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Airman Leadership School > Set B > Flashcards

Set B Flashcards

1
Q

Define the sender.

A

The originator of the communication process.

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2
Q

Define the message.

A

The idea, feeling or information that the sender transfers to his or her audience.

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3
Q

Define the receiver.

A

The target for the sender’s message.

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4
Q

Define feedback.

A

A reaction to the received message.

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5
Q

The three channels of communication are

A

Upward, downward and lateral communication.

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6
Q

What are the organizational barriers to communication?

A

Environmental noise, weak communication policies, autocratic management

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7
Q

What are the psychological barriers to communication?

A

Personality, values, language,

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8
Q

What are abstract words?

A

Concepts not identified with specific objects and could have multiple meanings.

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9
Q

What are concrete words?

A

They represent actual things or objects.

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10
Q

T/F. Good introductions include an attention step, purpose statement, motivation/hook and overview.

A

True.

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11
Q

T/F. The body is where you deliver your message and quiz your audience.

A

False.

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12
Q

Support material can come from personal knowledge, experiences and

A

Common knowledge.

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13
Q

Unity means all sentences or points discussed support the topic, which, in turn supports the

A

Main point.

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14
Q

T/F. A topic sentence describes and clarifies the other topic sentences.

A

False.

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15
Q

All good conclusions include what three elements?

A

Summary, restatement of purpose and/or re-motivation, and closure

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16
Q

SSgt Granger tells his students, “Whenever you deliver your message, you must ensure your communication is effective. You do this by determining the purpose of communication, preparing the communication, and lastly, deliver the message. SSgt Granger’s comments BEST explain the

a. Communication process
b. phases of effective communication
c. barriers to communication

A

b. phases of effective communication

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17
Q

SMSgt Lannen, squadron superintendent of civil engineering, forwarded the commander’s physical training policy memorandum to all flight chiefs in the shop. In the email he stated, “Brief the new policy to your subordinates as soon as possible. In addition, make sure that the personnel on leave or TDY are briefed as soon as they return. SMSgt Lannen’s action’s BEST illustrate

a. upward communication
b. downward communication
c. lateral communication

A

b. downward communication

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18
Q

MSgt Ottmo noticed that some of his crew members were relying on their memorization of procedures instead of following technical orders. Despite engine runs and planes launching, he holds a meeting on the flight line to address the problem. After the meeting several people expressed frustration because they barely heard anything MSgt Ottmo said. MSgt Ottmo’s (blank) will MOST likely (blank) mission effectiveness.

a. understanding of organizational barriers; enhance
b. misunderstanding of organizational barriers; hinder
c. understanding of psychological barriers; enhance
d. misunderstanding of psychological barriers; hinder

A

b. misunderstanding of organizational barriers; hinder

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19
Q

An effort on the part of the US Government to understand and engage key audiences, in order to create, strengthen, or preserve conditions favorable for the advancement of the US Government interests, objectives and policies.

A

Strategic communication

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20
Q

List the four ways you can play a role in Strategic Communication.

A

Know the Air Force message, tell the Air Force story, tell what I do and how it supports my wing’s mission and policy, stay in my lane.

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21
Q

What is (S)ecurity (A)ccuracy (P)ropriety (P)olicy

A

Security - OPSEC
Accuracy - Telling the story correctly
Propriety - Politeness, respect, decency
Policy - Laws, DOS

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22
Q

What does “Outside of your lane” mean?

A

It is outside of your responsibility. It’s meant to tell others to mind your own business.

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23
Q

Give two examples telling why it is important to tell the Air Force story.

A

You are an ambassador for the AF, to give the American public accurate and relevant information.

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24
Q

List four social media guidelines

A
  • never divulge classified information
  • stay in your lane on your subject area
  • don’t lie, stay factual
  • give your opinion but ensure people know it is yours
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25
Q

Appropriate use of social media would be

a. uploading a video to FB that you made of your Afghan base to share your experience with family and friends.
b. telling about an enemy engagement that just happened on your blog, and then uploading picture to Blue Tube.
c. both a and b.
d. none of the above.

A

d. none of the above

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26
Q

You cannot release (blank) (blank) (information that is not available to the public and would not be released under the Freedom of Information Act) except to authorized individuals with the proper security clearance and a need to know.

A

Classified information

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27
Q

In your own words, how does OPSEC play a vital role in protecting the nation?

A

Because many countries and organizations in the world that would like to harm the US and destroy its influence as a world leader.

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28
Q

After another local village is mistakenly attacked, a reporter approaches SSgt Tubble with questions regarding the faulty targeting systems used on today’s rocket systems. Tubble responds, “Although I may not work directly with munitions, I am confident in our weapons system technologies; further, I support all efforts that provide our enemies a miserable death.” Within days the paper releases comments; Twitter, Facebook, and similar sites explode with hate mail toward the USAF and temporarily interrupt the mission. SSgt Tubble’s comments BEST illustrate ineffective (blank) and its impact on mission effectiveness.

a. media engagement
b. use of social media guidelines
c. strategic communication

A

a. media engagement

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29
Q

While on her favorite blog site, SrA Allen, a former model, uploads a picture taken during a recent interview. In the photograph, she is wearing a tight “I Love NY” t-shirt with her ABU pants. Within days, she receives hundreds of positive responses to her post. SrA Allen’s actions (blank) and will MOST likely have a (blank) impact on public perception.

a. comply with social media guidelines; positive
b. violate social media guidelines; negative
c. comply with interview do’s and don’ts; positive
d. violate interview do’s and don’ts; negative

A

b. violate social media guidelines; negative

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30
Q

Single Idea Bullet

A

A concise written statement of a single idea or concept.

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31
Q

Accomplishment-Impact Bullet

A

A concise written statement of a person’s single accomplishment and it’s impact on the unit’s mission, organization, etc.

