Session 6: The Ear Flashcards

1
Q

The temporal bone constitutes a large portion of the lateral area of the skull. It has 4 components: squamous part, petromastoid part, tympanic plate and styloid process. Describe the tympanic plate

A

[*] The external acoustic meatus consists mostly of the tympanic plate. Its free outer border provides attachment for the cartilage of the external ear. Medially, it fuses with the petrous part of the temporal bone.

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2
Q

What parts of the ear does the petrous part contain?

A

[*] The petromastoid part contains the middle and inner ears. Its upper surface forms part of the floor of the middle and posterior cranial fossae.

  • The part forming the front of the posterior cranial fossa is pierced by the internal acoustic meatus transmitting the facial and vestibulocochlear (auditory) cranial nerves.
  • The inferior surface is irregular and contains the carotid canal for the internal ceratoid artery.
  • The mastoid process is a large palpable landmark to which several muscles are attached.
  • The cavity of the mastoid antrum (a prolongation of the cavity of the middle ear) is prolonged into the process by intercommunicating air cells.
  • Middle ear disease spreads by this to cause mastoiditis.
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3
Q

Describe the parts of the external ear

A

[*] The external ear consists of the auricle and external acoustic meatus (external auditory canal)

  • The auricle (pinna) collects sound whilst the external acoustic meatus leads inward through the tympanic part of the temporal bone and terminates at the fibrous tympanic membrane (the ear drum).
  • The auricle is an irregularly shaped plate of elastic cartilage and covered with thick skin. The elastic cartilages are arranged in a number of curved ridges – several depressions and elevations - that include the outer rim (helix) and a small flap (the tragus) guarding the external acoustic meatus.
  • The earlobe (lobule) is non-cartilaginous – consists of fibrous tissue, fat and blood vessels.
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4
Q

Describe the neurovasculature supply to the external ear

A
  • Sensory innervation anterior to the external acoustic meatus is the Auriculotemporal nerve, a branch of the Mandibular Nerve (CN V3). Sensory innervation for the rest of the auricle is from the Greater Auricular Nerve (C2 & C3).
  • Blood supply to the Pinna is from the Posterior Auricular Arteries, Superficial Temporal Arteries and Occipital Arteries which are all branches of the External Carotid Artery plus their corresponding veins
  • The auricle (outer ear) functions to collect sounds and funnel into external auditory meatus. It has some intrinsic and extrinsic which are supplied by the facial nerve.
  • Innervation of skin is derived from
    • Lesser Occipital Nerve (C2)
    • Trigeminal Nerve (CN V) – auriculotemporal nerve (CN V3)
    • Vagus Nerve (CN X) – auricular branch
    • Facial Nerve (this is variable between individuals, absent in some people
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5
Q

Describe the external acoustic meatus

A
  • The external acoustic meatus (canal) is an elastic cartilaginous tube laterally (1/3rd) and a bony canal medially (2/3rd) – tympanic plate of temporal bone. It extends from concha to the outer plate of the tympanic membrane and is ~3cm in straight line length. It is sinuous in profile and narrows about 5mm from tympanic membrane. This narrowing is called the isthmus.
  • The meatus is lined by skin throughout secreting cerumen (which is modified sebum) that affords protection for the delicate meatal skin. The skin is adherent and non-moveable. Lining of the skin extends to the outer surface of the tympanic membrane.
  • The skin lining the outer 1/3 of canal has hairs (sometimes called cilia), sebaceous glands, ceruminous glands (modified sweat glands, secrete yellowish brown wax which is bactericidal).
  • The discarded cells of the skin together with cerumen form the wax.
  • The course of the external acoustic meatus is sigmoid-shape and thus the auricle is pulled upwards and backwards during ear examination in order to achieve a good internal view.
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6
Q

Describe the tympanic membrane

A
  • The fibrous tympanic membrane (ear drum) is arranged as a shallow cone with its apex pointing medially. It separates the external ear from the middle ear.
  • It is a thin, oval semi-transparent, pearly grey membrane, allowing visualisation of some structures within the middle ear, most notably, the malleus to which the apex of the eardrum is attached. It faces downwards, forwards and laterally. It is concave laterally.
  • ~1cm diameter
  • It comprises of 3 layers of tissues: the outer plate/lateral layer (keratinised stratified squamous cells), the middle plate layer (fibrous layer) and the inner plate/medial layer (respiratory epithelium – low columnar)
  • Blood vessels visible around the periphery
  • Partition between external and middle ear
  • External surface is supplied by Auriculotemporal Nerve Branch of CN V3 and Auricular Branch of the Vagus Nerve (CN X)
  • Internal surface is supplied by the Glossopharyngeal Nerve (CN IX)
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7
Q

