another name for a roll up summary
D. None of the above

A

B - It is used to bring custom elements into a page layout or visual force page.

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50
Q

True or False?
S-Controls are only triggered through the user interface

A

True

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51
Q

What are the three types of S-Controls?
A. HTML, Component, Controller
B. AJAX, Component, Controller
C. HTML, Snippet, URL
D. AJAX, Snippet, URL

A

C

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52
Q

What are some drawbacks to S-Controls?
Select All that apply:
A. S-controls are client-side code, so can slow-down the UI
B. Not always cross-browser compatible
C. SFDC does not support the code

A

A,B,C

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53
Q

Is it possible to incorporate Web Services API calls into s-controls?

A

Yes - you would do so by referencing the AJAX toolkit.

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54
Q

What are the two major pieces to most s-controls?
A. HTML (Visual Presentation)
B. CSS Style Sheet
C. Javascript (Function/Code)
D. iFrame

A

A,C

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55
Q

Choose the correct answer:

S-Controls are the ________ (code that can execute) for various ________ (objects that fire events) in the system, such as standard or custom buttons, custom links, inline s-controls, and web tabs.
A. Hooks, Targets
B. Targets, Hooks
C. HTML, Snippets
D. Snippets, HTML

A

B

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56
Q

True or False?
Inline s-controls are hooks for s-controls

A

True

Inline S-Controls are not really S-Controls at all, they only appear on detail pages, not edit pages.

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57
Q

Name 2 examples of web applications or web controls:

A

X-to-Web
Web-to-X

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58
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic of web applications or web controls?
A. Runs on a customer-hosted web server
B. Runs on SFDC web server
C. Has a custom UI (generally ASP.NET or JSP),
D. Uses the Force.com API to read or modify SFDC data,
E. Are generally used for highly customized UI or business logic functionality that cannot be accommodated by s-controls.

A

B

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59
Q

When would you use a web application or web control?
A. When you have a visual force page
B. When you have a master detail roll-up summary field
C. When you are integrating with an external system
D. When you have highly customized UI or business logic functionality that cannot be accommodated by s-controls.

A

D

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60
Q

_______ is a procedural scripting language that is written in discrete pieces, uses a syntax that looks like Java and acts like database stored procedures, and are executed entirely on the Force.com platform.
A. S-Controls
B. HTML
C. PHP
D. Ajax
E. Apex

A

E

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61
Q

What are the benefits of Apex versus other applications?
Select all that apply:
A. Runs Natively on SFDC servers
B. Faster than non-server code
C. Supported by SFDC

A

A,B,C

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62
Q

What are the 5 main places you can go to receive support for Apex?

A
  1. Extensive documentation on the Apex Developer Network site.
  2. The Eclipse IDE plugin
  3. Mandatory creation of test scripts that can be run in a development environment
  4. In the UI
  5. Salesforce support personnel
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63
Q

When should you use Apex?
Select all that apply:
A. Adding visual elements to the UI
B. Attaching business logic to a data event (insert, update, delete)
C. Augment behavior that applies when accessing data through the UI
D. Have logic that executes regardless of where the event originates (UI/S-Control/Webservices API)
E. Want to process multiple records at the same time
F. Use classes when coding Apex that will be used by other developers.

A

B,D,E,F

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64
Q

When should Apex not be used?
Select all that apply:
A. When adding visual elements to the UI
B. When adding business logic that only applies when accessing data through the UI
C. When you want to process multiple records at the same time
D. When you add functionality to an S-Control or composite app to process one record at a time.
E. If you want to integrate with a third party system that does not support web services.

A

A,B,D,E

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65
Q

True or False?
Apex is client-side

A

False

Apex is server side, S-Controls are client-side.

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66
Q

What is the major difference between Apex and other programming languages?
Select all that apply:
A. It is the oldest programming language
B. It runs in the client’s web browser
C. It runs natively on SFDC Servers
D It is much faster than other languages

A

C,D

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67
Q

Because Apex runs in a multitenant environment, the Apex runtime engine strictly enforces a number of _________________ ensure that runaway scripts do not monopolize shared resources.
A. Bandwidth limits
B. API limits
C. Data storage limits
D. Governor limits
E. Mayoral limits

A

D

Governor limits help to ensure the stability and performance of each org inside SFDC shared infrastructure.

