Session 1: 5/22/23 Flashcards

1
Q

what should you always vacuum mix? what should you never vacuum mix?

A

always: yellow stone and green stone
never: plaster

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2
Q

what are the four different ways a patient is presented?

A
  1. healthy
  2. diseased teeth
  3. tooth/teeth partially missing: partially edentulous
  4. completely edentulous
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3
Q

what must you do when pt presents diseased teeth

A

extract -> restore

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4
Q

what must you do when pt is partially edentulous

A

restore thru PRDP, FDP, or implant

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5
Q

complexity from least to most complex cases

Implants
PRDP
FDP

A

PRDP -> FDP -> Implants
as complexity increases, cost increases

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6
Q

what can “Partial” also be called?

A
  1. partial removable dental prosthesis (PRDP)
  2. removable partial denture (RPD)
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7
Q

what can a “Bridge” also be called?

A

fixed dental prosthesis (FDP)

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8
Q

which is the most superior: esthetics, function, or success of prosthesis?

A

all are the same. not one is superior than the other

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9
Q

what are the 2 kinds of partials

A
  1. transitional/interim partials
  2. definitive patials
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10
Q

what type of partial has a transitional time period

A

transitional/interim

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11
Q

what type of partial lacks a metal infrastructure

A

transitional/interim

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12
Q

what type of partial uses wrought wires (PGP, SS)

A

transitional/interim

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13
Q

what type of partial is used long term

A

definitive partial

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14
Q

what type of partial has a metal infrastructure

A

definitive partials

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15
Q

what type of partial uses cast metal (CoCr)

A

definitive partials

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16
Q

what type of partial uses autopolymerizing PMMA and leads to discolorization?

A

transitional/interim partials

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17
Q

what type of partials has versatility in adjustments and is placed at time of extraction?

A

transitional/interim partials

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18
Q

what type of partial uses heat cured PMMA, has not discolorization but shrinks a little

A

definitive partials

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19
Q

what type of partial is difficult to adjust in metal and is used after healing is complete?

A

definitive partials

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20
Q

during an acute phase, what type of limited treatment can be completed

A

replace teeth for esthetics

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21
Q

what prosthesis can you create for disease control

A

transitional prosthesis

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22
Q

what does tx planning for patients include

A
  1. chief concern
  2. medical and dental history
  3. findings
  4. diagnosis (physiologic, structural, psychologic)
  5. tx plan options
  6. tx
  7. prognosis
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23
Q

what should be done before definitive PRDP tx

A
  1. periodontally stable dentition
  2. orthodontic tx
  3. individualized tooth restored to stabilize arch
  4. FDP needed
  5. pre-proshtetic surgery completed
  6. articulated casts/occlusal plane established
  7. PRDP
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24
Q

goals of PRDP tx

A
  1. promotion of oral health (stabilize the individual arch)
  2. organize inter arch function by control of inter arch contacts
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25
Q

6 phases of partial denture service

A
  1. pt education
  2. tx planning to include PRDP design
  3. support for distal extension bases
  4. establishment of occlusal relations
  5. initial placement (delivery)
  6. post-insertion care and recall
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26
Q

what is the study of dental caries and their development

A

cariology

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27
Q

are caries a transmissible infection

A

YES

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28
Q

acidogenic bacteria

A
  1. mutans streptococci
  2. lactobacilli
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29
Q

“warriors”

A

teeth
armor: carbonated HAP

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30
Q

“defense strategies”

A
  1. remineralization
  2. protective factors
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31
Q

“invaders”

A

acidogenic bacteria

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32
Q

“strategic attacks”

A
  1. disease indicators
  2. biological or environmental risk factors
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33
Q

medical model of caries

A

transmissible and infectious disease

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34
Q

T/F: one must treat pt by noting their specific oral health state. disease must be in mangeable condition

