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N10-006 > Session 2 > Flashcards

Session 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Which is true about managed and unmanaged switches?
Choices:

A - Managed switches can be configured while unmanaged switches cannot
B - Managed switches have a GUI while unmanaged switches are command-line only
C - Managed switches are administered locally while unmanaged switches are administered remotely
D - Managed switches have VLANs that can be tagged
and VLANs in unmanaged switches

A

A - Managed switches can be configured while unmanaged switches cannot

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2
Q

Which is not part of AAA configuration for switch management?
Choices:

A - Auditing
B - Accounting
C - Authorization
D - Authentication

A

A - Auditing

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3
Q

Which is true about native VLANs and default VLANs?
Choices:

A - Native VLANs are tagged and a default VLAN is mandatory
B - Native VLANs are untagged and a default VLAN is mandatory
C - Native VLANs are tagged and a default VLAN is not mandatory
D - Native VLANs are untagged and a default VLAN is not mandatory

A

B - Native VLANs are untagged and a default VLAN is mandatory

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4
Q

Which is the native VLAN trunking protocol for Cisco?
Choices:

A - VTA
B - STA
C - VTP
D - STP

A

C - VTP

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5
Q

Which part of switches carries information between two devices with more than one VLAN?
Choices:

A - Tagging
B - Trunking
C - Port bonding
D - Port mirroring

A

B - Trunking

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6
Q

What would cause flooding if STP fails?
Choices:

A - A broadcast from a switch to a machine
B - A broadcast from multiple switches to a machine
C - A broadcast from a machine to a single switch port
D - A broadcast from a machine to each gigabit port on a switch

A

D - A broadcast from a machine to each gigabit port on a switch

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7
Q

What is the overall purpose of port bonding?
Choices:

A - The port-to-port connection between VLANs
B - The port-to-port connection between routers
C - The port-to-port connection between switches
D - The use of multiple ports to increase performance

A

D - The use of multiple ports to increase performance

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8
Q

Which protocol is used for remote monitoring of traffic?
Choices:

A - STP
B - RSTP
C - SPAN
D - RSPAN

A

D - RSPAN

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9
Q

When assigning an IP address to a switch, what else must be assigned?
Choices:

A - Port
B - DNS server
C - Subnet mask
D - Default gateway

A

C - Subnet mask

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10
Q

All of the switches in a network are using PoE. To make sure all of the switches continue to run in case of a brownout, how many UPS devices are needed?
Choices:

A - 0
B - 1
C - 2
D - 3

A

B - 1

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11
Q

What is the role of power converters in power management?
Choices:

A - Step power up
B - Step voltage down
C - Temporarily replace an unstable circuit
D - Keep power going in case of a power outage

A

B - Step voltage down

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12
Q

What is the first job of a UPS in a network environment?
Choices:

A - Step power up
B - Step voltage down
C - Temporarily replace an unstable circuit
D - Keep power going temporarily in case of a power outage

A

D - Keep power going temporarily in case of a power outage

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13
Q

What is the role of power inverters in power management?
Choices:

A - Step power up
B - Step voltage down
C - Temporarily replace an unstable circuit
D - Keep power going in case of a power outage

A

A - Step power up

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14
Q

What is the main purpose of a server rail rack?
Choices:

A - Hold the servers in the rack
B - Support servers without being mounted to a wall
C - To have servers attached to the rack in one location
D - To have servers attached to the rack in multiple locations

A

A - Hold the servers in the rack

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15
Q

In a two-post rack, where are the servers attached to the rack system?
Choices:

A - Front and back
B - Top and bottom
C - Twice on one side
D - Once on each side

A

D - Once on each side

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16
Q

What is the main goal of a free-standing rack?
Choices:

A - Hold the servers in the rack
B - Support servers without being mounted to a wall
C - To have servers attached to the rack in one location
D - To have servers attached to the rack in multiple locations

