Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Saab 340 Questions > SF34 Saab 340 Memory Items > Flashcards

SF34 Saab 340 Memory Items Flashcards

Covers all Ch 2 & Ch 5 as well as other "good to knows".

1
Q

What is the span without extended wingtips?

A

21.44m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the span with extended wingtips?

A

22.75m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What counts as icing conditions?

A

If any form of visible moisture is present (such as clouds, fog with visibility of one mile or less, rain, snow, sleet, ice crystals) or standing water, slush, or snow is present on the ramps, taxiways or runways and the OAT or SAT is +5 degrees and below during ground and flight operation.

Min speed must be observed if in above or if ICE SPD light is on.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When in icing conditions or whenever the blue ICE SPD status light or EAI is on, what should you do?

A

Must observe the minimum speed for flight in icing conditions. IAS mode must be selected on the FD if climbing when these conditions exist.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When may flaps be extended?

A

On ground as required for take-off, low altitude holding, approach and landing, up to a maximum altitude of 14,000ft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Vfe for flap 7 or 15?

A

175 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Vfe for flap 20?

A

165 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Vfe for flap 35?

A

140 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Maximum gear retraction speed (Vlor)?

A

150 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Maximum gear extension speed (Vloe)?

A

200 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Maximum gear emergency extension speed (Vloee)?

A

200 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Maximum gear extended speed (Vle)?

A

200 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Vmcl (Flaps 20 and 35) (SF340A)?

A

103 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Vmcl (Flaps 20 and 35 (SF340B)?

A

106 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Vmcl (Flaps 20 and 35) (SF340B(WT))?

A

103 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is Vmo (max. operating speed)?

A

250 KIAS up to approx. 16,000ft.

Above 16,000 ft, Vmo decreases as indicated by the Vmo pointer to approx. 210 KIAS at 25,000ft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is Va (max. manoeuvring speed)?

A

180 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is Vra (max. rough air penetration speed)?

A

190 KIAS up to 21,000 ft ISA.

Above 21,000ft, reduce the speed as indicated by the VMO pointer minus 30 kts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Maximum take-off tailwind component?

A

10 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Maximum landing tailwind component?

A

10 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Maximum operating altitude?

A

25,000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Maximum crosswind component?

A

35 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Deviations from the ATC assigned altitude, is authorised only to the extent necessary to comply with an _____?

A

ACAS Resolution Advisory (RA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

In relation to ACAS:

Manoeuvres must not be based solely on information presented on what?

A

The Traffic Advisory display (TA).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Use of flight director information in go-around mode during _______ is not authorised.

A

take-off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

When are autopilot operations not authorised?

A

Below 200 ft AGL - during take-off or go-around.

Below 500 ft AGL - during cruise.

Below 50 ft AGL - during approach.

Below 100 ft AGL - for a non-coupled approach.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

During icing conditions, which mode is the only vertical mode to be used during climb when ice accumulation is observed or if it is not certain there is no ice accumulation on the aircraft?

A

FD/AP IAS mode.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When is it a requirement to disconnect the autopilot and re-trim the aircraft before re-engaging the autopilot?

A

Following an engine failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When is Yaw Damper not authorised?

A

For take-off, go-around or landing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

When must landing flap be set by?

A

300 ft AGL

Must be called for by 500 ft AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

If holding in icing conditions, what flap setting must be used?

A

Flap 0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

In terms of placards and instrument markings, what does the colour red mean?

A

Operating limits.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

In terms of placards and instrument markings, what does the colour yellow mean?

A

Caution, temporary or idle range.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

In terms of placards and instrument markings, what does the colour green mean?

A

Normal operating range.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

In the case of a cargo fire on a Saab 340B (WT) aircraft, how long has the cargo compartment been demonstrated to provide fire protection for?

A

60 minutes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

In the case of a cargo fire on a Rex aircraft that isn’t a Saab 340 B (WT), how long has the cargo compartment been demonstrated to provide fire protection for?

A

35 minutes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

When the Altitude/Heading Reference System (AHRS) is initialising, can the aircraft be moved?

