Sexual Health Flashcards

1
Q

what is the treatment for chlamydia?

A

Doxycycline BD 100mg for & days (not safe in pregnancy)
or
Azithromycin 1g STAT dose
(safe in pregnancy)

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2
Q

what proportion of patients are asymptomatic for chalmydia?

A
Women = 75%
Men = 50%
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3
Q

in Bacterial vaginosis what will the pH of the vaginal discharge be?

A

pH>4.5

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4
Q

what proportion of men are asymptomatic for gonorrhoeaa?

A

5-10%

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5
Q

what does gonorrhoea look like under a microscope?

A

Gram negative diplococci

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6
Q

what is the treatment of gonorrhoea?

A

STAT: Ceftriaxone 500mg IM single dose + Azithromycin 1g PO

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7
Q

when is the highest risk for HIV transmission in pregnancy?

A

At delivery
*unless mother seroconverts during pregnancy
Seroconversion: where you become HIV +ve and develop antibodies.

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8
Q

what is reiter’s syndrome/reactive arthritis?

A

Can occur in <1% of chlamydia cases - sterile inflammation of synovial membranes, tendons, fascia triggered at a distant site
Triad of redness, joint swelling and pain

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9
Q

what are the pregnancy/neonatal complications of chlamydia?

A

IUGR
PROM
Pre-term delivery
Low birth weight

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10
Q

what are the pregnancy/neonatal complications of gonorrhoea?

A

Low birth weight

Pre-term delivery

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11
Q

what is a LARC?

A

long acting reversible contraception

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12
Q

what criteria are used to determine suitability of contraception?

A

UK MEC (medical eligibility criteria)

1: No restriction
2: Advantages outweigh risks
3: Risks outweigh advantages
4: Unacceptable health risk

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13
Q

what oestrogen is used in Combined oral contraceptive pill?

A

ethinyl oestradiol

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14
Q

what are the absolute contra-indications to Combined oral contraceptive pill?

A
Breastfeeding <6wks Postpartum (severe)
Smoking >15cigs/d &amp; >35y                       
Multiple risk factors for Arterial CVD
BP >160/100
Current or past VTE
Major Surgery with Immobilisation
IHD
CVA
Valvular Heart Disease
Focal Migraine
Breast Ca
Complicated DM
Severe liver cirrhosis
Liver tumours
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15
Q

what is the time window for taking the progesterone only pill?

A
12 hours
(older generation = 3 hours)
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16
Q

which classes of drugs interact with the COC?

A
Antibiotics - rifampicin, rifabutin
Antidepressants - St Johns Wort
Antiepileptics - carbamazepine, phenytoin etc
Antifungals - Griseofluvin, imidazoles
Anti-retrovirals
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17
Q

when starting the COC within how many days of your period must you start it to be protected immeadiately?

A

Days 1-5 - do not have to use condom

*if started after this use condom for 7 days

18
Q

when starting the progesterone only pill, if not started on days 1-5 of the cycle, for how many days should you use condoms?

A

For 2 days

7 days with COC

19
Q

what are the common oestrogenic side effects?

A
Breast enlargement
Bloating
Nausea
Non-infective vaginal discharge
Headaches
Cholasma
Photosensitivity
20
Q

what are the common progestogenic side effects?

A
Acne
Greasy hair
Hirsuitism
Depression
loss of libido
Vaginal dryness
21
Q

In what situations should the POP be considered over the COC?

A

Risk of VTE
Smokers
Migraine with aura
High BP

22
Q

For how long is a nuva ring left in?

A

21 days

23
Q

What hormone/s does a nuva ring contain?

A

Oestrogen + progestogen

24
Q

what is the mode of action of progesterone only contraceptives? (including mirena)

A

Thickens cervical mucus
Endometrial atrophy
Prvention of ovulation in some women’s cycles

25
Q

what is the treatment of syphillis?

A

Benzathine Penicillin G IM single dose

26
Q

what is the average time for seroconversion to take place in HIV infection?

A

4 weeks (2-6 weeks after exposure, antibody takes 4-8 weeks to develop) retest as some can take longer

27
Q

which morning after pill interferes with other hormonal contraception?

A

ellaone

ullipristal

28
Q

in which morning after all does efficacy reduce with time?

A

Levonelle

29
Q

how many days after unprotected sex can the copper coil be inserted as emergency contraception?

A

5 days

30
Q

what is AIDs and how is it defined?

A

acquired immunodeficiency syndrome

CD4 count <200 x 106 / L

31
Q

in HIV how long does it take for the p-24 antigen to be detected?

A

2-4 weeks

32
Q

in HIV how long does it take for the HIV antibody to be detected?

A

4-8 weeks

33
Q

what is the recommended 1st line assay test for his?

A

4th generation assay tests for HIV antibody and p24 antigen

34
Q

what is the disadvantage of POCT (prick testing) for HIV?

A

Reduces specificity & sensitivity

*dvantage = good for when venipuncture is not available

35
Q

which neoplasms are more common in those with HIV?

A

Cervical cancer
Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
Kaposi’s sarcoma

36
Q

what are the two methods used in routine practice for HIV testing?

A

1) Venepuncture - 4th generaion assay tests for HIV antibody and p24 antigen simultaneously
2) rapid POCT (point of care testing)

37
Q

what are the symptoms of PID?

A

Lower abdominal pain bilateral generalised
Deep dyspareunia
Abnormal vaginal bleeding
Abnormal vaginal or cervical discharge(usually purulent)

38
Q

In suspected PID - what does the triple swab investigation refer to?

A

Vulgovaginal swab - NAAT testing gonorrhoea, chlamydia
High vaginal swab - Candida, BV, TV, group B strep
Endocervical swab - Gonorrhoea culture

39
Q

what is a complication of chalmydia screened for during laparoscopy?

A

Fitz-Hugh Curtis syndrome
rare complication of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) involving liver capsule inflammation leading to the creation of adhesions

40
Q

how many people are asymptomatic for gonorrhoea?

A

Women - 50%

Men - 10%