set 5-11-1-6 Flashcards

1
Q

A solicitor is acting on the purchase of a new build property for a client. The solicitor sees that the client has left a message because they are concerned about the upkeep of the road fronting the property.

How will the solicitor find out the information which the client is seeking?

A

(A) A local search gathers information from the local authority. The first part of a local search reveals whether there are registrations by the local authority in the land charges register. The second part is a standard set of enquiries of the local authority which include enquiries about roads fronting the property, public rights of way, and planning entries and building regulations relevant to the property. A local search may also include optional enquiries. (B) is incorrect because the index map search shows whether property is registered. (C) is incorrect because an environmental search is an electronic database search that a solicitor may perform from their office to determine whether the property is likely to have been contaminated by hazardous wastes in the past (because if it was, the buyer could be liable for clean-up costs in the future). (D) is incorrect because a commons registration search is an optional search which is performed when the property appears to abut common land or a town or village green to determine whether use of the property is restricted or burdened by its proximity to public land. (E) is incorrect because the land charges search shows third party rights in unregistered land

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1
Q

A paralegal has just joined a conveyancing department. Their principal has given them a large bundle of unregistered title deeds and has asked them to prepare an epitome of title. The paralegal is not sure what an epitome of title is.

Which of the following statements best describes an epitome of title?

ResponsesPress Enter or Space to submit the answer

A

(E) The epitome comprises a chronological list of the documents of title together with a photocopy of those documents attached. (A) is incorrect because the epitome will not include original documents, but rather only photocopies of the originals. The original title deeds will not be sent to the buyer’s solicitor until completion. (B) is incorrect as it describes two elements of a good root of title – the epitome should show this, but these elements do not explain what an epitome is. (C) is incorrect because the epitome will not contain all of the pre-root documents; it will only list and include copies of documents going back to the root. (D) is incorrect as the Property Register is used with respect to registered land; an epitome is used to deduce title with respect to unregistered land. There is no Property Register for unregistered land.

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2
Q

A man is purchasing a commercial property. His solicitor is negotiating the lease terms with the landlord’s solicitor. The man is concerned to find out whether the commercial unit which he is acquiring is connected to the public water supply.

How will the man’s solicitor find out the information which is of interest to their client?

A

(C) The drainage and water search is an enquiry sent to the local water company to determine whether the property is connected to a public foul drainage system and the public water supply. Such a search is carried out on every purchase, whether the property is commercial or residential. (A) is incorrect because there is no such thing as a ‘water search’; the relevant search is known as a ‘drainage and water search’. (B) is incorrect because the drainage and water search is not part of the local search. There are two parts to local search: a search of local registrations that might burden the land and enquiries to the local authority regarding information with respect to issues including roads, public rights of way, and planning. The local search may also include additional, optional enquiries. (D) is incorrect because a commons registration search is an optional search which is performed when the property appears to abut common land or a town or village green to determine whether use of the property is restricted or burdened by its proximity to public land. (E) is incorrect because an environmental search is an electronic database search that a solicitor may perform from their office to determine whether the property is likely to have been contaminated by hazardous wastes in the past (because if it was, the buyer could be liable for clean-up costs in the future)

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3
Q

A solicitor is acting for the buyer of a factory unit. The replies to enquiries provided by the seller confirm that the seller built a small additional room on the rear of the factory unit three years ago. The seller could not produce evidence that planning permission was obtained, and neither could they provide a building regulations completion certificate.

There is some evidence that some of the work was not in compliance with building regulations. However, the solicitor is satisfied that the addition to the building fell within the permitted development rules and so the local authority would have no ground to bring an enforcement action with respect to the additional room.

Is the solicitor correct?

A

(C) The solicitor is incorrect because even if planning permission is not required for building work, a building regulations completion certificate must be obtained from the local authority to confirm that the work has been carried out satisfactorily. Although the local authority has only 12 months in which to bring an enforcement action based on the failure to obtain a certificate, it may seek an injunction to force an owner to bring the property up to standards (if the work was not up to standards) at any time if the work is deemed to be dangerous. (A), (D), and (E) are incorrect because they each state the wrong time period for an enforcement action (it is 12 months and not two years). (A) is also incorrect in that it fails to take into account that an injunction could be issued to enforce compliance. (B) also is incorrect for that reason as well. And (E) has the additional problem that an injunction may be sought at any time

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4
Q

A solicitor is acting for a first-time buyer regarding the purchase of a flat. The solicitor has received the mortgage offer which contains the following condition:

‘Solicitor must ensure that the borrower is advised to pay off existing credit card borrowing of £2,300 prior to drawdown of the loan.’

The solicitor has reported fully to the client on the terms of the offer. The client agreed to the terms, and the solicitor has exchanged contracts with the seller’s solicitor. As the completion date is near, the solicitor reviews the file and discovers that there is no record confirming that the client has repaid their credit card debt. Nonetheless, the solicitor prepares a certificate of title and submits it to the lender.

Has the solicitor breached any duties with respect to the buyer’s credit card borrowing?

A

B) The solicitor has not breached any duties because, under the circumstances, the solicitor did not have a duty to ensure that the credit card is paid off before completion. A solicitor has a duty to fulfil any undertaking the solicitor makes and to follow the lender’s instructions. Here, the lender instructed that the solicitor must ensure that the borrower is advised to pay off their existing credit card debt prior to drawdown of the loan. The condition only requires the solicitor to ensure that the borrower has been advised about the issue, and the facts make it clear that the solicitor has fully reported the conditions to the client. Therefore, (C) is incorrect. (A) is incorrect because there is no such ‘best practice’ requirement. (D) and (E) are incorrect because the Handbook does not address the borrower’s credit card debt.

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5
Q

A new solicitor in a conveyancing department has received a large bundle of title deeds from their client. The solicitor has been asked to prepare an epitome of title but is struggling to know where to start.

Which document would be the most appropriate to choose as the root of title?