A

No.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Regarding AHRS - Fill in the blanks:
Take-off is not permitted until __1__ minutes after initialisation is completed and the attitude difference between the attitude displayed on both EADI’s and the standby attitude indicator is __2__ degrees or less (bank and pitch) and the heading on the compass card is not ______3______.

A

1 - 2 minutes
2 - 3 degrees
3 - slewing away from the aircraft heading

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Maximum Taxi Weight of the Saab 340B + B(WT)?

A

13,290 kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Maximum Take-Off Weight of the Saab 340B + B(WT)?

A

13,155 kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Maximum Landing Weight of the Saab 340B + B(WT)?

A

12,930 kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Maximum Zero Fuel Weight of the Saab 340B + B(WT)?

A

12,020 kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Maximum Taxi Weight of the Saab 340A?

A

12,840 kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Maximum Take-Off Weight of the Saab 340A?

A

12,700kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Maximum Landing Weight of the Saab 340A?

A

12,340 kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Maximum Zero Fuel Weight of the Saab 340A?

A

11,660 kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Max. in flight differential pressure?

A

7.5 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Max. landing cabin differential pressure?

A

0.3 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

CABIN PRESS warning pressure?

A

7.5 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Cabin altitude CABIN PRESS warning?

A

10,000 ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Max. DC voltage of the DC generators?

A

29 V DC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Normal nominal load per DC generator?

A

400 A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Maximum load for 5 minutes for the DC generator?

A

600 A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Main battery normal voltage?

A

24 V DC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

External power - GPU max. voltage?

A

29.5 V DC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

External power - battery cart max. voltage?

A

29.5 V DC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Max. external power amperage requirement for normal operation?

A

600 A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Max. external power amperage requirement for engine start?

A

1,600 A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Minimum fuel takeoff, each tank?

A

135 kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Maximum imbalance of fuel between tanks?

A

90 kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Normal kg for LOW LEVEL light to come on?

A

135 kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

In regards to Fuel: System Limitations - Fill in the blanks:
XFEED and CONN VALVE switches shall be in the __1__ and ___2___ position during take-off and landing in normal operation.

A

1 - OFF

2 - CLOSED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Total quantity of useable fuel?

A

2,542 kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Minimum time in NORM before switching to HIGH in regards to windshield heating?

A

7 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Time from switching STBY PITOT ON until full ice-protection is obtained?

A

5 min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Maximum speed for LOW windshield wiper operation?

A

130 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Maximum speed for HIGH windshield wiper operation?

A

160 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

In regards to Altimeters, Operational Tolerances - Fill in the blanks:
With an accurate QNH set, all the altimeters should read the nominated elevation to within __1__ ft.
If an altimeter has an error in excess of +/- __2__ ft, it is considered unserviceable.
The Saab 340 requires ___3___ altimeters for IFR operations; __4__ of the altimeters must read the nominated elevation to within __5__ ft. When the remaining altimeter has an error between __6__ ft and __7__ ft, flight under the IFR to the first point of landing, where the accuracy of the altimeter can be rechecked, is approved. In the event that the altimeter shows an error in excess of __8__ ft on the second check the altimeter must be considered unservicable.

A 
1 - 60
2 - 75
3 - all three
4 - two
5 - 60
6 - 60
7 - 75
8 - 60
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Maximum difference between the two airspeed indicators?

A

+/- 8 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Number of brake applications on fully charged brake accumulators?

A

11

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Max. speed for use of brakes with the anti-skid system off or inoperative?