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68
Q

___________ allow developers to completely replace the standard page layouts within the Salesforce UI with completely custom pages.
A. HTML
B. Apex
C. S-Controls
D. Visualforce Pages

A

D

Visualforce pages can incorporate Apex for advanced business logic functionality.

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69
Q

What are the benefits of using Visualforce pages over S controls?

A

Flexibility - you have complete control over the UI
Reuse - Common UI elements can be referenced and reused so you don’t start from scratch.
Logic Model - You can leverage the full power of Apex to create UI behaviors and replace only the parts you need for greater control.
Development model - code is easy to create and is easily managed.

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70
Q

True or False?
S-Controls are no longer supported by SFDC

A

True

S Controls are being deprecated from the system and phased out. Users that started using SFDC after October 2010 will not see S Controls as an option.

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71
Q

Find the correct sequence of definitions:

  1. Data migration
  2. Data management
  3. Data enrichment
  4. Data cleansing
  5. Data de-duplication

A. Creating format consistency, remove bad data, consolidating sources
B. process of transferring data from one repository to another
C. identifying and merging duplicate records
D. systematic collection, organization, and analysis of data
E. improving existing data by linking additional data sources

A. 1B,2D,3E,4A,5C
B. 1C,2D,3E,4B,5A
C. 1A,2D,3E,4C,5B
D. 1B,2D,3C,4A,5E
E. 1B,2C,3D,4A,5E

A

A

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72
Q

What are the 4 common ways to export data from SFDC?

A
  1. Reports
  2. Weekly data exports
  3. Data Loader/API Applications
  4. Community Tools (Excel connector, Outlook connector)
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73
Q

True or False?
All editions of salesforce can use the data loader

A

False

Only UE, EE and DE Orgs can use the data loader

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74
Q

Is the Data Loader fully supported by Salesforce?
A. Yes
B. No

A

A. Yes

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75
Q

True or False?
You can specify the criteria for specific objects desired in the weekly data export function?

A

True

You can select the objects and create subsets of data in the weekly export.

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76
Q

How often can weekly data export requests be made?
A. Every 4 days
B. Every 5 days
C. Every 6 days
D. Every 7 days

A

C

Requests can be made every 6 days.

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77
Q

What are the ways you can get a record’s unique Salesforce ID?
Select all that apply:
A. URL
B. Report
C. API

A

A,B,C

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78
Q

What is the reason you should do discovery in your data management process?

A

You need to analyze the data to find out what information needs to be cleansed and how the data is to be structured.
This helps to define the reports and dashboards that will support the business processes you seek to manage.

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79
Q

What data retrieval method does not require admins to have a deep understanding of the database?
A. Reports
B. API
C. Weekly Export
D. Data Loader

A

A,C

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80
Q

Which tools provide SQL-like control in receiving data from Salesforce?
Select all that apply:
A. Reports
B. Data Loader
C. Excel Connector
D. Weekly export

A

B,C

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81
Q

Which are examples of dirty data?
A. Duplicate Records
B. Spelling/punctuation mistakes
C. Incomplete records
D. Free text spelling errors
E. All of the above

A

E

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82
Q

What are some of the criteria you can use to identify duplicate records?
Select all that apply:
A. Account Numbers
B. Descriptions
C. IDs
D. Phone numbers
E. SIC Codes
F. Addresses
G. Email Addresses

A

A,C,D,F,G

B - Descriptions can be anything and will not show unique records.
E - SIC codes can be applied to many records and do not identify unique records.

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83
Q

Explain the 4 primary steps in the typical de-dupe process

A
  1. Establish what qualifies as a duplicate.
  2. Find a common identifier.
  3. Determine which other fields and methods can be used to de-dupe.
  4. Merge the losing records into the winning record.
84
Q

What happens to the non-surviving records after a merge?
A. Records are permanently deleted
B. Records are stored in a temporary custom object
C. Records are sent to the Recycle Bin
D. Records remain on the winning account record, but removed from view

A

C

85
Q

Which of the following will make it easier for users to reach merge tools?
A. Build a custom botton/link to the merge wizard
B. Merge using the Excel Connector
C. Be granted delete rights to merge leads
D. All of the above

A

D

86
Q

True or False?
You should rename records before merging.

A

True

It is helpful to rename because you can easily identify the winning record.

