Session2 Flashcards

1
Q

Define change management

A

Change management is a structured approach. It is comprehensive and cyclic. This approach transitions individuals, groups and organizations from a current state to a future state in which they realize desired benefits.

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2
Q

Define project change control

A

Change control is a process whereby modifications to documents, deliverables, or baselines associated with the project are identified and documented. These project documents, deliverables or baseline are then approved or rejected

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3
Q

What must you do if there is an organizational change?

A

ASSESS the organizational culture.
EVALUATE the impact of the organizational change to the project and determine required actions
RECOMMEND options for changes to the project
Continually MONITOR external business environment for impacts to project scope/backlog

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4
Q

Organizational change requires - -

A

Organizational change requires individual change

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5
Q

In addition to naming each term in the acronym ADKAR. Tell what the model contains and why.

A

ADKAR is a model. It names the five milestones and individual needs to achieve in order to change successfully:
A - awareness of the need for change
D - desire to support the change
K - knowledge of how to change
A - ability to demonstrate new skills and behaviors
R - reinforcement to make the change stick

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6
Q

Thinking of actions to support change how do you keep knowledge current

A

You can keep knowledge current by continuously, improving processes and knowledge

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7
Q

Thanking of actions to support change how do you ensure that you are not forcing changes?

A

In order to not force changes, involve opand consult. You should aim to secure buy-in to the reasons for change.

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8
Q

Thanking of actions to support change, Change can breed conflict. What must you be careful with when dealing with the non-supporters?

A

Non-supporters or resistors will exist, so be certain to proceed carefully, and not alienate them

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9
Q

Name three things that are required to implement the change brought by the project.

A

Knowledge transfer
Training
Readiness activities

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10
Q

What is the purpose of an attitudinal survey when planning for change?

A

When planning for change include an attitudinal survey to find out how people are feeling

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11
Q

What is the purpose of an informational campaign on planning for change?

A

When planning for change, create an informational campaign, to familiarize people with changes

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12
Q

True or false: the rollout plan is not a project management plan component

A

True

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13
Q

Bright line is a PMI initiative. An - level change management framework is the brightline transformational compass which contains five building blocks of -

A

Enterprise
Transformation

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14
Q

A Northstar statement is one of the five building blocks of transformation of the brightline change management framework.
A Northstar statement articulates the vision and strategic -

A

Objectives

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15
Q

The second building block of the Brightline compass, ac hange management framework, is customer insights and - megatrends

A

Global

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16
Q

The third building block of the Brightline compass, ac hange management framework, is a transformation operating system that is flat, adaptable, and - -

A

Cross-functional. Must apply regardless of industry

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17
Q

The fourth building block of the Brightline compass, a change management framework, is a group of people: internal - -

A

Internal Volunteer Champions (not external consultants)

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18
Q

The fifth building block of the Brightline compass, ac hange management framework, is - - employee transformation

A

Inside-out employee transformation (similar to ADKAR)

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19
Q

Define project governance

A

Project governance is the framework, functions, and processes that guide project management activities to create a unique product, service, or result to meet organizational, strategic, and operational goals

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20
Q

Project governance offers, a single point of -

A

Accountability

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21
Q

Project governance is critical for managing changes in internal or external- -

A

Business environment

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22
Q

Project governance is critical for managing deviations in

A

Budget, scope, schedule, resources, or quality

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23
Q

True or false: project governance encompasses, the project lifecycle

A

True

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24
Q

Define threshold

A

A measurable project variable’s predetermined value that represents a limit that requires action to be taken if it is reached

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25
Q

Define tolerance

A

the quantified description of acceptable variation for a quality risk, budget or other project requirement

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26
Q

Describe the relationship between value delivery, and the lifecycle in governance for both predictive and adaptive.

A

With the predictive approach, value delivery is a product of life cycle. With the adaptive approach, value delivery is embedded in the lifecycle.

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27
Q

MVP

A

Minimal value product

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28
Q

Predictive splits work into - while adaptive splits work into-

A

Phases
Releases

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29
Q

Predictive: review results at a - -

A

Phase gate
( governance gate, kill point, toll gate)

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30
Q

Adaptive: review results at end of -

A

Iterations

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31
Q

Adaptive True or False: there is one release per iteration

A

False. Releases are combination of multiple iterations

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32
Q

Describe the decision points and predictive to go or no go

A

In predictive, you decide to continue to the next phase or continue with modification, or end a project/program

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33
Q

Describe the decision points in adaptive

A

In adaptive, you gather feedback, and take action to improve value in the next iteration

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34
Q

An adaptive project continues until customer’s acceptance criteria is satisfied or project ends. Describe the acceptance criteria.

A

The acceptance criteria is the definition of done or the MVP

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35
Q

Phases produce one or more -

A

Deliverables

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36
Q

True or false: outputs from one phase are generally inputs to the next phase

A

True

37
Q

Phases can have - or - relationships

A

Sequential
Overlapping 

38
Q

While I’m governance, at the beginning of a phase, What must you do?

A

Verify and validate project assumptions.
Analyze risks
Provide detailed explanation of phase deliverables.

39
Q

While in governance at the end of a phase, what happens/what should be done? 

A

Key deliverables are produced.
Review to ensure completeness, and

40
Q

In Governance, give an example of when a phase or project will be terminated

A

If huge risks are encountered, deliverables are no longer needed or requirements change, a phase or project will be terminated

41
Q

PMO monitors compliance at - level

A

Organizational

42
Q

Give examples of project activity- related compliance as it related to quality and vendors

A
  1. Vendor work
  2. Vendor procurement.
  3. Deliverables/products quality.
  4. process quality.
43
Q

Name some compliance categories

A

Environmental
Health
Safety
Ethics
Social responsibility
Quality
process risks

44
Q

True or false: compliance categories are static, and do not vary

A

Fall. Compliance categories vary based on industry and solution scope. They also vary based on a unique legal and regulatory exposure.

