Set 8 Flashcards

1
Q

. Describe the role of histone acetylation/deacetylation in regulation of transcription.

A

The N terminals of histones contain a lysine residue. This is generally deacetylated, and thus carries a positive charge. This allows it to bind tightly to negatively charged DNA and cause it to condense. When acetylated, the positive charge on the lysine is neutralized, so it interacts less strongly with DNA. The DNA is now less condensed and promoter regions are more available.

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2
Q

Describe the role of chromatin remodelling complexes in regulation of transcription.

A

Even when histones are acetylated, nucleosomes are still intact and in the way. Acetylation is necessary but not sufficient. Chromatin remodelling complexes Swi/Snf and RSC will allow nucleosome mobilization by translocating DNA through ATP hydrolysis. This positions enhancers and promoters in the nucleosome free gap.
Ways to remodel nucleosome organization:
- Sliding histone octamers along DNA to change sequence position
- Changing the spacing between the octamers
- Displacing octamers to form a nucleosome-free gap

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3
Q

Describe an influence of activators and repressors on assembly of initiation complexes.

A

TF can either promote or prevent GTF from binding, allowing DNA to switch transcription on/off depending on conditions within the cell.
Activators interact with GTF to promote RNAP binding to DNA.
Repressors can compete for activator binding sites, inhibit activators by interfering with their binding domains, directly repress transcription by preventing RNAP from re-entering, or indirectly repress by preventing histone acetylation.
Role of mediator?

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4
Q

Explain the role of enhanceosomes and architectural proteins in regulation of
transcription initiation?

A

An enhanceosome is the combination of TF present that promote or prevent transcription depending on the conditions of the cell. Architectural proteins will bend, loop, and change the shape of DNA within a control region so that other TF can interact with each other and GTF to promote RNAP binding and stimulate transcription.

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5
Q

Explain the role of mediators and insulators in regulation of transcription initiation.

A

Insulators set up boundaries between DNA domains which prevent activation/repression of genes; also prevent gene silencing.
Mediator controls transcription by mediating signals between DNA-binding TFs and core transcriptional machinery; forms scaffold around which the PIC forms; molecular bridge - enables communication between activators and RNAP II.

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6
Q

What is the role of DNA methylation in regulation of transcription initiation?

A

Methylated DNA = inactive chromatin (heterochromatin) - chromatin is condensed
Methylated DNA has different properties that influence the binding of regulatory proteins. The absence of methylation is necessary but not sufficient for transcription. Methylation is used to turn genes on/off during development. Housekeeping genes that are always expressed are protected from methylation: the mechanism for this is unclear, probably contain specific sequences that prevent the binding of DNA methyl transferase.

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7
Q

Describe how steroid hormones regulate transcription (one example is enough; remember: nuclear receptor could be in cytoplasm or in nucleus, already bound to DNA).

A
Ex: Nuclear steroid receptor family, class I (heat shock proteins found in the cytoplasm). When the hormone binds, steroid receptors dissociate, allowing specific response elements to enter the nucleus and influence target genes.
Essentially, the receptor, when bound to its ligand, will act as a TF. May need to enter nucleus from cytoplasm, then influences gene expression.
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8
Q

. What is (are) the role(s) of transcription factors during development?

A

Distribution by diffusion of TFs during development leads to differential transcription and as a result cell differentiation. TF will regulate changes in chromatin structure and control histone acetylation. They are involved in assembling the initiation complex depending on conditions within a cell. Will also impact development, they may influence the expression of genes that code for more TF.
- Different concentrations of TFs in a developing cell can affect gene expression.

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9
Q

Describe the role of TBP during transcription (think about promoters for all three eukaryotic RNAPs and TATA-less RNAPII promoters – how do RNAPs bind to them; also, think about coordination of activities of all three polymerases).

A

TBP acts as a positioning factor for all RNAP, allowing each type to bind to its promoter: it is a commitment factor.
In RNAPI it interacts with SL1 to position it.
In RNAPII it is part of TFIID
In RNAPIII it is found in TFIIIB.
TBP also coordinates the activity of all three RNAP types by binding to other polymerase specific factors. This allows it to direct the transcription of the type of RNAP that is needed.

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10
Q

What is the role of Sp1 protein? What is the role of SL1 protein? What do they have in common?