87
Q

Describe some ways you can proactively make sure quality data is entered into the system.

A
  1. Enforce Validation rules
  2. Use custom lookup fields, workflow field updates,
    record types and page layouts to streamline data entry
  3. build reports that monitor data entry
88
Q

True or False?
Duplicate records are more commonly found when using a public sharing model?

A

False

It is more common to have duplicate records using a private sharing model because users can’t see records to know if they are already entered and enter them again without knowing they are duplicates.

89
Q

How many records can be deleted at once using the Mass Delete tool?
A. 200
B. 500
C. 2000
D. 5000
E. Unlimited

A

B

Wizards inside SFDC usually have a limit of 500 records. However, the data loader and other ETL tools do not have any limits.

90
Q

True or False?
The Mass Delete tool can be used on any object

A

False

The mass delete tool will only work with standard objects: Accounts, Leads, Activities, Contacts, Cases, Solutions and Products

91
Q

Which of the following are other approaches to using the built in wizards for mass-deleting records?
Select all that apply:
A. Reports
B. Weekly Export
C. Data Loader
D. Excel Connector

A

C,D

92
Q

True or False?
You should back up your data before changing or deleting data

A

True

It is a best practice to backup your data so if there is an unexpected result, you can always roll back the changes.

93
Q

True or False?
File attachments count towards the overall data storage limit.

A

False

File attachments count towards file storage, not data storage. The storage limit is 1GB minimum for data and 11GB minimum for file storage for all editions.

94
Q

List some ways that admins can increase user adoption:

A
  1. Measure user adoption (including dashboards)
  2. Motivate users by showing them the value
  3. Use Salesforce during meetings
  4. Use Salesforce as a Sales Portal
  5. Train the end users
95
Q

Define User Adoption

A

User adoption means gaining the trust of users to use the system on a regular basis as intended.

They will feel that they want to use the system instead of being forced to use it.

96
Q

How can you measure adoption beyond the number of logins?

A
  1. Track how often users are using new features after training sessions.
  2. Run spot checks on data, track usage with regards to the financial calendar (last minute entries versus consistent usage).
  3. Track training sessions in SFDC.
97
Q

What are the types of items measured by the Salesforce Labs Adoption Dashboards?
Select all that apply:
A. User logins
B. Closed won opportunities
C. Call activity
D. Data quality

A

A,C,D

98
Q

Describe some techniques for motivating users:

A
  1. Get executive sponsorship (including having them use it in meetings)
  2. Win over sales personnel
  3. Identify power users and evangelists
  4. Create motivations everywhere, both inside and outside the system
  5. Use both marketing messages and the app itself as drivers
99
Q

Describe some techniques for winning over sales teams?:

A
  1. Know the audience and realize that the driver for sales users is making their numbers
  2. Ask to see planners, notes, etc, and notice what is different between high and low performers
  3. Examine what they want to track
  4. Encourage a vision of the left hand knowing what the right is doing
  5. First step is usually to make information tracking easy by consolidating all in one place
100
Q

What is the key phrase that executives use to ensure sales people adhere to using salesforce?

A

“If it’s not in Salesforce, it didn’t happen.”

101
Q

Describe some feedback mechanisms that can help drive “relentless incrementalism”:

A
  1. Send out user surveys
  2. Use blind surveys
  3. Create a user group or committee
  4. Tap into exec committees for recommendations
  5. Use face-to-face interviews
  6. Use Salesforce (Ideas, Pollzter, ClickTools).
102
Q

What salesforce labs dashboards are available for free on AppExchange?

A
  1. Leads and Opportunity Dashboards
  2. Sales Activity Dashboards
  3. PRM Channel Sales
  4. Services and Support
  5. Marketing Target Dashboards
  6. Marketing Metrics Dashboards
  7. Sales KPI Dashboards
103
Q

What are some of the training options available to Salesforce Administrators/implementors?

A

A. Standard web training
B. Custom training
C. Education Services
D. Certification

104
Q

What are some of the parameters that should be taken into account when thinking of training?