A

(B) The most appropriate document to choose as a root of title among the choices is the conveyance on sale dated 16 years ago. To be a good root, the document must deal with the whole legal and equitable interest in the property, contain an adequate description of the property, be at least 15 years old at the date of the contract, and do nothing to cast doubt on the title. A conveyance on sale is the most common root of title and also the most appropriate. This is because the title will have been investigated at the time of that transaction whereas the title may not have been investigated thoroughly, if at all, where there is a deed of gift (A) or an assent (C). (C) is also incorrect as it is only 12 years old rather than the necessary 15 years. (D) and (E) are incorrect as there is no transfer of ownership in relation to a deed of easement or tenancy agreement; these merely create interests in land

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6
Q

A new solicitor has started to work on a conveyancing file for a buyer client who is purchasing a building from an individual proprietor. The buyer intends to use the building as a shop for their business, which is incorporated. The buyer has sufficient funds from their business to pay cash for the building.

Contracts have not yet been exchanged by the parties. The solicitor has checked the epitome of title and has obtained a local search, a drainage and water search, and an environmental search with respect to the property.

Should the solicitor have carried out any other search based on the facts given?

ResponsesPress Enter or Space to submit the answer

A

(D) Under the facts given the solicitor should have carried out an index map search. Look out for the clue in the question. You are told that the solicitor has checked the epitome of title, so the title in question is unregistered. When title is unregistered, in addition to carrying out the local search, drainage and water search, and environmental search that should be done pre-contract in every purchase, the solicitor should also carry out an index map search to reveal whether the title to the property is already fully or partially registered. This will be done whether the use of the property is residential or commercial. Thus, (C) is incorrect. (A) is incorrect because the facts indicate the buyer is a cash buyer and is a limited company. Typically, a bankruptcy search is done only if the buyer is an individual and needs to obtain a mortgage (to ensure a lender will be willing to lend to the buyer). (B) is incorrect because a coal mining search is conducted only with respect to property in an area that is (or was) being mined. Nothing in the facts indicates that the property in question is in such an area. (E) is incorrect because a company search is conducted only if the seller is a company. Here we are told that the buyer’s business is incorporated, but the seller is an individual proprietor. Therefore, a company search was not needed

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7
Q

A woman is interested in buying a property that is ready to move into. She does not want to carry out any work to the property. She views a property with her father. She particularly likes the property because the seller has recently built a small porch at the rear which will be useful for putting shoes and coats in. The seller has produced a letter from the planning department confirming that planning permission was not required. She wants to put in an offer on the property, but her father has raised some doubts because he said that the porch would need planning permission.

What advice is the woman’s solicitor likely to give her in this regard?

A

(E) The solicitor will explain that the porch was built under the permitted development rules, which is why planning permission was not required. Under the Town and Country Planning (General Permitted Development) Order 1995, certain types of development may be undertaken without express consent. These include small home extensions, porches, fences, and conservatories. Thus, the remaining answers are incorrect.

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8
Q

A client is buying a property which is 30 years old and has commissioned a survey which includes the following:

‘Recent internal works have been carried out to the property. A large access between the lounge and dining room has been created to provide an open plan area. From my inspection, the internal works were minor in nature and did not involve the removal of a load bearing wall.’

The client is worried about the work because the seller did not obtain permission from the local authority to undertake the work. The client spoke to his surveyor who confirmed that they have no concerns as the works are only minor internal works. However, the client is still concerned and discusses the matter with his solicitor.

What advice is the solicitor likely to give regarding this issue?

A

(A) The solicitor should advise the client that the work is not considered to be development and thus planning permission was not required. Under the Town and Country Planning Act 1990, planning permission is required for any development of land. Development includes building and making a material change of use. However, minor internal work is not considered to be development and so planning permission is not required. The survey confirms that the work was minor in nature. Therefore, (B) is incorrect. (C) is incorrect. Any alterations to a listed building (that is, one listed as historical or otherwise significant) usually need planning permission, but there is no suggestion in the facts that the property here is a listed building. Additionally, the facts indicate the property is a house that is only 30 years old. It is highly unlikely to be on the list. (D) is incorrect because if work is not considered to be development in the first place, then deemed permission under the permitted development regime is irrelevant (because no permission is required). (E) is incorrect because merely creating two rooms from one internally would not constitute a material change of use. Change of use contemplates changes such as conversion of one house to two flats or a house to a shop and a flat.

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9
Q

A private limited company was incorporated on 1st January two years ago with the Companies (Model Articles) Regulations 2008 (‘the Model Articles’) as its articles of association. The company’s accounting reference date is changed to 30 September. The company is classed as a small company.

What is the latest date it can file its annual accounts?

A

(C) A private company should file its accounts no later than nine months after the relevant accounting reference period. (A) and (B) are incorrect as the date of filing is not linked to the date of incorporation, but to the accounting reference period. 30 June is nine months after 30 September. It follows that none of the other choices is correct. QUESTION ID

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10
Q

A couple are buying a large, old property and have had a survey carried out which has stated as follows:

‘A listed building which was extended 11 years ago by the current owner to include a single-storey lounge extension at the rear.’

The solicitor’s search has revealed no planning permissions or listed building consent relating to the property.

What advice should the solicitor acting for the couple give in relation to this issue?

A

E) The solicitor should advise that because the property is a listed building, the extension required both planning permission and listed building consent, and the local authority may bring an enforcement action at any time. Listed buildings are buildings on a statutory list because of their special architectural or historical qualities. Most work to a listed building requires both planning permission and listed building consent. Building work would certainly require such consents and there is no time limit for enforcement. Thus, (B) is incorrect. (A) is incorrect, as the permitted development rules do not apply to listed buildings. (C) is incorrect, as the extension requires both planning permission and listed building consent. (D) is incorrect because it incorrectly provides that the enforcement period is 10 years.