A
  • Both increase the rate of transcription and bind directly to DNA
  • both associate with TBP
  • Sp1: transcription factor that binds directly to DNA via a C2H2 zinc finger, enhancing transcription
    Sp1 protein has a role in TATA-less promoters involving GC boxes; it binds GC boxes and interacts with TAFs which anchor TBP and allow TFIID binding to the promoter.
  • SL1: core-binding factor assembled by UBF- TBP + 4 TBP-associated factors specifically for RNAPI
    o (sigma) responsible for ensuring RNAP is properly positioned at start point
    o required for high-frequency initiation
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11
Q

What is unusual about type 1 and 2 promoters for RNAPIII polymerase??

A

Promoters are downstream and recruit TFIIIB at start and then fall off once it has bound.
-Even though both are internal, the efficiency of transcription is altered by changes in region upstream from the startpoint.
Type 1: found in genes for 5S rRNA; TFIIIA binds to box A and TFIIIC binds to boxC, enabling TFIIIB to bind upstream from start point, recruiting RNAPIII
Type 2: found in genes for tRNA; TFIIIC binds to both box A and box B downstream of start point; enables TFIIIB to bind near start point, recruiting RNAPIII (TFIIIC have to come off then)

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12
Q

Describe the mechanism of attenuation of the Trp operon. Explain the importance of this mechanism for a bacterium?

A

Attenuation depends on self binding of mRNA from the trp operon, as it is transcribed region 1 can bind with region 2 because there is lots of trp, and then the following sequence codes for a stop and only a short aa will be transcribed,

but if there is low trp in cell, the ribosome will pause waiting for that trp, and in that time sequence 2 will base pair with sequence 3, because sequence 1 is hidden within the ribosome. Then the operon is fully transcribed then translated as the two are coupled in prokaryotes. This gives basically instant response to environmental changes

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13
Q

Could you imagine a mechanism similar to the mechanism of attenuation of the Trp operon in Eukaryotes? Explain your reasoning.

A

Transcribing of rRNA in the nucleolus because there is translational activity happening there possibly coupled with transcription also if an RNA is palindromic and transcribed in the nucleus it could bind with itself if there were too many copies and the transport out of the nucleus could be paused preventing too many of something that is not needed as much to be utilized.
riboswitch.
This method of attenuation requires that transcription and translation are coupled, so it could not happen in eukaryotes. Maybe through another method.

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14
Q

Describe two distinctly different ways in which the trp operon is controlled by the overall availability of tryptophan.

A

See question 12 (if there is low tryptophan in the cell, the ribosome will pause waiting for that trp) + negative transcription regulation

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15
Q

Describe the mechanism responsible for shutdown of the trp operon when a plentiful supply of free tryptophan is available.

A

Region 1&2 of mRNA may form loop transiently - RNAP continues transcribing region 3 and 4. Ribosomes readily synthesizes Trp-enriched leader peptide coded by region 1 as plenty of Trp-charged tRNAs are available for ribosomes to rapidly incorporate Trp.
This results to termination of transcription by RNAP before reaching trp structural genes

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16
Q

Describe the mechanism by which the leader-attenuator region fine tunes the extent of transcription of the structural genes in the trp operon when Trp is available (but not to the point to activate the repressor).

A

The leader sequence contains complementary regions that are capable of forming stem loops. Depending on which regions of the leader sequence base pair, the stem loop may or may not be followed by a U sequence for termination. How these regions base pair depends on the amount of Trp charged tRNA.
The balance between leader & total mRNA synthesis is in accordance with the need for trp.

17
Q

Describe rho-dependant transcription termination

A

Rho is a helicase with a RNA binding domain on its N terminus. Rho binds to Rut sequence (Rho utilization) on mRNA, tracks along it until it reaches RNAP which is paused at the termination sequence. Rho unwinds the DNA RNA hybrid in this region, freeing the mRNA and allowing RNAP to be released.

18
Q

Describe rho-independent transcription termination

A

Termination sequence is GC rich and self-complementary, after it is transcribed, this region will form a stem loop that interacts with RNAP and forces it to pause. After the stem loop is a U rich region, loosely base paired with complementary A on DNA. When RNAP is paused, the bonds between U on mRNA and A on DNA melt, releasing the mRNA and allowing RNAP to dissociate.