Describe the Arnold Cough’s Reflex

A

(Ear Cough Reflex)

  • Stimulation of the auricular branch of the vagus nerve e.g. insertion of cotton bud
  • Cough reflex (some even vomit)
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8
Q

Describe the 6 walls and components of the middle ear

A

[*] The middle ear lies in the petrous temporal bone and includes the tympanic cavity (lying immediately medial to the tympanic membrane) and the epitympanic recess (a space superior to the membrane, where the temporal bone is hollowed out). It is a biconcave compartment and approx. 15-mm in diameter.

It has 6 walls:

  • Lateral wall: inner plate of tympanic membrane
  • Medial wall: outer plate of oval window
  • Roof: Tegmen Tympanum
  • Floor: Jugular wall
  • Posterior wall: Mastoid wall
  • Anterior wall: carotid wall
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9
Q

Describe the Tympanic Cavity

A

The Cavity of the Middle Ear, or Tympanic Cavity, is the narrow air-filled chamber in the petrous part of the temporal bone. The cavity has 2 parts:

  • Tympanic Cavity Proper: the space directly internal (immediately medial) to the tympanic membrane, connected anteriomedially with the nasopharynx via the Pharyngotympanic (Eustachian) Tube and connected posterolaterally with the mastoid air cells via the mastoid antrum and epitympanic recess
  • Epitympanic Recess: space superior to the membrane

The tympanic cavity is lined with mucous membranes that is continuous with the lining of the pharyngotympanic tube, mastoid air cells and mastoid antrum.

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10
Q

Describe the significance of the Tympanic Cavity Proper’s connection with the Nasopharynx via the Eustachian (auditory) tube

A
  • The nasopharynx is part of the upper respiratory tract and thus is liable to respiratory tract disease.
  • The communication via the Eustachian tube with the nasopharynx allows for equalisation of air pressure between the middle ear and the atmosphere. This is necessary for efficient transfer of sound energy to the internal ear. Therefore the function of the middle ear is dependant on the function of the Eustachian tube.
  • The Eustachian tube is usually closed, being intermittently opened by the pull of attached palate muscles when swallowing.
  • The posterolateral 1/3 of the auditory tube is bony, the rest is cartilaginous. Walls of the cartilaginous part are normally in apposition – opened by action of 2 muscles of palate levator and tensor veli palate.
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11
Q

Describe the 3 auditory ossicles. What else does the tympanic cavity contain?

A

The middle ear contains the auditory ossicles (3 bones that conduct sound way to the inner (sensory) part of the ear): malleus, incus and stapes. They lie in the upper part of the tympanic cavity.

  • The handle of the malleus is attached to the tympanic membrane while its body articulates with the body of the incus. The incus articulates with the stapes. The stapes articulates with the bony labyrinth of the inner ear at the Oval Window.
  • The articulations are by synovial joints that serve to relay the vibrations encountered by the tympanic membrane to the internal ear.
  • The ossicles amplify and concentrate sound energy from the vibration eardrum in turn, converting sound into a mechanical form, to the oval window.
  • Middle ear function depends on ventilation

​As well as containing the auditory ossicles, the middle ear also contains the tympanic membrane, auditory tube (Eustachian), muscles of the ossicles, branches of the facial and glossopharyngeal nerves, epitympanic recess, mastoid air cells and respiratory epithelium.

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12
Q

Describe the muscles of the ossicles

A

2 tympanic muscles, stapedius and tensor tympani are concerned with dampening large movements of the tympanic membrane.

  • The tensor tympani inserts into the handle of the malleus – pulls handle medially, tenses the tympanic membrane, reducing the amplitude of its oscillations (vibrations of the malleus). Thus it prevents damage to the inner ear when exposed to loud sounds.

The tensor tympani is supplied by branch of mandibular division of CN V

  • The stapedius pulls the stapes posteriorly and tilts its base in the oval window. It tightens the anular ligament and reduces the oscillatory range. This prevents excessive movement of the stapes and also offers protection from loud noise.