A

TRUE

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35
Q

what can be used to determine caries risk assessment

A
  1. software-based prediction tools
  2. medicaid program CRA tools
  3. CAMBRA
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36
Q

examples of software-base prediction tools

A
  1. cariogram
  2. previser
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37
Q

what does CAMBRA include

A
  1. ICDAS/ICCMS
  2. ADA/AAPD -> FDA
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38
Q

what does CAMBRA stand for

A

caries management by risk assessment

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39
Q

when was the latest CAMBRA publication

A

January 2019

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40
Q

the caries management protocol assesses and documents baseline caries as ___, ___, ___, or ___ utilizing a standardized ___

A

low, moderate, high, extreme

CRA form

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41
Q

caries risk components of CAMBRA

A
  1. disease indicators
  2. biological or environmental risk factors
  3. protective factors
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42
Q

xerostomia + disease indictor = ___

A

extreme risk

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43
Q

disease indicators

A
  1. cavitated lesions or radiographic evidence of progression into dentin
  2. white spot lesions on smooth surfaces
  3. radiographic evidence of non-cavitated demineralization into enamel
  4. existing restoration placed due to caries in the last three years for new patient or the last year for a patient of record
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44
Q

does one or more disease indicators classify a new patient to be high risk?

A

YES

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45
Q

are patients of record high risk if disease indicators present themselves?

A

YES

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46
Q

___ automatically places the patient in at least the moderate risk

A

ortho/RPD

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47
Q

examples of biological/environmental risk factors

A
  1. heavy plaque
  2. frequent snacking
  3. medications causing xerostomia
  4. reduced salivary function - low flow rate
  5. deep pits and fissures
  6. recreational drug use
  7. exposed tooth roots
  8. ortho/RPD
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48
Q

T/F: even if patient doesn’t present xerostomia, if taking a medication with the risk, it bumps pt up to higher risk

A

TRUE

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49
Q

stimulate vs. unstimulated low flow rate

A

stimulated: whole saliva </= 0.7 mL/min

unstimulated: whole saliva <0.1 mL/min

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50
Q

what factors mostly deal w/ topical fluoride usage

A

protective factors

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51
Q

examples of protective factors

A
  1. fluoridated drinking water
  2. fluoride toothpaste once daily
  3. fluoride toothpaste twice daily
  4. high concentration prescription fluoride twice daily
  5. fluoride varnish applied in last 6 months
  6. uses 0.05% sodium fluoride mouthrinse daily
  7. uses 0.12% CHX gluconate mouthrinse daily for one week each month
  8. adequate salivary flow
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52
Q

“yes” in column 1 of CAMBRA indicates

A

indicates high or extreme risk (due to having disease indicators)

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53
Q

“yes” in column 2 and 3 of CAMBRA indicates

A

consideration of caries balance (due to biological or ennvironmental factors (2) and protective factors (3))

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54
Q

disease indicators

A

WREB

White spots
Restorations: 3 years
Enamel lesions
Cavities/dentin

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55
Q

risk/biological factors

A

BADREDO

Bad bacteria
Absence of saliva
Dietary habits poor
Recreational drug usage
Exposed root surfaces
Deep pits and fissures
Ortho/RPD

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56
Q

protective factors

A

SAFE

Saliva and sealants
Antibacterials
Fluoride
Effective diet

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57
Q

what are the different intervals for recall and review appropriate to caries risk status

A

low: 12 months
moderate: 6 months
high: 4-6 months
extreme: 3-4 months

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58
Q

what should you do at a recall according to caries management protocol

A

reassess and document caries risk level and modify treatment plan as necessary

e.g. high and extreme need antibacterial therapy, dietary modification, fluoride therapy and minimally invasive restorative procedures

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59
Q

what should be done prior to definitive treatment

A

complete a designated re-evalulation appt after disease control

don’t simply move to definitive tx phase unless proof of stable environment

every appt is a chance for re-evaluation and education, including limited exams (change of meds/med conditions, modifications in oral hygiene)

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60
Q

what should be closely followed once definitive tx has begun?

