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Server 2012 R2 > Server 2012 R2- Install and Configure Server 2012 R2 > Flashcards

Server 2012 R2- Install and Configure Server 2012 R2 Flashcards

1
Q

This protocol allows a host to find clients within the local subnet. It can be used with IPv4 and IPv6 and uses multicasts instead of broadcasts.
A. DNS
B. HOSTS file
C. Link-local Multicast Name Resolution (LLMNR)
D. DNS suffix search list

A

C. Link-local multicast Name Resolution (LLMNR)

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2
Q

A client needs to find a domain name that is not part of the local domain. The DNS server is not authoritative for the domain the client is trying to find and does not have any forwarders to it. What two things must be done for the DNS server to forward the request?

A

The root zone must be deleted and root hints must be configured.

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3
Q

A forward lookup zone does what?

A. forwards DNS requests to other zones
B. provides hostname-to-ipaddress resolution
C. provides ipaddress-to-hostname resolution

A

B. Provides hostname-to-ipaddress resolution

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4
Q

A domain has three DNS servers. Two servers are the Primary and backup DNS servers. The third needs a read-only copy of the DNS records. What zone should be used?

A

A Secondary Zone.

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5
Q

In Domain contoso.com all DNS servers are also Domain Controllers. All DNS servers need to have the ability to read and write DNS changes to the domain. What type of zone should be used?

A

Active Directory Integrated Zone

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6
Q

DallasServer1.contoso.com has an “A” Record in DNS. It needs to be accessed by a simple name. What record should be created in DNS to facilitate this?

A

A “CNAME” record

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7
Q 
This record is used for reverse lookup and is contained in the in-addr.arpa namespace or the ip6.arpa namespace.
A. "A" Record
B. "AAA" Record
C. "SRV" Record
D. "PTR" Record
A

D. “PTR” Record

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8
Q 
The domain adatum.com utilizes Microsoft and Unix/Linux devices. In order to communicate with UNIX DNS servers, the admin must change the BIND Settings on the Microsoft DNS Server. Where would the BIND properties be found?
A. Forwarders Tab
B. Security Tab
C. Monitoring Tab
D. Advanced Tab
A

D. Advanced Tab

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9
Q 
Client A cannot communicate with ClientB. What command can be used to determine if it is a DNS issues?
A. NSLookup
B. ipconfig
C. Netsh
D. Ping
A

D. Ping

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10
Q 
This Sever version supports up to 64GB of RAM, 25 LAN connections, 250 RRAS or RD Connections.
A. Server 2012 R2 Essentials
B. Server 2012 R2 Standard
C. Server 2012 R2 Enterprise
D. Server 2012 R2 Server Core
A

A. Server 2012 R2 Essentials

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11
Q 
You need to utilize Server 2012 R2 for your company. You need some servers to be Server Core and you need at least 2 Hyper-V gues OS sessions using the same license key as the host. What server edition do you need?
A. Server 2012 R2 Essentials
B. Server 2012 R2 Standard
C. Server 2012 R2 DataCenter
D. Server 2012 R2 Server Core
A

B. Server 2012 R2 Standard

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12
Q 
You are the admin of a large corporation spanning the United States. There are hundreds of servers across each region and you need unlimited Hyper-V guest OS sessions using the same license key as the host. What server edition best fits your situation?
A. Server 2012 R2 Essentials
B. Server 2012 R2 Standard
C. Server 2012 R2 DataCenter
D. Server 2012 R2 Server Core
A

C. Server 2012 R2 DataCenter

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13
Q

A Windows Server 2008 R2 Enterprise or Standard Edition with SP1 can be upgraded to which 2012 edition?

A

Server 2012 R2 Standard or DataCenter

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14
Q

A Windows Web Server 2008 R2 edition can be upgraded to which 2012 edition?

A

Server 2012 R2 Standard

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15
Q 
What DISM module allows you to view installed features on a remote computer?
A. Get-WindowsRemoteFeature
B. Get-WindowsOptionalFeature-Online
C. Get-RemoteOnlineFeature
D. Winrm
A

B. Get-WindowsOptionalFeature-Online

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16
Q

The most secure Server 2012 installation type is which one?