A
  1. WIIFM? “What’s in it for me”
  2. Ongoing Use the app
  3. Ongoing training
  4. Tracking training
105
Q

Which of the following are best practices towards enhancing productivity?
Select all that apply:
A. Minimize clicks
B. Inline editing
C. Tagging
D. Shortcuts
E. Roll-up summaries
F. Cross object formulas
G. Hotkeys
H. Auto complete lookups

A

All - A,B,C,D,E,F,G,H

106
Q

What permissions are needed to install Force.com Connect for MS Office?

A

On the profile:

  1. Connect for Office: “On, updates w/o alerts” for all clients
  2. Connect for MS Outlook: “On, updates w/o alerts”
107
Q

Describe the difference between an email template and a mail merge template:

A

Mail Merge - done in outside application, paper-driven
Email Template - sent from the application via email

108
Q

What is a mobile configuration?

A

It defines the set of parameters used to make salesforce data available on mobile. It defines the users/profiles that can access via mobile as well as the data set that is sync’d to mobile devices.

109
Q

Why are 2 important reasons for admins to check the size of a data set on a mobile configuration before activating it.

A
  1. To make sure that performance on the mobile device won’t be severly impacted
  2. To ensure the data will not be over the max limit set by administrator
110
Q

What are 4 tools available to increase Administrator productivity?

A
  1. Schema Extract Tool
  2. Explorer
  3. Data Loader
  4. Force.com Eclipse IDE
111
Q

True or False?
The Schema Extract tool is supported by Salesforce.

A

False

The Schema extract tool is not supported by Salesforce

112
Q

Describe the best way to manage Lockout Periods for maintenance?

A
113
Q

When locking users out of the system for maintenance, what is a key thing to remember?

A

Make sure that the SysAdmin Profile is excluded from the Lock-Out period otherwise, they will also be locked out.

114
Q

True or False?
The Data Loader can be used to assign record ownership to inactive users.

A

False

The data loader can only be used to assign records to active users.

115
Q

Describe how administrators can examine what configuration changes have been made:

A
  1. Through the audit trail (at Setup | Security Controls).
  2. It will show the 20 most recent setup changes, you can download a complete history for the last 180 days
  3. There are over three dozen items tracked (see “Monitoring Setup Changes” in help)
  4. Alternatively, you might use Dreamfactory’s Snapshot or other Metadata API-based tools.
116
Q

What can the Schema Extract Tool provide the administrator prior to loading data into Salesforce?
Select all that apply:
A. All fields on a given object
B. Field data types
C. Location of data on the storage pod
D. Determine order of data load
E. Number of records containing data per field

A

A,B,D

117
Q

What are some metadata attributes that are provided by the Force.com Explorer regarding fields? Whether a field is __________?
Select all that apply:
A. Creatable
B. Updatable
C. Nullable
D. Readable
E. Delete-able

A

A,B,C

118
Q

What can you do with Workflow? (assuming EE edition or higher)

A
  1. Alerting
  2. Tasking
  3. Routing/assigning/escalation
  4. Updating
  5. Integrating
  6. Mass communication
119
Q

When should you consider Opportunity Update Reminders?

A
  1. When on PE (no workflow) or it fits the criteria listed below:
  2. Opportunity triggered on a SCHEDULED basis only (rather than event)
  3. Limited numer of fields in the alert
  4. Inflexible formatting is okay
  5. Specifically for opportunities
120
Q

When should you consider Opportunity Big Deal Alerts?

A
  1. When on PE (no workflow) or it fits the criteria listed below:
  2. Opportunity triggered on the Amount and Probability field thresholds
  3. Limited routing functionality is okay
  4. Specific only to opportunities
121
Q

When should you consider the System Debug Log?

A

(requires View All Data profile permission)

  1. To see behind-the-scenes details of Apex
  2. Validation rules
  3. Workflow rules
  4. Approval processes
  5. Assignment rules
  6. Auto-response rules
  7. Escalation rules
122
Q

What is the save order of business processes?

A
  1. System validation rules
  2. All Apex ‘before’ triggers.
  3. Custom validation rules
  4. All Apex ‘after’ triggers
  5. Assignment rules (Leads and Cases only)
  6. Auto-response rules (Leads and Cases only)
  7. Workflow rules
  8. Escalation rules (Cases only)
  9. Parent Roll-up Summary Fields (which triggers all of the above on the parent object)
123
Q

What considerations are there in Workflow trigger order?