A

B - Support servers without being mounted to a wall

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17
Q

In addition to monitoring racks for access, what should also be monitored?
Choices:

A - Spacing
B - Structure
C - Performance
D - Environmental conditions

A

D - Environmental conditions

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18
Q

What is the best way to secure a rack?
Choices:

A - Place it in a mantrap
B - Through video monitoring
C - Place it where a security guard can see it
D - Place it in a room where a special key code or badge is needed to enter

A

D - Place it in a room where a special key code or badge is needed to enter

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19
Q

A technician wants to know what else to label besides patch panels so that an accurate network diagram can be built. What should the technician label in this case?
Choices:

A - Ports
B - Racks
C - Circuits
D - Systems

A

A - Ports

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20
Q

A technician opens the electrical box containing all of the power switches in a building but has no idea which ones to turn on to try to restore power. What kind of labeling is needed so that the technician does not have that problem again?
Choices:

A - Ports
B - Racks
C - Circuits
D - Systems

A

C - Circuits

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21
Q

A network guide states that each port should have a label containing the floor number, a dash, and then a port number corresponding to a cubicle area number hanging from a ceiling. What is this an example of?
Choices:

A - Naming system
B - Naming convention
C - Port labeling system
D - Area labeling system

A

B - Naming convention

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22
Q

Which are considerations for device placement in a network? Choose three.
Choices:

A - Safety
B - Airflow
C - Electrical access
D - User preference

A

A - Safety
B - Airflow
C - Electrical access

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23
Q

What could, without an emergency, cause temperatures in server racks to be either too high or too low?
Choices:

A - Improper air flow
B - Overloading the CPU
C - Maximizing RAM use
D - Performing server maintenance

A

A - Improper air flow

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24
Q

On which layer of the OSI model are GIFs and MPEGs handled?
Choices:

A - Layer 4
B - Layer 5
C - Layer 6
D - Layer 7

A

C - Layer 6

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25
Q

Which part of layer 2 of the OSI model is responsible for error correcting and flow-control?
Choices:

A - IP
B - LLC
C - MAC
D - Switch

A

B - LLC

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26
Q

On which layer on the OSI model does a switch with routing capability operate?
Choices:

A - Layer 1
B - Layer 2
C - Layer 3
D - Layer 4

A

C - Layer 3

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27
Q

Which are protocols that operate on layer 5 of the OSI model? Choose three.
Choices:

A - NFS
B - SMB
C - SNMP
D - NetBIOS

A

A - NFS
B - SMB
D - NetBIOS

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28
Q

Which protocol is a connection-oriented protocol?
Choices:

A - IP
B - TCP
C - UDP
D - SNMP

A

B - TCP

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29
Q

As a data packet is traveling down through the OSI model, what is taking place when encapsulation is taking place? Choose two.
Choices:

A - Trailers are being added
B - Headers are being added
C - A protocol is being added
D - An address is being added

A

A - Trailers are being added

B - Headers are being added

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30
Q

A user can reach a website but cannot ping the website. The company hosting the website has probably blocked which protocol?
Choices:

A - TCP
B - UDP
C - ICMP
D - IGMP

A

C - ICMP

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31
Q

Which type of multiplexing is used by broadband transmissions?
Choices:

A - TDM
B - FDM
C - BDM
D - MDM

A

B - FDM

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32
Q

What is common to both analog and digital techniques for sending/receiving data? Choose two.
Choices:

A - Baseband
B - Broadband
C - Mutliplexing
D - De-multiplexing

A

C - Mutliplexing

D - De-multiplexing

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33
Q

What type of transmission uses TDM?
Choices:

A - Satellite
B - Ethernet
C - Baseband
D - Broadband

A

C - Baseband

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34
Q

Which is true about baud rates and bit rates?
Choices:

A - Both are measured in bits per second
B - Both are measured in kilobits per second
C - Baud rates are measured in Hz while bit rates are measured in bits per second
D - Baud rates are measured in Hz while bit rates are measured in kilobits per second.