A

Server Core

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17
Q 
What utility is used to display the Server Core Server Configuration Utility?
A. winconfig
B. Get-configutility
C. Sconfig
D. serverconfig
A

C. Sconfig

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18
Q

What command do you use to configure network options on a Server Core installation?
A. netsh
B. ipconfig
C. netconfig

A

A. Netsh

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19
Q 
You want to remotely send commands to a managed server. What command must you run on the managed server?
A. winrm config
B. config winrm
C. manage serverremote
D. winrm quickconfig
A

D. winrm quickconfig

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20
Q 
All Directory data is stored in this file.
A. dir.dit
B. dir.dat
C. ntds.dit
D. ntds.dat
A

C. NTDS.dit

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21
Q

What is the first command used prior to promoting a 2012 server to a Domain Controller?
A. Dcpromo
B. Install-WindowsFeature
C. Install-DomainController

A

B. Install-WindowsFeature

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22
Q

Why should you have a local DC when using Windows Azure?

A

Azure does not support Group Policies

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23
Q

You need to apply a GPO to all computers in the sales department. Twelve of their computers are in the ‘Sales’ OU, two are in the ‘default computers’ OU. The OU is created. What is the next step?

A

The computers in the default computers OU must be moved to the Sales OU. The GPO needs to be applied to the Sales OU.

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24
Q

What variable is used in the Profile Path to create a roaming profile?

A

%username%

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25
Q

Use this command to import and export AD objects. It does not modify existing objects.
A. csvde
B. ldifde
C. import-exportobject

A

A. csvde

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26
Q

You can use this command to alter passwords on already existing accounts. It is used for bulk operations.
A. csvde
B. ldifde
C. modify-password

A

B. ldifde

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27
Q

At what group level should permissions be allied in an AD environment?

A

Domain Local Security Group

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28
Q

At what group level should users be directly joined for security purposes?

A

Global Security Group

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29
Q

What are the 2 modes of NIC Teaming? What are they used for?

A

Switch dependent- increase bandwidth/loadbalancing

Switch independent- failover

30
Q 
This disk type supports spanned, striped and mirrored disks. It supports extending volumes to include non-contiguous space.
A. Fixed Disk
B. Dynamic Disk
C. Expanding Disk
D. Healthy Disk
A

B. Dynamic Disk

31
Q

You need to increase performance and redundancy on your server. Which would you configure?
A. Raid 0
B. Raid 1
C. Raid 5

A

C. Raid 5

32
Q

You need to create a virtual disk that can only be 500 GB in size and is optimized for performance. What type of vdh or vhdx would you use?

A

A fixed disk

Review Chapter 3

33
Q

You need to manage a vhd file using command line. What command would be used?
A. manage-vhd
B. diskpart
C. vhd-manage

A

B. diskpart

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34
Q 
What type of storage layout is used to provide redundancy if two storage devices fail at one time?
A. Raid 5
B. Striped
C. Three-way mirror
D. Raid 10
A

C. Three-way mirror

35
Q

What steps must be done if a thin-provisioned storage space is unmounted due to insufficient space? (choose two).
A. Add physical storage space and allocate it
B. It will automatically detect and remount
C. manually bring it back online
D. Run ‘compress disk’
E. Run ‘cleanup’

A

A. Add physical storage space and allocate it

C. Manually bring it back online

36
Q 
This feature allows a VM to restart even if there is no available physical memory.
A. virtual memory
B. paging memory
C. smart paging
D. vm fixed memory
A

C. Smart paging

Review Chapter 3

37
Q 
How do you enable resource metering on a VM?
A. Enable-resourcemetering
B. Enable-vmresourcemetering
C. resourcemeter-enable
D. start resourcemetering
A

B. Enable-vmresourcemetering

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38
Q 
What command is used to check VM resource usage?
A. Get-vmusage
B. Check-vmresourceusage
C. Measure-vm
D. Measure-resourceusage
A