A

No set order, unlike assignment rules.
However, they are processed as follows:
1. field update
2. task
3. emails
4. outbound messaging

124
Q

How many characters can a formula field contain?
Select all that apply:
A. 200
B. 500
C. 1000
D. 3900

A

D

To optimize, use CONTAINS first, then CASE, then IF.

125
Q

How many levels deep can cross-object formulas go?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. None of the above

A

D

Documentation shows 10 unique relationships, but study guide and some community answers show 5.

126
Q

What are the ways you can solve a time-based email alert?
Select all that apply:
A. Task
B. Workflow
C. Escalation
D. Trigger

A

A,C

127
Q

What is the maximum number of users that can be tracked in the persistent

debug log?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20

A

D

Debug log is an organization-wide persistent log. It can store debug log for transactions performed by specific users. Logs for up to 20 users can be
persisted. Debug Log is available via the Monitoring menu.

128
Q

True or False?
All applications downloaded from the AppExchange can be modified once loaded

into an org.

A

False

Only unmanaged packages downloaded from the AppExchange can be modified.

Managed packages are unable to be edited or customized.

129
Q

What skill set is required to work with outbound messages? API? or Apex?

A

Programmatic skill set working with programming languages such as C# or Java

are similar.

130
Q

True or False?
Steps can be added to an active approval process.

A

False

Steps cannot be added after the process has been activated.

131
Q

True or False?
Actions to existing steps can be added to an active approval process?

A

True

Actions can be added to the existing steps of active approval processes

132
Q

What are some examples of Web-to-X usage of SFDC?

A
  1. A candidate entering application information on a website
  2. A person responding to request for information after clicking on a web to

lead form
3. A person submitting a help request on a web to case form

133
Q

Which AppExchange partners allows you to easily web-enable any object without

needing to use the API to develop custom web integrations?
Select all that apply:
A. Model Metrics web2anything
B. Veer West Form Assembly
C. Clicktools
D. Vertical Reponse

A

A,B,C

134
Q

True or False?
Roll-up Summary Fields work with Opportunity Line Items to Opportunities?

A

True

Opportunity Line Items are in a master-detail relationship with Opportunities being the master and Opportunity line items being the child. Roll up summaries are available for the master records in a master-child relationship.

135
Q

How can you take away a user’s ability to run reports while allowing them to view dashboards?

A

Remove the “Run Reports” and “Create and Customize Reports” profile permissions.

This will still allow the user to view dashboards.

136
Q

All of the following tools assist in auditing EXCEPT:
A. Reports
B. Field History
C. Setup Audit Trail
D. Page Layout
E. Dreamfactory Snapshot

A

D

Page Layout has nothing to do with auditing. However, you can place some history related list on a page layout to display the historical information.

137
Q

Name the objects that support field history tracking:

A
  1. Data Entry Objects: Accounts, Contacts, Opportunities, Leads, Contracts,

Cases, Solutions, Custom Objects
2. History Objects: Approval History, limited Campaign Member history (Member

First Associated, Member First Responded)

  1. Salesforce2Salesforce connection history
  2. Oppty Stage History for: Stage, Probability, Amount, Close Date, Last Modified By
138
Q

How many fields can you track per object using Field History Tracking?
A. 5
B. 20
C. 50
D. Unlimited
E. None of the above

A

B

You can track up to 20 fields for Field Tracking History. Don’t confuse this with Chatter feed notifications which can track more than 20 fields.

139
Q

Which of the following are trackable with the User Login Locations functionality?

Select all that apply:
A. Source IP address
B. Originated from UI (not available in standard User report)
C. Login Date
D. Device Type
E. Browser

A

A,B,C

140
Q

True or False?
You can log a case with Salesforce to see if an employee exported data within a particular timeframe.

A

True

This is called forensic investigation and can be requested via a case.

141
Q

How many days of setup audit history can you download?
A. 7
B. 30
C. 90
D. 180
E. 365
F. You can’t download this information due to security

A

D

142
Q

Describe some results of a sharing model that is too public.

A

There is a lot of dirty data.
Data can easily be stolen.

143
Q

Describe the some symptoms of a sharing model that is too private.

A
  1. Lots of duplicate records
  2. Users consistently have to manually share records
  3. There are a large number of sharing rules
  4. Admins have lots of requests for more record access
144
Q

What are the system prerequisites for Territory Management?
Select all that apply:
A. Customizable Forecasting Enabled
B. Sales Teams Set up
C. Marketing Users enabled
D. Sandbox enabled
E. None of the above
F. All of the above

A

A,D

Sales Teams and Marketing user permission do not need to be used for

Territory management.