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32
Q

T/F. A bullet statement is an accurate, brief, and specific “bottom line” of an idea or of a single accomplishment with its associated impact.

A

True

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33
Q

List the three variations of the accomplishment-impact bullet statement

A

Action Verb, Modified Verb, Specific Achievement

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34
Q

T/F. In the action verb variation of the accomplishment-impact bullet, the accomplishment element begins with a strong action verb and ends with an expressly stated impact element.

A

True

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35
Q
  • Quickly developed procedures to resolve staffing issues resulting in completion of the project on schedule.

This is an example of which variation of the accomplishment-impact bullet statement?

A

Modified verb

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36
Q

Which of the following is NOT a reason the USAF uses the bullet statement style of writing?

a. Bullet statements present a clear picture of an idea or accomplishment and its impact.
b. Bullet statements allow the writer to concisely deal with specific points.
c. Bullet statements take less time to read.
d. Bullet statements present all achievements in one sentence.
e. Bullet statements allow the writer to communicate more information within a smaller space.

A

d. Bullet statements present all achievements in one sentence. Each bullet should contain only one achievement.

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37
Q

What are the rules for accomplishment impact bullet statements?

A

Begin with a single dash, have no periods, never begin with a noun, personal pronoun including person’s name, do not include the subject’s name, start with some form of action.

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38
Q

How do you ensure accuracy of bullet statements?

A

Ensure facts are correct, verify questionable info, ask questions, correct errors

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39
Q

List the three attributes of effective bullet statements

A

Accuracy, brevity, specificity

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40
Q

Put the steps for building bullet statements in the correct order.

a. define the accomplishment and impact
b. connect the accomplishment and impact elements together
c. check for accuracy, brevity and specificity

A

a, b, c

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41
Q

Accurate reporting of performance is critical to ensuring that outstanding performers receive appropriate (blank)

A

Recognition

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42
Q

T/F. An official memorandum is used to write to an individual on a private matter for praise, condolence, sponsorship, etc.

A

False

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43
Q

Which example reflects the proper placement and format of the date element:

a. Flush with right margin; 31 July 2007
b. Place 14 line spaces from top of page; 31 July 2007
c. Flush with right margin 10 line spaces from top of the page; 31 July 2007
d. Place 2 line spaces below MEMORANDUM FOR; 31 July 2007

A

c. flush with the right margin 10 line spaces from top of the page; 31 July 2007

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44
Q

Complete the sentence; Subject element…

a. is mandatory for official memorandums and personalized letters
b. is placed 4 line spaces below the last line of FROM element
c. identifies the issues or topic

A

c. identifies the issues or topic

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45
Q

Identify formatting errors in the following writing sample:
MEMORANDUM FOR 56 MDG/CC
FROM: 56 MDG/ABC
SUBJECT: Letter of Request for Additional Funds
a. First element contains a spacing error
b. Second and third element contains spacing errors
c. Second element contains a font error
d. There are no formatting errors

A

a. needs double space after MEMORANDUM FOR

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46
Q

A1C Ivey asks SSgt Johnson, “What is the best way to write a talking paper?” SSgt Johnson replies, “Make sure you use bullet statements that are concise with one concept that serves a purpose. This will help keep you on track while you’re writing.”
SSgt Johnson’s comments BEST explain the (blank)
a. single idea bullet statement
b. specific achievement bullet statement
c. accomplishment impact bullet statement

A

a. single bullet idea statement

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47
Q

Before submitting an EPR for review, MSgt Wilson makes sure the information he uses is correct and truthful. He is careful not to exaggerate the truth or embellish the facts because he believes that falsifying the truth hurts his subordinates, and damages his credibility as a supervisor.
MSgt Wilson’s actions BEST illustrate (blank) and its impact on his effectiveness.
a. brevity
b. accuracy
c. specificity

A

b. accuracy

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48
Q

SSgt Maramba decided to reward one of his subordinates so he requested a Décor 6. He reviewed past performance reports for information to complete the decoration citation. Once the Décor 6 and the citation were completed, he forwarded them to CSS for review. After making several corrections to the document, the CSS forwarded it to the commander who promptly approved the decoration.
SSgt Maramba’s (black) will MOST likely (blank) his subordinates effectiveness.
a. effective use of types of narrative writing; enhance
b. ineffective use of types of narrative writing; hinder
c. effective use of bullet statements; enhance
d. ineffective use of bullet statements; hinder

A

a. effective use of types of narrative writing; enhance

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49
Q

Define interpersonal communication

A

Face to face, one way, or multi-directional exchange of verbal messages and nonverbal signals between two or more people for the purpose of gaining a shared meaning

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50
Q

List four examples of non-verbal communication

A

Gestures, facial expressions, eye contact, body language

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51
Q

(blank) to (blank) interpersonal communication is often driven by supervisory responsibilities, including setting standards, evaluating performance, and providing effective feedback.

A

Supervisor; subordinate

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52
Q

The specific interpersonal skills you develop will help you maintain a (blank) in all of your supervisor-subordinate interactions.

A

Helping relationship

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53
Q

List the three components of interpersonal communication skills.

A

Pre-session, session, post-session

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54
Q

The three most critical factors to consider in selecting and preparing the setting are (blank), (blank) and (blank)

A

Location, space, time

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55
Q

Identify the two types of feedback
a.
b.

A

Personal situation, professional growth

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56
Q

What are the three approaches to counseling?

A

Directive, non-directive, combined

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57
Q

What is opening?

A

Greet the subordinate properly as he/she enters the room

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58
Q

What is attending?

A

Be an active participant and focus your full attention of the subordinate as he/she speaks

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59
Q

What is responding?