A

with past dental hx in mind:
radiographs and caries risk assessments at periodic interbals
1. ortho/RPDS
2. med chances
3. dexterity changes
4. OH habit changes

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61
Q

how is caries risk a dynamic process

A

it involves evaluation at baseline and specific time intervals
- track record
- open patient communication (2 way convo)
- patient oriented care

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62
Q

are caries risk level/caries disease indicators significantly reduced in CAMBRA prevention group?

A

YES

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63
Q

can principles and philosophy of CAMBRA could be successfully implemented into academic and dental practice environments

64
Q

ICDAS

A

international caries detection and assessment system

2002 expert panel

65
Q

ICCMS

A

international caries classification and management system

2013-2014 workshops and symposia

66
Q

ICCMS goals

A
  1. translate current understanding of pathogenesis, prevention, and control of caries
  2. comprehensive assessment and personalized (holistic) caries care plan
  3. manage risk factors by periodic monitoring and reviewing
67
Q

ICCMS disease indicators and behavioral risk factors are similar to what

A

CAMBRA biological factors

68
Q

ADA subscribes to what philosophy

A

CAMBRA philosophy

  • low risk: only conditions in low risk
  • moderate risk: only conditions in low risk and/or moderate risk columns
  • high risk: one or more conditions in the high risk column present
69
Q

protective factors of ADA CRA

A
  1. fluoride exposure
  2. dental home
70
Q

environmental factors of ADA CRA

A
  1. sugary foods or drinks
  2. special health care needs
  3. chemo/radiation therapy
  4. eating disorders
  5. medications that reduce salivary flow
  6. drug/alcohol abuse
  7. visible plaque
  8. unsual tooth morph
  9. exposed root surfaces
  10. dental/ortho appliance
  11. severe dry mouth/xerostomia
71
Q

disease indicators of ADA CRA

A
  1. cavitates or non-cavitated carious lesions or restorations
  2. teeth missing due to caries in past 36 months
  3. interproximal restorations (1 or more)
  4. restorations with overhangs and/or open margins, open contacts with food impaction
72
Q

who should complete posterior bitewing exam at 6-12 month intervals if proximal surfaces cannot be examined visually or with a probe

A

recall pt w/ clinical caries or at increased risk for caries

child w/ primary dentition, child w/ transitional dentition, adolescent w/ permanent dentition

73
Q

who should complete posterior bitewing exam at 6-18 month intervals

A

recall pt w/ clinical caries or at increased risk for caries

adult, dentate or partially edentulous

74
Q

who should complete posterior bitewing exam at 12-24 month intervals if proximal surface cannot be examined visually w a probe

A

recall patients w NO clinical caries and NOT at increased risk for caries

child w/ primary dentition, child with transitional dentition

75
Q

who should complete posterior bitewing exam at 18-36 month intervals

A

recall patients w NO clinical caries and NOT at increased risk for caries

adolescent w/ permanent dentition

76
Q

who should complete posterior bitewing exam at 24-36 month intervals

A

recall patients w NO clinical caries and NOT at increased risk for caries

adult, dentate, or partially edentulous

77
Q

do all sophomore textbooks specifically subscribe to CAMBRA philosophy?

A

NO! but are utilizing caries-risk info in same way

78
Q

is caries stopped/controlled by placing a restoration?

A

NO! must stop downward restoration at source - treat the disease not just the symptoms

79
Q

what are the most important factors in predicting future caries activity

A

recent caries experience and current disease activity

80
Q

what is the process of incorporating pt wants, needs, and desires and the appropriate tx options based on evidence and clinical experience to reach a mutually acceptable tx