C. Measure-vm

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39
Q 
You need to create a VM that allows PXE boot using standard network adapter. What generation VM do you need and what type of VM file is used?
A. 1st generation, vhdx
B. 1st generation, vhd
C. 2nd generation, vhd
D. 2nd generation, vhdx
A

D. 2nd generation, vhdx

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40
Q

What command is used to create a snapshot of a running VM?
A. Checkpoint-vm
B. Snapshot-vm
C. Create-vmsnapshot

A

A. checkpoint-vm

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41
Q 
Several VMs need to communicate with each other and with the host OS, but not the physical network. What network type should be utilized?
A. Public
B. Private
C. Internal
D. External
A

C. Internal

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42
Q 
What option must be configured to allow a guest OS to use a physical network adapter directly?
A. resource sharing
B. VM tools
C. Single Root/IO Virtualization
D. Virtual Network Sharing
A

C. Single Root/IO Virtualization (SR-IOV)

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43
Q 
What are the 2 network adapter types in generation 2 VMs? (choose 2)
A. Standard
B. Legacy
C. Ether channel
D. Fibre channel
A

A. Standard
D. Fibre channel

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44
Q 
You have five network adapter. All traffic coming into adapter 1 must be monitored. What network feature is needed to evaluate the traffic?
A. Port security
B. Port mirroring
C. Root guard
D. Failover
A

B. Port mirroring

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45
Q

What is used in order to control the throughput of data to the virtual disks?

A

Input/Output operations per second (IOPS)

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46
Q

You have a server named Shared1 that has a directory of shared folders. There is a parent folder named Sales and a subfolder named Contracts. You need to disinherit permissions from Sales on the Contracts folder for the NTFS options. Where do you go?
A. Sharing tab and Advanced Sharing
B. Security tab and Advanced
C. Security tab and Edit

A

B. Security tab and Advanced

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47
Q

You need to copy a folder and keep all NTFS permissions. What command will do this?

A

Robocopy or xcopy

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48
Q

You need to prevent users from seeing folders that they have no permissions to. What feature you do you need to enable?

A

Access Based Enumeration

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49
Q

Where do you go to enable or disable Access Based Enumeration (ABE)?
A. File Share permissions
B. File and Storage Services in Server Management
C. Share and Storage Management in Server Management

A

B. File and Storage Services in Server Management

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50
Q

Users often complain that they must contact an admin to recover files on the shared drive because of accidental deletion or changes. What feature would allow users to restore files and folders to previous versions quickly?

A

Volume Shadow Copy

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51
Q

Permissions for file shares are effective between the NTFS and Share permissions. Where are the permissions normally granted to control access to the shared files?

A

NTFS

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52
Q 
If User1 has NTFS Read & Write access to a folder and only has Read access in the share permissions, what permissions does User1 have when accessing the folder through the network?
A. Read & Write
B. Read
C. None
D. Full Control
A

B. Read

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53
Q 
You are creating a new shared folder using the New Share Wizard. Your environment consists primarily of Windows systems, however there are several UNIX systems that need access to the shares. What protocol should be used to create the share?
A. SMB
B. NFS
C. NTFS
D. UBX
A

B. NFS

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54
Q 
Server1 has a FQDN that is publicly registered. You are required to set-up a system where the CEO and Branch Chiefs can access their work folders from their mobile devices. What do you need to enable for this to work?
A. Shared Folders
B. Roaming Profiles
C. Work Folders
D. Cloud Folders
A

C. Work Folders

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55
Q

Server1 is the printer server for contoso.com. Unix devices must print to printers that are shared through Server1. The print spooler service is restarted. What is the next step to ensure full functionality?
A. Nothing, the print spooler is restarted so printing can resume
B. The print server must be rebooted so computers can reconnect
C. The LPDSVC service must be restarted

A

C. The LPDSVC service must be restarted

Review Chapter 7

56
Q 
If you want to reduce the resources on the print server, what option should you enable in the print Sharing tab?
A. List in the directory
B. Render print jobs on client computers
C. Additional Drivers
D. Cache print jobs in the printer
A

B. Render print jobs on client computers

Review Chapter 7

57
Q

This feature allows clients to send print jobs to a single printer, and the print server chooses from multiple printers to send the job to.