A

How you behave in response to the subordinate’s verbal and nonverbal messages

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60
Q

What is resolving?

A

The ability of a supervisor to prompt their subordinate to generate solutions to their problems and reach goals

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61
Q

What is closing?

A

Effectively summarize the highlights of the session, and restate/reinforce the solutions agreed to by both you and the subordinate

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62
Q

(blank) actions need to focus on finding out if your subordinate is progressing towards resolving his/her problem, and whether or not the problem has resurfaced later on down the road.

A

Follow-up

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63
Q

Define counseling.

A

Focused on improvement, in personal and/or professional areas, by providing guidance and recommendations

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64
Q

Define feedback.

A

An active communication process where you’re evaluating or judging subordinate performance and responding either to promote a change in behavior, or to reinforce present performance.

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65
Q

(blank)(blank) is event related counseling.

A

Personal situation

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66
Q

(blank)(blank) counseling includes planning for individual and professional short- and long-term goals.

A

Professional growth

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67
Q

List examples of personal situation counseling.

A

Financial or marital problems, a death in the family, or family member illness

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68
Q

List examples of professional growth counseling.

A

Planning for upgrade training or continued education, discussing possibilities of applying for special duty assignments, or retraining

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69
Q

After noticing an unusual change in SrA Dent’s behavior, SSgt Wilson decides to meet with him to discuss his observations. Hoping to keep the session centered on Dent and to eliminate distractions, he reserves a small conference room for two hours with permission to use it longer if needed. He then jots down a few questions to help him open the session and establish rapport with Dent.
The scenario BEST illustrates an NCO accomplishing (blank)
a. pre-session activities only
b. pre-session and session activities
c. pre-session, session, and post-session activities

A

a. pre-session activities only

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70
Q

SSgt Bolden plans to hold a meeting with his work section about the low morale that has been bringing down the mission lately. Up until last month, everyone enjoyed coming to work and doing his or her best on the job. Bolden things about it and realizes the changes in everyone’s demeanor must be from the new commander. Bolden realizes he must do something soon before the morale takes a deeper plummet, so he decides to hold the meeting to let his people know he is always concerned about them and their welfare.
SSgt Bolden’s (blank) will MOST likely (blank) his effectiveness.
a. inappropriate use of resolving; decrease
b. appropriate use of resolving; increase
c. appropriate use of diagnosing; increase
d. inappropriate use of diagnosing; decrease

A

c. appropriate use of diagnosing; increase

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71
Q

What are standards?

A

Morals, ethics, or habits established by an authority, custom, or an individual as accepted behavior.

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72
Q

What is NCO Authority?

A

The right to act and command and is complimented by three legal sources found within the UCMJ: Article 91, Article 92, and Article 7.

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73
Q

What is the purpose of discipline?

A

Develop people who are able to control themselves and do what is right all the time, every time.

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74
Q

(blank) are morals, ethics, or habits established by an authority, custom, or an individual as accepted behavior.

A

Standards

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75
Q

Training, correction, or following established standards can be defined as (blank)?

A

Discipline

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76
Q

What are come examples of preventative discipline?

A

Initial feedbacks, safety briefings, rewards, and training/education. Preventive measures are important because they emphasize communication of standards, two-way communication, and encouraging each person to do his/her best.

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77
Q

What is a LOC?

A

The recording of an infraction. It’s a formal way of describing an acceptable behavior so that the receiver cannot fail to understand it.

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78
Q

What is a LOA?

A

More severe than a LOC. It’s used to document clear violations of standard.

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79
Q

What is a LOR?

A

More severe than a LOA. It’s also used to document clear violations of standard and is used for more serious offenses.

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80
Q

What is the Unfavorable Information File (UIF)?

A

Provides commanders with an official repository of substantiated derogatory data concerning an AF member’s personal conduct and duty performance.

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81
Q

What is a control roster?

A

A listing, maintained by Military Personnel Flight Special Actions, of military members whose on or off-duty conduct requires special attention or observation.

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82
Q

What is NCO authority? Where does it come from?

A

NCO authority is defined as “the right to act and command,” and comes from two legal sources: Article 91 of the UCMJ (Insubordinate conduct toward a warrant officer, noncommissioned officer, or petty officer), and Article 92 of the UCMJ (Failure to obey an order or regulation).

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83
Q

What is the purpose of the progressive discipline process?

A

The progressive discipline process is a model for administering discipline appropriate to the infraction, and its purpose is to help supervisors enforce standards consistently and equally, as well as provide a method for achieving maximum results with minimum force necessary.

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84
Q

What are some ways to document counseling sessions?

A

Some ways to document counseling sessions would be through using MFRs to document verbal corrections, counseling, admonishments, and reprimands, Letter of Counseling, Letter of Admonishment, Letter of Reprimand, or AF Form 174 (AF Counseling Form).

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85
Q

What is the supervisor’s role in punishment?

A

The supervisor’s role in punishment is to know your Airman well enough to advise the commander on appropriate punishment based on past performance and future potential and current (and future) family and financial situations. Support the commander’s decision, even if you do not agree with it. Also to monitor and support the airman as he or she goes through the punishment process.

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86
Q

During A1C Hall’s initial feedback, SSgt Irvin says, “When working the customer service desk, answer all phone calls before the third ring, politely identify yourself and this unit, and offer assistance to each caller. Furthermore, because our nation and other countries consider us professionals, we must strive for excellence in everything we do. Finally, if you fail to meet my expectations or to comply with all directives, you can expect a swift response from me.”
SSgt Irvin’s actions BEST illustrate _____________.
a. standards and discipline
b. the Air Force Core Values
c. use of earned authority

A

a. standards and discipline

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87
Q

SSgt Vera is concerned about her subordinate, A1C Jackson. When he first arrived to the unit, he was an eager self-starter and had plenty of questions during his initial feedback to make sure he understood his supervisor’s line of acceptability. However, last week Jackson failed to complete his assignments by the deadline, causing production to fall. Vera waits and hopes he will self-correct. Today, Jackson missed another important deadline. Fed up, Vera issues Jackson a letter of admonishment.
SSgt Vera’s _____________ will MOST likely ______________ her effectiveness.
a. inappropriate use of punishment; decrease
b. appropriate use of punishment; increase
c. inappropriate use of PDP; decrease
d. appropriate use of PDP; increase

A

c. inappropriate use of PDP; decrease

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88
Q

Who is a supervisor?

