Session 2: Vertebral Column and Spinal Cord Flashcards

1
Q

Which part is the lamina of the vertebra?

A

Between the spinous process and the transverse process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the pedicle in the vertebra

A

Between the transverse process and the vertebral body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What name is giving to the joints between the articular facets ofadjacent vertebrae?

A

Zygapophysial joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe some distinctive features of cervical vertebrae.

A
  • triangular vertebral foramen
  • short, rectangular body
  • foramina transversaria (for vertebral arteries)
  • bifid spinous process (except C1/C7)
  • almost horizontal articular facets inf & sup
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe some distinctive features of thoracic vertebrae.

A
  • circular vertebral foramen
  • large heart-shaped body
  • long spinous process (projects inf)
  • inf & sup costal facets on either side of body = articulate with rib
  • transerve facets to articulate with rib tubercle
  • vertical articular facets face post & ant
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe some distinctive features of lumbar vertebrae.

A
  • triangular vertebral foramen
  • very large kidney-shaped body
  • short & blunt spinous process
  • very long transverse process
  • rounded upper & lower facets = no rotation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How many bones fuse to form the sacrum?

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe the structure of the sacrum.

A

Concave anterior surface
Triangular in shape
L shaped articular facets (for articulation with pelvic bones)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How many bones fuse to form the coccyx?

A

3-4

Vertebral arches and canal are absent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What two types of joint are found between vertebrae?

A

Symphyses – between adjacent vertebral bodies

Synovial Joints – between articular processes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How many joints are there between two typical vertebrae?

A
6 
2 symphyses (above and below) 
4 synovial joints (2 superior and 2 inferior)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Between which vertebrae do you find intervertebral discs?

A

C2-S1

There is no intervertebral disc between C1 and C2 (you instead get atlanto-axial joint capsules)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the two parts of the intervertebral disc?

A

Nucleus pulposus

Annulus fibrosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe how problems with the intervertebral disc can lead to potential clinical problems.

A

Degenerative changes in the annulus fibrosus can lead to herniation of the nucleus pulposus, which can then impinge on spinal nerves or the spinal cord
spinal nerve below is affected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Name the two ligaments that rung along the length of the vertebral bodies from the skull to the sacrum.

A

Anterior and Posterior Longitudinal Ligaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which ligament is typically damaged in whiplash?

A

Anterior Longitudinal Ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the name given to the upper arm of the posterior longitudinal ligament going from C2 to the skull?

A

Tectorial Membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which ligament is pierced in lumbar puncture and where is it positioned relative to the vertebral bodies?

A

Ligamentum flavum – found between the laminae of adjacent vertebrae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Name the triangular sheet-like structure found in the upper vertebral column. Where is it attached?

A

Nuchal ligament – attached from C7 to the occipital bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What it continuous with the ligamentum nuchae and which part of the vertebrae is this attached to?

A

Supraspinous ligament

It is connects to the spinous processes from C7 to the sacrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which ligament lies between adjacent spinous processes?

A

Interspinous ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the three categories of muscles in the back and which muscles fall into each of these categories?

A
Superficial: 
 Trapezius
 Latissimus dorsi
 Levator scapulae
 Rhomboid minor
 Rhomboid major
Intermediate: 
 Serratus posterior superior 
 Serratus posterior inferior 
Deep 
 Spinotransversales
 Erector spinae
 Transversospinales
 Interspinales
 Intertransversarii
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

State the origin, insertion and function of:

a. Trapezius
b. Latissimus Dorsi
c. Levator Scapulae
d. Rhomboid Minor
e. Rhomboid Major

A
a. Trapezius 
Origin – external occipital protuberance, cervical and thoracic spine  
Insertion – clavicle and scapula  
Function – elevate and rotate the scapula when the humerus is abducted 
b. Latissimus Dorsi
Origin – T7 to sacrum + thoracolumbar fasica + posterior 1/3 of iliac crest   
Insertion – intertubercular sulcus of the humerus  
Function – extends, adducts and medially rotates the humerus
c. Levator Scapulae 
Origin – transverse processes of C1-C4
Insertion – upper medial scapula  
Function – elevates the scapula
d. Rhomboid Minor 
Origin – spinous processes of C7-T1
Insertion – medial border of scapula  
Function – adduct and elevate scapula
e. Rhomboid Major 
Origin – spinous processes of T2-T5
Insertion – medial border of scapula 
Function – adduct and elevate scapula
24
Q

Where are the erector spinae muscles found and what is their function?

A

Extend the vertebral column (stabilise and control movement)

Lie posterolaterally to the vertebral column between the spinous processes medially and the angles of the ribs laterally

25
Q

Describe the flexibility of the different parts of the spine

A

Cervical = most flexible part of spine:
- horizontal zygapophyseal joints = good rotation
- less surrounding tissue = good flex/extend (+ lat)
Upper thoracic: ~ vertical zygapophyseal joints = no AP flexion/extension, limited lateral flexion & rotation
Lower thoracic: limited flexion/extension, good lateral flexion & rotation
Lumbar: large intervertebral discs = good flexion & extension; articular surfaces interlock = no rotation + very limited lateral flexion

26
Q

Describe the shape of the atlas (C1).

A

It has NO vertebral body

It consists of two lateral masses with an anterior and posterior arch

27
Q

Describe the articulations of the atlas.

A

The two lateral masses articulate superiorly with the occipital condyles and inferiorly with the superior articular surfaces of C2

28
Q

Describe the structure of the axis (C2).

A

It is a typical cervical vertebra with the body extended upwards to form the dens (odontoid process)

29
Q

Which ligaments are attached to the dens?