A

40 kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

In take-off power + APR or go-around power operating conditions, what is the operating limit on TRQ (5 minutes)? (Saab 340 B Model)

A

107 %

73
Q

In take-off power + APR or go-around power operating conditions, what is the operating limit on TRQ (2 minutes)? (Saab 340 B Model)

A

107 %

74
Q

In take-off power + APR or go-around power operating conditions, what is the operating limit on ITT (5 minutes)? (Saab 340 B Model)

A

940 degrees C

75
Q

In take-off power + APR or go-around power operating conditions, what is the operating limit on ITT (2 minutes)? (Saab 340 B Model)

A

950 degrees C

76
Q

In take-off power + APR or go-around power operating conditions, what is the operating limit on PROP rpm (5 minutes)? (Saab 340 B Model)

A

1,396 rpm

77
Q

In take-off power operating conditions, what is the operating limit on TRQ (5 minutes)? (Saab 340 B Model)

A

100 %

78
Q

In take-off power operating conditions, what is the operating limit on TRQ (2 minutes)? (Saab 340 B Model)

A

100 %

79
Q

In take-off power operating conditions, what is the operating limit on ITT (5 minutes)? (Saab 340 B Model)

A

917 degrees C

80
Q

In take-off power operating conditions, what is the operating limit on ITT (2 minutes)? (Saab 340 B Model)

A

927 degrees C

81
Q

In take-off power operating conditions, what is the operating limit on PROP rpm (5 minutes)? (Saab 340 B Model)

A

1,396 rpm

82
Q

In Max. Continuous (OEI) operating conditions, what is the operating limit on maximum TRQ? (Saab 340 B Model)

A

100 %

83
Q

In Max. Continuous (OEI) operating conditions, what is the operating limit on maximum ITT? (Saab 340 B Model)

A

944 degrees C

84
Q

In Max. Continuous (OEI) operating conditions, what is the operating limit on PROP rpm? (Saab 340 B Model)

A

1,396 rpm

85
Q

In transient except take-off (max 12 sec) operating conditions, what is the operating limit on max. TRQ? (Saab 340 B Model)

A

112 %

86
Q

In transient except take-off (max 12 sec) operating conditions, what is the operating limit on max. ITT? (Saab 340 B Model)

A

965 degrees C

87
Q

In transient except take-off (max 12 sec) operating conditions, what is the operating limit on max. PROP rpm? (Saab 340 B Model)

A

1, 572 rpm

88
Q

In engine start operating conditions, what is the operating limit on maximum ITT? (Saab 340 B Model)

A

965 degrees C

89
Q

In take-off power operating conditions, what is the operating limit on TRQ (5 minutes)? (Saab 340 A Model)

A

108 %

90
Q

In take-off power operating conditions, what is the operating limit on ITT (5 minutes)? (Saab 340 A Model)

A

930 degrees C

91
Q

In take-off power operating conditions, what is the operating limit on PROP rpm (5 minutes)? (Saab 340 A Model)

A

1,396 rpm

92
Q

In transient except take-off (max 12 sec) operating conditions, what is the operating limit on max. TRQ? (Saab 340 A Model)

A

118 %

93
Q

In transient except take-off (max 12 sec) operating conditions, what is the operating limit on max. ITT? (Saab 340 A Model)

A

960 degrees C

94
Q

In transient except take-off (max 12 sec) operating conditions, what is the operating limit on max. PROP rpm? (Saab 340 A Model)

A

1,572 rpm

95
Q

In Max. Continuous (OEI) operating conditions, what is the operating limit on TRQ? (Saab 340 A Model)

A

100 %

96
Q

In Max. Continuous (OEI) operating conditions, what is the operating limit on ITT? (Saab 340 A Model)

A

917 degrees C

97
Q

In Max. Continuous (OEI) operating conditions, what is the operating limit on PROP rpm? (Saab 340 A Model)

A

1,396 rpm

98
Q

In engine start operating conditions, what is the operating limit on maximum ITT? (Saab 340 A Model)

A

960 degrees C

99
Q

In regards to Miscellaneous Limitations: Power Levers - Fill in the blanks:
It is prohibited to move the power lever(s) below _____1_____ when airborne. If the PL is moved below _____2_____ when airborne the propeller will go into __3__ pitch angle, the propeller speed will ___4___ uncontrolled with extremely ___5___ drag, possible uncontrolled flight, engine shutdown and loss of engine power.