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11
Q

A solicitor is acting for a first-time buyer whose parents are gifting him the 10% deposit. The buyer has mentioned that his parents have concerns about the deposit arrangement and would like to speak to a solicitor. The son has asked his solicitor to represent his parents as well for convenience.

How should the solicitor respond to this request?

A

(B) The solicitor should decline to act for the parents due to the risk of a conflict of interest. A solicitor must avoid a conflict of interest or ‘significant risk’ of a conflict of interest between two or more clients on a transaction. A conflict of interest can arise if someone is gifting a deposit to the buyer of a property and a solicitor should, therefore, avoid acting for both parties. Here, the parents have expressed concerns about the deposit arrangement, which indicates a significant risk that a potential conflict could arise. Thus, the solicitor should decline to act for the parents. (A) is incorrect because, as explained above, the parents’ and the son’s interests could come into conflict in this transaction and the solicitor should therefore decline to act for the parents. (C) is incorrect because there is no indication of a lending relationship here; the parents are gifting the deposit. Further, whether or not the parents are considered a ‘lender’ does not remove the risk of a potential conflict arising, which the solicitor must avoid. (D) is incorrect because the solicitor does not need to cease representation of the son. The solicitor needs only to avoid the significant risk of a conflict arising by declining to represent the parents in addition to the son. (E) is incorrect because, as explained above, the solicitor must avoid a conflict of interest and must decline to represent the parents despite the son’s request.

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12
Q
A
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13
Q

A woman has exchanged contracts regarding the sale of her property. The contract included a fittings and contents form upon which the woman indicated that she was removing the ornamental shrubs and two small trees from the garden at the property. On the day of completion, the buyer attends the property and tells the woman that she is not entitled to remove the shrubs and trees from the property.

Is the buyer correct?

A

(B) Although the trees and shrubs do form part of the land, the woman has indicated on the fittings and contents form that they will be removed, and as this forms part of the contract, she is entitled to take the specified items. (A) is incorrect because the fittings and contents form supersedes the basic legal position. (C) is incorrect because the trees and shrubs are not personal property, they form part of the land. (D) is incorrect because the fittings and contents form permits the woman to remove the trees and shrubs. (E) is incorrect. The degree of annexation is one of the tests to be applied if it is not possible to distinguish between a fixture and a fitting whereas trees and shrubs are, by definition, part of the land.

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14
Q

A company supplies eco-friendly nail products to customers so they can achieve salon-style nails at home. Eighteen months ago, the company borrowed money from a director to buy an electric delivery van. The business has struggled financially over the last few months, and the board decide to repay the loan to the director whilst they have the cash to do so. The company has also paid a creditor who issued a statutory demand against the company and threatened to put the company into liquidation if the debt was not paid.

Could either of these two transactions amount to a preference if the company goes into liquidation or administration within six months of the payments?

A

(E) A preference arises where one person is preferred by a company, that is, where one person has been paid ahead of other creditors or put in a better position on insolvent liquidation or administration. However, for a payment to constitute a preference, the company must have desired to prefer the creditor. Here, the facts made it clear the company had a desire to favour the director, but the company was more or less forced to pay the outside creditor, because they had issued a statutory demand. (A) is incorrect. While it is true that both transactions came within the relevant time period (two years for connected persons, six months for others) as explained above, the payment to the outside creditor was not a preference because the company did not have an intention to prefer the outside creditor. (B) is incorrect. Again, the time period is not a problem, but as explained above, the payment to the director likely is a preference because it was made with a desire to prefer the director. (C) is incorrect as a company can enter into a preference with an unconnected third party if they make a payment to the third party with a desire to prefer them and that puts the third party in a better position than they otherwise would have been in liquidation. (D) is incorrect because both payments were made within the relevant time period. QUESTION ID: BSL114

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15
Q

A husband is the sole registered proprietor of a matrimonial home he lives in with his wife. The wife contributed a portion of the home’s purchase price. The husband now wishes to take out a mortgage over the property for the purposes of his business. A bank agrees to provide him the mortgage.

Which of the following is a requirement that must be satisfied prior to the bank’s completion of the mortgage?

A

A) One requirement that must be satisfied prior to the bank’s completion of the mortgage is that the wife must be given full financial information. If a mortgagee is lending money for a purpose other than the acquisition of the property (for example, to finance one spouse’s business), the other spouse is effectively acting as guarantor of the spouse’s debts. As such, there may be a risk of undue influence and that spouse must be separately represented by another solicitor and given full financial information. These requirements are designed to protect the spouse who is not a registered proprietor of the marital home. Here, since the bank is lending money to finance the husband’s business, the wife must be given full financial information prior to completion of the mortgage. (B) is incorrect because, as explained above, one requirement is that the husband and wife must be represented by separate solicitors. (C) is incorrect because the wife need not be a registered proprietor of the home for the husband to take out a mortgage. The creditor must satisfy itself, though, that she understands the implications of the transaction in a meaningful way. (D) and (E) are incorrect because no such requirements apply in this situation

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16
Q

A father is the sole registered proprietor of a property. His daughter contributed the full purchase price of £200,000 when the property was purchased and the father contributed nothing. The father and daughter entered into a declaration of trust to reflect this arrangement. The property is now being sold for £250,000.

How will the sale proceeds be distributed?

A

(E) In distribution of the sale proceeds, £250,000 will pass to the daughter. A declaration of trust sets out the agreement between co-owners as to how their beneficial interest is held, which dictates how sale proceeds will be split upon an eventual sale of the property. Here, the daughter contributed 100% of the purchase price and the father contributed 0%. Thus, the daughter is entitled to the full sale proceeds upon sale, which means £250,000 will pass to her. (A) through (D) are incorrect because, as explained above, the daughter is entitled to the full amount of sale proceeds. Though he is the registered proprietor, the father is not entitled to any portion of the proceeds. He is holding the property on behalf of his daughter as a bare trustee. The declaration of trust is conclusive as to the agreement between the co-owners as to the beneficial interest.QUESTION ID: LAN131

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17
Q

The owner of a property with registered title has taken a shortcut to the public highway by walking through their neighbour’s wood land for the last five years. When challenged by the neighbour, the owner went to see their solicitor, because they were convinced that their property enjoyed a right-of-way over the woodland.

How would a right of way be evidenced on the owner’s title?

A

D) A right which benefits a property appears on the property register of the title taking the benefit. Thus, all of the other answers are incorrect.QUESTION ID: LAN121

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18
Q

A solicitor acting for a buyer of a property has investigated the unregistered title produced by the seller’s solicitor as part of the contract package. The solicitor has noted that the root of title shows Peter Green and Brenda French as the buyers. The sellers in the draft contract are shown as Peter Green and Brenda Green. The buyer’s solicitor raises a pre-contract enquiry asking the seller’s solicitor to remedy the break in the chain of ownership. Peter and Brenda married after they purchase the property.

What is the most likely solution to resolve this issue?

A

(D) The easiest way to resolve the issue is by obtaining and producing a copy of the marriage certificate for Peter and Brenda, as that would be sufficient explanation for the change of name from Brenda French to Brenda Green. (A) and (B) could be possible solutions in other circumstances (Peter might have transferred the property into the joint names of himself and Brenda; Brenda might have changed her name) but here, you are told that the parties got married, so the most likely solution for this issue is to produce a copy of the marriage certificate. (C) is incorrect as a passport is not a document of title. (E) is incorrect because a statutory declaration would not deal with a change of name.QUESTION ID: PRP076

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19
Q

A sole trader, Jojo Josephson, operates his business under the name Jojo’s Advertising. His letterhead is as follows:

Jojo’s Advertising

113 Good Business Lane, OXFORD

OX99 9999

Is this an acceptable letterhead for a sole proprietorship?

A

D) U.K. business entities must give certain trading disclosures on their letterhead. In the case of a sole trader, all that is required is that the individual disclose their business name, their real (full) name if it is different to the business name, and their business address. Here, the letterhead is not acceptable because the full name of the owner isn’t included. (A) and (B) are incorrect for the same reason (lack of the owner’s full name). (B) also is incorrect, both because it fails to mention the business name and because it suggests that a registered number is included in the letterhead (one is not included as a matter of fact and one is not required, as sole proprietorships don’t require registration numbers). (C) is incorrect because the letterhead of a sole trader does not need to include the part of the U.K. in which the business is operating. (E) is incorrect because the letterhead of a sole trader does not need to include the name of the business’s registered agent-that is a requirement for a company’s letterhead.

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20
Q

A shop owner held a lease of a shop situated on a pier at the seaside. During a bad storm, the pier collapsed into the sea. The pier owner has made it clear that they are not going to rebuild the pier. The shop owner’s lease still has two years left to run and the shop owner’s landlord is trying to recover rent from the shop owner. The shop owner goes to see his solicitor for advice as the lease makes no provision for these circumstances.

Which of the following best describes the advice that the solicitor will give to the shop owner?

A

C) The shop owner will not be liable to pay the rent because the lease has come to an end by frustration. The doctrine of frustration brings to an end a party’s obligations under a contract if an event occurs due to the fault of neither party rendering the contract impossible to perform. Normally a lease will make provision for the party’s rights and obligations if the premises can no longer be occupied, but this was not included in the shop owner’s lease. Though frustration rarely applies to leases in practice, here, the pier’s collapse has rendered the shop owner’s lease impossible to perform. Thus, the shop owner is no longer liable for the rent. (A) is incorrect because, as explained above, frustration will bring the lease to an end, so the shop owner’s liability to pay rent has come to an end. (B) is incorrect because, as explained above, the shop owner will not be liable for rent. Neither of the parties to the lease – the shop owner nor the landlord – is responsible for the event that has made the contract impossible to perform. The shop owner is not responsible for ensuring the pier is rebuilt. (D) is incorrect because quiet enjoyment is not relevant here. Quiet enjoyment is an obligation imposed on the landlord such that the landlord must not interfere physically or in any other way with the tenant’s enjoyment of the property. (E) is incorrect because forfeiture is not relevant here. Forfeiture is the method by which the landlord brings a lease to an end due to breach of covenant. Neither the shop owner nor the landlord has breached a covenant here. As explained above, frustration has made the lease impossible to perform.

21
Q

Question
In 1975, a landowner sold Blackacre to a buyer by way of conveyance. This transaction did not trigger first registration of the title. In that conveyance, the landowner imposed a covenant on Blackacre not to build more than one dwelling on the land. The buyer has now sold Blackacre to a developer who wants to build three houses on Blackacre. The developer’s solicitor carried out a full land charges search and it revealed a D(ii) restrictive covenant charge registered against the name of the 1975 buyer.

Is the developer bound by the landowner’s covenant?

A

(A) The developer will be bound by the landowner’s covenant because registration of the covenant as a D(ii) restrictive covenant land charge constitutes notice of it. To be enforceable against a subsequent buyer of land, equitable rights and interests, such as a restrictive covenant, must be protected by registration as land charges. Registration as a land charge constitutes actual notice to all persons of the interest or right registered, making the interest binding on all subsequent owners of the land. (B) is incorrect because a C(i) land charge protects a puisne mortgage, which is not relevant here. (C) and (D) are incorrect because it is registration as a land charge that constitutes actual notice, not the appearance of the covenant on the charges register after first registration of title or the fact that the developer’s solicitor has seen the document containing the covenant. (E) is incorrect because it is irrelevant that title to Blackacre is unregistered; interests related to the property may still be binding on a subsequent buyer.

22
Q

A company which manufactured car parts went into creditors’ voluntary liquidation last year. The liquidator is now finalising the amount available for unsecured creditors. The liquidator has realised £500,000 and has incurred costs of £75,000. The preferential creditors are owed £66,000 and the unsecured creditors are owed £1,500,000.

How much will an unsecured creditor who is owed £375,000 receive?

A

(B) The unsecured creditor will receive £89,750. Unsecured creditors receive a proportion of the proceeds realised by the liquidator after the liquidator subtracts the expenses of winding up and pays the preferential debts. Here, the liquidator realised £500,000. After subtracting expenses (£75,000) and paying the preferential creditors the £66,000 owed to them, £359,000 remains to pay the unsecured creditors proportionally. The unsecured creditor here holds 25% of the total unsecured debt (that is, £375,000 of the £1,500,000 unsecured debt) and so is entitled to 25% of the £359,000 that remains to pay the unsecured creditors. Thus, (A), (C), (D), and (E) (which are based on not subtracting out the proper amount for expenses and the preferential debts) are incorrect

23
Q

A company granted a floating charge over all the assets of the company to Bank 1, and a fixed charge over its premises to Bank 2.

If the company wishes to sell assets, which of the following statements best describes who must consent to the sale?

ResponsesPress Enter or Space to submit the answer

A

(A) The holder of a fixed charge must give consent for the asset charged to be sold. An asset charged by way of floating charge can be freely sold until the floating charge crystallises. Therefore, Bank 2 must consent to sale of the premises which are charged by way of fixed charge. (B), (D), and (E) are incorrect, as a floating charge holder does not need to consent to the sale of an asset charged by way of floating charge. (C) is incorrect as the fixed charge is taken only over the premises and not over inventory.

24
Q

A buyer client has just received their mortgage offer to assist with their purchase of a commercial warehouse unit. The mortgage offer includes the following:

‘This mortgage offer is made on an endowment basis’.

The client telephones their solicitor to ask what this means.

How will the solicitor respond?

A

(E) This is a mortgage combined with a life insurance policy. The borrower pays a lower monthly sum and pays a sum of money into the life insurance policy, hoping that when the policy matures, it pays out enough money to enable the borrower to repay the balance on the mortgage. (A) is incorrect because it describes a standard repayment mortgage. (B) is incorrect because it describes an ‘interest only mortgage’. At the end of the term on an interest only mortgage, the entire capital balance becomes due. (C) is incorrect because it describes a ‘pension mortgage’. (D) is incorrect because no mortgage is set up that way.QUESTION ID: PRP124

25
Q

A paralegal in a busy conveyancing department is working in the pre-completion team. Their principal has taken the afternoon off and has left a note for the paralegal requesting that they apply for the mortgage advance. The paralegal has looked through the file and is not sure how to do this.

What should the paralegal do to comply with their principal’s request?

A

(D) To apply for a mortgage advance, a certificate of title (‘CoT’) is submitted to the lender. A CoT involves the solicitor confirming a series of statements which confirm to the lender that the title is good and marketable. The CoT also acts as a request for drawdown of the mortgage advance. Thus, the remaining answers are incorrect.QUESTION ID: PRP126
QUESTION ID: PRP126

26
Q

A bank is notified that one of its borrowers has gone into liquidation and is reviewing its security for the money owed by the borrower. Although the bank dutifully registered each charge with Companies House, it is concerned that one of its loans might be unsecured.

Which of the following loans is most likely to be automatically unsecured?

A

(C) The floating charge granted to secure the existing overdraft is unsecured. A floating charge is automatically void if it was created for no consideration within 12 months ending with the onset of insolvency and at a time the company was insolvent or became insolvent as a result. As this floating charge was granted for no new consideration, it could be void if the company was insolvent at the time. (A) and (E) are incorrect as the charges in each were granted outside the relevant timeframe for attack by a liquidator. (B) and (D) are incorrect as the floating charge in each was given for fresh consideration.

27
Q

A solicitor is acting for a client in relation to the purchase of a property. The buyer and seller agree a 10% deposit on exchange of contracts and that a solicitor will hold the deposit as agent for the seller.

Under this agreement, which solicitor will hold the funds and what is the consequence of the deposit being held by a solicitor as agent for the seller?

ResponsesPress Enter or Space to submit the answer

A

(C) If a buyer and seller agree that a deposit will be held by a solicitor as agent, it means that the buyer’s deposit will be held by the seller’s solicitor and may be paid over to the seller immediately after exchange has taken place. This may occur, for example, when the buyer is buying a new build property. It presents a risk to the buyer because if the seller spends the money between exchange and completion, the buyer may have difficulty recovering the deposit in the event of the seller’s default. Thus, the standard conditions of sale provide that on exchange of contracts, the buyer’s deposit is held by the seller’s solicitor as stakeholder (meaning the deposit will be paid to the seller only on completion). (A) is incorrect because this answer choice describes the consequence when the deposit is held as stakeholder, not as agent. (B) and (D) are incorrect because the buyer’s solicitor does not hold the deposit after exchange; the seller’s solicitor does. (E) is incorrect because, as explained above, when the deposit is held as agent it may be paid over the seller immediately after exchange.

28
Q

A man is selling his property which has a large garden. There is a rough track at the bottom of the garden which has been created by the constant passing over the land by the man’s neighbour. The man has let his neighbour take a shortcut over the land for 15 years, though arrangement has never been formalised.

Does the man have a duty to disclose this use in the contract with the buyer?

A

(D) The seller need not disclose the use, as it is a patent defect. A right-of-way which is visible, such as the one in the question, is a patent defect. It does not need to be disclosed in the contract because the seller’s duty of disclosure does not extend to patent defects. (Note that a prudent solicitor would advise the seller to disclose the right-of-way anyway – to avoid any possible misrepresentation claim – but disclosure is not actually required under the circumstances.) (A) is incorrect because for the reasons just explained – disclosure is not required here, so non-disclosure will not result in liability. (B) is incorrect, both because the defect is patent (obvious) rather than latent (not obvious), and because the rule is the opposite of that stated – latent defects must be disclosed. (C) is incorrect as the doctrine of ‘caveat emptor’ (that is, let the buyer beware) is the reason that the defect does not need to be referred to in the contract – because the defect is observable, the doctrine of caveat emptor applies and the buyer has the burden of discovering the defect. (E) is incorrect because it has the rule backwards – patent defects need not be disclosed, as discussed above. QUESTION ID: PRP050

29
Q

A solicitor acting for the buyer of a residential property, which is situated in a national park, has noted that the seller has added a small porch to the front of the property but has indicated on the Property Information Form that this was done recently under the permitted development rights. The solicitor has now received the result of the local search which has revealed an Article 4 direction disapplying deemed planning permission. The solicitor informs the buyer that the porch might pose a problem.

Is the solicitor correct?

A

(C) The solicitor is correct because the Article 4 direction means that the permitted development rights have been removed, so express planning permission was required. Town and Country Planning (General Permitted Development) Order 1995 grants permission (‘deemed permission’) to undertake small developments such as small home extensions, porches, fences, and conservatories) without applying for express permission from the local planning authority. However, the Article 4 direction disapplies such permitted development rights. Therefore, planning permission was required for the porch. As the work was done recently and planning permission was not obtained, the buyer could be subject to an enforcement action if the seller does not obtain retrospective planning permission. (A) is incorrect because it states the opposite of the effect of disapplication. (B) is incorrect because deemed permission and Article 4 (the subject of this question) goes to planning permission rather than building regulation. (D) and (E) are incorrect because, as explained, Article 4 removes deemed permission and is not a grant of express permission or a disapplication of the requirement of express permission.

30
Q

A year ago, a company borrowed £220,000 from the bank. £140,000 of the loan is still outstanding. The loan was secured by a fixed charge in the bank’s favour over the company’s premises, which are now worth £120,000. The bank enforces its security, and the company immediately goes into insolvent liquidation.

How does the bank rank as a creditor?

A

(E) The bank is a secured creditor up to the value of the asset charged (£120,000) and is an ordinary creditor for the outstanding balance beyond the value of the charged asset (£20,000). (A) is incorrect because the bank is secured only to the extent of the £120,000 value of the asset charged. (B) is incorrect for the same reason. Additionally, although £220,000 was originally borrowed, only £140,000 is still owed to the bank. (C) is incorrect because it fails to recognize the bank’s position with respect to the £20,000 it is owed beyond the value of the charged asset. (D) is incorrect because the bank is unsecured as to the extra £20,000; preferential creditors are employees and HMRC.

31
Q

A solicitor received a cheque from a client for £1,000 to be held on account of costs. The solicitor paid a search fee of £200 on behalf of the client. Two days later, the solicitor’s bank informed them that the cheque has been dishonoured.

Which of the following statements is true?

A

(A) A firm must not withdraw more than the money that is held for a client. Doing so is a breach of the SRA Accounts Rules, and as such the firm must promptly, upon discovery, remedy the breach. For this reason, (E) is incorrect. (B) is incorrect as to remedy the breach, the firm need only transfer the amount by which the client account is overdrawn. (C) is incorrect as there are no rules that state a firm cannot draw against an uncleared cheque. This is poor practice, however, and most firms will have systems in place to prevent this from happening. (D) is incorrect because there is no obligation on the firm to cease to act for a client that provides it with insufficient funds

32
Q

A solicitor receives a £1,500 cheque from a client: £200 for payments the firm made to a surveyor, £800 for work done by the firm, and £500 to be used for future expenses incurred on the client’s behalf.

Which of the following statements is correct with regard to the cheque?

A

(B) The entire sum can be paid into the client account, but the business element must be transferred out of the client account promptly. Funds received from mixed payments must be allocated promptly to the correct client account or business account. (A) is incorrect because it does not mention the money must be transferred promptly. (C), (D), and (E) are incorrect because of the word ‘must’. The money can be split, but this is not an absolute obligation and mixed receipts can be placed into either the client or business account first so long as the relevant money is transferred to the other account promptly.

33
Q

A solicitor sent his client a bill seven days ago, consisting of £1,500 in Profit Costs, £300 VAT, and £200 for a disbursement that the solicitor has already paid from the business account. The client sends the solicitor a cheque for £2,000. The solicitor records the receipt with a credit entry on the business side of the client’s ledger.

Which one of the following entries would best describe the corresponding entry the solicitor would make to record the receipt?

A

(D) The solicitor would debit the cash account, business side. The money received is business money and it has been paid into the business account. (A) and (E) are incorrect, as entries are not made on the Profit Costs and HMRC (VAT) ledgers when cash is received in payment of a bill. (B) is incorrect as receipt of money into the business bank account is a debit and not a credit. Remember every debit must be matched with a credit. Also each debit must match a credit on the same side, as the question tells you there is a credit on the business side, there must be a corresponding debit on the business side.

34
Q

Following a trial, a solicitor issues his client company an invoice for profit costs of £1,000 and VAT of £200.

On receipt of the £1,200 from the company, which entries should the solicitor record in his accounts?

ResponsesPress Enter or Space to submit the answer

A

B) When a client pays a bill for profit costs, the entire sum is credited to the business side of the client ledger and debited to the business side of the cash account ledger. (A) and (C) are incorrect because when a client pays an invoice, no entries are made on the HMRC (VAT) ledger. This ledger is simply a record of the sum owed by the solicitor to HMRC. (D) is incorrect because the money belongs to the solicitor as payment of professional charges included on a bill. It should therefore be recorded in the business side of the cash ledger. (E) is incorrect because on payment of a bill there is no entry in the profit costs ledger. This is simply a record of all invoices billed by the solicitor.QUESTION ID: ACC027

35
Q

A solicitor is acting for a client in a conveyancing matter and receives a number of cheques from the client.

Which of the following receipts of money is client money?

ResponsesPress Enter or Space to submit the answer

A

(B) If a client gives a solicitor money generally on account of costs, the money remains client money. (A) is incorrect as money received after a bill is sent is business money. (C) and (E) are incorrect because money received on account of a bill is business money even if it includes sums for disbursements that have not been paid. (D) is incorrect because money received for a paid disbursement is business money.

36
Q

A firm has completed the administration of an estate for the personal representatives of a deceased person. The firm must now transfer the residuary estate to the sole beneficiary, who is also a current client of the firm.

How should this transaction be reflected in the respective client ledgers?

ResponsesPress Enter or Space to submit the answer

A

(A) The deceased client’s ledger should be debited, and the beneficiary client’s ledger should be credited, as the funds (residuary estate) must be taken out of the deceased client’s ledger and transferred across and credited to the beneficiary client’s ledger. (B), (C), and (D) are incorrect as there is no movement on the cash account when there is an inter-client transfer. (E) is incorrect as the money should not be credited to the deceased client’s ledger; it should be debited from the deceased client’s ledger and client money must be used, not business funds

37
Q

A solicitor receives an invoice from legal counsel for work it has done on a client’s property dispute for £1500, plus £300 VAT, addressed to the firm.

How should the invoice be treated for accounting purposes?

ResponsesPress Enter or Space to submit the answer

A

(C) As this disbursement is from legal counsel, the agency method of payment applies: the firm may cross out its own name and replace it with the client’s name. The firm will pay the entire amount of the expense, including VAT, from client money. (A) is incorrect because, even though this is usually the correct method for dealing with an invoice that is addressed to the firm (the principal method), in the case of legal counsel’s fee, a firm can cross out the firm’s name and replace it with the client’s name. (B) is incorrect both because it describes the principal method of payment and because when using the principal method the invoice can never be paid out of a client account, even if funds are available. (D) is incorrect because the firm will not send an invoice it has received directly to the client for the client to pay; the firm will pay the invoice on behalf of the client and be reimbursed by the client. If requested by the client, the firm will send counsel’s invoice to the client, so the client can reclaim their own VAT if registered. (E) is incorrect because legal counsel’s fees represent services provided to the client and are therefore regarded as a disbursement, which should be passed on to the client

38
Q

A buyer is interested in buying the leasehold of a 10-year-old residential flat. The buyer’s solicitor has made the necessary pre-contract searches and has received satisfactory answers to all enquiries. The parties are now ready to exchange. The buyer’s solicitor and the seller’s solicitor have agreed to use the Law Society formulae for exchanging contracts by telephone. They also agree to use the Standard Conditions of Sale, unamended. Both solicitors wish to exchange contracts using Formula B.

How will the solicitors effect exchange of contracts?

ResponsesPress Enter or Space to submit the answer

A

(A) When each solicitor wishes to confirm the contracts under Law Society Formula B for exchanging contracts by telephone, each solicitor holds their own client’s part of the contract, confirms they are the same, and then sends it. The buyer’s solicitor will also send the deposit funds to the seller’s solicitor to hold as stakeholder pursuant to the unamended Standard Conditions of Sale. (B) is incorrect because none of the formulae for exchange require both solicitors to send their client’s contract to the other solicitor before confirming they are the same. (C) is incorrect, as it describes a Formula A exchange – the buyer’s solicitor will send the contract signed by the buyer to the seller’s solicitor, along with the deposit. The seller’s solicitor will confirm both contracts are the same over the telephone, insert the exchange and completion dates in both, and send the part signed by the seller to the buyer’s solicitor. (D) is incorrect because although it describes a Formula B exchange, as just explained under unamended Standard Conditions of Sale, the seller’s solicitor will hold the deposit funds as stakeholder. (E) is incorrect because it describes a Formula A exchange, and it also incorrectly provides that the buyer’s solicitor will hold the deposit.QUESTION ID: PRP145

39
Q

After contracts were exchanged with respect to 10 acres of farmland, a conveyancing solicitor carries out a full land charges search and has noted that there is a C(i) puisne mortgage entry on the land charges search result.

What action would the buyer’s solicitor take with respect to this entry?

A

(D) A C(i) land charges entry denotes a second or subsequent charge not protected by the deposit of title deeds in the unregistered system. Thus, the seller’s solicitor will require an undertaking for the mortgage to be repaid (that is, redeemed) out of the sale proceeds and for the land charges entry to be removed. (A) is incorrect as the property is unregistered so there is no register of title in existence yet. (B) is incorrect as the Standard Conditions do not include such a provision, which is why the buyer’s solicitor must obtain the seller’s solicitor’s undertaking. (C) is incorrect. After registration, the property will still be subject to the puisne mortgage (which will be reflected as a charge against title to the property in charges register) if the mortgage is not redeemed. (E) is incorrect because usually the seller will need the money from the buyer to pay off existing mortgages. Thus, evidence that this has been done prior to the exchange of contracts usually is not possible.

40
Q

A solicitor is acting for the buyer of a residential leasehold flat. The transaction exchanged three weeks ago and is due to complete today. The buyer’s solicitor has received the mortgage advance and is preparing to complete.

Which of the following is not a task which will be carried out today?

A

(B) The matter has already exchanged and today is the day of completion; thus, the buyer’s solicitor will not be notifying the client that exchange has taken place today. The remainder are tasks which will be carried out by the buyer’s solicitor on completion. Note that you are told in the question that the buyer has a mortgage, so there will be a mortgage deed which should be dated with the date of completion. Thus, the remaining answers are incorrect

41
Q

A limited company is purchasing a row of freehold shops situated on a local high street. The company has received a telephone call from their solicitor to confirm that the purchase has just completed. The company’s director is relieved because the matter involved complex unregistered title issues.

When did/does title to the shops pass to the company in this transaction?

A

(D) In an unregistered title transaction, title passes to the buyer (here, the limited company) on completion. (A) is incorrect. Title does not pass on exchange. Exchange merely creates the agreement to buy and sell. (B) is incorrect because this is the position in a registered title transaction. Here, the title is unregistered and therefore passes on completion. (C) and (E) are incorrect because, as explained above, if land is unregistered, title passes on completion.

42
Q

A limited company has instructed a solicitor to act on the purchase of a lease of shop premises. The company is taking an assignment of an existing lease which has a residue of 15 years and an unregistered title.

What steps will the solicitor acting for the limited company need to take after completion?

ResponsesPress Enter or Space to submit the answer

A

A) The solicitor must file a stamp duty land tax (SDLT) return and pay any tax due within 14 days and will apply to register the leasehold title at the land registry within two months of completion. An SDLT return is due within 14 days, and any tax due must be paid within that period. This is a strict deadline. The leasehold title is registrable first because it is currently unregistered and second because the residue of the lease is more than seven years. As this is a first registration, it must be done within two months of completion. (B) is incorrect because it states the wrong timescale for submitting the return and paying the tax. (C) is incorrect. For unregistered title, registration must take place within two months (30 days is the timescale for registering with respect to a registered title). Additionally, the epitome of title (listing and giving copies of title documents) is not prepared by the buyer’s solicitor post-completion; rather it is prepared by the seller’s solicitor at the beginning of a transaction when title is unregistered. (D) is incorrect for the same reason (although it does correctly state the registration timescale). (E) is incorrect. As the title to the lease is currently unregistered, the solicitor will not be carrying out an official search with priority.

43
Q

A landlord has been having trouble finding tenants for a building owned by the landlord. The building’s sole tenant is the owner of a dry cleaning business who has a shop that takes up most of the first floor of the building. The tenant’s 15-year lease will expire in 10 months. The landlord would like to demolish the building and sell the property to a developer. The landlord therefore serves a section 25 notice on the tenant, indicating a desire to end the tenancy at the end of the lease term.

The tenant is upset because they have been in business in the building for over 14 years, they have always complied with the obligations of their lease, and there is no available suitable space for their business nearby.

What remedy, if any, will be available to the tenant under these circumstances?

A

(D) The tenant would be entitled to statutory compensation because there is no available suitable space for their business nearby. Under the Landlord and Tenant Act 1954 (Part II), a tenant under a commercial lease has the right to remain in tenancy after the term of the lease expires unless the landlord serves a section 25 notice indicating a statutory ground for terminating the tenancy. One such ground is that the landlord desires to demolish the premises (making (C) incorrect). Other grounds include breaches of obligations under the lease by the tenant; the availability of suitable, alternative premises for the tenant; and the landlord’s desire to reconstruct or move into the premises. However, if the ground serving as the basis for termination is not the fault of the tenant, statutory compensation is available unless other suitable premises are available. Here, the ground is not the tenant’s fault and suitable alternative premises are not available. The fact that the tenant has always complied with lease obligations (A) is not a ground for denying termination of the tenancy (but breach of obligations would be a fault ground for denying statutory compensation). (B) is incorrect because the security of tenure provisions are designed to take effect – and protect tenants – when the term of the lease ends. Thus, the fact that the lease term ended is not a ground for denying a remedy. (E) is incorrect because whilst this is a condition needed to obtain compensation, it does not prevent termination of the tenancy based on another statutory ground.

44
Q

Two solicitors have just exchanged contracts on the telephone for their respective clients. They have used the Law Society’s Formulae for Exchange and are about to prepare their file note detailing the memorandum of exchange.

Which of the following pieces of information does not need to appear in the memorandum of exchange?

A

(B) The memorandum of exchange is a central part of the requirements of the formulae and is designed to ensure that both solicitors have a contemporaneous and accurate written record of the conversation which effected exchange. In practical terms, it is important for the buyer’s solicitor to have the seller’s solicitor’s client account number, but this is not part of the prescribed information required by the formulae. Thus, the remaining answers are incorrect.

45
Q

Question
A solicitor who works in the pre-completion department of a conveyancing firm carries out the pre-completion land charges search. The search is required because their buyer client is acquiring an unregistered title. The solicitor must ensure that they note the expiry of the priority period on the firm’s case management system.

What priority period will the solicitor note in this case?

A

(A) Fifteen working days is the priority period for a full land charges search in the unregistered system. Do not confuse this with the official search with priority (OS1) 30-working day priority period in the registered system. Thus, the remaining answers are incorrect.

46
Q

A commercial property solicitor returns from holiday to realise that a charge which should have been registered at Companies House on behalf of a company client has not been registered.

What is the deadline that has been missed?

A

(D) 21 straight days is the strict timeframe. None of the other choices state the appropriate timescale and so are incorrect.QUESTION ID: PRP13

47
Q

Completion on the sale of a factory unit did not take place on the contractually agreed date. The innocent seller served a notice to complete 14 days ago, but the buyer has failed to complete again.

Which of the following is not a step which the seller is entitled to take?

A

(C) If the buyer has failed to comply with the notice to complete within 10 working days, the seller is not able to require the buyer to take a transfer of the property. The only way that this might be possible is if the seller applies to the court for a decree of specific performance – but this would be relatively unlikely to succeed if the buyer does not have the money. The seller can take the remaining steps following default by the buyer. Accordingly, the remaining answers are incorrect.

48
Q
A
48
Q

On 1 January 2023, a store owner purchased a new commercial building for £500,000 plus £100,000 VAT. The stamp duty land tax for commercial buildings at the time was as follows:

  • 0% up to £150,000
  • 2% of amounts £150,001 - £250,000
  • 5% of amounts over £250,000

What is the stamp duty land tax payable by the store owner?

A

(D) £19,500. SDLT on a new commercial building is payable on the VAT inclusive price at the non-residential rates. Thus, the tax will be based on £600,000. Under the rates given, nothing is owed for the first £150,000, £2,000 is owed on the next £100,000 (2% of amount between £150,000 - £250,000) and £17,500 would be owed on the £350,000 purchase price above £250,000 (£350,000 x 5% = £17,500). £2,000 + £17,500 =