A

treatment planning

81
Q

what is a path of logical and organized sequential steps to achieve tx plan

A

sequencing

82
Q

phases of treatment planning

A
  1. systemic review
  2. phase 1: limited tx
  3. phase 2: disease control
  4. phase 3: comprehensive/definitive tx
  5. phase 4: recall/maintenance
83
Q

what occurs during systemic review

A
  1. patient chief concern
  2. health/dental histories
  3. decision made to continue, alter, or delay tx based on health and other factors
84
Q

what occurs during phase 1 - limited tx

A
  1. address chief concern if: pain, swelling, trauma, etc. present
  2. treatment options: extraction, I&D, pulpotomy/pulpectomy, full mouth debridement
85
Q

what occurs during phase 2 - disease control

A
  1. operative - all carious lesions
  2. Endo - RCT
  3. Perio - IPT/prophy/OHI
  4. fixed pros - core buildups
  5. removable pros
86
Q

the attempted elimination of any and all disease processes thru removal and/or repair occur during what phase

A

phase 2 - disease control

87
Q

patient education and acceptance plays a major role and needs to be accomplished prior to definitive tx during what phase

A

phase 2 - disease control

*food for thought, not official CUSOD position

88
Q

do not proceed to phase 3 of tx planning until what

A

until phase 2 completed and pt has been re-evaluated

89
Q

what occurs during phase 3 - comprehensive/definitive

A
  1. operative - cosmetic
  2. fixed prosth
  3. removable prosth
  4. endo - intentional
90
Q

you must make sure what happens during phase 3 before proceeding to phase 4

A

make sure pt is healed

91
Q

what occurs during phase 4 of tx planning

A
  1. annual denture/RPD checks
  2. periodontal maintenance
  3. prophy
92
Q

are phases of tx planning a steadfast rule?

A

NO. It is a concept and guide

93
Q

why classify PRDPs

A
  • design features based on classification
  • mental image of design can be made prior to surveying cast
  • improve communication
94
Q

requirements of acceptable method of classification

A
  • permit immediate visualization of type of partial edentulous arch
  • permit immediate differentiation between tooth-borne and tooth-tissue supported PRDP
  • should be univerally acceptable
95
Q

Kennedy/Applegate classification of RPD

A
  • most posterior space determines class
  • other spaces are modifications
  • modifications are simply counted
  • classification based on partial design
96
Q

does a Kennedy/Applegate Class IV have a modification space

97
Q

Kennedy Class I

A

bilateral spaces distal to teeth

98
Q

Kennedy Class II

A

unilateral space distal to teeth

99
Q

Kennedy Class III

A

unilateral space between teeth (e.g. just #9)

100
Q

Kennedy Class IV

A

bilateral space between teeth (crosses midline e.g. missing #7, 8, 9, 10)

101
Q

Kratochvil/Krol classification for Kennedy Class I

A

Tooth/tissue
(bilateral spaces distal to teeth)

102
Q

Kratochvil/Krol classification for Kennedy Class II

A

tooth/tissue
(unilateral space distal to teeth)

103
Q

Kratochvil/Krol classification for Kennedy Class III

A

tooth
(unilateral space between teeth)

104
Q

Kratochvil/Krol classification for Kennedy Class IV

A

tooth
(bilateral space between teeth crossing midline)

105
Q

Which Kennedy Class has a fulcrum line/axis of rotation

A

Kennedy Class I and II (but sometimes III and IV)

106
Q

fulcrum/axis of rotation occurs on which tooth?

A

most distal tooth

107
Q

what is the resiliency of mucosa

A

0.2mm - 2mm

108
Q

when would there be a fulcrum line on a Kennedy Class IV

A

extensive anterior loss
would be present on most anterior tooth NOT distal

109
Q

if there is extensive Kennedy Class IV, how could we make it a more favorable situation

A

place tooth/implants anteriorly for support

110
Q

the number of partially edentulous pt restored w/ dental implants is expected to plateau at ___ of those potentially in need of service

111
Q

reasons why implant therapy is not provided

A
  1. pt not suitable candidate due to lacking sufficient bone volume
  2. pt is happy w/ RPD
  3. pt declined surgery when described the nature of procedure
  4. some studies show implant support FDP vs RPDs are equally effective in improving chewing
112
Q

why can’t implants be used in posterior quadrants

A

due to pneumatization of max sinus or insufficient bone over inferior alveolar n.