Nerve to Stapedius arises from the **Facial Nerve (CN VII) **

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13
Q

Describe the relationship of the Middle Ear to CN VII

A

The single most important relationship of the middle ear is the facial nerve; the facial nerve lies in the facial canal separated from the middle ear cavity by a very thin bony partition. Because of this proximity, a middle ear infection may cause a lesion of the facial nerve.
As well as containing the auditory ossicles, the stapedius and tensor tympani muscles, the middle ear also contains the Chorda Tympani Nerve (Branch of the Facial Nerve) and Tympanic Plexus of nerves. The Chorda Tympani joins the lingual nerve (branch of mandibular) => supply special sensation to the anterior 2/3rds of the tongue

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14
Q

Describe the Inner Ear

A

[*] The inner ear, also called the labyrinth, contains the end organs responsible for the perception of sound and the maintenance of balance. The inner ear consists of 2 parts, the bony and membranous labyrinths. The inner is buried in petrous temporal bone.

  • The bony labyrinth consists of the cochlea (concerned with the perception of sound), the vestibule and the semicircular canals. Both the vestibule and the semicircular canals are involved in the balance. The vestibule and semicircular canals are suspended in perilymph within the bony labyrinth.
  • The bony labyrinth is a series of channels hollowed out of the petrous temporal bone, surrounding the membranous labyrinth. The walls of the bony labyrinth are made of very thick bone, the otic capsule.
  • The membranous labyrinth is formed by a series of communicating sacs and ducts and contains endolymphs. It consists of the vestibular and cochlear labyrinths.

Balance involves an interplay between vestibular end organ, vision and sensation

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15
Q

Describe the first part of the cochlea and the round window and oval window

A

The cochlea is shaped like a shell and contains the cochlea duct and is concerned with hearing.

[*] The spiral canal of the cochlea begins at the vestibule and makes 2.5 turns around a central bony core called the modiolus – the spiral canal is a spiral-shaped cavity in the bony labyrinth.

The cochlea lies deep to medial wall of tympanic cavity and communicates with it via fenestra cochlea (or round window). The vestibule is crossed by the facial canal and communicates with tympanic cavity by fenestra vestibule (oval window)

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16
Q

Describe the Cochlear Duct including the spiral organ of Corti

A

[*] The cochlear duct accommodates the spiral organ of Corti, which contains the receptors of the auditory meatus. The Organ of Corti consists of specialised hair cells resting on supporting cells, which in turn are attached to the basilar membrane. Hair cells are arranged as one row of inner hair cells and three rows of outer hair cells. Afferent fibres of cochlear nerve coil around base of hair cells, which lie between the basilar membrane and overlying tectorial membrane.

  • Sound waves vibrate tympanic membrane
  • Vibrations transmitted to oval window by ossicles
  • Pressure waves transmitted to perilymph of vestibular cavity causing vesticular and basilar membranes to vibrate and round window to move in opposite direction to oval window.
  • Tectorial membrane relatively rigid so movement of basilar and vestibular membranes causes relative movement of hair cell stereocilia.
  • Results in depolarisation of receptor cells and activity in fibres of cochlear nerve.
  • Fibres of basilar membrane are of different length – shortest at base and longest at apex. Fibres at different parts of the cochlea are therefore tuned to vibrate at different frequencies. Depending on frequency of sound, different afferent fibres are stimulated.
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17
Q

What happens at the base of the shell?

A

[*] At the base of the shell the bony labyrinth communicates with the subarachnoid space via the cochlear aqueduct.

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18
Q

Describle the Vestibule

A

The vestibule, a small oval chamber, contains the utricle and saccule and is concerned with balance. Semicircular canals + Vestibule = Vestibular apparatus.

[*] The utricle and saccule each contain one receptor (called a macula) that respond to linear acceleration and the static pull of gravity. Each macula consists of hair cells resting on supporting cells. Hair cells have many stereocilia and a long kinocilium embedded in overlying jellylike otolithic membrane. Otolithic membrane contains tiny CaCO3 crystals called otoliths. In the utricle macula is horizontal with hairs oriented vertically when head is upright. In saccule macula is nearly vertical and hairs protrude horizontally.

[*] On the vestibule’s lateral wall, the oval window is found; the stapes are attached to the middle ear aspect of this membrane.

[*] The vestibule is continuous with the cochlea anteriorly and the semicircular canals posteriorly, and the posterior cranial fosse via the aqueduct which opens posterolateral to the internal auditory meatus.