145
Q

True or False?
You can provision multiple Sandbox orgs.

A

True

146
Q

There are 3 different types of sandboxes:

A
  1. Production
  2. Configuration
  3. Developer
147
Q

True or False?
If you implement Territory Management, your role hierarchy will be copied to your Territory structure.

A

False

148
Q

Describe what Delegated Administrators CAN do:

A
  1. Create and edit users
  2. Reset passwords
  3. Create default sales teams
  4. Create personal groups for users
  5. Assign users to profiles
  6. Login as a user who has granted login access
149
Q

Describe what Delegated Administrators CAN’T do:

A
  1. Create new profiles
  2. Add fields
150
Q

What are some tools for managing the Change Request process with SFDC?
Select all that apply:
A. Use the Service and Support app
B. Have end users submit case
C. Use the Solutions tab for FAQs
D. Use the Self-Service Portal and Suggested Solutions
E. Use the Metadata API for submitting cases from other applications
F. Use reports and dashboards to monitor metrics
G. Use Content to store related documents (change mgmt process, training of new processes/functionality/apps, etc), ongoing newsletter communications,
Ideas
H. All of the above

A

H

151
Q

What are 3 scenarios when might it be better to use packaging and the AppExchange for testing and deployment?

A
  1. Moving from org to org: If a developer has created an entire app and needs to move it into a testing or prod environment.

  1. Unmanaged Package changes: If a developer has installed an application from the AppExchange and made modifications.
  2. Ad-hoc use: If an administrator or a developer needs to share an application in a more casual setting.
152
Q

What is the number one predictor of successful change management?
A. Cleansed Data
B. Correct License selection
C. Executive Sponsorship
D. Defined Sales Process

A

C

153
Q

True or False?
Delegated admins can login as their subordinates.

A

True

But only when they have been granted login access rights by those subordinates.

154
Q

True or False?
Salesforce can be used as a release and change management tool.

A

True

155
Q

What are some common goals of localization?

A
  1. Regional administration
  2. Local messaging
  3. Customization based on particular characteristics of each region
156
Q

List 6 pieces of functionality that Salesforce recommends deploying when implementing localization.

A
  1. Advanced Currency Management
  2. Regional Price Books
  3. Delegated Administration
  4. Custom Profiles
  5. Translation Workbench
  6. Regional Home Page Layouts
157
Q

What are 4 common challenges to going global?

A
  1. Intl BU’s & IT operating autonomously
  2. Mix of English & native language
  3. Immature sales processes
  4. No Common platform
158
Q

True or False?
In a global Salesforce implementation, all sales teams must use the same sales process.

A

False
Sales processes can be created and customized for each different sales team/region, etc.

159
Q

Why is the “My” versus “All” reporting critical to successful global adoption?

A

To create as few reports as possible.

The “my” feature automatically limits reports to show each individual users’ information.

This saves the effort of creating individual reports for each user, then further modified by localization, etc.

160
Q

Why is it important to allow regions to choose their field labels and picklist values?

A

To get regional buy-in, language translation helps to cut down any confusion or discrepency.
This fosters adoption globally because the platform is tailored to each region.

161
Q

What are the recommended steps to protect Salesforce users from security concerns such as phishing?

A
  1. Educate your users
  2. Identify your primary security contact
  3. Secure employee systems (including staying current on latest browsers)
  4. Implement IP restrictions
  5. Strengthen password requirements
  6. Require secure sessions
  7. Decreased session timeouts
  8. Consider 2factor authentication (RSA token plus username/password),
    Contact SFDC for help
162
Q

What are some URLs to stay current with what’s happening with SFDC?

A
  1. Trust.salesforce.com
  2. SFDC community
  3. IdeaExchange
  4. Release overview pages
  5. Feature detail pages
  6. Detailed release notes
  7. Admin preview doc
  8. Discover button in app
  9. Official SFDC blog
163
Q

How many releases a year does Salesforce typically deliver?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
E. Depends on the roadmap

A

C

3 releases are issued per year, Spring, Summer, Winter. All are distributed automatically during a pre-scheduled maintenance window.

