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3F171 set B > Set B Readiness/Mortuary > Flashcards

Set B Readiness/Mortuary Flashcards

1
Q

(201) Which of the following is not provided by the War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) to support operations?

A

Concept of Operations (CONOPS)

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2
Q

(201) The War and Mobilization Plan (WMP) addresses all of the following except?

A

Specific Situations

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3
Q

(201) Which wartime priority supports the strategic offense and defensive missions?

A

1

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4
Q

(202) Which plan is chiefly associated with a temporary base?

A

Expeditionary Site Plan (ESP)

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5
Q

(202) Which part of the base support expeditionary site plan (ESP) identifies resources?

A

Part 1

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6
Q

(202) Within the emergency management (EM) process, who communicates to higher headquarters (HQ) and with civilian agencies during emergencies?

A

Installation Control Center (ICC)

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7
Q

(202) Which organization serves as the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for emergency support functions (ESF) dealing with mass care, housing, and human services?

A

Force Support Squadron (FSS)

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8
Q

(203) When deployed, which ration type does not require cooks?

A

MREs

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9
Q

(203) Which rations are not used for contingency or deployment?

A

B-Rations

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10
Q

(204) Which of the following enables timely operational capability assessments to facilitate joint force projection planning?

A

Time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD)

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11
Q

(204) Which time-phased deployment data (TPFDD) is associated with a written operation plan (OPLAN)?

A

Requirements driven

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12
Q

(204) Each entry in the Joint Operation Planning and Execution System (JOPES) time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD) is controlled by the

A

Unit line number (ULN)

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13
Q

(205) Which is not one of the nine key and essential pieces of personnel deployment tasking information?

A

Personal increment number (PIN)

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14
Q

(205) Under the lead/follow support concept, when planning support in 3F1 functional areas, food services must maintain a cook-to-customer ratio under

A

1:50

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15
Q

(206) At which deployment period will three unitized group rations (UGR) be served each day?

A

Day 15 through 29

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16
Q

(206) The wartime flight feeding planning factor is based on

A

100% of base population

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17
Q

(206) A reference for beddown planning is covered in

A

AFI 10-403 Deployment Planning and Execution

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18
Q

(206) Handling of biohazard waste is coordinated with

A

civil engineering (CE)

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19
Q

(206) The two priorities in a force beddown plan are command, control, and communications (C3) and

A

Accountability

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20
Q

(207) Within the force support squadron (FSS), who ensures qualified individuals fill each deployable unit type code (UTC) position assigned to the unit?

A

Unit Deployment Manager (UDM)

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21
Q

(207) When a physically limiting condition is detected that might limit your capability to perform deployment duties, you are required to obtain an

A

AF Form 469

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22
Q

(208) What is a fundamental premise of Air Force-input tool (AF-IT) reporting?

A

Integrity

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23
Q

(208) Who designs measurement criteria for readiness reporting?

A

Functional Area Manager (FAM)

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24
Q

(209) Which force support squadron (FSS) lead unit type code (UTC) is a 5-person team that supports a population of 550 for less than 5 days?

A

RFLX2

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25
Q

(209) Which force support squadron (FSS) unit type code supports Air Force Mortuary Affairs Operation?

A

RFSRJ

26
Q

(209) Which base expeditionary airfield resources (BEAR) set transitions from initial to established messing?

A

BEAR 9-2 550 Kitchen

27
Q

The force module (FM) concept has how many FMs?

A

6

28
Q

Which force module (FM) contains specific weapons systems such as fighters, tankers, and cargo aircraft crews, and maintenance teams?

A

Generate the mission

29
Q

After the start of the open the base force module, the generate the mission FM will be expected to be in place no later than day

A

4

30
Q

How many days after an operational location is established will the robust the base FM expect support forces to be in place?

A

30

31
Q

Which mortuary program is the preferred method of handling remains during periods of conflict?

A

Concurrent return

32
Q

The Air Force Survivor Assistance Program (AFSAP) must be responsive to the information needs of the

A

Family

33
Q

Once you are identified as a family affairs representative (FAR), training should be completed within how many hours?

A

24

34
Q

Who makes the recommendation for an individual to be the family affairs representative (FAR) of a deceased member?

A

Unit commander

35
Q

Who creates the deceased’s mortuary case file?

A

Mortuary affairs technician

36
Q

Who is responsible for explaining the roles of a family affairs representative to the family?

A

Mortuary officer

37
Q

Summary courts officers’ (SRO) personal property actions should be completed within how many days?

A

90

38
Q

What determines which mortuary officer (MO) will open the case file?

A

MO location in proximity to death

39
Q

Funeral home itemized charges are filed in which tab of the mortuary case file?

A

5

40
Q

The family affairs representative (FAR) log of events is located in which tab of the mortuary case file?

A

6

41
Q

How many copies of a certified state death certificate are given to a person authorized to direct disposition (PADD)?

A

10

42
Q

What is the maximum allowed number of internment flags given to a deceased’s family without the approval of Headquarters, Air Force Mortuary Affairs Office (HQ AFMAO)?

A

2

43
Q

What is the maximum allowance authorized if the person authorized disposition of the deceased (PADD) makes arrangements to have remains cremated?

A

10,500

44
Q

Which transport method is not authorized for the movement of a deceased member’s remains?

A

Personal Vehicle

45
Q

When personal remains are transported from a combat theater of operations, the primary next-of-kin (PNOK) may request a delay not to exceed

A

12 hours

46
Q

Who is responsible for developing a financial plan to govern the payment of mortuary expenses?

A

Major command (MAJCOM)/Services (A1S)

47
Q

The government purchase card (GPC) is used for which type of expense?

A

Primary

48
Q

Which deceased member’s relative is not authorized to receive travel and per diem entitlements for funeral travel?

A

Grandchildren

49
Q

Who completes the inspection checklist portion of DD form 2063, Record of Preparation and Disposition of Remains?

A

Contracting officer’s representative (COR)

50
Q

The performance objectives and performance threshold required for contract mortuary services are established in the

A

service delivery summary (SDS)

51
Q

Who is responsible for providing a complete quality control program to assure contract requirements are met?

A

Contractor

52
Q

Military funeral honors for deceased active-duty personnel include

A

a detail including six pallbearers, eight-person firing party, bugler, four-person color guard, and the detail OIC or NCOIC

53
Q

Who is eligible for flyovers?

A

Both active duty and retired AF 3-star and 4-star general officers regardless of aeronautical rating

54
Q

The base honor guard (HG) inputs the number of funeral honors data into the funeral honors database (FHDB) no later than how many days from the execution date of the detail?

A

30

55
Q

Who has overall responsibility for the base honor guard (HG) program?

A

Installation commander

56
Q

What square footage per person does the lodging operation use to plan for all contingency operations?

A

50

57
Q

Who receives the highest consideration for on-base lodging over short-term temporary duty personnel during emergency conditions?

A

Long-term TDY personnel

58
Q

During a contingency, who must management coordinate with before planning any lodging assignments?

A

Site commander

59
Q

In a deployed environment, quarters for senior officers should be located near

A

The command post

60
Q

Who determines whether officers and enlisted females can be billeted in the same shelter during contingency operations?

A

Site commander

3F171 set B (1 decks)

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