A 
1 - FLIGHT IDLE
2 - flight idle
3 - low
4 - increase
5 - high
100
Q

In regards to Start Duty Cycle - Fill in the blanks:

__1__ start attempts with __2__ minutes cooling between , then __3__ minutes cooling before subsequent starts.

A

1 - Two
2 - 3
3 - 25

101
Q

In regards to Starter/Generator Duty Cycle Limits: Motoring - Fill in the blanks:
__1__ __2__ - second ventilations with __3__ minutes cooling between each, then a __-hour cooling period before subsequent starts or motoring.

A

1 - Three
2 - 30
3 - 3
4 - one

102
Q

Maximum time to light-off (from initial Ng rotation to ITT rise) for direct start only?

A

20 seconds

103
Q

Maximum time with the starter engaged and how long within that time can be plain motoring?

A

70 seconds of which max 30 seconds plain motoring

104
Q

Memory Items: Starting - No Light Up, Start Sequence Interrupted, Hung Start or Hot Start

A

Condition Lever - Fuel Off
Ignition Switch - Off
Motor Engine to ITT Below 175 degrees or for a minimum 10 seconds.

105
Q

Memory Items: Engine Failure After V1

A

Power - Reduce to 20% - 30%
Condition Lever - Fuel Off

Caution - If propeller has not feathered, ensure AUTOCOARSEN switch is off and set PROPERLLER PUMP switch to MAN FEATHER. Hold switch until propeller is in the full-feathered position.

106
Q

Memory Items: Engine Fire

A 
Power Lever - Reduce to 20% - 30%
Condition Lever - Fuel Off
Fire Handle - Pull
Fire Extg. Switch - On
(If fire indication still on after 30 seconds - discharge FIRE EXTG. opposite side)

Caution - If propeller has not feathered, ensure AUTOCOARSEN switch is off and set PROPERLLER PUMP switch to MAN FEATHER. Hold switch until propeller is in the full-feathered position.

107
Q

Memory Items: Uncommanded Engine Operation In Flight

A

Power Lever - Reduce to 20% - 30%
Condition Lever - T/M Then Reset Prop RPM
Autocoarsen - Off

108
Q

Memory Items: Uncommanded Engine Operation On The Ground

A

Shut down the engine.

109
Q

Memory Items: Engine Shut Down

A

Power Lever - Reduce to 20% - 30%
Condition Lever - Fuel Off

Note - If TEMP rises above 540 degrees, or if there is evidence of combustion after shut down, MOTOR engine until TEMP decreases below 175 degrees.

Caution - If propeller has not feathered, ensure AUTOCOARSEN switch is off and set PROPERLLER PUMP switch to MAN FEATHER. Hold switch until propeller is in the full-feathered position.

110
Q

Memory Items: Compressor Stall

A

CTOT - Off

Power Lever - Reduce to 20% - 30%

111
Q

Memory Items: Air Conditioning Smoke

A

Oxygen Masks and Regulators - On and 100%
Smoke Goggles - On
Communications - Establish

112
Q

Memory Items: Avionics or Electrical Smoke or Fire

A

Oxygen Masks and Regulators - On and 100%
Smoke Goggles - On
Communications - Establish

113
Q

Memory Items: Rapid Depressurisation

A 
Oxygen Masks and Regulators - On and 100%
Communication - Establish
Transponder - 7700
Seatbelt Sign - On
Emergency Descent - Initiate
114
Q

Memory Items: Tail Pipe Hot

A

Power Lever (affected side) - Reduce to 20% - 30%

115
Q

Memory Items: Cargo Compartment Smoke

A

Cargo Fire Extg. Switch (or switch 1 if dual) - On

For dual cargo extinguisher installations, select only extg. 1 intially. Refer to QRH for direction on use of extg. 2

116
Q

Memory Items: Hydraulic Light On

A 
Hydraulic Pump Switch - Off
Check hydr indicatiors - Emerg and main pressures are both low.
LEAVE FLAPS IN ACTUAL POSITION (Caution)
Speed below 200 KIAS
Landing Gear Handle - Down
Emerg LDG Handle - Pull
117
Q