164
Q

What is the one-stop-shop for information about a new release?
A. Gartner News Source
B. Forbes Innovation Magazine
C. Salesforce.com community
D. Partner Portal

A

C

165
Q

If you could only give one release document to your IT department, which would it be?

A. Feature detail pages
B. Detailed release notes
C. Admin preview doc
D. Release overview pages

A

B

166
Q

What is the fastest way to communicate new release information to your end users?

A. Feature detail pages
B. Detailed release notes
C. Admin preview doc
D. Discover button in app

A

D

167
Q

What are the two primary components of the Visualforce framework?
Select all that apply:
A. Components
B. S-Controls
C. Apex Pages
D. Controllers
E. Static Resources

A

A,D

168
Q

What are examples of content that can be included in a Visualforce page?

A
  1. VF Tags
  2. Force.com merge tags
  3. HTML
  4. Java
  5. Flash
  6. Any other code that can execute w/in a HTML page
169
Q

What do {!expressions} refer to when used in Visualforce components?
A. Roll-Up summaries
B. Factorial Equations
C. Apex Classes
D. Fields

A

D

170
Q

What are 2 the ways that Visualpages can be incorporated into the rest of

your user interface?

A
  1. Tabs
  2. Embedded into page layouts
171
Q

When does knowledge of Apex code become necessary to create a VisualForce page?

A. When creating custom page layouts
B. When creating a master roll-up summary
C. When a custom controller is required
D. It is always necessary to use Apex code with VF

A

C

172
Q

Describe the differences between Visualforce and s-controls?

A

S-Controls:

  1. Written in Ajax and run on the client
  2. Hard-coded - can’t reuse
  3. logic and presentation mixed

VisualForce:

  1. Written in HTML & Apex, run on the server
  2. Component model - can reuse code
  3. Logic and presentation separated
173
Q

True or False?
The Excel Connector can retrieve data from multiple objects (e.g., Accounts, Contacts) in a single query.

A

False - Only one object can be queried at a time.

174
Q

Where is additional information about the Excel Connector available?

A
  1. The ADN (AppExchange Developer Network)
  2. http://wiki.apexdevnet.com/index.php/Tools
175
Q

How do the Excel connector and SFDC reports differ in their support for filter criteria?

A

Excel Connector: Query is one object per query, using the API.

Reports: offer multiple objects, and/or criteria

176
Q

Describe how can you use Excel Connector in conjunction with custom reports to get the data you want?

A
  1. Run the report from Excel using Connect for Office, then
  2. Use the Excel Connector to manipulate and update data
177
Q

Why might it be necessary to override buttons that you remove from the page layout?

A. To preserve screen real estate
B. Buttons can’t be removed
C. To prevent users from using hot keys or keyboard shortcuts to access the function of the button

A

C

178
Q

What type of report drives the User Login dashboard component?
A. Chatter adoption
B. User profile report
C. Admin Login report
D. This component does not exist for security purposes

A

C

179
Q

In the context of the Data Quality Dashboard, what does it mean to have 100% as the score?

A. All users have successfully logged in
B. All data has been reviewed by each user
C. All users have created at least 1 record
D. All key fields have been populated

A

D

180
Q

What are some recommended optional installs from the AppExchange for general implementations?

Select all that apply:
A. User Adoption Dashboard
B. Hotkeys
C. Mass Delete
D. All of the above

A

D

181
Q

True or False?
Account ID is required on the Opportunity object via the API.

A

False

You do not need the Account ID on the opportunity when accessing through the API.

182
Q

True or False?
Referring to other formulas may reduce the 1300 character limit, but it is possible to continue chaining multiple formula fields together indefinitely.

A

False

This is not possible because the character limit still applies.

1300 - Maximum characters displayed after calculation
3900 - Maximum characters allowed in the formula

183
Q

Describe the differences between Case and an If function?

A

Case
Checks a given expression against a series of values.
If the expression is equal to a value, returns the corresponding result.
If it is not equal to any values, it returns the else_result

IF
Determines if expressions are true or false.
Returns a given value if true and another value if false

184
Q

What is the difference between locking an opportunity using approvals versus changing the record type to a page layout with all read only fields?