A

Printer pooling

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58
Q

All users need rights to print and are granted the Print permission. Dave is the designated HR admin and needs the ability to make changes to printer properties. What permission does Dave need?
A. Manage Printer
B. Manage Documents
C. Creator Owner

A

A. Manage Printer

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59
Q 
The Sales Branch Manager shares a printer with the rest of the Sales Department. When preparing documents for meetings with the CEO he constantly has to wait for the printer, causing delays in high level meetings. What feature in Print Management needs to be configured to allow him to have a higher priority than the other users?
A. Printer Permissions
B. Printer Pooling
C. Multiple Printer Objects
D. Deploy with Group Policy
A

C. Multiple Printer Objects

Review Chapter 7

60
Q 
Your Organization uses Group Policy to manage configuration settings for users and computers. You need to add an option to disallow users the ability to Shut the System down. What setting category would you go configure?
A. Account Policies
B. Local Policies/Security Options
C. Administrative Templates
D. Local Policies/User Rights Assignment
A

D. Local Policies/User Rights Assignment

Review Chapter 8

61
Q 
What GPO setting category would you configure if you need to customize the Start Menu, taskbar or desktop environment?
A. Account Policies
B. Registry
C. Administrative Templates
D. Local Policies/Security Options
A

C. Administrative Templates

Review Chapter 8

62
Q

You use an Administrative Template to create Group Policies. You want other domain administrators to be able to edit the templates. What must you do?

A

Create a Central Store

Review Chapter 8

63
Q

Which of the following are true regarding GPOs?
A. Computer GPOs are applied when the computer boots
B. computer GPOs are applied when the computer is signed into
C. User policies are applied when the computer boots
D. User policies are applied when the computer is signed into
E. GPOs must be linked to a site, domain or OU
F. GPOs are automatically enforced to all OUs

A

A. Computer GPOs are applied when the computer boots
D. User policies are applied when the computer is signed into
E. GPOs must be linked to a site, domain or OU

Review Chapter 8

64
Q

Place the GPOs in the correct order of how they are applied.
A. GPO linked to the domain
B. GPO associated with a site
C. The local Group Policy on the computer
D. GPO linked to the OU

A

C, B, A, D

Review Chapter 8

65
Q

You can use this method of GPOs to dynamically determine the scope of a GPO based on specific data. The script results in a ‘yes’ or ‘no’ response.

A

WMI Filtering

Review Chapter 8

66
Q

All users must use the default domain password policy. The HR department deals with sensitive user data and it was determined they need more stringent password policies to protect PII. All HR personnel belong to the HR Global Security Group. What do you need to do to enforce this?

A

Create a granular password policy (or Password Settings Object)

Review Chapter 8

67
Q

You need to restrict CD-ROM drive access to locally logged on users. Where would you do this?
A. Security settings, Accounts category
B. Security settings, Devices category
C. Security settings, Interactive logon category
D. User rights settings, security category

A

B. Security settings, Devices category

Review Chapter 8

68
Q

You need all users to logon using a standard user name and password. All admins have a separate admin username and password, but are restricted from logging onto systems directly. You need to make sure that performing administrative actions are done with the admin username and password. What do you configure?
A. ‘Behavior of the elevation prompt for administors in Admin Approval Mode’ set to ‘Prompt for consent on the secure desktop’
B. ‘User Account Control: Switch to the secure desktop when prompting for elevation’ set to ‘enabled’
C. ‘Behavior of the elevation prompt for administrators in Admin Approval Mode’ set to ‘Elevate without prompting’

A

A. ‘Behavior of the elevation prompt for administors in Admin Approval Mode’ set to ‘Prompt for consent on the secure desktop’

Review Chapter 8

Server 2012 R2 (1 decks)

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