19
Q

Describe the process of mRNA cleavage and polyadenylation. (Don’t forget the role of CTD tail)

A

mRNA 3’UTR contains a signal for polyadenylation: AAUAAA. This is followed by a CA cleavage site, and then by a GU rich region. The CTD tail recruits the enzymes involved in this process. CPSF binds AAUAAA sequence. CStF binds to the GU region and bends mRNA, making the CA cleavage site readily available for cleavage by CF I and II. After mRNA is cut, polyA polymerase (PAP) binds and adds the poly A tail.
PABII also needed for rapid phase of poly-A addition.

20
Q

How is 5’ cap added to the nascent RNA?

A

There are three different methyl caps that can be added. The most common is the 7-met-guanosine, which always occurs. The phosphorylated CTD tail recruits capping enzymes. RNA 5’-triphosphatase removes the 5’ phosphate group. Guanylyltransferase then attaches a GMP, which is modified by 7-methyltransferase. Methylation can also occur on the ribose of Cap1,2, or on the N6 of adenine present in Cap 1,2.

21
Q

What is the relationship between hnRNA and mRNA?

A

hnRNA contains all the products made by RNAPII, including future mRNA transcripts and snRNA. This is all referred to as heterogeneous nuclear RNA or hnRNA.

22
Q

What are the general steps in processing of a pre-mRNA into a mRNA?

A

5’ capping, splicing of introns, joining of exons, addition of the polyA tail

23
Q

What is the role of snRNA in the spliceosome?

A

5’ snRNA is rich in U, five types, U1,2,4,5,6 make up the spliceosome. These interact with proteins, premRNA, and each other to trigger transesterification reactions

24
Q

What is the role of Sm proteins in the spliceosome? What other proteins (apart from Sm) are found to be associated with splicing?

A

Sm proteins associate with snRNA and other splicing factors to make snRNP. Sm proteins bind to smRNA motifs on snRNA. Other protein complexes involved in splicing associate with the CTD tail.

25
Q

What is the difference between splicing of group I and group II introns? Between splicing of group II introns and spliceosomal splicing?

A

Group 1 introns are found in nuclear rRNA genes, some organelle genes, and a few prokaryotic genes. These use branch point G to form a lariat?, and cleavage is catalyzed by an intron encoded ribozyme.

Group 2 introns are found in organelle genes and a few prokaryotic genes. These use branch point A to form a lariat, and are also catalyzed by an intron encoded ribozyme.

Finally, nuclear pre mRNA, which is more common, also uses branch point A, but is catalyzed by a spliceosome.

26
Q

Describe the current model of spliceosomal splicing.

A

● U1 attaches to 5’ intron splice site
● U2 attaches to branch point A using ATP (now an A complex)
● U4/U6 and U5 bind to the 3’ intron splice site
● Binding changes U4/U6 conformation: now the spliceosome B1 complex
● U6 dissociates, displaces U1 at 5’ intron site
● U1 and U4 released, uses ATP
● Spliceosome is now activated, contains U2, U5, U6, B2 complex
● U5 positions and holds
● U2/U6 complex has catalytic activity (ribozyme), it catalyzes splicing at both sites using ATP
● Lariat gets degraded, snRNPs released and recycled.

27
Q

List the roles of 5’ methyl cap. List the roles of polyA tail. List the roles of CTD tail (yes, again).

A

5’ methyl cap protects the 5’ end from degradation in the cytoplasm, polyA tail does the same for the 3’ end. The CTD tail recruits the enzymes that are needed for the formation of both the cap and the poly A tail.

28
Q

What are the two types of transcriptional units in Eukaryotes? Use diagrams.

A

Simple transcriptional units use constitutive splicing.
Complex transcriptional units use constitutive alternative splicing.
Draw your own diagrams here: mRNA being cut differently, forming different protein products.

29
Q

List three means of control of gene expression that could happen during pre-mRNA processing.

A

Alternative Poly-adenylation: Different 3’ UTR regulatory region made
Trans splicing: spliceosome combines exon of one mRNA with exon of another
Alternative splicing: different C terminals produced with different regulatory properties.

30
Q

Describe one case of control of gene expression at the level of mRNA processing by means of splicing.

A

Alternative splicing/trans splicing

Ex. of constitutive alternative splicing: fibronectin gene is spliced by tissue specific TF, and produces different isoforms of protein depending on whether it is expressed in fibroblasts or hepatocytes.