Memory Items: Hydraulic Fluid Loss

A

Hydr Pump Switch - Off

118
Q

Memory Items: Elevator/Aileron System Jammed

A

Autopilot - Disengage (be prepared for trim transients)
Interconnect Unit - Overpower (both pilots shall act on the controls. The pilot on the side not failed can, by overpower the interconnect unit, control the aircraft.
Pitch/Aileron Disconnect Handle - Pull

119
Q

Memory Items: Flap Fault

A 
Flaps split
(The split may be reduced by reselecting the previous flap setting)
120
Q

Memory Items: Emergency Evacuation - Captains Duty

A

Park Brake - Set
Condition Levers - Fuel Off
Evacuation - Order (F/A will automatically initiate an evacuation on water)
Tower/Company - Advise
Battery Switches - Both Off
(Do not order an evacuation until both Ng’s are below 20%)

121
Q

Memory Items: Evacuation Drills - FO’s Duty

A

Emergency Panel Switches (3) - On
Fire Handles (Both) - Pull
Fire Extg. Switches (Both) - On

122
Q

Memory Items: Both Engines Flame Out

A 
Power Levers (Both) - Flight Idle
Condition Levers (Both) - Fuel Off
Airspeed - 130 KIAS
Battery Switches (Both) - OVRD
Fuel STBY Pump Switches (Both) - OVRD
Autocoarsen - Off
Left Condition Lever - Start
Start Switch - Left
IF ENGINE RESTARTS:
Left Condition Lever - Max
Left Power Lever - Advance
Left Gen Switch - Reset then On (maximum two reset attempts)
IF ENGINE DOES NOT RESTART:
Left Condition Lever - Fuel Off
(Attempt to start right engine from point 7)
123
Q

Memory Items: Loss of both generators

A

Bus Tie Switch - Split

Both Gen Switches - Reset then On (maximum two reset attempts)

124
Q

Pressurisation: Cabin VS in detent going up?

A

+ 500 FPM

125
Q

Pressurisation: Cabin VS in detent going down?

A
  • 300 FPM
126
Q

Normal Hydraulic Pump Pressure?

A

2100 - 2900 PSI

127
Q

Climb Power ITT Limit B Model Below FL150?

A

Max 840 degrees C

128
Q

Climb Power ITT Limit B Model At and Above FL150?

A

Max 875 degrees C

129
Q

Climb Power ITT Limit A Model Below FL150?

A

Max 825 degrees C

130
Q

Climb Power ITT Limit A Model At and Above FL150?

A

Max 850 degrees C

131
Q

Minimum climb speed, flap 0, max bank 15 degrees?

A

V enroute

132
Q

Minimum climb speed, flap 0, max bank 30 degrees?

A

V enroute + 10 KIAS

133
Q

Minimum climb speed, flap 15, max bank 15 degrees?

A

V2

134
Q

Minimum climb speed, flap 15, max bank 30?

A

V2 + 10 KIAS

135
Q

Cat C Initial Approach Speeds?

A

160 - 240 KIAS

136
Q

Cat C Final Approach Speeds?

A

115 - 160 KIAS

137
Q

Cat C Max Speed for Circling?

A

180 KIAS

138
Q

Cat C Max Speed for Missed Approach?

A

240 KIAS

139
Q

Company Speeds for Initial Approach?

A

160 - 200 KIAS

140
Q

Company Speeds for Final Approach?

A

V fa + 10 - 160 KIAS

141
Q

Company Speeds for Circling?

A

160 - 180 KIAS

142
Q

Company Speed for Missed Approach?

A

146 KIAS (V enroute + 10)

143
Q

Circle to Land Configuration?

A

IAF - 170 KIAS
FAF - 160 KIAS
Approaching IAF (IF for RNAV), Condition Levers Max
Below 175 KIAS, Flap 15 (Flap 7 OEI)
Approaching FAF or established inbound, reduce speed to 160 KIAS and maintain until visual circling is commenced.
Established inbound, maintain a constant descent profile.
Gear down and Flap 20 once visual and established within circling area. (OEI established on Final descent for landing)

144
Q

Straight-In Landing Configuration?

