Sexuality And Sexual Health Flashcards

1
Q

Female sex steroid hormones

A

Estrogens

Progestins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Pituitary gonadotropin hormones

A

Follicle stimulating hormone

Luteinizing hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Female sex steroid hormones and pituitary gonadotropin hormones promote

A

Development of primary and secondary sex characteristics

Start of menses and regulation of the menstrual cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Three major endogenous estrogens

A

Estradiol
Estrone
Estriol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Estrogens are responsible for

A

Development and maintenance of the female reproductive system
Development of female secondary sex characteristics
Shaping of body contours and development of the skeleton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Pharmacotherapy for estrogens (10)

A
Conjugated estrogens (Premarin)
Esterified estrogens (Estragyn)
Estradiol transdermal (Climara, Divigel)
Estradiol vaginal ring (Estring)
Estradiol valerate
Estrone (Folliculum)
Estropipate (Ogen)
Ethinyl estradiol (Alesse)
Estradiol, vaginal dose forms (Vagifem, Estring)
Estrone (Vaginal cream)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Pharmacotherapy for Progestins

A
Levonorgestrel (Mon-Ovral)
Medroxyprogesterone (Provera, Depo-Provera)
Megestrol (Megace)
Norethindrone (norlutate)
Progesterone (Prometrium) 
Steroidal 
Nonsteroidal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Estrogen deficiency disorders that can be fixed with pharmacological estrogen

A

Atrophic vaginitis
Hypogonadism
Uterine bleeding
Vasomotor spasm of menopause “hot flashes”
Osteoporosis
Breast or prostrate cancer
Ovarian failure or castration (removal of ovaries)
Cross-gender hormone treatment for trans people
Severe acne

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Contraindications of estrogen pharmacotherapy

A
Drug allergy 
Estrogen dependent cancer 
Undiagnosed abnormal vaginal bleeding 
Pregnancy 
Active thromboembolic disorder/history
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Interactions of pharmacotherapy estrogens

A
Oral anticoagulants (estrogens decrease their activity)
Rifampin (estrogens decrease it effect)
St. John’s wort 
Tricyclic antidepressants 
Smoking
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Adverse effects of estrogen pharmacotherapy

A
Thrombolytic events 
Nausea 
Hypertension 
Thrombophlebitis 
Edema
Vomiting, diarrhea, constipation, abdominal pain
Photosensitivity, chloasma
Amenorrhea, breakthrough uterine bleeding 
Tender breasts, fluid retention 
Carbohydrate tolerance, headache
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Progestins are used to treat

A

Functional uterine bleeding caused by hormonal imbalance, fibroids, uterine cancer
Primary and secondary amenorrhea
Adjunctive and palliative treatment of some cancer and endometriosis
Prevent contraception
Prevent potential miscarriage
Alleviate premenstrual syndrome symptoms
Liver dysfunction
Thrombophlebitis and thromboembolic disorders
Nausea/vomiting
Amenorrhea
Edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Medroxyprogesterone

A

Provera, Depo-Provera
Inhibits secretion of pituitary gonadotropins
Prevents follicular maturation and ovulation
Stimulates growth of mammary tissues
Antineoplastic actions against endometrial cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Medroxyprogesterone used to treat

A

Uterine bleeding
Secondary amenorrhea
Endometrial cancer
Contraception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Nursing conditions for estrogens and Progestins doses

A

Give smallest does possible
Intramuscular injections into large muscles sites, rotate sites
Oral doses with meals to reduce GI problems
Educate on self admin and what to do if missed dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Polycystic ovary syndrome

A

Few or anovulatory menstrual cycles
Elevated levels of androgens
Polycystic ovaries
Genetic predisposition and obesity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Endometriosis

A

Functioning endometrial tissue or implantation outside of the uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Possible causes of endometriosis

A
Coelomic metaplasia 
Retrograde menstruation
Embryonic cell rest 
Latrogenic mechanical transplantation 
Lymphatic and vascular dissemination 
Genetic predisposition
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Three forms of oral contraceptives

A

Monophasic, biphasic, triphasic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Forms of contraception

A

Oral, injection, transdermal patch, vaginal ring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Contraceptives mechanism of action

A

Prevent ovulation by inhibiting the release of gonadotropins and increasing uterine mucous viscosity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Cervical cancer is almost always associated with

A

HPV infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

HPV causes

A

High grade dysplasia and cancer

Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia and cervical carcinoma in situ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Risk factors for cervical cancer

A
Multiple sexual partners 
Young age at first sexual intercourse 
High parity 
Immunosuppression 
Oral contraceptives 
Use of nicotine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Vaginal cancer

A

Rare

Usually squamous cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Vulvar cancer

A

Usually squamous cell carcinoma

Associated with HPV, increasing age, previous cancer, autoimmune conditions, immunosuppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Endometrial cancer

A

Most common uterine cancer and gynaecological malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Primary risk factor for endometrial cancer

A

Unopposed estrogen exposure

Leads to endometrial hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Endometrial cancer is associated wigh

A

Type 2 diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Endometrial cancer usually occurs in — women

A

Post menopausal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Three types of ovarian cells

A

Germ cells
Endocrine and interstitial hormone producing cells
Epithelial cells

Benign and malignant tumours come from each of the three types of cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Benign breast disease

A

Non cancerous changes in the breast

33
Q

Common symptoms of benign breast disease

A

Pain, palpable mass, nipple discharge

34
Q

Broad classifications of benign breast disease

A

Nonproliferative breast lesions
Proliferative breast disease without atypia
Atypical (atypia) hyperplasia

35
Q

Non proliferative breast lesions

A

Simple breast cysts
Papillary apocrine change
Mild hyperplasia of the usual type

36
Q

Simple breast cyst

A

Fluid filled sacs
Often rupture and release secretory material into tissues
Results in chronic inflammation and scarring