45
Q

OPA or EEF: quality policy

A

OPA

46
Q

Define threat

A

A threat is a risk that would have a negative effect on one or more project objectives

47
Q

How do you treat compliance as a project objective?

A

Risks: : track and manage
Quality audits: perform
Compliance: check before the end of the project

48
Q

When treating compliance as a project, objective, continuously validate - and - compliance for deliverables

A

Legal
Regulatory

49
Q

What should your risk register or dedicated compliance register include

A
  1. The identified risk.
  2. A responsible risk owner.
  3. Impact of a realized risk.
  4. Risk responses.
50
Q

Name five compliance, best practices

A

Documentation
Risk planning
Compliance council
Compliance audit
compliance stewardship

51
Q

Who makes up the compliance council?

A

The compliance counsel includes quality/audit specialists and relevant, legal/technical specialist

52
Q

Define stakeholder

A

A stakeholder is an individual, group or organization, that may affect, be affected by or perceive itself to be affected by a decision, activity, or outcome of a project, program or portfolio

53
Q

Can the government or community be stake holders?

A

Yes

54
Q

When is the best time to identify and engage stakeholders?

A

Identify and engage stakeholders early in the project to avoid surprises later

55
Q

You are looking for names to identify stakeholders where do you look?

A

Business case
Benefits management plan
Issue/impediments log
Change log
Requirements documents
Ask other stakeholders

56
Q

What is documented in the stakeholder analysis?

A

Interest
Rights
ownership,
knowledge
contribution

57
Q

What is some two dimensional data representations for the assessment of stake holders?

A

Power/interest
Power/influence
Impact/influence

58
Q

True or false: the stakeholder register is a private document

A

False. This is a public document, so be sure that the information is appropriate.

59
Q

Factor the - in the stakeholder register

A

OPAs

60
Q

The stakeholder register contains the information necessary to execute the stakeholder - -

A

Engagement plan

61
Q

Define a stakeholder’s power

A

Power is the level of authority

62
Q

Define a stakeholder’s interest

A

Interest is the level of concern about project outcomes

63
Q

What are some of the descriptive terms you should use to describe influence/attitude/impact

A

Champion, supporter, neutral, detractor, resister

64
Q

True or false stakeholder mappings are primarily used for predictive

A

True

65
Q

Name the four directions of influence, and give examples of each

A

Upward - parent org, senior mgmt
Downward - project team or specialists
Outward - client, end user
Sideward - peers or competition

66
Q

What is the salience model

A

Way to identify or choose stakeholders using a Venn diagrams with legitimacy, urgency, power

67
Q

How does the team fulfill the management strategies identified in the stakeholder engagement plan?

A

The team uses the communications management plan

68
Q

Define Colocation

A

CoLocation is an organizational placement strategy in which the project team members are physically located close to one another to improve communication, working relationships and productivity

69
Q

Defined the push and pull communication methods

A

The sender determines push
The receiver determines pull

70
Q

What is the stakeholder engagement strategy?

A

Involve stakeholders
Enable appropriate management strategies
Create relationships
Maintain relationships

71
Q

SEAM

A

Stakeholder engagement assessment matrix

72
Q

For the grid of the stakeholder engagement assessment matrix use letters to denote - and - engagement level

A

Current
desired

73
Q

True or false the resource management plan is mostly an adaptive approach

A

False: the resource management plan is used in predictive where the team is built in adaptive, the team self organizes

74
Q

Define Tatmans ladder of team development

A

Forming
Storming
Norming
Performing
Adjourning

75
Q

A cross functional team avoids - - -

A

Points of failure

76
Q

Define self organizing team

A

A self organizing team is a cross functional team in which people fluidly assume leadership as needed to achieve the team’s objectives

77
Q

Define servant leadership

A

Servant leadership is the practice of leading the team by focusing on understanding and addressing the knees and development of team members in order to enable the highest possible team performance

78
Q

Define centralized leader ship model

A

In the centralize leadership and management model, all team members, practice, leader ship, activities, and accountability is usually assigned to one individual such as the project manager or similar roll

79
Q

Defined the distributed, leadership and management model

A

In the distributed, leadership and management model, one project team, member serves as facilitator to enable communication, collaboration, and engagement on accountable tasks. This team member may shift.

80
Q

Define cross functional team

A

Cross functional teams have all the capabilities to deliver the work they’ve been assigned team members can specialize in certain skills, but the team is capable of delivering what they’ve been called want to build

81
Q

Define self organizing team

A

Hey self organizing team is a team that uses how best to accomplish his work objectives. Team members assume leadership is needed rather than being directed by people from outside of the team.

82
Q

Define generalizing specialist

A

A generalizing specialist is a team member who has a particular area of deep expertise, but also has experience in many other areas that may not be directly related to their core area. These team member times are valued on agile projects, because of their ability to be interchangeable.

83
Q

Defined a T shaped individual

A

AT shaped person is someone who skills that comprises one area of specialization and broad ability and other skills required by the team

84
Q

True or false: historical data is a type of expert

A

True

85
Q

How do you analyze team strengths?

A

Perform a SWOT analysis

86
Q

What are the 4 values that drive ethical conduct for the project management profession?

A

Respect
Responsibility
Fairness
Honesty

87
Q

True or false: the team charter contains ground rules

A

True

88
Q

Define retrospective

A

Retrospective is a team interaction which occurs at the end of every iteration, and which participants inspect and explore opportunities to improve processes and product. The output is an improvement plan