SESSION 1 Flashcards

1
Q

According to NICE guidelines, what is the preferred dosing regimen for Gentamicin?

A

Once daily dosing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the recommended monitoring for patients receiving Gentamicin?

A

Serum creatinine
Serum aminoglycosides concentrations
Auditory and vestibular function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the maximum duration of Gentamicin therapy recommended by NICE?

A

7 days
Dont give for longer than 5 days without discussion with department of infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Fill in the blank: Gentamicin should be dosed based on the patient’s _____________.

A

Ideal body weight (unless they are underweight!)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following is a potential side effect of Gentamicin therapy? A) Nausea B) Ototoxicity C) Rash D) Headache

A

B) Ototoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the recommended route of administration for Gentamicin according to NICE?

A

Intravenous/IM or topical
Not absorbed well from the gut as its poorly lipid-soluble!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Fill in the blank: Gentamicin is primarily excreted by the _____________.

A

Kidneys.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following is a contraindication for Gentamicin therapy? A) Renal impairment B) Hypertension C) Diabetes D) Asthma

A

A) Renal impairment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Gentamicin?

A

Targets the bacterial 30s ribosomal subunit which inhibits normal ribosomal functioning and blocks bacterial protein synthesis = cell death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What class of antibiotic is gentamicin?

A

Aminoglycoside.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the recommended duration of Gentamicin therapy for serious infections?

A

7-10 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

True or False: Gentamicin is safe to use in pregnant women.

A

False - small risk of auditory or vestibular nerve damage in the infant when aminoglycosides are used in the second and third trimesters of pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the primary concern when prescribing Gentamicin to elderly patients?

A

Risk of nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following is a common indication for Gentamicin therapy? A) Urinary tract infections B) Influenza C) Malaria D) Tuberculosis

A

A) Urinary tract infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the recommended dosing interval for Gentamicin in patients with normal renal function?

A

Once daily.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following is a common adverse effect of Gentamicin therapy? A) Diarrhea B) Hypertension C) Tinnitus D) Insomnia

A

C) Tinnitus
Aminoglycosides are ototoxic and this is usually irreversible - bear in mind its rare if <2 weeks of Tx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

True or False: Gentamicin is effective against anaerobic bacteria.

A

False
This is because aminoglycosides require oxygen-dependant transport to enter the bacterial cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the recommended peak serum level for Gentamicin therapy?

A

5-10 mg/L.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How does once-daily dosing work for gentamicin?

A

Gentamicin dose is given according to IBW (unless underweight then 7mg/kg). The serum levels are then monitored 6-14 hours after the start of infusion. The dose interval is then adjusted according to the Hartford nomogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How does once-daily dosing work for gentamicin?

A

Gentamicin dose is given according to IBW (unless underweight then 7mg/kg). The serum levels are then monitored 6-14 hours after the start of infusion. The dose interval is then adjusted according to the Hartford nomogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Dose of gentamicin?

A

5-7mg/kg if once-daily dosing
3-5mg/kg if multiple daily dose regimen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Absolute contraindication of aminoglycosides?

A

Myasthenia gravis - can induce a myasthenic crisis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How does gentamicin cause ototoxicity?

A

Irreversibly damages auditory or vestibular nerve damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How does gentamicin cause nephrotoxicity?