A

Approval:
The oppty becomes “locked” and the lock symbol appears on the oppty and the edit button is disabled.
Record Type:
The record is read only, but no visual clue as to whether or not anything else is going on (ie approval process)

185
Q

What may be the impact of selecting the “next value” in the picklist during a workflow field update?

A

If you sort values alphabetically, the values above or below may be different for users in other languages and cause a different, undesirable result.

186
Q

What are the potential reasons why different people may have different numbers when they create and run reports?

A

They used different criteria:

  1. Time frames
  2. My vs all ownership criteria
  3. Advanced filters
187
Q

True or False?
Ideas can be used in the self service portal.

A

False
Only customer and partner portals can use ideas.

188
Q

What triggers the Big Deal alert?
Select all that apply:
A. Opportunity Amount
B. Closing Date
C. Sales process stage
D. Probability Threshold

A

A,D

189
Q

Describe the detailed differences between S-Controls and VisualForce

A

Technology
Scontrol - AJAX, run on client
VF - HTML & Apex, run on Server

Flexibility
S-Control - extends standard UI
VF - Extend or completely replace UI

Reuse
S-Control - None
VF - full component model, no hard coding

Logic Model
S-Control - Limited to what is possible in AJAX
VF - Complete - everything possible in Apex

Control
S-Control - use alone or in page
VF - selectively replace parts of UI

Development Model
S-Control - logic + presentation mixed
VF - logic + presentation separated

190
Q

Describe Apex

A
  1. Apex is a procedural scripting language executed by force.com.
  2. It uses a Java-like syntax, acts like database stored procedures.
  3. It runs natively on salesforce servers, more powerful and faster than non-server code.

  1. It adds business logic to most system events - button clicks, related record updates, s-control displays, data loads
191
Q

True or False?
Apex offers optional creation of test scripts that can be run in a dev environment, in the UI or by salesforce support personnel.

A

False

The test scripts are mandatory, not optional

192
Q

What causes irreversible changes to data via UI?

A
  1. Changing field data type
  2. Using the import wixard
  3. mass transfer
  4. mass delete
  5. mass reassign Account or OpptyTeams
  6. mass update addresses
193
Q

What causes irreversible changes to data via API?

A
  1. Update
  2. mass delete
194
Q

What does not cause irreversible changes?

A

Changes to the sharing model or sharing rules

195
Q

How would an administrator quickly check field accessibility?

A
  1. Field Accesibility Grid
  2. View by: fields, profiles, record type
196
Q

Which of the following are hooks:
Select all that apply:
A. S-Control
B. Apex Trigger
C. Custom Link
D. Web Tabs

A

C,D

197
Q

What can be turned on in Sandbox?
Select all that apply:
A. Approval processes
B. Case escalation rules
C. Case assignment rules
D. Oppty reminders

A

A,C

198
Q

What is the best way to transfer configurations from Sandbox to Production?
A. Import Wizard
B. Metadata API
C. Change Sets
D. Data Loader

A

B

199
Q

Describe data “scrubbing”:

A

Scrubbing is a processed used to help identify dirty data.

The process removes formatting (like in a phone number) to line up data to check for duplicates or bad data.

200
Q

Which would you not find under Setup/Develop?
A. Apps
B. Apex Classes
C. API
D. S-Controls

A

A

201
Q

What services are included in DaaS?

A
  1. force.com metadata API
  2. force.com IDE
  3. force.com Sandbox
  4. force.com code share
202
Q

Which cannot be customized in Ideas?
A. Search layouts
B. Half Life
C. Page layout
D. Communities

A

C

203
Q

What can be customized in content?
Select all that apply:
A. Content type
B. Validation rules
C. Page layouts
D. Content Value

A

A,B

204
Q

What user permissions are needed to add content?
Select all that apply:
A. Marketing user
B. Manage Workspace
C. Delegated Administration
D. Add Content

A

B,D

205
Q

Once activities are archived, where is the only place you can access them?
A. You can’t access them
B. Activity History - View All
C. Recycle Bin
D. Activity Reports
E. Archiving of activities does not affect visibility

A

B

206
Q

As an end user what are two things you can do in content?
A. Read
B. Edit
C. Subscribe
D. Post

A

A,C

207
Q

Where are custom buttons NOT available?

A
  1. Web to Lead
  2. Web to Case
  3. User Object

SFDC ADM 211 (1 decks)

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