A

Person of any rank that directs the activities of an individual or team and is usually responsible for the productivity of that team.

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89
Q

Who are reporting officials?

A

The official in your chain of command designated by management to provide performance feedback and initiate performance reports.

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90
Q

Who is a rater?

A

A term that can be used interchangeably with the term reporting official.

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91
Q

What is the difference between a supervisor and a rater/reporting official?

A

A supervisor is that directs the activities of an individual or team. A reporting official/rater is the official in your chain of command that provides performance feedback and initiates performance reports.

92
Q

List the purposes of the EES?

A

Productivity, Promotions, and Force Management

93
Q

List at least three reasons for taking time to become acquainted with subordinates?

A

Match personal interests with job, predict employee responses to planned change, increase flow of employees’ suggestions, basis for influencing group members, and basis for personal counseling

94
Q

Which AFI provides information to process EPRs?

A

AFI 36-2406

95
Q

How might you gather information for a job description?

A

Gather information for a job description from:
• Your knowledge of the job
• Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)
• Specialty Training Standard (STS)
• Job Qualification Standard (JQS) found in most OJT records
• Knowledge from people currently performing the job

96
Q

What are the four attributes of effective performance standards?

A

Attainable/achievable, specific, observable, and measureable

97
Q

What are the three methods of observation?

A

Direct, Indirect, and checking completed products or services

98
Q

What are the three types of improvement plans?

A

Improve the job, subordinate or situation.

99
Q

During a training session, one of the Airmen asks, “Why do we need to know this?” SrA Amide says, “First, accurate record keeping provides a reliable, long-term, cumulative record of performance and potential based on that performance. Second, good record keeping also provides sound information to assist leadership in identifying the best-qualified enlisted personnel for various tasks and assignments. Finally, we can use the information to provide meaningful feedback to subordinates on what’s expected of them and how to meet those expectations.”
SrA Amide’s comments BEST explain ________________.
a. steps for evaluating performance
b. steps for developing improvement plans
c. purposes of the enlisted evaluation system

A

c. purposes of the enlisted evaluation system

100
Q

SSgt Tolley is writing a performance report on SrA Folk, one of his customer service representatives. Tolley received information from Folk’s shift leader, reviewed Folk’s training records, and even spoke to some of his customers. Finally, he looked at Folk’s quality assurance inspection results. Using all this information, he proceeded to compose the performance report.
SSgt Tolley’s actions BEST illustrate ________ and their impact on NCO effectiveness.
a. Direct and Indirect Observation
b. Direct Observation and Checking Completed Products
c. Indirect Observation and Checking Completed Products

A

c. Indirect Observation and Checking Completed Products

101
Q

TSgt Smith is writing performance reports on two Airmen. Although he cannot actually observe the Airmen working because they work on another shift, he reviews their completed work and occasionally asks their shift supervisor for feedback on their performance. In the final report, he leaves out factors that do not contribute to performance, ignores nonessential elements of the job, and is careful not to give undue weight to isolated incidents.
TSgt Smith’s __________ will MOST likely __________ his effectiveness.
a. inappropriate use of evaluation principles; hinder
b. appropriate use of evaluation principles; enhance
c. inappropriate use of performance feedback; hinder
d. appropriate use of performance feedback; enhance

A

b. appropriate use of evaluation principles; enhance

102
Q

During a feedback session with SrA Wiley, MSgt Campbell says, “Your coworkers and I have fielded too many calls from your creditors complaining about missed payments. You and I discussed personal financial responsibility during your initial feedback. Your actions have impacted this work center; therefore, to prevent further disruption, I expect you to take care of this situation. Let’s discuss your options.” After working through an action plan together, Campbell tells Wiley, “I think you have the potential, but this matter needs to be handled.”
MSgt Campbell’s _________ will MOST likely _________ SrA Wiley’s effectiveness.
a. appropriate use of rehabilitative feedback; enhance
b. inappropriate use of rehabilitative feedback; hinder
c. appropriate use of preventative feedback; enhance
d. inappropriate use of preventative feedback; hinder

A

a. appropriate use of rehabilitative feedback; enhance

103
Q

What is the purpose of ratability?

A

Evaluates factors that are unratable.

104
Q

What is the purpose of relevancy?

A

Can be categorized as deficiency, distortion or contamination.

105
Q

What is the purpose of variability?

A

Evaluation does not show appropriate differences in performance.

106
Q

What is a group?

A

Assemblage of persons (or objects) located or gathered together.

107
Q

What is a team?

A

Group organized to work together.

108
Q

True/False: Collective efforts toward a shared goal help distinguish teams from groups.

A

True

109
Q

True/False: Groups are committed to their members’ personal growth.

A

False

110
Q

True/False: Teams outperform groups because of the synergistic effect.

A

True

111
Q

True/False: Groups are described as a collection of people assembled and organized to work together.

A

False

112
Q

What is the definition of mission?

A

Duty assigned to an individual or unit; a task.

113
Q

Mission is defined as the task, together with the ________.

A

Purpose

114
Q

Mission statements describe the ___________ essential task(s), purpose, and action and contain the elements of ______, ______, ______, _______, and ________.