A

IAF at 170 KIAS
FAF at 160 KIAS
Approaching IAF (IF for RNAV), below 200 KIAS, select gear down and condition levers to max. Below 175 KIAS, Flap 15 (OEI Flap 7)
Approaching FAF or established inbound, slow to 160 KIAS and select Flap 20.
Reduce speed to V fa20 + 10 by the MDA/DA.
Flap 35 shall not be selected until crew are visual and established for a straight in landing.
Established inbound, maintains constant descent profile.

145
Q

Vmm Flap 0?

A

150 KIAS

146
Q

Vmm Flap 7?

A

145 KIAS

147
Q

Vmm Flap 15?

A

140 KIAS

148
Q

Vmm Flap 20?

A

135 KIAS

149
Q

Vmm Flap 35?

A

130 KIAS

150
Q

Name the four Vmm increments.

A 
Turns Above 30 degrees AOB - 10 KIAS
Ice Accretion/Icing Conditions - 10 KIAS
Moderate Turbulence - 10 KIAS
Severe Turbulence - 15 KIAS
(Accumulative)
151
Q

ILS Glideslope Check - Temp Above ISA will cause what?

A

Low altitude reading check

152
Q

ILS Glideslope Check - Temp Below ISA will cause what?

A

High altitude reading check

153
Q

Timing from threshold before base turn?

What actions are taken?

A 
25 seconds.
Speed 160 - 180 KIAS, Gear Down, 600 Fpm descent
Condition Levers max
Below 175 KIAS, Flap 15
Below 165 KIAS, Flap 20
"Final Checklist"
Min 135 KIAS turn onto base
154
Q

Maximum Compartment Load C1?

A

510 kgs

155
Q

Maximum Compartment Load C2?

A

270 kgs

156
Q

Flight planning groundspeed B Model?

A

270 TAS + Wind Component

157
Q

Flight planning ground speed A Model?

A

250 TAS + Wind Component

158
Q

Fuel burn rate B Model?

A

500 kg/hr

159
Q

Fuel burn rate A Model?

A

450 kg/hr

160
Q

Fuel Takeoff and Initial Climb allowance?

A

30 kgs

161
Q

Fuel Final Climb allowance?

A

3 min plus 10kgs

162
Q

Circuit and Landing allowance?

A

15 kgs

163
Q

Instrument Approach Fuel?

A

100 kgs

If an alternate is required due to weather, 2 approaches must be planned for at the destination

164
Q

Fixed reserve fuel?

A

Half an hour at 400 kg/hr

165
Q

Holding Fuel A Model?

A

460 kg/hr

166
Q

Holding fuel B Model?

A

450 kg/hr

167
Q

Holding fuel WT?

A

440 kg/hr

168
Q

Taxi fuel for capital cities or single engine turnarounds?

A

40 kg

169
Q

Taxi fuel for outports?

A

25kg

170
Q

The right RECIRC fan may be turned off with less than how many passengers in a B Model?

A

27 passengers.

171
Q

The right RECIRC fan may be turned off with less than how many passengers in an A Model?

A

25 passengers.

172
Q

Maximum ITT with HP BLEED VALVE open on the ground?

A

800 degrees C.

173
Q

Max speed in a holding pattern up to FL140?

A

230 kts

174
Q

Max speed in a holding pattern above FL140 up to FL200?

A

240 kts

175
Q

Max speed in a holding pattern above FL200?

A

265 kts

176
Q

Memory Items: Unreliable Airspeed and/or Altitude Indications

A

Autopilot - Disconnect
Flight Path - Stabilze
Power Setting - Take-off

177
Q

Max Ng for motoring?

A

26%

178
Q

Minimum stabilised Ng prior to Condition Lever to START?

A

17%

179
Q

Minimum Ng prior to Tailwind start?

A

20%

Saab 340 Questions (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions