Set 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the difference between standard deviation and standard error?

A

Standard Deviation looks at the spread of individualism with in a normal distribution sample.
Standard Error looks at the variability due to sampling, and helps estimate the true mean of the underlying population.

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2
Q

How do Fibrates work? Name one?

A

Fibrates block Cholesterol 7-alpha-hydroxylase, which catalyze the rate-limiting step in the synthesis of bile acids.
Reduced bile acid production on results in decreased cholesterol solubility in bile and favors the rotation of cholesterol stones.

Gemfibrozil or Fenofibrate

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3
Q

Pt. W/ recurrent abdominal pain, + “ultrasonic Murphy sign”, and multiple cholesterol gallstones

A

Cholelithiasis

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4
Q

Risk factors for gallstones?

A
  • Obesity or Rapid Weight loss
  • Female
  • Glucose intolerance
  • Hypomotility of the gallbladder (pregnancy or prolonged fasting)
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5
Q

How do aromatase inhibitors work? Name one?

A

Aromatherapy catalyze the conversion of androgens to estrogen; inhibiting this would cause decreased gallstone formation.
Estrogenic medications cause an increase in the amount of cholesterol secreted in bile and contribute to formation of gallstones.
Anastrozole is anaromatase inhibitor,

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6
Q

How do estrogens increase cholesterol biosynthesis?

A

Estrogen uptrgulate hepatic HMG-CoA reductive activity.

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7
Q

Beta-glucuronidase

A

Deconjugates bilirubin, and the resulting free bilirubin precipitates with calcium in the bile to form pigmented gallstones.

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8
Q

Thiolase

A

1st step in cholesterol synthesis, condenses 2 molecules of acetyl-coA to form acetoacetyl-CoA

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9
Q

What is the difference between an erosion and an ulcer?

A

Erosions are mucosal defects that do not fully extend through the muscularis mucosa.
Ulcers can extend into the submuscosal areas and the muscularis propria.

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10
Q

Multifactorial Disease

A

The complex interaction of numerous genetic and environmental factors to determine phenotypic expression.

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11
Q

Progressive Joint pain and swelling involving the proximal interphalnageal joints, metacarpophylangeal joints and wrists bilarterally.
Morning stiffness lasting longer than 30 minutes
Six present for >6 weeks

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis

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12
Q

Serum antibodies found in RA?

A

Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide (anti-CCP) antibodies

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13
Q

What species of bacteria can survive boiling?

A

Spore forming bacteria - Clostridium and Bacillus species

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14
Q

How do you kill spore-forming species?

A

Autoclave

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15
Q

What is a cryptogenic stroke?

A

When an embolism travels through a Right-to-left cardiac shunt.

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16
Q

Elevated Right Heart Pressure

A

Eisenmenger syndrome

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17
Q

Fixed S2 splitting

A

ASD

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18
Q

Incomplete development of the aroticopulmonary septum

A

Truncus arteriosus

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19
Q

Holosystolic murmur at the lower left sternal border

A

Ventral septal defect

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20
Q

A small VSD will cause a smaller or greater sound?

A

Greater

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21
Q

Continuous “machine-like” murmur

A

Patent ductus arteriosus

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22
Q

What do you use to close a PDA?

A

Indomethacin

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23
Q

What do you do to keep a PDA open?

A

Prostaglandin E

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24
Q

HBeAg

A

An indication of HBV infectivity

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25
Q

A person vaccinated against HBV has this serology

A

(+) anti-HBsAb, (-) anti-HBcAg, anti-HBeAg, or any viral antigens

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26
Q

Class IA antiarrhythmics

A

Quinidine, procainamide, and disopyramide.

Na channel blocking agents that depress phase 0 depolarization.

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27
Q

Side effects of Class Ia Antiarrhythmics

A
  • Cinchonism (Headache, tinnitus) ->Quinidine
  • Reversible SLE-like syndrome -> Procainamide
  • Heart Failure -> Dispyramide
  • Thrombocytopenia and TdP -> all
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28
Q

MOA of class Is antiarrhythmics

A
  • increased AP
  • increased effective refractory period
  • increased QT prolongation
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29
Q

Class IB antiarrhthymics

A

Lidocaine, Mexiletine

- prevent Post MI arrhythmia (acute ventricular arrhythmia & digitalis-induced arrhythmia)

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30
Q

SE for class Is antiarrhythmics

A

CNS stimulation/depression, cardiovascular depression

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31
Q

MOA for Class Ib antiarrhythmics

A
  • decreased AP duration

- preferentially affect ischemic or depolarizer purkinje and ventricular tissue.

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32
Q

Class Ic drugs

A

Flecainide, Propafenone

- SVT’s including: a-fib (last resort refractory VT)

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33
Q

SE of Class Ic antiarrhythmics

A
  • Proarrhythmic, especially post-MI
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34
Q

MOA of class Ic antiarrhythmics

A

Significantly prolongs refractory period in AV node

Minimal effect on AP duration,

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35
Q

Class II antiarrhythmics

A

Beta-blockers

- Used for SVT, slowing ventricular rate during a-fib and a-flutter

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36
Q

SE of Class II antiarrhythmics

A
  • Impotence, exacerbation of COPD and asthma, cardiovascular effects (bradycardia, AV block, CHF)
  • Sedation, sleep alteration
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37
Q

SE of metoprolol only

A

Dyslipidemia

38
Q

SE of propranolol only

A

Exacerbation vasospasm in prinzmetal angina.

39
Q

Class III antiarrhythmics

A

Potassium channel blockers
Amiodarone, Ibutilide, Dofetilide, Sotalol
- Used in A-fib, a-flutter, ventricular tachycardia

40
Q

SE of sotalol

A

TdP

Excessive Beta-blockade

41
Q

SE of Ibutilide

A

TdP

42
Q

SE of Amiodarone

A

Pulmonary fibrosis, hepatotoxicity, hypothyroidism/hyperthyroidism, corneal deposits, skin deposits resulting in photodermatitis, neurological effects, constipation, cardiovascular effects

Always Check PFTs, LFTs, and TFTs when using amiodarone

43
Q

MOA of class III antiarrhythmics

A
  • Increased AP duration
  • Increased ERP
  • increased QT prolongation
44
Q

Class IV antiarrhythmics

A

Ca-channel blockers
Verapamil, Diltiazem
- Prevention of nodal arrhythmia, rate control in a-fib

45
Q

SE of Class IV antiarrhythmics

A

Constipation, flushing, edema, CV effects (CHF, AV block, sinus node depression).

46
Q

MOA of class IV antiarrhythmics

A
  • decrease conduction velocity
  • increase ERP
  • increased PR interval
47
Q

MOA of Adenosine

A

Increase potassium effluent from cell, causing hyperpolarization of the cell and decreased Ca conductance.

  • used in abolishing supraventricular tachycardia
  • Short acting
48
Q

SI of adenosine

A

Flushing, hypotension, chest pain

- effects blocked by caffeine and theophylline use.

49
Q

What do you use in TdP or digit in toxicity

A

Mg

50
Q

What is the inheritance of Sickle Cell Anemia?

A

Autosomal recessive

51
Q

What is the mutation in Sickle Cell Anemia?

A

Glutamic acid -> Valine

- polar -> non-polar => allows for hydrophobic accumulation

52
Q

The drug do you give sickle cell patients

A

Hydroxyurea - increases production of HbF

53
Q

They subunits are in HgF

A

Gamma -2 & alpha -2

54
Q

prevalence effects which statistical modalities

A

PPV and NPV

55
Q

Lesser Omentum

A

Double layer of peritoneum that extends from the liver to the lesser curvature of the stomach and the beginning of the duodenum.