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19
Q

Describe the Semicircular Canals

A

[*] The semicircular canals are 3 in number and communicate with the vestibule. They are set at right angles (perpendicular) (anterior, posterior and lateral/horizontal) to each other. Each canal forms about two thirds of a circle and its end exhibits an expanded ampulla.

  • Within the canals are the semicircular ducts.
  • The semicircular ducts contain receptors that respond to rotational acceleration in 3 different planes including detecting acceleration and position of head. The receptors for dynamic equilibrium, crista ampullaris, are located in the ampullae of the semicircular canals.
  • Each crista ampullaris consist of supporting cells and hair cells which project into a gel-like mass, the cupola
    • Hair cells carry number of stereocilia and one long kinocilium and make synaptic connections with vestibular nerve fibres
    • Cristae respond to velocity of rotational movement of head.
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20
Q

Describe the fibres the vestibulocochlear nerve provides to the inner ear

A

Cranial nerve VIII (vestibulocochlear or auditory) provides special sensory fibres to the inner ear.

[*] The fibres reach the inner ear by passing through the internal acoustic meatus, an opening on the inner aspect of the petrous temporal bone.

[*] Over part of this course, the nerve is accompanied by the facial nerve (Cranial nerve VII)

21
Q

What is meant by an Auricular Haematoma?

A
  • Trauma resulting in bleeding within the auricle may produce an Auricular Haematoma. A localised collection of blood forms between the Perichondrium and the Auricular Cartilage, causing distortion of the contours of the auricle.
  • If the blood is not aspirated, fibrosis develops in the overlying skin, forming a deformed auricle (Cauliflower or Boxer’s ear)
  • Haematoma between cartilage and perichondrium preventing oxygenation of the avascular cartilage (which relies on diffusion of gases and nutrients from the perichondrium), resulting in pressure necrosis of the cartilage itself
22
Q

List some Congenital Pinna deformities

A
  • Antihelix deformity
  • Pinna malformation
  • Pre-auricular pit
  • Pre-auricular skin tag
23
Q

Describe Acute Otitis Externa and Exotoses

A

[*] Acute Otitis Externa

  • Infection/inflammation of the external acoustic meatus and/or outer ear
  • Often develops in swimmers who do not dry their meatus after swimming]
  • Itching and pain in the external ear
  • Pulling the auricle or applying pressure on the tragus increases pain
  • Can be secondary to dermatitis

[*] Exotoses (formation of new bone on the surface of a bone, because of excessive calcium forming => can cause chronic pain, very rarely found on the skull)

24
Q

Describe Reversible Disorders of the External Ear

A
  • Physical blockage of the external auditory meatus will lead to apparent deafness due to conduction block of sound energy as it travels in air through the meatus.
  • Common in young children
  • Excessive production of cerumen/ear wax
25
Q

List some infections of the external ear

A
  • Otitis externa – Bacterial/Fungal
  • Perichondritis (inflammation of the outer ear cartilage) – Bacterial
  • Bullous Myringitis (inflammatory condition of the eardrum/tympanic membrane) – Viral
  • BEWARE of necrotising otitis externa infections in elderly diabetics – temporal bone osteomyelitis +/- cranial nerves
26
Q

Describe Tympanosclerosis and Perforations of the Tympanic Membrane

A

[*] Tympanosclerosis aka Myringosclerosis is a condition in which there is calcification of tissue in the eardrum and middle ear – if extensive it may affect hearing.

[*] Perforations

  • May result from otitis media, the insertion of foreign bodies, trauma, excessive pressure (e.g. from scuba diving.
  • One of several causes of middle ear deafness
  • Minor ruptures of the membrane often heal spontaneously – as long as there is no infection.
  • Inflammation of tympanic membrane is known as myringitis.
  • Large ruptures require surgical repair.
27
Q