A

Mission statements describe the organization’s essential task(s), purpose, and action and contain the elements of who, what, when, where, and why.

115
Q

What is a vision statement?

A

Statement of what an organization, work center, or team would like to achieve and/or look like in the future.

116
Q

A __________ describes what an organization, work center, or team would like to achieve and/or look like in the future.

A

A vision statement describes what an organization, work center, or team would like to achieve and/or look like in the future.

117
Q

True or False: Mission Statements and Vision Statements perform two distinctly different jobs.

A

True

118
Q

True or False: The statement, “Its prime function is internal – to define the key measure or measures of the organization’s success” BEST describes Vision Statement.

A

False

119
Q

True or False: The mission statement communicates both the purpose and values of the organization.

A

False

120
Q

_____________ describe the particular standards to which actions must be performed to accomplish the mission.

A

Expectations describe the particular standards to which actions must be performed to accomplish the mission.

121
Q

_____________ describe the ways in which actions should (and should not) be accomplished.

A

Guidelines describe the ways in which actions should (and should not) be accomplished.

122
Q

The two roles associated with teams are _________ _________ and ___________ __________.

A

The two roles associated with teams are team leader and team member.

123
Q

What are the three responsibilities of the team leader?

A

Communication skills, human relations skills, and participation skills

124
Q

What are the three responsibilities of the team member?

A

Communication skills, human relations skills, and participation skills

125
Q

What is the definition of team dynamics?

A

An ongoing process involving interaction of individuals within a team to achieve thedesired objective.

126
Q

__________ ___________ is an ongoing process involving interaction of individuals within a team to achieve the desired objective.

A

Team Dynamics is an ongoing process involving interaction of individuals within a team to achieve the desired objective.

127
Q

_______ are usually formed without consideration to each person’s skill set.

A

Groups are usually formed without consideration to each person’s skill set.

128
Q

While reading his newcomer’s orientation package, SSgt Rooney sees the statement, “In order to become the best public affairs office in the military, we need to advance public understanding of the military, share information with the public, and represent the interests of military journalists by instilling tradition, knowledge, and leadership in our journalists.”
This statement BEST illustrates a _____________.
a. team mission statement and team roles and responsibilities
b. team vision statement and team dynamics
c. team mission and vision statement

A

c. team mission and vision statement

129
Q

As his team considers potential solutions for solving a long-term problem SSgt Clive hears SrA Staple say to A1C Lew, “Initially, I acted like your scheduling idea was too simplistic, but the truth is I was jealous because I didn’t think of it. It’s actually a great idea and I think we should try it right away.” Lew responds, “Thanks, I appreciate your honesty and I am glad we’re able work out our differences.” SSgt Clive chimes in with, “I think your cooperation will keep all of us from working 12-hour shifts and by continuing to develop your relationship, you are setting a good example for our new team members.”
If this team remains in the ____stage, then its productivity will MOST likely ________.
a. storming; slowly increase
b. storming; remain low
c. norming; remain high
d. norming; slowly decrease

A

c. norming; remain high

130
Q

Characteristics that we usually cannot voluntarily change are __________.

A

Characteristics that we usually cannot voluntarily change are primary.

131
Q

Characteristics that can be changed are known as _________________.

A

Characteristics that can be changed are known as secondary.

132
Q

The ability to recognize and respond to the needs of various groups within an organization to improve working relationships, productivity, customer satisfaction, and unit and mission effectiveness is _______________.

A

The ability to recognize and respond to the needs of various groups within an organization to improve working relationships, productivity, customer satisfaction, and unit and mission effectiveness is Diversity Awareness.

133
Q

Being __________ __________ requires all Airmen to develop keen awareness and understanding of others’ emotions, feelings, personality, temperaments, strengths, cultural differences, values, and beliefs.

A

Being socially sensitive requires all Airmen to develop keen awareness and understanding of others’ emotions, feelings, personality, temperaments, strengths, cultural differences, values, and beliefs.

134
Q

Identify the five characteristics of a diversity supportive environment where individuals work cohesively in your workplace. List each characteristic and give an example of how each one supports a diverse organization.

A

Act proactively, leadership driven, encourage ownership of initiatives, think inclusively, and mainstream diversity.

135
Q

As a leader, understanding _____________ will help to maximize individual/unit performance and allow your Airmen to reach their highest potential.

A

As a leader, understanding diverstiy will help to maximize individual/unit performance and allow your Airmen to reach their highest potential.

136
Q

SSgt Burnham tells his coworker, “I wish I was still deployed. At least the leadership of that joint unit understood the differences in personalities and the strengths and weaknesses of members from our sister services. No matter how difficult the mission, they were aware of our emotions and feelings and despite the cultural differences, they always found a way to respect individual characteristics and to tap into what each person brought to the mission. Their approach not only ensured mission success, it improved our appreciation for one another and enhanced my understanding of others’ values and beliefs.”
SSgt Burnham’s joint unit BEST illustrates ___________ impact on mission effectiveness.
a. all four elements of the FAIR Way and their
b. Social Sensitivity and its
c. Socio-Behavioral Tendencies and their

A

b. Social Sensitivity and its

137
Q

As the new NCOIC, TSgt Milton reviews customer surveys and immediately calls a work center meeting. “This morning I will share my expectations for this team and discuss how we can assist one another,” says Milton. “I also need to know what you need and expect from me that will help you accomplish your responsibilities more effectively. For example, do you need equipment, additional training, or help with a personal matter?” Cautiously SrA Brady asks, “I get the impression that you think our section is in need of drastic improvement. Is this true?” Milton replies, “Not exactly. I simply believe that there is a lot of untapped potential within this team.”
TSgt Milton’s ________ will MOST likely ________ unit effectiveness.
a. appropriate use of Socio-Behavioral Tendencies; enhance
b. inappropriate use of Socio-Behavioral Tendencies; hinder
c. effective use of the FAIR Way; enhance
d. ineffective use of the FAIR Way; hinder

A

c. effective use of the FAIR Way; enhance

138
Q

What is the definition of a mission?