37
Q

Papillary apocrine change

A

Increase in ductal epithelial cells that has apocrine changes or an eosinophilic cytoplasm

38
Q

Mild hyperplasia of the usual type

A

Increase in the number of epithelial cells within a duct that is more than two but less than four cells in depth

39
Q

Proliferative breast lesions without atypia

A

Proliferation of ductal epithelium or stroma without cellular signs of abnormality

40
Q

PBLW/OA

usual ductal hyperplasia

A

Additional or proliferating epithelial cells that fill and distend the ducts and lobules

41
Q

PBLW/A

Intraductal papillomas

A

Solitary papillomas
Diffuse papillomas
Can harbour areas of atypia requiring surgical excision

42
Q

PBLW/A

Sclerosing adenosis

A

Lobular lesion with increased fibrous tissue and scattered glandular cells

43
Q

PBLW/A

Radial scar

A

Irregular, radial proliferation of duct like small tubules entrapped in a dense central fibrosis

44
Q

PBLW/A

Simple fibroademonas

A

Benign solid tumours that contain glandular and fibrous lesions

45
Q

Proliferative breast lesions with atypia

Atypical hyperplasia

A

Increase in the number of cells or proliferation and the cells have some variance in structure

46
Q

Proliferative breast lesions with atypia

Atypical ductal hyperplasia

A

Abnormal proliferating cells in breast ducts

47
Q

Proliferative breast lesions with atypia

Atypical lobar hyperplasia

A

Proliferation of cells in the lumen of lobular units

48
Q

Proliferative breast lesions with atypia is associated with

A

Increased risk of breast cancer

The younger the woman the higher the risk of developing breast cancer

49
Q

Breast cancer risk is related to

A

Timing, duration, pattern of exposure

50
Q

Terminal duct lobular units

A

Predominant source of breast cancer
Lobular involution
Postlactational involution

51
Q

Lobular involution associated with

A

Reduced risk of breast cancer

52
Q

Postlactational involution

A

Mammary gland regresses and remodels to it prepregnant State

53
Q

Six factors that affect the risk of breast cancer

A

Protective effect of an early (20’s) first pregnancy
Protective effect of removal of the ovaries and pituitary gland
Increased risk associated with early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity
Relationship between types of fate, free estrogen levels, oxidative changes in estrogen metabolism
Hormone dependent development and differentiation of mammary gland structures
Efficacy of anti hormone therapies for treatment and prevention of breast cancer

54
Q

Insulin and insulin like growth factors

A

IGF’s regulate cellular functions involving cell proliferation, migratory, differentiation and apoptosis
Insulin therapy and sulfonylurea were found to be mildly associated with breast cancer risk

55
Q

Prolactin and growth hormone

A

GH induces the production of IGF’s in the liver

IGF signalling is important for breast development and is implicated in breast cancer

56
Q

Oral contraceptives

A

Combined estrogen and progesterone oral contraceptives increase the risk for breast, cervix amd live cancers

57
Q

Mammographic breast density

A

Radiological appearance of the breast, reflecting variations in breast composition

58
Q

Radiation

A

Ionizing radiation is a know mutagen and carcinogen for breast cancer

59
Q

BRCA 1 gene

A

Breast cancer 1 gene
Located on chromosome 17
Tumour-suppressor gene
Carriers are at higher risk for breast and ovarian cancer

60
Q

BRCA2

A

Breast cancer 2 gene
Located on chromosome 13
More likely in men who develop breast cancer

61
Q

Pathogenesis of breast cancer

Ductal/lobular epithelium

A

Proliferation of epithelial cells that is confined to the ducts and lobules

62
Q

Pathogenesis of breast cancer

Infiltrating ductal type

A

Invasive
Tumour stays small but metastasize early
70-80% of breast cancers

63
Q

Pathogenesis of breast cancer

Heterogeneous

A

Diverse molecular, biological, phenotypical, and pathological changes

64
Q

Ductal carcinoma in situ

A

Limited to breast ducts and lobules without invasion of the basement membrane
Does not progress from low grade to higher grades

65
Q

Lobular carcinoma in situ

A

Originates from the terminal duct lobular unit

Cells grow non cohesively due to loss of the tumour suppressive adhesion protein E-cadherin

66
Q

Manifestations of breast cancer

A
Painless lump
Palpable nodes in axilla 
Dimpling of skin 
Edema
Bone pain
67
Q

Treatment of breast cancer is based on

A

The stage of the cancer

68
Q

Breast cancer treatment

A
Surgery
Radiation 
Chemo
Hormone therapy 
Biological therapy
69
Q

What reduces the risk of penile cancer

A

Circumcision at birth

70
Q

Penile cancer is most commonly caused by what kind of cells

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

71
Q

Penile cancer may be the site of

A

Metastatic spread of solid tumours from the bladder, prostate, rectum or kidney

72
Q

Penile cancer is primarily managed with

73
Q

Cancer of the testis usually caused by

A
Germ cell tumours:
Seminomas 
Embryonal carcinomas 
Tertomas 
Choriosarcomas
74
Q

Cancer of the testis is treated with

A

Surgery
Chemotherapy
Radiation

75
Q

Epididymitis

A

Inflammation of the epididymitis

76
Q

Epididymitis is usually caused by

A

Sexually transmitted micro-organisms:
Neisseria gonorrhoea
Chlamydia trachomatis

77
Q

How do sexually transmitted micro organisms reach the epididymitis

A

By ascending the vasa deferentia from an already infected urethra or bladder

78
Q

Main syotoms of epididymitis

A

Scrotal or inguinal pain