Describe Acute Otitis Media including its possible complications

A
  • Infection of the middle ear – occurs between the tympanic membrane and inner ear.
  • Often secondary to upper respiratory infections (via the Eustachian tube) and more common in children, as their Eustachian tube is shorter and more horizontal (straight), making it easier for organisms to travel up it and harder for fluid to drain away from the middle ear
  • Infection within middle ear can be non-secretory but in some cases products of inflammatory responses can clog up the middle ear (which is normally filled with air) to produce a build-up and therefore increase in middle ear pressure. This results in an outer bulging of the tympanic membrane.
  • Earache and bulging red tympanic membrane – pus or fluid in the middle ear
  • In severe untreated cases, the tympanic membrane will rupture leading to drainage of pus through the external auditory meatus. Treatment is often routine as patients will present with pain and discomfort. The most common bacterial agent is streptococcus pneumoniae but others include haemophilus influenzae and morazella catarrhalis (common URT pathogens)
  • Inflammation of the mucous membrane lining the tympanic cavity may cause partial or complete blockage of the Eustachian tube.
  • Complications include Chronic, Perforation, CN VII Palsy, SNHL (sensorineural hearing loss), Mastoiditis, Meningitis, Cerebral Abscess
28
Q

Describe Otitis Media with Effusion

A

[*] Otitis Media with Effusion (aka Serous otitis media)

  • Secretory otitis media
  • Secretions of the middle ear accumulate together with products of inflammation
  • Often exacerbated by Eustachian tube dysfunction
  • It is theorized that the fluid transudate may develop in 2 ways: the first is from increased vascular permeability due to inflammation and the second may be due to a negative pressure gradient which can occur when the Eustachian tube is obstructed.
  • Acute suppuration with back pressure into the mastoid cavity leads to Mastoiditis.
  • Mastoiditis and acute otitis media can lead to intracranial infection and death as the mastoid air cells are related superiorly to the middle cranial fossa, and posteriorly to the posterior cranial fossa so infections may spread to cause meningitis etc. Other surrounding structures include the facial nerve canal, the sigmoid sinus and the lateral sinus. The infective process causes inflammation of the mastoid and surrounding tissues and may lead to bony destruction.
29
Q

What is meant by Glue Ear?

A

Often results as a chronic variant of otitis media with effusion

  • Characterised by adherence of tympanic membrane to ear ossicles
  • Middle ear negative pressure results in the ossicles shrink-wrapped in thick mucous and lining of tympanic membrane.
  • It is treated by improving drainage via Eustachian tube
  • Use of grommets to ventilate middle ear. These are ventilation tubes applied through the tympanic membrane. Aeration will not promote anaerobic bugs to thrive and the tubes will equalise the middle ear pressure
  • Pharmacotherapy regimens for infections
  • Complications
    • Infections can then spread into the middle cranial fossa via temporal bone
    • Infections can spread into posterior cranial fossa via epitympanic recess and mastoid antrum
    • Infections can spread into sigmoid venous sinus via mastoid air cells.
    • Compromise to hearing (results in conductive hearing loss). In children, loss of hearing can cause delayed maturation of brain. If it remains untreated, this loss of hearing might lead to mental retardation.
30
Q

What is meant by Chronic Suppurative Otitis Media?

A

Chronic suppurative otitis media: perforated tympanic membrane with persistent drainage from the middle ear (i.e. lasting >6-12 weeks). Chronic suppuration can occur with or without cholesteatoma.

CSOM is different from chronic serous otitis media as the latter may be defined as a middle ear effusion without perforation that is reported to persist for more than 1-3 months. The chronically draining ear in CSOM is more difficult to treat.

31
Q

What is a Cholesteatoma?

A
  • Blockage of the Eustachian tube leads to negative middle ear pressure
  • Negative pressure leads to retraction pockets
  • Dead skin cells accumulate in the pockets
  • Necrotic mass of dead skin => Cholesteatoma/Colesteatoma
  • Erosion of middle ear structures and bone via lytic enzymes
32
Q

Describe Mastoiditis

A

[*] Infections of the mastoid antrum and mastoid air cells

[*] Results from otitis media

[*] Causes inflammation of the mastoid process => swelling behind the ear

[*] Infection may spread superiorly into the middle cranial fossa through the petrosquamous fissure in children => osteomyelitis.

[*] Can lead to intracranial bleeding and death

33
Q

Describe blockage of the Eustachian tube leading to dysfunction, and adenoidal hypertrophy

A

[*] Easily blocked by swelling of mucus membrane

  • Even from mild infections e.g. a cold, as walls of its cartilaginous part are normally already in apposition
  • When tube is occluded, residual air in the tympanic cavity is absorbed into mucosal blood vessels => lower (negative) pressure in the tympanic cavity => retraction of the tympanic membrane (membrane is drawn in)
  • This refraction interferes with the free movement of the tympanic membrane (vibrations) affects hearing
  • Adenoidal hypertrophy (hypertrophy of the nasopharyngeal/pharyngeal tonsil) can block the opening to the tube in the Nasopharynx
    • Children 3-8
    • Epstein-barr virus (EBV)
34
Q

What and why is the middle ear susceptible to respiratory pathogens?