A

Whatever the unit, or person is responsible to do; the task to get done.

139
Q

What is the definition of Airman?

A

the ones that accomplish the mission. Without Airmen there is no mission.

140
Q

What is feedback?

A

“To offer or suggest information or ideas as a reaction from an inquiry.”

141
Q

What is advice?

A

“An opinion or recommendation offered as a guide to action or conduct.”

142
Q

________ is “the art and science of motivating, influencing, and directing Airmen to understand and accomplish the mission.”

A

Leadership

143
Q

Ensuring organizational (blank) and (blank) is a leader’s primary responsibility.

A

Effectiveness, success

144
Q

________ is the “capacity to follow a leader.”

A

Followership

145
Q

What are the three characteristics of effective feedback?

A

Consistent, objective, and sensitive

146
Q

What are the four followership traits?

A

Competence, integrity, loyalty, and initiative

147
Q

What are the five leadership traits?

A

Selflessness, loyalty, integrity, commitment, and decisiveness

148
Q

What are the three essential leader skills?

A

Diagnose, adapt, and communicate

149
Q

When diagnosing, what areas does a leader look at?

A

Situation, people, and environment

150
Q

Legitimate power

A

Influence based on position; it comes from the leader’s title, rank, or assignment in an organization.

151
Q

Connection power

A

This power source falls under the “who you know” category and can quickly erode and lead to unethical situations if leaders use it as a primary source of influence.

152
Q

Coercive power

A

The leader’s ability to enforce discipline—the perception followers have of your ability to take action by counseling, giving administrative paperwork (LOC, LOR, etc.), recommending punishment, etc.

153
Q

Reward power

A

Your ability to provide rewards—the perception the followers have of your ability to reward their actions by giving or recommending letters of appreciation, 3-day passes, medals, etc.

154
Q

Referent power

A

The personal charisma or likeability characteristics (trust, confidence, etc.) that a person has.

155
Q

Expert power

A

His/Her special knowledge or skills related to the job.

156
Q

Information power

A

His/her perceived access to important data and useful information, like reenlistment information or promotion statistics.

157
Q

What is the definition of Deliberate?

A

to think about or discuss issues and decisions carefully

158
Q

What is the definition of Develop?

A

to create or produce especially by deliberate effort over time; to expand by a process of growth

159
Q

What is the definition of plan?

A

a method of achieving an end; a detailed program

160
Q

What is the definition of deliberate development?

A

“To carefully think about and discuss strengths, areas of improvement, current and future roles, and responsibilities with followers for the purpose of creating a detailed plan (or expanding an existing one) that intentionally and methodically develops personal and professional growth over time.”

161
Q

What factors should you consider when diagnosing the developmental needs of Airmen?

A

Aspirations, personality, self-concept, attitudes, and values

162
Q

Why is it important to monitor the plan?

A

So you can adjust the plan as necessary.

163
Q

During an initial EPR feedback session, MSgt Aldo tells SSgt Alexander, “I expect you to know what your job is, how to do it, and to perform it to the best of your ability. Furthermore, I will accept nothing less than ethical behavior at all times and I expect NCOs to accept full responsibility for their actions. Finally, faithfulness, obedience, respectfulness, and initiative are important to me.”
MSgt Aldo’s comments BEST explain _____________.
a. powers
b. leadership traits
c. followership traits

A

c. followership traits

164
Q

During a mid-term performance feedback session, TSgt Finn reminds SSgt Rafferty, “As I’ve said in the past, faithfulness to peers, subordinates, and to me is important. So is your enthusiasm and motivation for taking the initiative. I appreciate your willingness to make decisions, act on them, and accept responsibility for your decisions. Your actions seem to prompt your subordinates to always support the unit’s mission with passion.”
This scenario BEST illustrates _____________ and their impact on unit effectiveness.
a. leadership traits
b. followership traits
c. leadership powers

A

a. leadership traits

165
Q

SSgt Cordell tells his team, “I know the task before you is going to take a lot of overtime. It will require personal sacrifice on your part; however, I believe you are up to the challenge so expect a one-day pass when it’s all finished.”
SSgt Cordell’s use of ______ power will MOST likely__________ unit effectiveness.
a. personal; hinder
b. personal; enhance
c. position; hinder
d. position; enhance

A

d. position; enhance

166
Q

What is the definition of negotiation?

A

Negotiation is a communication process involving two or more people/groups where:

  1. the parties have a degree of difference in positions, interests, goals, values or beliefs.
  2. the parties strive to reach agreement on issues or course of action.
167
Q

What is the definition of opposite?

A

The person or group with whom you are engaged in negotiations. Sometimes called the negotiation partner, the opposite recognizes the idea that you lack agreement and must negotiate to solve a problem or reach an agreement. As an NCO, your ‘opposite’ might be your subordinate, supervisor/chain of command, peer, etc.

168
Q

What is the definition of position?

A

In negotiations, a position is what you want, not necessarily what you need. It is your vision of your best possible outcome. A negotiating position is not based on haphazard thought. It should be based on carefully developed interests and desired outcomes.

169
Q

What is the definition of interest?

A

An interest is what you need. It is the underlying reason behind your position.

170
Q

What is the definition of aspiration point?

A

The best each party hopes to get out of a negotiated agreement.

171
Q

What is the definition of reservation point?

A

Your ‘bottom line’ in negotiation. It is the point you will absolutely not got over…your limit.

172
Q

What is the definition of zone of possible agreement (ZOPA)?