A

C - Baud rates are measured in Hz while bit rates are measured in bits per second

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35
Q

How does sampling affect overall performance of the network?
Choices:

A - It makes it faster
B - It makes it slower
C - It has no effect on performance
D - It has long-term positive effects on performance.

A

B - It makes it slower

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36
Q

Which are types of carrier detect/sense networks for wired and wireless networks? Choose two.
Choices:

A - CDMA/CA
B - CDMA/CD
C - CSMA/CA
D - CSMA/CD

A

C - CSMA/CA

D - CSMA/CD

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37
Q

What is the distance between identical points in adjacent cycles of a waveform signal on a wire known as?
Choices:

A - Baud
B - Division
C - Channel
D - Wavelength

A

D - Wavelength

38
Q

What needs to be known before a change request can even be considered?
Choices:

A - Authorized downtime
B - Network configuration
C - Notification of change
D - Reason for the change

A

D - Reason for the change

39
Q

One part of a change request is to indicate how the change will take place. What is this known as?
Choices:

A - Notification
B - Potential impact
C - Rollback process
D - Configuration procedures

A

D - Configuration procedures

40
Q

Which part of a change request indicates the level to which change will affect users?
Choices:

A - Notification
B - Potential impact
C - Approval process
D - Rollback process

A

B - Potential impact

41
Q

Who should be notified of a change request?
Choices:

A - The users it will impact
B - The network administrator
C - The requestor’s functional manager
D - The committee that handles change requests

A

D - The committee that handles change requests

42
Q

What is the time allowed for a system to be nonfunctional while changes to the network are taking place?
Choices:

A - Time off
B - Planned downtime
C - Proposed downtime
D - Authorized downtime

A

D - Authorized downtime

43
Q

A router has been added to a network for the purpose of load balancing. What should be updated?
Choices:

A - DNS table
B - ARP table
C - Routing table
D - Network diagram

A

D - Network diagram

44
Q

When should a network diagram be updated with any physical location changes to a network?
Choices:

A - Before the change
B - During the change
C - Right after the change
D - When someone requests that the document be updated

A

C - Right after the change

45
Q

Which is a popular example of a network controller?
Choices:

A - A NIC
B - A file server
C - A domain controller
D - A network administrator

A

C - A domain controller

46
Q

A junior network administrator needs an explanation of a DHCP scope. Which would be the best explanation?
Choices:

A - A DHCP scope lists all of the subnets in the network
B - A DHCP scope lists all of the DHCP servers in the network
C - A DHCP scope lists machines that have a reserved IP address in the network
D - A DHCP scope is a range of IP addresses used to assign an IP address to a machine when it joins the network

A

D - A DHCP scope is a range of IP addresses used to assign an IP address to a machine when it joins the network

47
Q

In DHCP, what is the time an IP address is assigned to a device known as?
Choices:

A - Lease
B - Scope
C - Option
D - Reservation

48
Q

A corporate WAN has two offices. A DHCP server is set up at the main office. The remote office is set up on a different subnet. In order for its machines to reach the DHCP server in the main office, what needs to be set up?
Choices:

A - A VPN between the two locations
B - A DHCP relay agent on the DHCP server
C - A DHCP relay agent on a server other than the DHCP server
D - A static entry in the routing table on the two routers connecting the two offices

A

C - A DHCP relay agent on a server other than the DHCP server

49
Q

Which type of IP address is best suited for a network printer?
Choices:

A - IPv6
B - Static
C - APIPA
D - Dynamic

A

B - Static

50
Q

A network administrator needs to see both the IP address and a MAC address for a server. Which command will show both?
Choices:

A - ipconfig
B - ipconfig /all
C - ipconfig /renew
D - ipconfig /release

A

B - ipconfig /all

51
Q

On which ports does DHCP operate? Choose two.
Choices:

A - 53
B - 67
C - 68
D - 69

A

B - 67

C - 68

52
Q

A server needs to have both an IP address of 10.1.2.3 and an IP address of 74.25.52.25 as registered with an Internet provider. What needs to be enabled either on the server or on the router for this to work?
Choices:

A - NAT
B - PAT
C - DNAT
D - A second NIC

53
Q

A network administrator needs to set up address translation on a web server that both the internal network and external clients need to reach. What is the best form of address translation to set up?
Choices:

A - NAT
B - PAT
C - Static NAT
D - Dynamic NAT

A

C - Static NAT

54
Q

In which network address translation type is a private IP address mapped to a public IP address that is part of a pool of public IP addresses?
Choices:

A - NAT
B - PAT
C - Static NAT
D - Dynamic NAT

A

D - Dynamic NAT

55
Q

A small business wants a DNS entry so it can be accessed remotely by name. However, the business does not have a static IP address. What type of DNS entry can be set up to satisfy the business need?
Choices:

A - MX
B - Root
C - CNAME
D - Dynamic

A

D - Dynamic

56
Q

A new mail server has been installed on the network. Which type of DNS entry needs to be added to indicate that this server is responsible for handling mail on the network?
Choices:

A - A
B - MX
C - PTR
D - CNAME

57
Q

Which type of service provides machine-to-machine interaction over a network?
Choices:

A - IPsec
B - Web service
C - Unified voice service
D - Remote access service

A

B - Web service

58
Q

Which service provides for call control and communication gateways?
Choices:

A - Web service
B - Unified voice service
C - Remote Access Service
D - Routing and Remote Access Service

A

B - Unified voice service

59
Q

Lync Server and Unified Communications Manager are examples of which type of servers?
Choices:

A - UC
B - File
C - VoIP
D - Application

60
Q

On which port does HTTP operate?
Choices:

A - 80
B - 443
C - 445
D - 8080

61
Q

On which port does HTTPS operate?
Choices:

A - 80
B - 443
C - 445
D - 8080

62
Q

A user needs POP3 configured for incoming email. In the email setup, which port will be entered for POP3?
Choices:

A - 25
B - 110
C - 143
D - 465

63
Q

Which email protocol runs on port 143?
Choices:

A - IMAP
B - HTTP
C - SMTP
D - POP3

64
Q

Which ports are used for SIP? Choose two.
Choices:

A - 5060
B - 5061
C - 5062
D - 5063

A

A - 5060

B - 5061

65
Q

Which ports are used for MGCP? Choose two.
Choices:

A - 2427
B - 2527
C - 2627
D - 2727

A

A - 2427

D - 2727

66
Q

Which port number is typically used for addressing control for calls, multimedia, and bandwidth for video conferencing?
Choices:

A - 1720
B - 1721
C - 1722
D - 1723

67
Q

On which ports does FTP operate? Choose two.
Choices:

A - 20
B - 21
C - 23
D - 69

A

A - 20

B - 21

68
Q

On what port does SSH operate?
Choices:

A - 20
B - 21
C - 22
D - 23

69
Q

On which port does Telnet operate?
Choices:

A - 20
B - 21
C - 22
D - 23

70
Q

On what port does SMB operate?
Choices:

A - 69
B - 135
C - 443
D - 445

71
Q

A user is trying to connect via Remote Desktop but is unsuccessful. If this is a port issue, what port should the network administrator be looking at to see if it is blocked?
Choices:

A - 445
B - 1720
C - 3389
D - 5060

72
Q

What is true about TACACS+ and RADIUS?
Choices:

A - TACACS+ and RADIUS are standards-based protocols
B - TACACS+ and RADIUS are Cisco proprietary protocols
C - TACACS+ encrypts a password while RADIUS
encrypts an entire authentication packet
D - TACACS+ encrypts an entire authentication packet while RADIUS encrypts just the password

A

D - TACACS+ encrypts an entire authentication packet while RADIUS encrypts just the password

73
Q

Which is NOT a network traffic protection piece of IPsec?
Choices:

A - Integrity
B - Authorization
C - Confidentiality
D - Authentication

A

D - Authentication

74
Q

Which protocol supported dial-up networking in older versions of Windows?
Choices:

A - SSL
B - TLS
C - GRE
D - PPTP

75
Q

What technology prevents a router from advertising a route back to the router from which it was just learned?
Choices:

A - Split horizon
B - Convergence
C - Poison reverse
D - Triggered update

A

A - Split horizon

76
Q

A network administrator needs to add a route for a server at 10.1.3.4 for a /24 subnet to a default gateway of 10.1.3.1. What is the correct command used for this?
Choices:

A - route add 10.1.3.1 mask 255.0.0.0 10.1.3.4
B - route add 10.1.3.0 mask 255.255.255.0 10.1.3.1
C - route add 10.1.3.4 mask 255.255.255.0 10.1.3.1
D - There is no command to enter. If they are on the same subnet, the route will be added

A

B - route add 10.1.3.0 mask 255.255.255.0 10.1.3.1

77
Q

A route print table has been generated for a machine with an IP address of 10.3.4.5 and a default gateway of 10.3.4.1. What is the default routing destination in this scenario?
Choices:

A - 0.0.0.0
B - 10.3.4.1
C - 10.3.4.5
D - 255.255.255.0

A

A - 0.0.0.0

78
Q

Which routing protocol uses the SPF algorithm to find the lowest cost path to a network destination but does not distribute topology information to other routers?
Choices:

A - BGP
B - IS-IS
C - OSPF
D - RIPv2

79
Q

Which is true about BGP?
Choices:

A - It is a hybrid, exterior gateway protocol
B - It is a link-state, exterior gateway protocol
C - It is a distance-vector, interior gateway protocol
D - It is a distance-vector, exterior gateway protocol

A

A - It is a hybrid, exterior gateway protocol

80
Q

Which of the following protocols are interior gateway protocols? Choose three.
Choices:

A - BGP
B - IS-IS
C - RIPv2
D - OSPF

A

B - IS-IS
C - RIPv2
D - OSPF

81
Q

Which routing protocol supports autonomous system numbers?
Choices:

A - BGP
B - IS-IS
C - RIPv2
D - OSPF

82
Q

Which routing protocol provides virtual routers and also automatically assigns routers to hosts?
Choices:

A - HSRP
B - VRRP
C - RADIUS
D - Virtual IP

83
Q

What are virtual IP addresses assigned to for high availability in routing?
Choices:

A - Routers
B - Switches
C - Applications
D - Default gateways

A

C - Applications

84
Q

If a node is unreachable, what will the hop count return as?
Choices:

A - 0
B - n/a
C - null
D - infinity

A

D - infinity

85
Q

Which represents the largest packet size for a router to transfer?
Choices:

A - Hop
B - MTU
C - Cost
D - Bandwidth

86
Q

A user is complaining that a screen in a remote application is taking a long time to react to a keyboard press or a mouse click. What routing measurement numbers would be most likely higher than average here?
Choices:

A - Cost
B - Hops
C - Latency
D - Administrative distance

A

C - Latency

87
Q

Which protocol generally has the lowest administrative distance?
Choices:

A - RIP
B - EGP
C - IS-IS
D - OSPF

88
Q

Which would best describe a VPN?
Choices:

A - A private network over public lines
B - A private network over private lines
C - A private network using two physical routers
D - A private network using two physical switches

A

A - A private network over public lines

89
Q

Which device is best suited for terminating private connection tunnels?
Choices:

A - HIDS
B - Router
C - Firewall
D - VPN concentrator

A

D - VPN concentrator

90
Q

A user needs to access a particular machine in a network from a remote location. A network administrator configures a router to map a port number to the specific machine. What is this is an example of?
Choices:

A - NAT
B - Port translation
C - Port replicating
D - Port forwarding

A

D - Port forwarding

N10-006 (5 decks)

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