A

The middle ear is lined by respiratory epithelium therefore susceptible to disease caused by respiratory tract pathogens:

[*] Streptococcus pneumoniae

[*] Haemophilus influenzae

[*] Moraxella catarrhalis

[*] Viruses

35
Q

Describe common disorders of the ear ossicles

A

[*] These are the 3 smallest bones of the body

[*] Joints between ossicles (synovial) can become rigid due to calcification.

[*] ** Osteosclerosis is the fusing of the stapes to the oval window**, resulting in dampened movements of the ossicles (hence, hearing problems).

36
Q

Why is the facial nerve susceptible in middle ear disease?

A

[*] The facial nerve runs through the middle ear and is vulnerable to damage from middle ear disease.

[*] The Chorda Tympani can also be affected.

37
Q

Differentiate between Sensorineural and Conductive Hearing Loss & Balance

A

[*] Sensorineural hearing loss: results from defects in the pathway from cochlea to brain (vibrations not perceived in cochlear)

  • Defects of cochlea (defect may be in the transduction mechanism)
  • Defects of cochlear nerve (branch of the vestibulocochlear nerve)
  • Defects of brainstem
  • Cochlear implants can restore hearing: external microphone transmitting to an implanted receiver that sends electrical impulses to the cochlea, stimulating the cochlear nerve

[*] Conductive Hearing Loss (vibrations do not reach cochlear)

  • Results from anything in the external or middle ear that interferes with the conduction of sound or movement of the oval or round windows.
  • People with this type of hearing loss often speak with a soft voice – to them, their own voices sound louder than background sounds.
  • May be improved surgically or by use of a hearing device.
38
Q

Describe the consequences of paralysis of the Stapedius muscle

A

[*] E.g. from lesion of the facial nerve

[*] Loss of protective action against loud noises

[*] Hyperacusis or hyperacusia

39
Q

What is Motion Sickness?

A

Discordance between vestibular and visual stimulation

40
Q

What are the 3 major symptoms of injuries of the peripheral auditory system?

A

Dizziness and Hearing Loss: injuries of the peripheral auditory system cause 3 major symptoms

[*] Hearing loss: usually conductive

[*] Vertigo (dizziness): when the injury involves the semicircular ducts. Causes

  • Vascular
  • Epilepsy
  • Receiving treatment
  • Tumours, trauma, thyroid
  • Infections
  • Glial (MS)
  • Ocular

[*] Tinnitus: buzzing or ringing

41
Q

What is meant by BPPV and Meniere Syndrome?

A

Benign Positional Paroxysmal Vertigo (BPPV)

[*] Vertigo typically lasts seconds

[*] Due to otolith displacement (crystals in the macula receptors)

Meniere Syndrome

[*] Primary (idiopathic) endolymphatic hydrops – disorder of the vestibular system, thought to stem from abnormal fluctuations in the endolymph => distended endolymphatic space.

[*] Recurrent attacks of tinnitus, hearing loss and vertigo and accompanied by a sense of pressure deep inside the ear (aural fullness). Symptoms and severity vary widely. Other symptoms include distortion of sounds and sensitivity to noise

[*] Typically lasts minutes/hours

42
Q

Describe Otalgia, Pruritis and Otorrhea

A

Otalgia (ear pain) may be related to inflammatory conditions in or around the ear

[*] External otitis (infection of the external ear) and otitis media (infection of the middle ear) are very common causes of locally produced pain.

[*] Pain from the teeth, pharynx or cervical spine is commonly referred to the ear.

[*] Inflammation, trauma or neoplasms anywhere along the course of the trigeminal, facial, glossopharyngeal and vagus cranial nerves or CN II or CN III may be responsible for referred pain to the ipsilateral (same side) ear

Pruritis (itching) of the ear may result from primary disorder of the external ear or from a discharge from the middle ear.

Otorrhea (discharge from the ear) generally indicates acute or chronic infection.

[*] A blood discharge may be associated with leakage of cerebrospinal fluid associated with skull fracture.

43
Q

What does examination of the ear involve?

A

[*] The physical examination of the ear is performed with the examiner seated in front of the patient.