A

The area between each party’s aspiration point and reservation point. It is also called the ‘bargaining range.’

173
Q

What is the definition of best alternative to a negotiated agreement (BATNA)?

A

An alternative to negotiation that you can execute independent of your ‘opposite’. It is a solution you are prepared to execute even if you don’t get what you want in the negotiation. To formulate a practical BATNA, you must have both the capability (resources) and the will to execute this alternative on your own without any assistance.

174
Q

__________ as it pertains to TIPO, is defined as your belief and/or evidence that the opposite’s interactions with you are genuine, sincere, and honest.

A

Trust

175
Q

The two categories of trust are ________ and _________.

A

Personal; process

176
Q

What are the two types of power?

A

Position and personal

177
Q

________ _________ is typically associated with one’s rank, position, or level of authority; legitimate power affords you the right to accomplish a task, issue an order, or insist an action based on your position or authority.

A

Legitimate power

178
Q

___________ ______________ is derived from confidence and trust others have in the leader and is earned.

A

Personal power

179
Q

What are the two elements of option building?

A

1.) Define the problem. 2.) Identify possible resources (information, power, time, people, money, etc.) that may be available.

180
Q

TSgt West contacts the Vehicle Distribution Flight and says, “I would like to request a large truck to haul away some old office equipment.” The dispatcher on duty, SSgt Freeman replies, “I have one truck available, but you would need to return it by noon today so I can support another high-priority request.” West says, “That won’t work. I’ll need it for at least two days.” After some thought Freeman says, “Could you wait until tomorrow? That way I could use the vehicle to support this other requirement and you can use it for the rest of the week.” West tells Freeman, “I understand the position you’re in and will gladly stop by in the morning to sign out the truck.”
This scenario BEST illustrates the use of the _____________ strategy for negotiating and its impact of NCO effectiveness.
a. settle
b. comply
c. cooperate

A

a. settle

181
Q

After failing their Operational Readiness Inspection (ORI), SSgt Shire must prepare her work center for the re-inspection. After taking into account the experience of the Airmen she has available to help, she calls a team meeting and opens it by saying, “We only have a few weeks left before the re-inspection and a passing score is absolutely necessary. Therefore, I have created a plan to review every item on the ORI checklist. To accomplish this, I have assigned you to teams to work specific sections of the checklist.” Shire closed the meeting, answered a few questions, and reconciled a heated debate among the Airmen. Shortly after, she overhears a few Senior Airmen complaining about their assigned tasks.
SSgt Shire’s ____________, will MOST likely ___________ her effectiveness.
a. consideration of the who, stakes, and situation; enhance
b. disregard for the who, stakes, and situation; hinder
c. use of all her personal and position powers; enhance
d. misuse of all her personal and position powers; hinder

A

a. consideration of the who, stakes, and situation; enhance

182
Q

What are the six types of resources?

A

Assigned personnel, financial, material, warfare, information, and technology.

183
Q

What is the purpose of the Budget Execution Review?

A

Identify funding shortfalls for potential funding at installation level and then levels above the installation level.

184
Q

How would you describe the purpose of the Financial Execution Plan?

A

Balances the available funding while delivering goods and services to customers within the Operations and Maintenance appropriation.

185
Q

What is the Anti-Deficiency Act?

A

A law where congress exercises its constitutional control over the public purse.

186
Q

What are some of the consequences of violating the Anti-Deficiency Act?

A

Administrative and punitive measures to include: suspension from duty without pay or removal from office.

187
Q

What is the definition of the Anti-Deficiency Act?

A

Prohibits from involving the government in a contract or obligation for the payment of money before an appropriation is made unless authorized by law. Prohibits against over obligating or overspending an appropriation.

188
Q

What is the definition of the Continuing Resolution Authority?

A

Fiscal law authority that allows the government to continue operations at a minimum level for a specific amount of time, usually a few days to a few weeks. This is important for NCOs to know because it usually delays the initial distribution of funds. During CRA, units typically receive funding authority for approximately 80% of the previous year’s budget amount. A CRA is needed to prevent agencies from shutting down because without it, agencies have no authority to incur fiscal obligations.

189
Q

What is the definition of Cost Center?

A

The organization that gathers and distributes cost data.

190
Q

What is the definition of Cost Center Manager?

A

Regulates the daily use of work hours, supplies, equipment, and services in producing or doing things. Also, continually monitors the relationship between resources used and products produced to allow for informed resource realignments.

191
Q

What is the definition of Financial Execution Plan?

A

Formally called Financial Plan or Fin Plan, the basic purpose of the FEP submission is to ensure an equitable distribution of the President’s Budget (PB) for the next fiscal year (budget year) consistent with accomplishing Air Force program objectives. The FEP is the main vehicle for distributing anticipated funding (direct & reimbursable) in an equitable manner. All organizational levels contribute their corporate knowledge and expertise.

192
Q

What is the definition of obligation?

A

A legal binding agreement between the government and another party. The Air Force has entered a contractual obligation; however, no goods or services have yet been received.

193
Q

What is the definition of Program Objective Memorandum?

A

Biennial memorandum submitted to the Secretary of Defense from each Military Department and Defense agency. It proposes total program requirements for the next six years. It includes rationale for planned changes from the approved Future Years Defense Program baseline within the Fiscal Guidance issued by the Secretary of Defense.

194
Q

What is the definition of resource advisors?

A

Budget representative for an organization. The resource advisor participates actively in resource management, including the planning, programming, budgeting, acquiring, consuming, storing, and disposing of resources. And, is directly responsible to the RCM.

195
Q

What is the definition of timelines associated with budgeting process?

A

Submission deadlines associated with quarterly and annual budget requirements.

196
Q

What are the four Air Force manpower competencies?