A

In renal failure gentamicin accumulates and is preferentially taken up by proximal renal tubular cells where they accumulate to toxic levels and cause ATN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Concominant use of which drugs increases the risk of nephrotoxicity with gentamicin?
Furosemide and NSAIDs
26
Concominant use of which drugs increases the risk of ototoxicity with gentamicin?
Vancomycin
27
What happens if you miss taking a gentamicin level for monitoring within the 6-14 hour window?
You cannot interpret the results using the Hartford nomogram You can only give gentamicin once the serum level falls below 1mg/L and NEVER give gentamicin less than 24 hours after previous dose! If >1 gentamicin level is missed then discuss with dept of infection
28
Outline the multiple daily dosing regimen of gentamicin?
3 doses are given in 24 hours i.e. every 8 hours. Peak levels of gentamicin are taken 1 hour from start of infusion - should be 5-10mg/L and if too high then dose of gentamicin is reduced Trough levels are taken within 30 minutes before next dose is due to determine how well gentamicin is being cleared from the body. Should be <2mg/L and if too high then dose interval should be extended!! Note ranges are different in endocarditis
29
What are schedule 1 drugs?
includes drugs not used medicinally such as hallucinogenic drugs (e.g. LSD), ecstasy-type substances, raw opium, and cannabis
30
What are schedule 2 drugs?
includes opiates (e.g. diamorphine hydrochloride (heroin), morphine, methadone hydrochloride, oxycodone hydrochloride, pethidine hydrochloride), major stimulants (e.g. amfetamines), quinalbarbitone (secobarbital), cocaine, ketamine, and cannabis-based products for medicinal use in humans
31
What are schedule 3 drugs?
includes the barbiturates (except secobarbital, now Schedule 2), buprenorphine, gabapentin, mazindol, meprobamate, midazolam, pentazocine, phentermine, pregabalin, temazepam, and tramadol hydrochloride. They are subject to the special prescription requirements
32
What are schedule 4 drugs?
includes in Part I drugs that are subject to minimal control, such as benzodiazepines (except temazepam and midazolam, which are in Schedule 3), non-benzodiazepine hypnotics (zaleplon, zolpidem tartrate, and zopiclone) and Sativex®. Part II includes androgenic and anabolic steroids, clenbuterol, chorionic gonadotrophin (HCG), non-human chorionic gonadotrophin, somatotropin, somatrem, and somatropin. Controlled drug prescription requirements do not apply and Schedule 4 Controlled Drugs are not subject to safe custody requirements.
33
What are schedule 5 drugs?
includes preparations of certain Controlled Drugs (such as codeine, pholcodine, or morphine) which due to their low strength, are exempt from virtually all Controlled Drug requirements other than retention of invoices for two years, and nitrous oxide.
34
What are FP10 forms?
Green forms for prescribing in the community by GPs
35
What is an FP10MDA form?
A blue form for prescribers to use to manage substance misuse pts i.e. prescription to be given in installments
36
What are FP10D forms?
Yellow forms for prescribing by dentists
37
What are FP10SP or FP10PN forms?
lilac prescribing forms for community/independant nurse prescriptions
38
What are RA and RD FD10 forms?
RA = repeat authorisation forms RD = repeat dispensing forms
39
When is writing the DOB on a prescription a legal requirement?
When a child is under the age of 12
40
How many pt identifiers must be on a prescription?
3
41
What are P drugs?
a personal or preferred or priority choice drug of a clinician
42
How to decide if IV antibiotics should be changed to oral?
Use COMS: Is there… Clinical improvement Oral route not compromised Markers improving Specific indication
43
Antibiotic stewardship points?
Appropriateness of antimicrobial prescribing Prevention of inappropriate antimicrobial use Prevention of adverse effects of antibiotic therapy Surveillance of antimicrobial use and AMR trends Education of healthcare professionals and patients Development of novel antimicrobials
44
Which diuretics are most commonly associated with gout in pts with hypertension?
Loop diuretics ??/ ask about this I’m confused as thought it was thiazides
45
Adverse effects of warfarin?
Haemorrhage Alopecia Nausea & vomiting Skin necrosis Purple toes
46
Factors that may potentiate warfarin?
liver disease P450 enzyme inhibitors, e.g.: amiodarone, antibiotics, Azoles, PPIs, sodium valproate, grapefruit cranberry juice drugs which displace warfarin from plasma albumin, e.g. NSAIDs inhibit platelet function: NSAIDs
47
Factors that may reduce the function of warfarin?
P450 enzyme inducers e.g. alcohol, azathioprine, carbamazepine, griseofulvin, mercaptopurine, phenobarbital, phenytoin, rifampicin, St John’s wort, cigarettes, steroids
48
Most appropriate monitoring option to assess for adverse effects of morphine?
AVPU
49
Adverse effects of amiodarone?
thyroid dysfunction: both hypothyroidism and hyper-thyroidism corneal deposits pulmonary fibrosis/pneumonitis liver fibrosis/hepatitis peripheral neuropathy, myopathy photosensitivity 'slate-grey' appearance thrombophlebitis and injection site reactions bradycardia lengths QT interval
50
Monitoring specifically for agranulocytosis for a pt on clozapine?
Differential WBC monitoring weekly for 18 weeks Then fortnightly for up to 1 year Then monthly (Note there’s a lot more monitoring for clozapine this is just for the agranulocytosis)
51
How common is a dry cough for pts on ACEi? When does it start after Tx start?
15% of pts Can occur even up to 1 year after starting drug
52
Analgesia for pt with renal stones?
NSAIDs are first line (IM diclofenac has been used traditionally but consider risk of cardiovascular events)
53
What does it mean if a pt with hypothyroidism has the following results: TSH is high but free T4 is normal What should you do?
It could indicate poor compliance or intermittent dosing Reinforce medication compliance and repeat TFTs in 6-8 weeks
54
MOA of carbamazepine?
Binds to Na+ channels to increase the refractory period and reduce firing
55
Tx for trigeminal neuralgia?
Carbamazepine 100mg PO 12-hourly some patients may require higher initial dose, increase gradually according to response; usual dose 200 mg 3–4 times a day, increased if necessary up to 1.6 g daily
56
SE of carbamazepine?
Dizziness & drowsiness Dry mouth Fatigue GI discomfort Ataxia Headache Visual disturbances Steven-Johnson syndrome and other skin reactions Leukopenia, thrombocytopenia & Agranulocytosis Hyponatraemia secondary to SIADH
57
Tx of suspected meningitis in the community prior to urgent transfer to hospital or where pt cannot be transferred to hospital ?
1.2g IM benzylpenicillin for adult (Children doses different)
58
Drop rate (drops/min) calculation?
{Drop factor (drops/mL) x volume to be infused (mL)} / {all divided by time of infusion (mins)}
59
What must all prescriptions contain?
State the name and address of the patient Be written or printed legibly in ink Be signed in indelible ink Have an appropriate date (usually the date of signing) State the address of the prescriber State the age of a child under 12
60
Which units must always be written in full?
Micro grams Nanograms International units
61
At what Cr clearance should you not use the once-daily dosing regimen for gentamicin?
if Cr clearance is <20ml/min