[*] Examination includes an external examination, inspection of the external auditory canal using an otoscope and a speculum and testing auditory acuity.

44
Q

Describe external examination of the ear

A

[*] Gently pull pinna upwards, outwards and backwards (directly down and backward in children)

[*] The auricle (pinna) of the ear is inspected for size, position and shape.

[*] Always examine the ear from front, sides, behind and inside. Never forget to compare both sides.

[*] Palpated for tenderness, swelling or nodules

[*] If pain is elicited by pulling up or down on the pinna or by pressing in on the tragus, an external ear infection is likely to be present.

[*] The external ear is inspected for deformities, nodules, inflammation, lesions and discharge

[*] If discharge is present, its characteristics (colour, consistency and clarity) are noted.

[*] The posterior auricular region is inspected for scars or swelling.

[*] The examiner should apply pressure on the mastoid tip, which should be painless; tenderness may indicate pus formation in the mastoid bone.

45
Q

Describe Otoscopic Examination

A

[*] To examine the right ear, the otoscope is held in the right hand.

[*] The external auditory canal is straightened by pulling the auricle up, out and back using the left hand.

[*] The straighter the canal, the easier the visualisation and the more comfortable the examination will be for the patient.

[*] In the child, the canal should be straightened by pulling the auricle down and back.

[*] The patient is asked to turn his/her head to the side slightly, so that the examiner can examine the ear more comfortably.

[*] After examining the right ear, the left ear is examined.

[*] Evidence of redness, swelling or tenderness in the canal indicates inflammation.

[*] The walls of the canal should be free of foreign bodies, scaliness or discharge.

[*] Any wax should be left as it is, unless it interferes with the visualisation of the rest of the canal and tympanic membrane; removal of wax is best left to the experienced examiner because any manipulation may result in trauma or abrasions.

[*] In the presence of a discharge, careful examination is carried out to evaluate its site of origin.

46
Q

Describe the appearance of a normal tympanic membrane and what a tympanic membrane might look like in disease

A

The tympanic membrane should appear as an intact, translucent, pearly grey membrane at the end of the canal.

[*] Blood vessels should be visible around the membrane perimeter.

[*] The normal position of the tympanic membrane is oblique to the external canal.

[*] The superior margin is closer to the examiner’s eye.

[*] In the normal ear, the handle of the malleus should be seen near the centre of the tympanic membrane. In the presence of a retracted tympanic membrane, the malleus is seen in sharp outline and the other ossicles may be seen.

[*] In disease, the membrane may be dull and becomes red or yellow. Blood vessels may be dilated (usually referred to as ‘injection of the drum’).

[*] Dense, white plaques on the tympanic membrane may be due to tympanosclerosis.

[*] Bulging of the membrane may indicate fluid or pus in the middle ear.

[*] A retracted tympanic membrane occurs when intratympanic cavity pressures are reduced e.g. due to obstruction of the Eustachian tube.

[*] Also look for chalky deposits, cholesteatoma and fluid bubbles (effusion)

47
Q

Describe the Weber Test

A

[*] Put the vibrating tuning fork on the centre of a patient’s forehead. Ask the patient is the sound is louder in one ear, and if so, which one

[*] Results

Normal: the sound can be heard equally in both ears
Abnormal:

  • In conductive deafness, sound is loudest in abnormal ear (lateralization). This is because the conduction problem of the middle ear masks the ambient noise of the room while the well-functioning inner ear (cochlea with its basilar membrane) picks the sound up via the bones of the skull, causing it to be perceived as a louder sound in the affected ear.
  • In sensorineural deafness, sound is quietest in abnormal ear

[*] NB: in a patient with symmetrical hearing loss, the sound will be the same in both ears (no lateralization) so Weber test can only diagnose asymmetric (one-sided) hearing loss.

48
Q

Describe the Rhine Test

A

[*] Examine each ear in turn

[*] Put the vibrating tuning fork just in front of the ear (not touching it), then on the mastoid process. Ask the patient to tell you which position was loudest for them.

[*] Results:

Normal: the sound is best heard at the mastoid process
Abnormal:

  • In conductive deafness, the sound is heard best at the mastoid process
  • In sensorineural deafness, the sound is heard best in front of the ear.

NB: you will get a false negative Rhinne positive if the patient has a non-functioning ear on the side being tested, as they can actually hear the sound of the vibrating fork on the opposite ear