A

Organization structure, Program Allocation and Control, Requirements Determination, and Performance Management.

197
Q

What manpower competency covers the Unit Manpower Document?

A

Program Allocation and Control

198
Q

What is the difference between a funded and unfunded position?

A

Funded requirements are authorized and funded positions needed to accomplish the assigned workload. Unfunded requirements are authorized but unfunded positions needed to accomplish the assigned workload.

199
Q

Due to an upcoming mission change, the chief tells TSgt Abel to reclassify the skill level and security clearance of several positions. After a quick check with the manpower office, Abel submits the proper document to request the chief’s changes. Several months later, new personnel with the right skills begin arriving just in time to help the squadron begin its new mission.
TSgt Abel’s submission BEST illustrate use of the __________ and its impact on mission effectiveness.
a. Unit Personnel Management Roster
b. Authorization Change Request
c. Unit Manpower Document

A

b. Authorization Change Request

200
Q

SSgt Bose, the new NCOIC of Pharmacy Services, grows tired of her Airmen complaining about their section’s outdated equipment. Realizing she has several unknown, unfunded requirements, she submits a request for funds to the unit’s resource advisor (RA) in October. Since Bose’s request is so thorough, the RA makes one minor change, and then submits the request to the wing’s Budget Execution Review committee in January.
The resource advisor’s ____________ will MOST likely ____________mission effectiveness.
a. appropriate use of the financial execution plan; enhance
b. inappropriate use of the financial execution plan; hinder
c. understanding of the budget cycle; enhance
d. misunderstanding of the budget cycle; hinder

A

c. understanding of the budget cycle; enhance

201
Q

What is the definition of continuous improvement?

A

The strategic, never-ending, incremental refinement of the way we perform our duties and responsibilities.

202
Q

What is the definition of Takt time?

A

The available production time divided by customer demand. Takt time precisely matches production with demand.

203
Q

Define Continuous Improvement.

A

Continuous Improvement is the strategic, never-ending, incremental refinement of the way we perform our duties and responsibilities.

204
Q

What is the type of waste - defects?

A

Defects that cause rework or scrap are a tremendous cost to organizations and have a direct impact on the bottom line.

205
Q

What is the types of waste - overproduction?

A

Producing an item before it is actually required.

206
Q

What is the types of waste - waiting?

A

Whenever goods are not moving or being processed, the waste of waiting occurs.

207
Q

What is the types of waste - non-standard over processing?

A

Often termed as “using a bazooka to swat flies,” many organizations use expensive high precision equipment where simpler tools would be sufficient.

208
Q

What is the types of waste - transportation?

A

Moving product(s) between processes is a cost that adds no value to the product.

209
Q

What is the type of waste - intellect?

A

Not recognizing skill sets people bring to the job. Any failure to fully utilize the time and talents of people.

210
Q

What is the types of waste - motion?

A

Unnecessary movement of data, files, tools, or equipment. Excessive motion to get the job done i.e. (bending, walking, lifting, reaching, etc.)

211
Q

What is the types of waste - excess inventory?

A

Having more files than can be processed during a specified period of time

212
Q

________ is a systematic approach to identify waste, focus activities on eliminating it, and maximize (or make available) resources to satisfy other requirements.

A

Lean

213
Q

________ ________ is a strategy that increases efficiency by statistical process control.

A

Six Sigma

214
Q

What are the three levels of AFSO21 priorities?

A

Just Do It, Rapid Improvement Event, High Value Initiative

215
Q

What problem solving model does the Air Force currently use?

A

Eight Step Problem Solving Process

216
Q

The _______ ________initiates the change.

A

Change sponsor

217
Q

__________ are the people responsible for implementing the change.

A

Change agents

218
Q

__________ are the people affected by the change.

A

Change targets

219
Q

In what stage of Jansen’s Model of Change do people accept the change?

A

Renewal

220
Q

What is the definition of innovators?

A

Those who immediately embrace new ideas

221
Q

What is the definition of early adopters?

A

They are very effective in spreading acceptance of new ideas because they garner the respect of their peers who look to them for guidance.

222
Q

What is the definition of early majority?

A

They tend to represent mainstream thinking.

223
Q

What is the definition of late majority?

A

Most people in this category are hampered by feelings of insecurity and skepticism,

224
Q

What is the definition of laggards?

A

They are usually less educated and uninformed

225
Q

TSgt Rivera, the NCOIC of Air Freight Management asks SSgt Graves, “Do you know why it takes so long to get our expedited cargo inspected?” SSgt Graves replies, “Apparently, the inspection team doesn’t like their new government vehicle and would rather walk to each aircraft on the flightline.” Frustrated Rivera says, “That’s ridiculous! So instead of recognizing the need for a vehicle, they would rather walk around the flightline, causing our freight and aircraft to wait.” TSgt Rivera immediately contacts the inspection team and instructs them to use their assigned vehicle.
The inspection team’s actions BEST illustrate _______ impact on mission effectiveness.
a. a category of waste and its
b. the phases of change management and their
c. the PDCA Cycle for problem solving and its

A

a. a category of waste and its

226
Q

MSgt Berry, evaluations section NCOIC, says to SSgt Renzi, “Fix our problems with the overdue EPRs ASAP!” Renzi tells her airman, SrA Embry, “ We’ve been told to fix the EPR process, and here’s how we’re going to do it…call together all the unit EPR monitors, solicit their ideas and opinions, cut the waste, and standardize the process.
MSgt Berry’s ___________ will MOST likely ___________ mission effectiveness.
a. inappropriate use of directive change; hinder
b. appropriate use of directive change; enhance
c. inappropriate use of participative change; hinder
d. appropriate use of participative change; enhance

A

b. appropriate use of directive change; enhance

Airman Leadership School (1 decks)

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