56
Q

The two ligaments of the lesser omentum

A

Hepatogastric ligament -connecting the lesser curvature of the stomach,
Hepatoduodenal legament- connecting to the duodenum

57
Q

Falciform ligament

A

Attaches the liver to the anterior body wall

58
Q

Greater Omentum

A

Large Fold of visceral peritoneum that extends from the greater curvature of the stomach, travels inferiority over the small intestine, and then reflects on itself and ascends to encompass the transverse colon before reaching the posterior abdominal wall.

59
Q

Splenorenal ligament

A

Lies between the left kidney and the spleen. Contains the splenic vessels and the tail of the pancreas.

60
Q

T(9;22)

A

Philadelphia chromosome -> CML

61
Q

T(8;14)

A

C-myc activation -> Burkett Lymphoma

62
Q

t(11;14)

A

Cyclin-D1-activation -> Mantle Cell Lymphoma

63
Q

T(14;18)

A

Bcl-2 activation - > Follicular Lymphoma

64
Q

T(15;17)

A

M3 type AML

65
Q

What M3 AML respond best to

A

All-trans retinoic acid

66
Q

Sx of CML

A
  • Fatigue, weight loss, excessive sweating
  • Splenomegaly, Leukocytois w/left shift
  • Myelocytes, metamelanocytes, band forms
67
Q

Mutation of CML

A

BCR-abl fusion protein - t(9;22)

68
Q

Essential Thrombocytopenia

A

Hemorrhagic and Thrombotic symptoms - easy bruising, microangiopathic occlusion

  • Thrombocytosis
  • Megakaryocytic hyperplasia
69
Q

Mutation in Essential Thrombocytopenia

A

JAK2

70
Q

Mutation in Polycythemia Vera

A

JAK 2

71
Q

Mutation in Primary Myelofibrosis

A

JAK 2

72
Q

Polycythemia Vera

A
  • Pruritis, erytheromylegia, splenomegaly, thrombotic complications, erythrocytosis and thrombocytosis
73
Q

Primary myelofibrosis

A

Sever fatigue, splenomegaly, hepatomegaly, anemia + bone marrow fibrosis

74
Q

Blood work for Polycythemia Vera

A

RBC - increased
WBC - increased
Platelets - increased

75
Q

Blood Work with Essential Throbocytosis

A

Platelets - increased

RBC/WBC - normal

76
Q

Myelofibrosis Blood Work

A

RBC - decreased

WBC/platelets - variable

77
Q

CML Blood Work

A

RBC - decreased
WBC - increased
Platelets - increased

78
Q

Treatment of primary myelofibrosis

A

Ruxolitinib

79
Q

Starry sky histology

A

Burkett Lymphoma - Associated with Ebstein Barr Virus

80
Q

Facial Pain, Headache, and black nectrotic eschar in the nasal cavity in a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis

A

Murcormycosis

81
Q

Ischemia of the inferior surface of the heart

A

Right coronary artery occlusion

82
Q

Ischemia of the anterior 2/3s of the interventricular septum, anterior wall of the left ventricle, and part of the anterior papillary muscle.

A

Occlusion of the LAD

83
Q

Ischemia of the LAteral and posterior superior walls of the left ventricle

A

Left cricumflex artery occlusion

84
Q

Ischemia of the right ventricle

A

Occlusion of the right rational branch of the right coronary artery.

85
Q

SE of Thiazide Diuretics

A
  • Volume Depletion
  • Hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis
  • Hyponatremia and Hypercalcemia
86
Q

SE of Loop Diuretics

A

Volume Depletion
Hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis
Hypokalemia

87
Q

First line for Panic Disorder, acutely

A

Benzodiazepine

88
Q

First-line pharmacology for panic disorder, chronically

A

SSRI and CBT

89
Q

Pathology of PE causing hypoxemia

A

Ventilation/perfusion mismatch

90
Q

Abnormal interaction between the uterine bud and metanephric mesenchyme, resulting in a nonfunctional kidney consisting of cysts and connective tissue. Most likely unilateral.

A

Multicystic dysplastic kidney