113
Q

why do short, wide-diameter implants not have an acceptable level of success

A

lack of length and lack of width of alveolar bone to enclose the implant

114
Q

treatment objectives for partially edentulous patient

A
  1. stabilize individual arch and protect remaining hard and soft tissues
  2. organize interarch functions (proper occlusal vertical dimension, occlusal plane, and centric occlusal contact) and esthetics
115
Q

methods of restoring and stabilizing partially edentulous arch

A
  1. repositioning teeth
  2. individual restorations
  3. fixed dental prostheses
  4. osseointegrated implants
  5. RPDs
116
Q

what is necessary for long-term successful treatment outcomes of RPD

A
  1. supporting structures of residual dentition and mucosa of bone of edentulous bearing surfaces
  2. establishing proper plane of occlusion
117
Q

components of RPD

A
  1. rests
  2. major connectors
  3. minor connector
  4. proximal plates
  5. denture base connectors
  6. retainers
  7. denture base
118
Q

what controls the relationship of the prosthesis to supporting structurs and are contoured and positioned to direct occlusal force along long axis of abutment teeth

119
Q

what is a rigid extension of partial denture that contacts a remaining tooth in prepared seat to transmit vertical or horizontal forces

120
Q

what joins the components of RPD on one side of arch to those on opposite side

A

major connectors

121
Q

what are rigid and provide cross-arch stability for RPD and in some instances enhance support

A

major connectors

122
Q

what is the connecting link between major connector of RPD and other units of prosthesis (e.g. clasp assembly, indirect retainers, occlusal rests, or cingulum rests)

A

minor connector

123
Q

what are strong, rigid components of RPD that provide stability and can be used to facilitate frictional retention when proximal surfaces are recontoured to be parallel to guiding surfaces

A

minor connector

124
Q

what is an extension of minor connector in contact with proximal surface of abutment tooth

A

proximal plates

125
Q

what maintains arch integrity by anteroposterior bracing action

A

proximal plate

126
Q

according to Kratochvil, ___ are extended to cover gingival margin and extend approximately 2 mm beyond tooth-mucosa junction onto edentulous area

A

proximal plates

127
Q

what is part of the RPD to which resin denture base is connected

A

denture base connectors

128
Q

what provides strong rigid support structure for attachment of acrylic resin portion of prosthesis containing teeth

A

denture base connectors

129
Q

what is the component of RPD used to prevent dislodgement, usually consisting of clasp assembly or precision attachment

130
Q

can retainers provide both retention and stability

131
Q

what does a properly designed retainer control

A

position of prosthesis in relation to remaining teeth and supporting structures

132
Q

what is the part of the denture that rests on edentulous bearing surfaces and to which denture teeth are attached

A

denture base

133
Q

where does a properly extended denture base does what

A

significantly enhances support for RPD and limit resorption of underlying bone

134
Q

is it possible to fabricate RPD frameworks with CAM techniques with accuracy and consistency necessary for clinical use

A

NOT YET since traditionally “subtractive” but now using additive manufacturing (selective laser melting) techniques with more reasonable accuracy

135
Q

what is the most cost effective and accurate means of obtaining a full arch master case

A

conventional impressions but AM/selective laser melting will become increasingly cost-effective over time

136
Q

what is required of the patient to achieve oral hygiene levels necssary to maintain health of dentition and properly care for prosthesis

A

patient compliance and reasonable hand-eye coordination

137
Q

at what level should clinician be seated when soliciting chief complaint, history, med/dent hx etc? why?

A

in a chair where both clinician and pt are at same eye level. pt can feel threatened if clinican is standing over or above

138
Q

what factors must be addressed and resolved to achieve a successful clinical outcome

A
  1. pt must have will to adjust to and use removable prosthesis
  2. prosthesis must be accepted as part of body
  3. clinican must take the pt’s need and turn it into a WANT
139
Q

should you promise that you can restore the patient to his or her original functional capabilities with use of RPD

A

NO! give assurance that you will do utmost to maintain health of remaining oral structures to limit further degradation

140
Q

if a posterior abutment is present and these teeth are immobile, the span and perio support are favorable, and the crown-root ratios are 1:1 or better, what is the most appropriate option?

A

fixed dental prosthesis (FDP)

141
Q

if abutments are unrestored or minimally restored and defect spans a single tooth, what is the best choice

A

single implant

142
Q

if a distal molar abutment is angled in excess of 25 degrees in any direction, what is an appropriate tx

A

orthodontic tx prior to proceeding w/ fabrication of RPD

143
Q

stable and ideal occlusion for pt restored w/ residual natural dentition supplemented w/ RPDs is characterized by (4)

A
  1. stable stops on all teeth when condyles are in seated position (CR)
  2. anterior guidance in harmony w/ border movements of envelope of function
  3. disocclusion of all posterior teeth during protrusive movements
  4. disocclusion of all posterior teeth during laterotrusive movements
144
Q

if patient has lost occlusal vertical dimension (OVD) secondary to wear, erosion or loss of posterior stops, how can it be restored

145
Q

what are the posterior landmarks for occlusal plane

A

retromolar pads so must be recorded w/ preliminary impression and diagnostic casts

146
Q

what is the anterior landmark of the occlusal plane dictated by

A

esthetics and phonetics and therefore by the position of anterior teeth when arches are positioned at appropriate OVD

147
Q

what is the most common disrupter of the occlusal plane

A

lone standing posterior molar - may be tilted, supererupted, and elongated to create satisfactory plane of occlusion ( can also grind or reshape teeth)

148
Q

prior to making impressions for diagnostic casts, what is necessary so contours of dentition and soft tissues can be recorded w/ precision

A

thorough prophylaxis to remove plaque and debris

149
Q

impressions needed for creating RPD must include what?

A
  1. both arches
  2. all teeth and soft tissues engaged by RPD
  3. buccal shelf, retromolar pad, hamular notches and maxillary tuberosities
  4. contours of floor of mouth and extend to vestibule
  5. facebow and maxillomandibular records in CR
  6. OVD
150
Q

sequence of treatment (intraoral prep) for RPD

A
  1. tx of abnormal or inflamed soft tissues of edentulous denture-bearing surfaces
  2. preprosthetic surgical procedures
  3. diagnostic wax-up
  4. periodontal tx as necessary
  5. endo tx as neccessary
  6. ortho tx as necessary
  7. tooth modifications
  8. needed restorations
  9. procedures for prosthesis fabrication
151
Q

inflammatory hyperplasia or inflammation of tissues associated w/ existing prosthesis is triggered by what?

A
  1. lack of positive rests on existing prosthesis
  2. fungal infections
  3. poor adaptation of existing prosthesis to edentulous denture-bearing surfaces
  4. hyperocclusion of existing prosthesis
152
Q

preprosthetic surgical procedures

A
  1. teeth - non serviceable should be removed as soon as possible
  2. bone - large tori should be removed if presence makes it difficult to fabricate a properly designed RPD
  3. mucosa - hypertrophy of soft tissue can lead to insufficient spacing
  4. crown lengthening - esp in younger patients bc they lack sufficient undercuts in strategic locations of abutment teeth to retain RPD
153
Q

mobility of teeth may be triggered by combination of:

A
  1. inflammation
  2. occlusal disharmonies
  3. lack of bone support
  4. loss of arch integrity
154
Q

are endodontically treated teeth good abutments for extension-base RPDs

A

no, especially teeth w/ rests that control axis of rotation

155
Q

are endodontically treated root fragments useful when strategically located

156
Q

recording the final plan of tx

A
  1. RPD design drawn on casts in red pencil
  2. areas of tooth alteration marked on casts in blue
  3. all restorative procedures marked as appropriate
  4. all restorative procedures marked in proper sequence