A

The transverse ligament of the atlas keeps the dens in place, against the articular surface on the posterior surface of the anterior arch of theatlas.
Alar ligaments are attached to the superiolateral surfaces of the dens and the medial occipital condyles. The alar ligaments prevent excessive rotation of the head.
There are also longitudinal fascicles of the cruciform ligament (this crosses over the transverse ligament of the atlas to form the cruciate ligament)

30
Q

State 5 important vertebral landmarks and how you would identify them on an individual.

A

C7 – vertebra prominens
T3 – level of the medial end of the scapular spine
T7 – level of the inferior angle of the scapula
L2 – level of the lowest rib
L4 – level with the iliac crest

31
Q

How many sacral vertebrae are there?

A

5 (fused)

32
Q

How many coccygeal vertebrae are there?

A

1-4 (fused)

33
Q

How many vertebrae are there in total?

A

30-33 depending on how many coccygeal vertebrae there are

34
Q

Which layer of cranial dura mater is the spinal dura mater continuous with?

A

Meningeal layer of the cranial dura

35
Q

At what level does the dural sac narrow around the filum terminale?

A

S2

36
Q

What space is present in the vertebral column that you don’t find in the skull?

A

Epidural space

37
Q

What does the epidural space contain?

A

Connective tissue
Fat
Internal vertebral venous plexus

38
Q

What is the arachnoid membrane and where does it end?

A

It is a thin, delicate membrane that is against but not adherent to the deep surface of the dura mater.
It ends at S2

39
Q

What thin structures interconnect the arachnoid and pia mater?

A

Arachnoid trabeculae – these also suspend vessels in the subarachnoid space

40
Q

Where does the subarachnoid space end?

A

S2

41
Q

What is the spinal pia mater?

A

A vascular membrane that firmly adheres to the surface of the spinal cord

42
Q

What are the longitudinally oriented sheets of pia mater that youfind on either side of the spinal cord?

A

Denticulate ligaments

43
Q

Where do the denticulate ligaments attach medially and laterally?

A

Medially – to the spinal cord

Laterally – form a series of triangular extensions that anchor through the arachnoid membrane to the dura mater

44
Q

Why would you perform a lumbar puncture?

A

To obtain some CSF (e.g. to test for meningitis)

To inject spinal anaesthesia (into the epidural space) for pelvis/ lower limb surgery

45
Q

At which level would you perform a lumbar puncture?

A

L3/L4 in an adult

1 or 2 vertebral spaces lower in a child

46
Q

Which ligament is pierced in lumbar puncture? List spaces/membranes you pierce through when you perform epidural/CSF aspiration

A

skin → supraspinous - interspinous ligaments - ligamentum flavum (give felt) → epidural space → dura + arachnoid (pop/give) → into subarachnoid space = CSF should pass out

For epidural (slower & longer acting) anaesthesia stop at epidural space

47
Q

Why would you never do a lumbar puncture in the case of raised intracranial pressure?

A

It will cause a sudden relieving of pressure, which could have brainstem herniation and death.

48
Q

State some signs of cervical spine injury.

A

Low blood pressure + high pulse
Large erection (Custer’s last stand)
Flaccid paralysis
Large bladder and inability to micturate

49
Q

What steps would you take in the on scene management of a potential C-spine injury?

A

Assume unstable fracture
Assume neck pain if unable to communicate neck pain
Use cervical collar and blocks to immobilize the neck

50
Q

What steps would you take in the hospital management of a potential C-spine injury?

A

Take lateral and AP C-spine – if fracture, image with CT/MRI
Give steroids – could prevent the death of around 1 cm of spinal cord
Treat any other symptoms e.g. low BP

51
Q

Why is lower back pain the most common form of back pain?

A

Low spine is subject to increased stresses of weight bearing so the lumbar region is most commonly affected.
 We tend to abuse our backs, particularly when lifting heavy objects.
 Extending the spine from the fully flexed position under a heavy load can inflame intervertebral joints or place unequal pressureon the intervertebral disks, leading to local joint pain and referred neurological pain, if there is also pressure on the spinal nerve
 Additional attempts to rotate the spine at the same time creates extra stress on the lumbar joints.

52
Q

State 3 common deviations in spinal curvature & the normal curvatures

A

Primary (ant concave) = thoracic & sacral
Secondary (post convex) = cervical & lumbar

Scoliosis = abnormal lateral curvature of the spine  
Kyphosis = excessive outward curvature of the spine, causing hunching of the back   
Lordosis = excessive inward curvature of the spine
53
Q

Summarise spinal blood supply

A

Post spinal arteries from PICA

Anterior spinal artery from vertebral (sup) and intercostal/iliac (inf)

54
Q
Define:
Spondolysis
Spondylolysis
Spondylitis
Spondylisthesis
A

spondolysis (degeneration of vertebral column)
spondylolysis (broken pars interarticularis)
spondylisthesis (forward displacement of vertebra)
spondylitis (inflammation of vertebrae)

55
Q

List three common types of spinal injury

A
  • hyperextension (whiplash) injury - ‘tear-drop’ fracture and dislocation of vertebra & torn ant longitudinal ligament
  • dislocation of cervical vertebrae
  • excessive compressive force from occipital condyles to C1 = ‘Jefferson’ (burst) fracture on anterior/ posterior arches
56
Q

What is the clinical significance of the internal vertebral venous plexus (in terms of cancer)?

A

Batson veins (venous plexus) connects deep pelvic veins with the internal vertebral venous plexus = possible route of metastasis of prostate, bladder or rectal cancer into to the spine (also infection)